Purpose Of The Mishap Prevention Program Quiz

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1. (216) Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?

Explanation

A local area network (LAN) is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area. LANs are commonly used in homes, offices, or schools to connect computers and devices together, allowing them to share files, printers, and internet access. Unlike wide area networks (WANs) which cover larger areas and connect multiple LANs together, LANs are limited to a small geographic area such as a single building or campus. Virtual private networks (VPNs) are used to create secure connections over the internet, while metropolitan area networks (MANs) cover larger areas than LANs but smaller areas than WANs.

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2. (216) Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

Explanation

Encryption is the best method for hiding a message in a special code. Encryption converts plain text into cipher text using an algorithm and a key. The cipher text can only be decrypted back into plain text with the correct key, ensuring that unauthorized users cannot understand the message. This method provides confidentiality and protects the data transmitted over the wireless network from being intercepted or understood by unauthorized individuals.

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3. (216) Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?

Explanation

A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. It allows users to securely connect to a private network over a public network, such as the Internet. By encrypting the data and creating a secure connection, a VPN ensures that the information transmitted between the user and the private network remains private and protected from unauthorized access. This makes VPNs a popular choice for remote workers, businesses, and individuals who want to maintain the confidentiality and security of their online activities.

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4. (203) How are fires classified?

Explanation

Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different fuels produce different types of fires, such as Class A fires involving ordinary combustible materials like wood or paper, Class B fires involving flammable liquids or gases, Class C fires involving electrical equipment, and so on. By understanding the fuel type, firefighters and emergency responders can determine the appropriate extinguishing methods and safety precautions to effectively control and extinguish the fire.

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5. (201) What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

Explanation

The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect both resources and personnel from potential harm. This program aims to prevent any damage, loss, injury, or even death that may occur as a result of accidents or mishaps. By implementing safety measures and protocols, the program ensures the well-being and safety of both the organization's assets and its personnel.

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6. (215) Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?

Explanation

A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image. It uses a combination of sensors and light sources to capture the image and then converts it into a digital format that can be stored, edited, or printed. Unlike a printer, which only produces physical copies of digital images or text, a scanner is specifically designed to capture and digitize physical documents or objects. A monitor is a display device, and a camera lens is a component of a camera system, neither of which directly convert physical images into digital format like a scanner does.

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7. (224) What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?

Explanation

The characteristic of cost to install and train technicians is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cable is known for its advantages such as electromagnetic immunity, low attenuation, and security. However, the cost associated with the installation and training of technicians is considered a disadvantage of fiber optic cable.

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8. (211) What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

Explanation

The correct answer is Header Checksum. The Header Checksum portion of the IP Datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them. The checksum is a value calculated from the header contents, and it is included in the header itself. When the receiving IP checks the checksum, it recalculates the value based on the received header and compares it to the included checksum. If they don't match, it means the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the datagram is discarded. This helps ensure the integrity of the IP packets being transmitted over the network.

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9. (203) What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?  

Explanation

The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate fire extinguishing methods and equipment to try and eliminate the fire. It is an important step in preventing the fire from spreading further and causing more damage. Evacuating personnel from the building, calling the fire department, and sounding the fire alarm are also important steps in the firefighting procedure, but they are not specifically mentioned as the fourth step.

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10. (228) Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

Explanation

Spyware is computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It is a type of malicious software that can be installed on a user's computer without their knowledge or permission. Once installed, spyware can track and record a user's online activities, including keystrokes, websites visited, and personal information entered into forms. This information is then sent to a third party without the user's knowledge or consent. Spyware is a serious privacy concern and can lead to identity theft and other forms of cybercrime.

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11. (203) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

Explanation

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers.

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12. (208) What topology offers centralized management of a network?

Explanation

The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which allows for easy monitoring and control of the network. The central hub acts as a central point of control, making it easier to manage and troubleshoot network issues. Additionally, the star topology provides better performance and scalability compared to other topologies like bus or ring, making it a preferred choice for networks that require centralized management.

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13. (203) What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

Explanation

Falls are the greatest hazard in a typical office environment. This is because slips, trips, and falls are common accidents that can lead to serious injuries. Factors such as wet floors, cluttered walkways, improper footwear, and lack of handrails contribute to the risk of falls. It is important for employers to maintain a safe working environment by ensuring proper housekeeping, providing slip-resistant flooring, and promoting awareness among employees to prevent falls.

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14. (223) Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users' own end terminals?

Explanation

End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection as it fully encodes the information all the way from the network to the users' end terminals. This means that the data remains encrypted and secure throughout the entire communication process, making it difficult for any unauthorized parties to access or intercept the information. This type of encryption ensures that only the intended recipients can decrypt and access the data, providing a higher level of privacy and security.

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15. (209) Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body responsible for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. They provide secure and reliable communications and IT services to the DOD and other government agencies. DISA ensures that the DOD's information systems are protected, connected, and capable of supporting military operations. They also play a crucial role in the development and implementation of IT policies and standards for the DOD.

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16. (204) Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

Explanation

The action of applying the risk management process irregularly and continuously is not a part of risk management. Risk management involves accepting no unnecessary risk, making risk decisions at the appropriate level, and integrating risk management into operations and planning at all levels. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would be inconsistent and ineffective in managing risks.

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17. (203) What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

Explanation

When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building to the presence of a fire and allows them to begin evacuating immediately. Evacuating personnel from the building should be the next step, followed by calling the fire department for professional assistance. While extinguishing the fire if possible is a valid action, it should only be attempted if it can be done safely and does not delay the evacuation process.

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18. (201) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of

Explanation

The correct answer is Labor. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency that falls under the United States Department of Labor. OSHA's main objective is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees by enforcing workplace safety regulations, providing training, and conducting inspections.

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19. (201) Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

Explanation

The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They are specifically designated to ensure the implementation of safety protocols and guidelines, providing guidance and support to all personnel regarding safety practices and regulations. Their role is crucial in maintaining a safe working environment and preventing accidents or incidents on the installation.

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20. (202) What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.

Explanation

The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. While PPE can provide some level of protection, it does not eliminate the hazard at its source and may not be effective in all situations. It is more effective to eliminate or reduce hazards through methods such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. PPE should be used in conjunction with other control measures to provide a comprehensive approach to hazard control.

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21. (233) Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?

Explanation

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user.

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22. (208) What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

Explanation

A bus topology is a network configuration where all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear structure. The term "linear" is synonymous with a bus topology because the devices are arranged in a straight line, with each device connected to the main cable. The other options, such as star, ring, and loop, refer to different network topologies with distinct configurations and connectivity patterns.

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23. (212) What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?

Explanation

The range of numbers that are well known port numbers is 0-1023. Well known port numbers are assigned to specific services or protocols and are commonly used by applications for communication. These port numbers are standardized and recognized by most operating systems and networking devices.

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24. (230) Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?

Explanation

Changing the combination on a container storing classified materials is necessary when there is a suspected compromise of the combination, as this could potentially jeopardize the security of the materials. Additionally, changing the combination when the container is placed in or removed from service is important to ensure that only authorized individuals have access to the materials. However, cleaning the storage container does not pose a risk to the security of the materials or the combination, and therefore does not require a change in the combination.

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25. (208) What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

Explanation

When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to manage the communication between devices. If this central node point fails, it can cause large portions of the network to become isolated, resulting in a loss of communication between those devices. This can have a negative effect on the overall network connectivity and functionality.

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26. (219) Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling.

Explanation

A media converter is a device that converts the electrical signals used in copper UTP network cabling to light waves used in fiber optic cabling. It acts as a transceiver, allowing for seamless communication between the two different types of cables. A modem, switch, or router do not perform this specific function of converting signals between copper and fiber optic cables.

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27. (203) Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

Explanation

Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits does not pose a risk of electric shock or electrocution. However, using a ladder as a scaffold, carrying material while ascending or descending a ladder, and using a homemade ladder may all be prohibited because they can increase the risk of falls and accidents.

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28.   (226) What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?

Explanation

Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is primarily used as an email application but also includes features like calendar, task manager, contact manager, note-taking, and journal. Outlook allows users to organize and manage their personal information efficiently, making it an ideal personal information manager. Word, Access, and PowerPoint are not personal information managers but rather word processing, database management, and presentation software respectively.

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29. (201) What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

Explanation

Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves carefully examining the task to identify potential hazards and develop appropriate safety measures. By conducting a JSA, supervisors can ensure that employees are aware of the risks associated with the task and are adequately prepared to mitigate them. This helps to promote a safe working environment and prevent accidents or injuries.

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30. (203) Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

Explanation

When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they will change to Class C. This change in classification occurs because the introduction of an electric current can cause these fuels to become conductive, increasing the risk of electrical hazards. Class C fuels are those that have a higher conductivity and are more likely to conduct electricity, making them potentially more dangerous in the presence of electrical equipment or sources.

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31. (203) Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

Explanation

Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps can cause cardiac arrest. This level of current is considered extremely dangerous and can disrupt the normal electrical signals of the heart, leading to a potentially fatal condition. It is important to avoid exposure to such high levels of current to prevent cardiac emergencies.

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32. (202) Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?

Explanation

Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the potential risks and develop appropriate measures to protect the health and safety of individuals. This includes conducting assessments, providing guidance on protective equipment, implementing control measures, and monitoring the effectiveness of these measures. They work closely with other stakeholders such as the installation safety office, base civil engineer, and supervisors to ensure a comprehensive approach to health risk management.

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33. (226) What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?

Explanation

Access is a Microsoft application that allows users to create a desktop database. It provides tools and features for designing and building a database, entering and managing data, creating forms and reports, and performing queries and analysis. Word, Outlook, and PowerPoint are not designed specifically for creating databases, making Access the correct answer.

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34. (205) Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

Explanation

The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments. This evaluation is done through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. The OMB plays a crucial role in overseeing and managing the federal budget, including the allocation of funds for IT investments. They ensure that agencies are making effective and efficient use of resources and that the investments align with the overall goals and priorities of the government.

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35. (213) What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?

Explanation

The major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM) is their volatility. ROM is non-volatile, meaning that it retains its data even when power is turned off. On the other hand, RAM is volatile, which means that it loses its data when power is turned off.

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36. (206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?

Explanation

The part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) that depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data is the drawing record. This record includes detailed drawings and diagrams that show the placement and configuration of the systems, as well as any necessary engineering specifications. It is an important resource for understanding the physical aspects of the installation and ensuring proper maintenance and troubleshooting.

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37. (207) The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. The Data Link layer is responsible for error detection and correction, as well as controlling the flow of data between devices on the same network. The LLC sublayer specifically handles the logical communication between devices, including addressing and sequencing of data frames. Therefore, the correct answer is Data Link.

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38. (206) What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

Explanation

The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) consists of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes information related to the installation, such as project documentation, approvals, and permits. The drawing record contains all the diagrams, plans, and layouts of the installation. The maintenance record documents the maintenance activities performed on the system, including repairs, upgrades, and inspections. These three parts together provide a comprehensive record of the installation, ensuring that all necessary information is documented and easily accessible.

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39. (216) Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

Explanation

A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects local area networks (LAN) and metropolitan area networks (MAN) using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. This allows for the transmission of data over large geographical distances, making it suitable for connecting LANs and MANs that are located far apart. Unlike LANs and MANs, which are typically limited to a specific area or building, WANs provide connectivity over a wide area, such as between different cities or countries. Therefore, WAN is the correct answer for this question.

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40. (216) Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?

Explanation

Wireless local area networks (WLANs) use Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol used in wireless networks to ensure that multiple devices can access the network without causing interference or data collisions. It works by requiring devices to check if the wireless channel is clear before transmitting data, and if it is not clear, they wait for a random amount of time before attempting to transmit again. This helps to minimize collisions and ensure efficient data transmission in WLANs.

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41. (208) When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's

Explanation

When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's physical topology. This means that it is referring to the physical layout or arrangement of the network, including the physical connections between devices and the overall structure of the network. It does not refer to the logical arrangement or the specific physical medium used for communication.

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42. (228) Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?

Explanation

When a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system, it is referred to as a classified message incident. This means that sensitive information is being shared with a system that has a lower level of security clearance, which can lead to potential breaches in confidentiality. It is important to ensure that proper protocols and safeguards are in place to prevent unauthorized access or exposure of classified information during such transfers.

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43. (236) What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?

Explanation

The Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides the Air Force Portal as a major program that serves as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel. The Air Force Portal is a web-based platform that offers a wide range of resources, tools, and applications to support the needs of Air Force personnel, including access to official documents, training materials, collaboration tools, and other essential services. It is designed to streamline communication, enhance productivity, and provide easy access to critical information for Air Force personnel.

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44. (205) What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?

Explanation

The correct answer is Federal level. Air Force architectures are developed based on requirements mandated at the federal level. This means that the development of these architectures is guided by the needs and regulations set by the federal government, specifically those related to the Air Force. These requirements ensure that the architectures align with national objectives and priorities, and that they effectively support the Air Force's mission and operations.

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45. (230) How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is required or another supplemental control is sufficient?

Explanation

To determine if an intrusion detection system is required or if another supplemental control is sufficient, a risk assessment needs to be completed. This involves evaluating the potential risks and vulnerabilities in the system or network, as well as the potential impact of a security breach. By conducting a risk assessment, the organization can identify the level of threat and determine the appropriate measures needed to mitigate those risks. This process allows for a comprehensive understanding of the security needs and helps in deciding whether an intrusion detection system is necessary or if other controls can adequately address the identified risks.

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46. (213) What action is the main purpose of system cache?

Explanation

The main purpose of system cache is to reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache is a small, high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data and instructions. By keeping this data closer to the CPU, it reduces the time it takes for the CPU to access the data from the main memory or other storage devices. This helps in improving the overall system performance and efficiency.

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47. (202) Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?

Explanation

Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors. This is because helmet class C is a conductive helmet, meaning it is designed to conduct electricity and does not provide insulation against electrical hazards. Helmet classes A and E provide protection against contact with electrical conductors, while helmet class G provides protection against contact with low-voltage electrical conductors.

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48. (217) What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratifies the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE)?

Explanation

In 1999, the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratified the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE). This means that in 1999, the IEEE officially approved and standardized the use of GbE, which is a high-speed networking technology capable of transmitting data at a rate of one gigabit per second.

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49. (203) What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?

Explanation

Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.

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50. (214) What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?

Explanation

USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode has a maximum data transfer rate of five gigabits per second (GB/S). This means that it can transfer data at a speed of five gigabits per second, which is significantly faster than USB 2.0. This high speed allows for quicker file transfers and faster data backup.

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51. (202) Which action is a physiological factor?

Explanation

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52. (228) Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?  

Explanation

The correct answer is "Attacker's lack of ability". This option refers to the attacker's inability to exploit a flaw in a computer system. The other options describe different aspects of computer system vulnerabilities, such as the attacker's capability to exploit the flaw, the system's susceptibility to a flaw, and the attacker's access to the flaw. However, the lack of ability on the part of the attacker does not contribute to a computer system vulnerability.

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53. (201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?

Explanation

The correct answer is 475. This form is used to report a hazard in the Air Force.

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54. (202) What three sub-categories make up human factors?

Explanation

The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical, physiological, and organizational. Physical factors refer to the physical environment and conditions in which humans operate. Physiological factors relate to the capabilities and limitations of the human body, including sensory and cognitive processes. Organizational factors encompass the social and organizational aspects that influence human performance, such as communication, teamwork, and workload distribution.

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55. (229) Which classified document markings identifies the highest level of classification?

Explanation

Banner Lines are the markings that identify the highest level of classification in a classified document. These markings are typically placed at the top and bottom of each page and indicate the level of classification, such as Top Secret, Secret, or Confidential. Banner Lines serve as a visual reminder to the reader that the document contains sensitive information and should be handled accordingly. They help ensure that the document is properly protected and that individuals with the appropriate security clearance are granted access to it.

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56. (201) Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?

Explanation

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57. (207) What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?

Explanation

The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify different functions within a network. The Network layer, specifically, is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks. It ensures that data is properly addressed, routed, and delivered to the correct destination. This layer also handles the logical addressing and subnetting of networks, allowing for efficient and reliable communication between devices across different networks.

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58. (215) What is a peripheral device?

Explanation

A peripheral device is not considered a main component of a computer as it is an additional device that can be connected to a computer to enhance its functionality. These devices can be either internal, such as a CD/DVD drive or a sound card, or external, such as a printer or a keyboard. They are not essential for the basic functioning of a computer but provide additional features and capabilities.

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59. (211) What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

Explanation

The maximum value of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) is 255. An octet is a group of 8 bits, and in IPv4, each octet represents a number ranging from 0 to 255. This allows for a total of 256 possible values, starting from 0 and ending at 255. Therefore, 255 is the highest value that can be assigned to an octet in IPv4.

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60. (222) What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a host network?

Explanation

A gateway is a network device that provides connectivity between different networks. It acts as an entry point to a remote network, allowing devices from that network to communicate with devices on the host network. A gateway typically performs protocol conversion and routing functions, enabling data to be transmitted and received between networks with different protocols or addressing schemes. In this scenario, a gateway would be the correct device to provide a remote network with connectivity to a host network.

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61. (202) How many impact classifications do hardhats have?

Explanation

Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to protect against two different levels of impact. The classifications are usually determined by the type and amount of force that the hardhat can withstand. Having two impact classifications allows for better protection in different work environments, ensuring that workers are adequately shielded from potential head injuries.

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62. (234) Which network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet?

Explanation

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet. The SBU IP Data or NIPRNET is specifically designed for unclassified but sensitive information, allowing DOD users to securely connect to the internet while protecting sensitive data from unauthorized access. This network ensures that DOD customers can access the public internet while maintaining the necessary security measures.

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63. (231) Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday?

Explanation

The Security Manager has the authority to grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday. This individual is responsible for ensuring the security and protection of classified information and has the knowledge and expertise to assess the risks associated with shipping classified materials on weekends. The Classified Information Program Manager, Information Assurance Officer, and Supervisor may have roles related to security and classified information, but the Security Manager specifically holds the authority to grant permission for shipping classified materials on weekends.

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64. (206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Maintenance record." In a Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR), the maintenance record is typically retained in the production work center. This record contains information about the maintenance activities performed on the communication and information systems, including repairs, inspections, and upgrades. It helps to track the maintenance history and ensure that the systems are functioning properly. The maintenance record is crucial for troubleshooting issues, planning future maintenance tasks, and ensuring the overall reliability and performance of the systems.

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65. (227) What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an organization's mission critical information via its communications and ISs?

Explanation

Hostile information operations pose the greatest threat to an organization's mission critical information via its communications and information systems. These operations involve deliberate and malicious activities carried out by external entities with the intent to disrupt, deceive, or manipulate an organization's information systems. This can include activities such as hacking, phishing, social engineering, and other forms of cyber attacks aimed at compromising the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of critical information. Malware, denial of service attacks, and inadvertent employee activity can also be significant threats, but hostile information operations are considered the most dangerous due to their intentional and targeted nature.

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66. (232) Which of the following services provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas?

Explanation

The aerial layer service provides additional communications capacity by utilizing manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages. This allows for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas. This means that the aerial layer service uses aircraft and drones to establish and maintain communication links in areas where traditional infrastructure may be lacking or insufficient.

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67. (207) What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Explanation

The media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network access and use the physical medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies, for communication. The MAC sublayer ensures that devices take turns using the medium, avoid collisions, and adhere to the specific protocols and rules for accessing the network medium.

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68. (210) What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?

Explanation

A sliding window in TCP is used to regulate the flow of data between the sender and receiver. It allows the sender to transmit a certain amount of data before waiting for an acknowledgement from the receiver. This helps in preventing network congestion by ensuring that the transmitting device does not overwhelm the receiving device with too much data at once. Once the receiver acknowledges the received data, the window slides forward, allowing the sender to transmit more data.

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69. (211) What class is reserved for multicast addressing?

Explanation

Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing is a method of sending data packets to a group of devices simultaneously. In IPv4, multicast addresses are identified by the range of addresses starting from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255. These addresses are used for applications such as video streaming, online gaming, and audio conferencing, where data needs to be sent to multiple recipients at the same time. Class D addresses are specifically designated for multicast communication and are not used for traditional unicast or broadcast communication.

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70. (203) What classification do flammable liquids receive?

Explanation

Flammable liquids receive the classification of Class B. This classification is given to liquids that have a flash point below 100 degrees Fahrenheit. Class B liquids are highly flammable and can easily ignite and burn. They include substances such as gasoline, ethanol, and acetone. It is important to handle and store Class B liquids with caution to prevent accidents and fires.

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71. (207) What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for providing a reliable and error-free link between the sender and receiver. It handles flow control, error detection and correction, and sequencing of frames. By managing communications over a single link, the LLC sublayer ensures that data is successfully transmitted between devices within the same network segment.

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72. (230) Which Air Force (AF) form records the destruction of Top Secret classified material?

Explanation

AF Form 143 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force form that is specifically designed to record the destruction of Top Secret classified material. This form ensures that the destruction process is properly documented and can be audited if necessary. It is important to have a standardized form for this purpose to maintain accountability and security in handling classified information.

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73. (210) What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?

Explanation

A TCP socket is a combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers. This means that when a process wants to communicate over a network, it needs to specify a port number and an IP address to establish a connection with another process on a different machine. The TCP socket acts as a unique identifier for the process, allowing it to send and receive data over the network.

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74. (231) Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information?

Explanation

The Information Assurance Officer is the correct person to seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information. This is because an Information Assurance Officer is responsible for ensuring the security, integrity, and availability of information within an organization. They are knowledgeable about the proper protocols and procedures for handling sensitive and classified information, including transportation. The Classified Information Program Manager is responsible for managing classified information programs, the Security Manager oversees overall security measures, and the Supervisor may not have the specific expertise in information assurance and classified information handling.

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75. (218) How many T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits do Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer?

Explanation

Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer 7 T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits.

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76. (235) Which system of the Global Command and Control System-Air Force (GCCS-AF) monitors status of resources and training systems ensuring that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available to the for mission completion?

Explanation

The GCCS Status of Resources and Training (GSORTS) system monitors the status of resources and training systems in the Global Command and Control System-Air Force (GCCS-AF). It ensures that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available for mission completion.

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77. (201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?

Explanation

Air Force (AF) form 978 is used to report ground mishaps. This form is specifically designed to document any accidents or incidents that occur on the ground involving Air Force personnel, equipment, or facilities. It is an important tool for gathering information and conducting investigations to prevent similar mishaps in the future.

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78. (221) What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems to connect together?

Explanation

Exterior gateway protocol (EGP) is a network routing protocol that allows multiple autonomous systems to connect together. It is specifically designed for interconnecting different autonomous systems and exchanging routing information between them. EGP enables the exchange of routing information between routers in different autonomous systems, allowing them to determine the best path for forwarding network traffic across multiple networks. Unlike interior gateway protocols (IGPs) like OSPF and EIGRP, which are used within a single autonomous system, EGP is used for routing between autonomous systems.

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79. (207) What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.

Explanation

The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The OSI reference model consists of seven layers, which are divided into two categories. The lower category includes the Physical, Data Link, and Network layers, while the upper category includes the Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application layers. The Data Transport layer is responsible for reliable end-to-end delivery of data, while the Application layer provides services for user applications.

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80. (211) Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?

Explanation

Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. In Class C addresses, the first three octets are used for network identification, while the last octet is used for host identification. Since there are 8 bits in the last octet, it can represent a maximum of 256 different values. However, two of these values are reserved for network address (all bits set to 0) and broadcast address (all bits set to 1). Therefore, the actual number of usable hosts per network is 256-2=254.

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81. (220) Describe a network bridge.

Explanation

A network bridge is a device or software set that operates at the Data Link layer of the network protocol stack. It is used to divide a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. By doing so, it helps to improve network performance and efficiency by reducing collisions and allowing for better bandwidth allocation. The bridge receives data frames from one segment and forwards them to the appropriate segment based on the destination MAC address. This allows for the creation of separate network segments that can operate independently while still being connected to each other.

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82. (242) What system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network provides rapid, reliable, non- dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Global HF system. This system provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war. The other options mentioned, such as Mystic Star, Defense Communication System (DCS) entry, and System of Inter-American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA), are not specifically designed for this purpose.

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83. (204) The risk management process includes how many steps?

Explanation

The risk management process includes five steps. These steps involve identifying risks, assessing and analyzing them, developing strategies to mitigate them, implementing the strategies, and monitoring and reviewing the effectiveness of the risk management plan. Each step is crucial in effectively managing risks and ensuring the success of a project or business.

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84. (232) What system includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN). This system includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority. It is a comprehensive network that supports the information needs of the Department of Defense and plays a crucial role in ensuring information dominance and operational effectiveness.

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85. (242) What system mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users?

Explanation

The Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS) is the correct answer because its mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users. This system utilizes high-frequency radio waves to transmit and receive messages over long distances, making it ideal for communication in remote or inaccessible areas. The Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) is a nuclear command and control system, the Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS) is an intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance system, and the Global Combat Support System (GCSS) is a logistics management system, none of which are specifically designed for providing two-way communications between air, land, and sea users.

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86. (238) Which system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on a powerful server- based computer system that takes inputs from long range and short-range radars and displays it all on a scope?

Explanation

The correct answer is Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F). This system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on a powerful server-based computer system. It takes inputs from long range and short-range radars and displays the information on a scope. The BCS-F is specifically designed for battle control and provides a comprehensive view of the radar data, allowing operators to track and correlate targets effectively.

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87. (235) Which system is the Department of Defense's (DOD) command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler?

Explanation

The Global Command and Control System (GCCS) is the Department of Defense's (DOD) command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler. GCCS is designed to provide situational awareness, decision support, and information sharing capabilities to support military operations. It allows for the integration of various military systems and provides a common operational picture for commanders, enabling them to effectively plan, coordinate, and execute missions. GCCS plays a crucial role in enabling the DOD to achieve full spectrum dominance by ensuring effective command and control of military forces across all domains of warfare.

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88. (239) Which system is a space-based high data rate communications link for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces?

Explanation

The Global Broadcast System (GBS) is a space-based high data rate communications link that allows for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces. It is designed to provide real-time, high-quality video, imagery, and other data to military personnel in the field, enabling them to make informed decisions and stay connected with the larger command structure. The GBS is an essential tool for enhancing situational awareness and communication capabilities for deployed forces.

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89. (233) What system is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space, divided by security demands, transmission requirements and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers?

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Network (DISN). This system is a telecommunications network that allows the exchange of information in a global space. It is designed to meet the security demands, transmission requirements, and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers. The Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) is a separate entity that encompasses multiple networks, including the DISN. The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the agency responsible for managing and operating the DISN. The Air Force Information Network (AFIN) is a specific network within the DISN that serves the United States Air Force.

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90. (228) Computer security (COMPUSEC) vulnerabilities are broken down into how many categories?

Explanation

Computer security vulnerabilities are broken down into eight categories. These categories represent the different types of vulnerabilities that can exist in a computer system, such as software bugs, weak passwords, insecure network protocols, and social engineering attacks. By understanding and categorizing these vulnerabilities, security professionals can better assess and mitigate the risks to a computer system.

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91. (238) How many air defenses sectors is the Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) divided into?

Explanation

The Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) is divided into two air defense sectors.

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92. (241) Which system is the primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?

Explanation

The primary network used to transmit Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field is the Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS). SACCS is specifically designed for the transmission of critical and time-sensitive messages related to national security and military operations. It ensures secure and reliable communication between the NMCC and the warfighters, allowing for effective command and control in emergency situations.

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93. (225) In general, how many operating system task categories are there?

Explanation

The correct answer is six because there are typically six main task categories in an operating system. These categories include process management, memory management, file system management, device management, network management, and user interface management. Each category plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth functioning of the operating system and facilitating communication between the hardware and software components.

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94. (205) How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?

Explanation

The Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is composed of four volumes. Each volume provides guidance and standards for different aspects of the framework, including the overall architecture, the data and information exchange, the systems, and the technical standards. These volumes work together to establish a comprehensive and standardized approach to architecture development within the Department of Defense.

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95. (240) What system is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities?

Explanation

The National Military Command Center (NMCC) is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities. It serves as the principal communications and command center for the Department of Defense during peacetime, crisis, and war. The NMCC is responsible for maintaining situational awareness, coordinating military operations, and providing timely and accurate information to senior leaders. It plays a crucial role in ensuring effective command and control of military forces and facilitating decision-making at the highest levels of the Department of Defense.

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96. (241) What system provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions?

Explanation

The Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) is the system that provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions. This system is specifically designed to ensure the secure transmission of critical information related to strategic operations, allowing for effective command and control of these assets. The other options listed, Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS), Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS), and Global Combat Support System (GCSS), do not specifically pertain to the secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions.

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97. (237) Which system is the Air Forces' primary intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis and dissemination system?

Explanation

The correct answer is Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS). This system is the primary ISR collection, processing, exploitation, analysis, and dissemination system for the Air Forces. It is designed to gather and analyze intelligence data from various sources, including satellites, aircraft, and ground-based sensors. The DCGS allows for real-time monitoring and analysis of the battlefield, providing critical information to commanders and decision-makers. This system plays a vital role in enhancing situational awareness and supporting mission planning and execution.

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98. (234) Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management?

Explanation

The Defense Switched Network (DSN) is the correct answer because it provides high-quality and secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management. DSN is a global voice and data network that is specifically designed for military use. It offers a wide range of communication services, including voice, video, and data transmission, and is known for its reliability and security features. DSN is widely used by the military to ensure effective and secure communication during critical operations and crisis situations.

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99. (229) Which classified document marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and shall indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification.

Explanation

The correct answer is Component and office. The component and office marking is a classified document marking that appears on the face of each classified United States document. It indicates the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification. This marking helps to identify which component or office is responsible for the classification and provides important information about the document's classification status.

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100. (225) What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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(216) Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?
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(201) What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
(215) Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an...
(224) What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?
(211) What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet)...
(203) What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?  
(228) Which computer software is designed to collect personal...
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(208) What topology offers centralized management of a network?
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(204) Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?
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(202) What method is considered the least preferred when controlling...
(233) Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?
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(212) What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?
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(208) What negative effect could occur when star networks are...
(219) Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical...
(203) Which ladder practice is not prohibited?
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(201) What action must supervisors take before a work task not...
(203) Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what...
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(226) What Microsoft application is a software program that allows...
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(213) What characteristic is the major difference between Random...
(206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems...
(207) The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open...
(206) What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems...
(216) Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN)...
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(208) When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a...
(228) Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data...
(236) What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air...
(205) What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?
(230) How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is...
(213) What action is the main purpose of system cache?
(202) Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact...
(217) What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics...
(203) What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air...
(214) What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0...
(202) Which action is a physiological factor?
(228) Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer...
(201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?
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(229) Which classified document markings identifies the highest level...
(201) Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?
(207) What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems...
(215) What is a peripheral device?
(211) What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol...
(222) What network device provides a remote network with connectivity...
(202) How many impact classifications do hardhats have?
(234) Which network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers...
(231) Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified...
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(227) What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an...
(232) Which of the following services provides additional...
(207) What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data...
(210) What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission...
(211) What class is reserved for multicast addressing?
(203) What classification do flammable liquids receive?
(207) What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data...
(230) Which Air Force (AF) form records the destruction of Top Secret...
(210) What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?
(231) Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting...
(218) How many T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits do...
(235) Which system of the Global Command and Control System-Air Force...
(201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?
(221) What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems...
(207) What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the...
(211) Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?
(220) Describe a network bridge.
(242) What system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network provides...
(204) The risk management process includes how many steps?
(232) What system includes all owned and leased communications and...
(242) What system mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way...
(238) Which system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program...
(235) Which system is the Department of Defense's (DOD) command and...
(239) Which system is a space-based high data rate communications link...
(233) What system is a telecommunications network that provides the...
(228) Computer security (COMPUSEC) vulnerabilities are broken down...
(238) How many air defenses sectors is the Battle Control System-Fixed...
(241) Which system is the primary network used to transmit the...
(225) In general, how many operating system task categories are there?
(205) How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture...
(240) What system is the priority component of the Department of...
(241) What system provides a secure communications path for command...
(237) Which system is the Air Forces' primary intelligence,...
(234) Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications...
(229) Which classified document marking appears on the face of each...
(225) What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the...
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