Purpose Of The Mishap Prevention Program Quiz
-
(216) Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?
-
Local area network (LAN).
-
Wide area network (WAN).
-
Virtual private network (VPN).
-
Metropolitan area network (MAN).
-
Do you want to know more about the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program? Let's take this quiz and learn more about it now!
Quiz Preview
- 2.
(216) Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?
-
Service set identifier (SSID) Broadcasting.
-
Media access control (MAC) Filtering.
-
Encryption.
-
Tunneling.
Correct Answer
A. Encryption.Explanation
Encryption is the best method for hiding a message in a special code. Encryption converts plain text into cipher text using an algorithm and a key. The cipher text can only be decrypted back into plain text with the correct key, ensuring that unauthorized users cannot understand the message. This method provides confidentiality and protects the data transmitted over the wireless network from being intercepted or understood by unauthorized individuals.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
(216) Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?
-
Local area network (LAN).
-
Wide area network (WAN).
-
Virtual private network (VPN).
-
Metropolitan area network (MAN).
Correct Answer
A. Virtual private network (VPN).Explanation
A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. It allows users to securely connect to a private network over a public network, such as the Internet. By encrypting the data and creating a secure connection, a VPN ensures that the information transmitted between the user and the private network remains private and protected from unauthorized access. This makes VPNs a popular choice for remote workers, businesses, and individuals who want to maintain the confidentiality and security of their online activities.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
(201) What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
-
Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.
-
Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.
-
Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.
-
Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.
Correct Answer
A. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.Explanation
The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect both resources and personnel from potential harm. This program aims to prevent any damage, loss, injury, or even death that may occur as a result of accidents or mishaps. By implementing safety measures and protocols, the program ensures the well-being and safety of both the organization's assets and its personnel.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
(203) How are fires classified?
-
Fuel type.
-
Heat source.
-
Temperature.
-
Atmospheric conditions.
Correct Answer
A. Fuel type.Explanation
Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different fuels produce different types of fires, such as Class A fires involving ordinary combustible materials like wood or paper, Class B fires involving flammable liquids or gases, Class C fires involving electrical equipment, and so on. By understanding the fuel type, firefighters and emergency responders can determine the appropriate extinguishing methods and safety precautions to effectively control and extinguish the fire.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
(203) What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?
-
Evacuate personnel from the building.
-
Extinguish the fire if possible.
-
Call the fire department.
-
Sound the fire alarm.
Correct Answer
A. Extinguish the fire if possible.Explanation
The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate fire extinguishing methods and equipment to try and eliminate the fire. It is an important step in preventing the fire from spreading further and causing more damage. Evacuating personnel from the building, calling the fire department, and sounding the fire alarm are also important steps in the firefighting procedure, but they are not specifically mentioned as the fourth step.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
(211) What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?
-
Version Identification.
-
Header Checksum.
-
Time to Live.
-
Flags.
Correct Answer
A. Header Checksum.Explanation
The correct answer is Header Checksum. The Header Checksum portion of the IP Datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them. The checksum is a value calculated from the header contents, and it is included in the header itself. When the receiving IP checks the checksum, it recalculates the value based on the received header and compares it to the included checksum. If they don't match, it means the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the datagram is discarded. This helps ensure the integrity of the IP packets being transmitted over the network.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
(215) Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?
-
Printer.
-
Scanner.
-
Monitor.
-
Camera lens.
Correct Answer
A. Scanner.Explanation
A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image. It uses a combination of sensors and light sources to capture the image and then converts it into a digital format that can be stored, edited, or printed. Unlike a printer, which only produces physical copies of digital images or text, a scanner is specifically designed to capture and digitize physical documents or objects. A monitor is a display device, and a camera lens is a component of a camera system, neither of which directly convert physical images into digital format like a scanner does.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
(224) What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?
-
Cost to install and train technicians.
-
Electromagnetic immunity.
-
Low attenuation.
-
Security.
Correct Answer
A. Cost to install and train technicians.Explanation
The characteristic of cost to install and train technicians is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cable is known for its advantages such as electromagnetic immunity, low attenuation, and security. However, the cost associated with the installation and training of technicians is considered a disadvantage of fiber optic cable.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
(228) Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?
-
Malware.
-
Spyware.
-
Adware.
-
Trojans.
Correct Answer
A. Spyware.Explanation
Spyware is computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It is a type of malicious software that can be installed on a user's computer without their knowledge or permission. Once installed, spyware can track and record a user's online activities, including keystrokes, websites visited, and personal information entered into forms. This information is then sent to a third party without the user's knowledge or consent. Spyware is a serious privacy concern and can lead to identity theft and other forms of cybercrime.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
(201) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of
-
Commerce.
-
The Treasury.
-
Defense.
-
Labor.
Correct Answer
A. Labor.Explanation
The correct answer is Labor. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency that falls under the United States Department of Labor. OSHA's main objective is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees by enforcing workplace safety regulations, providing training, and conducting inspections.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
(201) Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?
-
Air Staff.
-
Civil Engineering.
-
Squadron commander.
-
Installation safety office.
Correct Answer
A. Installation safety office.Explanation
The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They are specifically designated to ensure the implementation of safety protocols and guidelines, providing guidance and support to all personnel regarding safety practices and regulations. Their role is crucial in maintaining a safe working environment and preventing accidents or incidents on the installation.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
(202) What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.
-
Isolating operations.
-
Providing administrative controls.
-
Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).
-
Substitution a less hazardous material or process.
Correct Answer
A. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).Explanation
The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. While PPE can provide some level of protection, it does not eliminate the hazard at its source and may not be effective in all situations. It is more effective to eliminate or reduce hazards through methods such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. PPE should be used in conjunction with other control measures to provide a comprehensive approach to hazard control.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
(203) What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
-
Falls.
-
Poor lighting.
-
Horseplay.
-
Poor ergonomics.
Correct Answer
A. Falls.Explanation
Falls are the greatest hazard in a typical office environment. This is because slips, trips, and falls are common accidents that can lead to serious injuries. Factors such as wet floors, cluttered walkways, improper footwear, and lack of handrails contribute to the risk of falls. It is important for employers to maintain a safe working environment by ensuring proper housekeeping, providing slip-resistant flooring, and promoting awareness among employees to prevent falls.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
(203) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?
-
1 to 2.
-
2 to 2.5.
-
2 to 4.5.
-
2.5 to 3.
Correct Answer
A. 2 to 2.5.Explanation
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
(203) What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
-
Evacuate personnel from the building.
-
Extinguish the fire if possible.
-
Call the fire department.
-
Sound the fire alarm.
Correct Answer
A. Sound the fire alarm.Explanation
When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building to the presence of a fire and allows them to begin evacuating immediately. Evacuating personnel from the building should be the next step, followed by calling the fire department for professional assistance. While extinguishing the fire if possible is a valid action, it should only be attempted if it can be done safely and does not delay the evacuation process.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
(204) Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?
-
Accept no unnecessary risk.
-
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
-
Apply the process irregularly and continuously.
-
Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer
A. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.Explanation
The action of applying the risk management process irregularly and continuously is not a part of risk management. Risk management involves accepting no unnecessary risk, making risk decisions at the appropriate level, and integrating risk management into operations and planning at all levels. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would be inconsistent and ineffective in managing risks.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
(208) What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
-
Star.
-
Ring.
-
Loop.
-
Linear.
Correct Answer
A. Linear.Explanation
A bus topology is a network configuration where all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear structure. The term "linear" is synonymous with a bus topology because the devices are arranged in a straight line, with each device connected to the main cable. The other options, such as star, ring, and loop, refer to different network topologies with distinct configurations and connectivity patterns.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
(208) What topology offers centralized management of a network?
-
Bus.
-
Star.
-
Ring.
-
Radial.
Correct Answer
A. Star.Explanation
The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which allows for easy monitoring and control of the network. The central hub acts as a central point of control, making it easier to manage and troubleshoot network issues. Additionally, the star topology provides better performance and scalability compared to other topologies like bus or ring, making it a preferred choice for networks that require centralized management.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
(209) Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?
-
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
-
Federal Communications Commission (FCC).
-
Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
-
Department of Defense (DOD).
Correct Answer
A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).Explanation
The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body responsible for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. They provide secure and reliable communications and IT services to the DOD and other government agencies. DISA ensures that the DOD's information systems are protected, connected, and capable of supporting military operations. They also play a crucial role in the development and implementation of IT policies and standards for the DOD.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
(223) Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users’ own end terminals?
-
Internet Protocol.
-
End-to-end.
-
Bulk.
-
Link.
Correct Answer
A. End-to-end.Explanation
End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection as it fully encodes the information all the way from the network to the users' end terminals. This means that the data remains encrypted and secure throughout the entire communication process, making it difficult for any unauthorized parties to access or intercept the information. This type of encryption ensures that only the intended recipients can decrypt and access the data, providing a higher level of privacy and security.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
(233) Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?
-
Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).
-
Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).
-
Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.
-
Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data.
Correct Answer
A. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).Explanation
The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
(201) What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?
-
Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO).
-
Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).
-
Review AF Form 55.
-
Certify the employee.
Correct Answer
A. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).Explanation
Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves carefully examining the task to identify potential hazards and develop appropriate safety measures. By conducting a JSA, supervisors can ensure that employees are aware of the risks associated with the task and are adequately prepared to mitigate them. This helps to promote a safe working environment and prevent accidents or injuries.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
(203) Which ladder practice is not prohibited?
-
Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.
-
Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder.
-
Using a ladder as a scaffold.
-
Using a homemade ladder.
Correct Answer
A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.Explanation
Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits does not pose a risk of electric shock or electrocution. However, using a ladder as a scaffold, carrying material while ascending or descending a ladder, and using a homemade ladder may all be prohibited because they can increase the risk of falls and accidents.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
(208) What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?
-
There are no negative effects.
-
A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication.
-
Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices.
-
When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.
Correct Answer
A. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.Explanation
When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to manage the communication between devices. If this central node point fails, it can cause large portions of the network to become isolated, resulting in a loss of communication between those devices. This can have a negative effect on the overall network connectivity and functionality.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
(212) What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?
-
0–1023.
-
1024–49151.
-
49152–65535.
-
65536–87000.
Correct Answer
A. 0–1023.Explanation
The range of numbers that are well known port numbers is 0-1023. Well known port numbers are assigned to specific services or protocols and are commonly used by applications for communication. These port numbers are standardized and recognized by most operating systems and networking devices.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
(219) Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling.
-
Media converter.
-
Modem.
-
Switch.
-
Router.
Correct Answer
A. Media converter.Explanation
A media converter is a device that converts the electrical signals used in copper UTP network cabling to light waves used in fiber optic cabling. It acts as a transceiver, allowing for seamless communication between the two different types of cables. A modem, switch, or router do not perform this specific function of converting signals between copper and fiber optic cables.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
(226) What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?
-
Word.
-
Access.
-
Outlook.
-
PowerPoint.
Correct Answer
A. Outlook.Explanation
Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is primarily used as an email application but also includes features like calendar, task manager, contact manager, note-taking, and journal. Outlook allows users to organize and manage their personal information efficiently, making it an ideal personal information manager. Word, Access, and PowerPoint are not personal information managers but rather word processing, database management, and presentation software respectively.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
(230) Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?
-
When it is placed in service.
-
When it is removed from service.
-
When the storage container has been cleaned.
-
When compromise of the combination is suspected.
Correct Answer
A. When the storage container has been cleaned.Explanation
Changing the combination on a container storing classified materials is necessary when there is a suspected compromise of the combination, as this could potentially jeopardize the security of the materials. Additionally, changing the combination when the container is placed in or removed from service is important to ensure that only authorized individuals have access to the materials. However, cleaning the storage container does not pose a risk to the security of the materials or the combination, and therefore does not require a change in the combination.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
(202) Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?
-
Bioenvironmental Engineering.
-
Installation safety office.
-
Base civil engineer.
-
Supervisors.
Correct Answer
A. Bioenvironmental Engineering.Explanation
Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the potential risks and develop appropriate measures to protect the health and safety of individuals. This includes conducting assessments, providing guidance on protective equipment, implementing control measures, and monitoring the effectiveness of these measures. They work closely with other stakeholders such as the installation safety office, base civil engineer, and supervisors to ensure a comprehensive approach to health risk management.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
(203) Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?
-
Class A.
-
Class B.
-
Class C.
-
Class D.
Correct Answer
A. Class C.Explanation
When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they will change to Class C. This change in classification occurs because the introduction of an electric current can cause these fuels to become conductive, increasing the risk of electrical hazards. Class C fuels are those that have a higher conductivity and are more likely to conduct electricity, making them potentially more dangerous in the presence of electrical equipment or sources.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
(203) Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?
-
50.
-
40.
-
20.
-
10.
Correct Answer
A. 50.Explanation
Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps can cause cardiac arrest. This level of current is considered extremely dangerous and can disrupt the normal electrical signals of the heart, leading to a potentially fatal condition. It is important to avoid exposure to such high levels of current to prevent cardiac emergencies.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
(205) Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?
-
Office of Administration.
-
Office of Communications.
-
Office of Public Engagement.
-
Office of Management and Budget.
Correct Answer
A. Office of Management and Budget.Explanation
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments. This evaluation is done through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. The OMB plays a crucial role in overseeing and managing the federal budget, including the allocation of funds for IT investments. They ensure that agencies are making effective and efficient use of resources and that the investments align with the overall goals and priorities of the government.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
(226) What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?
-
Word.
-
Access.
-
Outlook.
-
PowerPoint.
Correct Answer
A. Access.Explanation
Access is a Microsoft application that allows users to create a desktop database. It provides tools and features for designing and building a database, entering and managing data, creating forms and reports, and performing queries and analysis. Word, Outlook, and PowerPoint are not designed specifically for creating databases, making Access the correct answer.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
(206) What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?
-
Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record.
-
Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.
-
Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.
-
Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record.
Correct Answer
A. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.Explanation
The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) consists of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes information related to the installation, such as project documentation, approvals, and permits. The drawing record contains all the diagrams, plans, and layouts of the installation. The maintenance record documents the maintenance activities performed on the system, including repairs, upgrades, and inspections. These three parts together provide a comprehensive record of the installation, ensuring that all necessary information is documented and easily accessible.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
(206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?
-
Administrative record.
-
Maintenance record.
-
Drawing record.
-
Outage record.
Correct Answer
A. Drawing record.Explanation
The part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) that depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data is the drawing record. This record includes detailed drawings and diagrams that show the placement and configuration of the systems, as well as any necessary engineering specifications. It is an important resource for understanding the physical aspects of the installation and ensuring proper maintenance and troubleshooting.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
(207) The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?
-
Transport.
-
Data Link.
-
Physical.
-
Session.
Correct Answer
A. Data Link.Explanation
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. The Data Link layer is responsible for error detection and correction, as well as controlling the flow of data between devices on the same network. The LLC sublayer specifically handles the logical communication between devices, including addressing and sequencing of data frames. Therefore, the correct answer is Data Link.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
(208) When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network’s
-
Transport topology.
-
Physical topology.
-
Physical medium.
-
Logical topology.
Correct Answer
A. Physical topology.Explanation
When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's physical topology. This means that it is referring to the physical layout or arrangement of the network, including the physical connections between devices and the overall structure of the network. It does not refer to the logical arrangement or the specific physical medium used for communication.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
(213) What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?
-
ROM is volatile, RAM in non-volatile.
-
ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile.
-
RAM has a slower access time versus ROM.
-
ROM has a slower access time versus RAM.
Correct Answer
A. ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile.Explanation
The major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM) is their volatility. ROM is non-volatile, meaning that it retains its data even when power is turned off. On the other hand, RAM is volatile, which means that it loses its data when power is turned off.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
(216) Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?
-
Local area network (LAN).
-
Wide area network (WAN).
-
Virtual private network (VPN).
-
Metropolitan area network (MAN).
Correct Answer
A. Wide area network (WAN).Explanation
A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects local area networks (LAN) and metropolitan area networks (MAN) using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. This allows for the transmission of data over large geographical distances, making it suitable for connecting LANs and MANs that are located far apart. Unlike LANs and MANs, which are typically limited to a specific area or building, WANs provide connectivity over a wide area, such as between different cities or countries. Therefore, WAN is the correct answer for this question.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
(216) Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?
-
Local area network (LAN).
-
Wide area network (WAN).
-
Metropolitan area network (MAN).
-
Wireless local area network (WLAN).
Correct Answer
A. Wireless local area network (WLAN).Explanation
Wireless local area networks (WLANs) use Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol used in wireless networks to ensure that multiple devices can access the network without causing interference or data collisions. It works by requiring devices to check if the wireless channel is clear before transmitting data, and if it is not clear, they wait for a random amount of time before attempting to transmit again. This helps to minimize collisions and ensure efficient data transmission in WLANs.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
(228) Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?
-
Classified message incident.
-
Eavesdropping.
-
Data Spillage.
-
Backdoor.
Correct Answer
A. Classified message incident.Explanation
When a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system, it is referred to as a classified message incident. This means that sensitive information is being shared with a system that has a lower level of security clearance, which can lead to potential breaches in confidentiality. It is important to ensure that proper protocols and safeguards are in place to prevent unauthorized access or exposure of classified information during such transfers.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
(236) What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?
-
Air Force Portal.
-
IMDS.
-
Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS).
-
Electronic-publications (E-pub).
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Portal.Explanation
The Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides the Air Force Portal as a major program that serves as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel. The Air Force Portal is a web-based platform that offers a wide range of resources, tools, and applications to support the needs of Air Force personnel, including access to official documents, training materials, collaboration tools, and other essential services. It is designed to streamline communication, enhance productivity, and provide easy access to critical information for Air Force personnel.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
(202) Which action is a physiological factor?
-
Performing a task while fatigued.
-
Performing a task while intoxicated.
-
Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.
-
Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness.
Correct Answer
A. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders. -
- 45.
(202) Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?
-
A.
-
C.
-
E.
-
G.
Correct Answer
A. C.Explanation
Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors. This is because helmet class C is a conductive helmet, meaning it is designed to conduct electricity and does not provide insulation against electrical hazards. Helmet classes A and E provide protection against contact with electrical conductors, while helmet class G provides protection against contact with low-voltage electrical conductors.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
(203) What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?
-
8.
-
9.
-
10.
-
11.
Correct Answer
A. 10.Explanation
Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
(205) What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?
-
State level.
-
Federal level.
-
Congressional level.
-
Department of Defense level.
Correct Answer
A. Federal level.Explanation
The correct answer is Federal level. Air Force architectures are developed based on requirements mandated at the federal level. This means that the development of these architectures is guided by the needs and regulations set by the federal government, specifically those related to the Air Force. These requirements ensure that the architectures align with national objectives and priorities, and that they effectively support the Air Force's mission and operations.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
(213) What action is the main purpose of system cache?
-
Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM).
-
Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data.
-
Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.
-
Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data.
Correct Answer
A. Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.Explanation
The main purpose of system cache is to reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache is a small, high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data and instructions. By keeping this data closer to the CPU, it reduces the time it takes for the CPU to access the data from the main memory or other storage devices. This helps in improving the overall system performance and efficiency.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
(214) What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?
-
Two gigabits per second (GB/S).
-
Four GB/S.
-
Five GB/S.
-
10 GB/S.
Correct Answer
A. Five GB/S.Explanation
USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode has a maximum data transfer rate of five gigabits per second (GB/S). This means that it can transfer data at a speed of five gigabits per second, which is significantly faster than USB 2.0. This high speed allows for quicker file transfers and faster data backup.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
May 17, 2016Quiz Created by
Nighthawk8799
Back to top