Z3dx5x UREs Volume 2

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Air Force Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (201) Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?

    • A.

      A. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–200.

    • B.

      B. AFI 91–202.

    • C.

      C. Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91–200.

    • D.

      D. AFMAN 91–202.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. AFMAN 91–202.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. AFMAN 91-202. This publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program.

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  • 2. 

    (201) What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

    • A.

      A. Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.

    • B.

      B. Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.

    • C.

      C. Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.

    • D.

      D. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death. This program aims to prevent accidents, incidents, and mishaps that could result in harm or negative consequences. By implementing safety measures, conducting risk assessments, and promoting safe practices, the program seeks to minimize the potential for accidents and protect both the physical assets and the well-being of individuals involved.

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  • 3. 

    (201) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of

    • A.

      A. Commerce.

    • B.

      B. the Treasury.

    • C.

      C. Defense.

    • D.

      D. Labor.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Labor.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. Labor. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency that is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States. It falls under the jurisdiction of the Department of Labor, which is responsible for protecting workers' rights and promoting fair and safe working conditions. The Department of Commerce, the Treasury, and Defense do not have direct involvement in workplace safety and health regulations.

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  • 4. 

    (201) What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

    • A.

      A. Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO).

    • B.

      B. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).

    • C.

      C. Review AF Form 55.

    • D.

      D. Certify the employee.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).
    Explanation
    Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves identifying potential hazards, assessing risks, and determining appropriate control measures to ensure the safety of employees. By conducting a JSA, supervisors can effectively plan and execute the task in a manner that minimizes the likelihood of accidents or injuries.

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  • 5. 

    (201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?

    • A.

      A. 475.

    • B.

      B. 480.

    • C.

      C. 978.

    • D.

      D. 980.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 978.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. 978. The Air Force uses AF Form 978 to report ground mishaps. This form is used to document and investigate any accidents or incidents that occur on the ground, such as vehicle collisions, equipment damage, or injuries. By using this form, the Air Force can track and analyze trends in ground mishaps, identify areas for improvement, and implement safety measures to prevent future incidents.

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  • 6. 

    (201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?

    • A.

      A. 475.

    • B.

      B. 480.

    • C.

      C. 978.

    • D.

      D. 980.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 475.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. 475. The Air Force (AF) uses the AF Form 475 to report a hazard. This form is used to document and report any potential or actual hazards that may pose a risk to personnel, equipment, or operations. It allows for the identification and assessment of hazards, as well as the implementation of appropriate risk management measures to mitigate or eliminate the risks. By using the AF Form 475, the Air Force can effectively track and address hazards to ensure the safety and well-being of its personnel and resources.

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  • 7. 

    (202) What three sub-categories make up human factors?

    • A.

      A. Physiological, physical, stress.

    • B.

      B. Physiological, Physical, social.

    • C.

      C. Stress, organizational, physical.

    • D.

      D. Physical, physiological, organizational.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Physical, physiological, organizational.
    Explanation
    The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical, physiological, and organizational. Physical factors refer to the physical environment and equipment that individuals interact with. Physiological factors involve the psychological and cognitive aspects of human performance, such as attention, perception, and decision-making. Organizational factors encompass the social and organizational aspects that influence human behavior and performance, including communication, teamwork, and workload management.

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  • 8. 

    (202) Which action is a physiological factor?

    • A.

      A. Performing a task while fatigued.

    • B.

      B. Performing a task while intoxicated.

    • C.

      C. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.

    • D.

      D. Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.
  • 9. 

    (201) Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

    • A.

      A. Air Staff.

    • B.

      B. Civil Engineering.

    • C.

      C. Squadron commander.

    • D.

      D. Installation safety office.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Installation safety office.
    Explanation
    The responsibility of advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation lies with the Installation safety office. They are specifically designated to provide guidance and support in ensuring the safety of personnel and operations within the installation.

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  • 10. 

    (202) Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?

    • A.

      A. Bioenvironmental Engineering.

    • B.

      B. Installation safety office.

    • C.

      C. Base civil engineer.

    • D.

      D. Supervisors.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Bioenvironmental Engineering.
    Explanation
    Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess and analyze potential health risks in the environment and develop appropriate control measures to minimize or eliminate those risks. This includes conducting risk assessments, implementing engineering controls, providing training and education, and monitoring the effectiveness of control measures. The other options listed, such as the Installation Safety Office, Base Civil Engineer, and Supervisors, may have roles in overall safety and health management but do not specifically focus on recommending controls for health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards.

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  • 11. 

    (202) What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.

    • A.

      A. Isolating operations.

    • B.

      B. Providing administrative controls.

    • C.

      C. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).

    • D.

      D. Substitution a less hazardous material or process.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).
    Explanation
    The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it only provides protection to the individual wearing it and does not eliminate or reduce the hazard at its source. PPE should be used in conjunction with other control measures such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. Relying solely on PPE may not effectively protect against hazards and should be used as a last resort when other control methods are not feasible or practical.

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  • 12. 

    (202) How many impact classifications do hardhats have?

    • A.

      A. One.

    • B.

      B. Two.

    • C.

      C. Three.

    • D.

      D. Four.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Two.
    Explanation
    Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to protect against two different levels of impact. The classifications are usually expressed as Type I and Type II. Type I hardhats are designed to protect against impacts to the top of the head, while Type II hardhats provide additional protection against impacts to the sides and top of the head. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Two.

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  • 13. 

    (202) Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?

    • A.

      A. A.

    • B.

      B. C.

    • C.

      C. E.

    • D.

      D. G.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. C.
    Explanation
    Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors. This is because class C helmets are designed for lightweight comfort and offer no electrical insulation. They are primarily used in construction and other industries where there is no risk of electrical hazards.

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  • 14. 

    (203) What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

    • A.

      A. Falls.

    • B.

      B. Poor lighting.

    • C.

      C. Horseplay.

    • D.

      D. Poor ergonomics.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Falls.
    Explanation
    The greatest hazard in a typical office is falls. This can include slips, trips, and falls due to wet floors, uneven surfaces, or cluttered walkways. Falls can result in serious injuries such as fractures or head trauma. It is important for employers to maintain a safe working environment by keeping walkways clear, providing proper lighting, and implementing measures to prevent falls, such as installing handrails and using non-slip mats.

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  • 15. 

    (203) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

    • A.

      A. 1 to 2.

    • B.

      B. 2 to 2.5.

    • C.

      C. 2 to 4.5.

    • D.

      D. 2.5 to 3.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 2 to 2.5.
    Explanation
    According to the CDC, office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers.

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  • 16. 

    (203) What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?

    • A.

      A. 8.

    • B.

      B. 9.

    • C.

      C. 10.

    • D.

      D. 11.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 10.
    Explanation
    Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.

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  • 17. 

    (203) How are fires classified?

    • A.

      A. Fuel type.

    • B.

      B. Heat source.

    • C.

      C. Temperature.

    • D.

      D. Atmospheric conditions.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Fuel type.
    Explanation
    Fires are classified based on the type of fuel they burn. Different types of fuel, such as wood, paper, or gasoline, produce different types of fires with varying characteristics. Understanding the fuel type is crucial in determining the appropriate firefighting techniques and strategies to control and extinguish the fire effectively. The classification helps in identifying the potential hazards, predicting fire behavior, and selecting the appropriate firefighting equipment and agents.

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  • 18. 

    (203) What classification do flammable liquids receive?

    • A.

      A. Class A.

    • B.

      B. Class B.

    • C.

      C. Class C.

    • D.

      D. Class D.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Class B.
    Explanation
    Flammable liquids receive classification as Class B. This classification is used for liquids that have a flash point below 100°F (37.8°C) and a boiling point above 100°F (37.8°C). Class B liquids can easily ignite and pose a fire hazard. Examples of Class B liquids include gasoline, alcohol, and diesel fuel.

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  • 19. 

    (203) Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

    • A.

      A. Class A.

    • B.

      B. Class B.

    • C.

      C. Class C.

    • D.

      D. Class D.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Class C.
    Explanation
    When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they will change to Class C. This is because Class C fuels are flammable liquids that can conduct electricity. The introduction of an electric current can cause these fuels to become conductive and increase the risk of fire or explosion. Therefore, the correct answer is c. Class C.

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  • 20. 

    (203) What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

    • A.

      A. Evacuate personnel from the building.

    • B.

      B. Extinguish the fire if possible.

    • C.

      C. Call the fire department.

    • D.

      D. Sound the fire alarm.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Sound the fire alarm.
    Explanation
    The first action to take when encountering a fire is to sound the fire alarm. This is crucial because it alerts everyone in the building to the emergency, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. By sounding the alarm, you are taking immediate action to ensure the safety of all personnel. Evacuating personnel, extinguishing the fire, and calling the fire department are important steps to follow, but they should be done after the fire alarm has been sounded.

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  • 21. 

    (203) What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?

    • A.

      A. Evacuate personnel from the building.

    • B.

      B. Extinguish the fire if possible.

    • C.

      C. Call the fire department.

    • D.

      D. Sound the fire alarm.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Extinguish the fire if possible.
    Explanation
    The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to try and put out the fire. It is important to prioritize the safety of personnel and evacuate them from the building before attempting to extinguish the fire. Calling the fire department should be done earlier in the procedure to ensure professional assistance is on the way. Sounding the fire alarm is typically done at the beginning of the procedure to alert everyone in the building of the emergency.

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  • 22. 

    (203) Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

    • A.

      A. 50.

    • B.

      B. 40.

    • C.

      C. 20.

    • D.

      D. 10.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 50.
    Explanation
    Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps can cause cardiac arrest. This means that if a person is exposed to a current of this magnitude, it can disrupt the normal electrical signals in the heart and lead to a potentially life-threatening condition. It is important to note that this is a general guideline and individual susceptibility to electric shock can vary.

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  • 23. 

    (203) Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

    • A.

      A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.

    • B.

      B. Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder.

    • C.

      C. Using a ladder as a scaffold.

    • D.

      D. Using a homemade ladder.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.
    Explanation
    The use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, there is no risk of electric shock or electrical accidents when using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits. However, it is still important to exercise caution and follow safety guidelines when working with electrical equipment.

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  • 24. 

    (204) Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

    • A.

      A. Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B.

      B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C.

      C. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.

    • D.

      D. Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.
    Explanation
    Risk management involves systematically identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks, and then implementing strategies to mitigate or manage those risks. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would contradict the principles of risk management, as it should be consistently and regularly applied to ensure the effectiveness of risk mitigation strategies.

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  • 25. 

    (204) The risk management process includes how many steps?

    • A.

      A. Four.

    • B.

      B. Five.

    • C.

      C. Six.

    • D.

      D. Seven.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Five.
    Explanation
    The risk management process includes five steps. These steps are: 1) Identify the risks, 2) Analyze and assess the risks, 3) Develop risk response strategies, 4) Implement risk response strategies, and 5) Monitor and review the risks. Each step is essential in effectively managing and mitigating risks in a project or organization.

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  • 26. 

    (205) How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?

    • A.

      A. One.

    • B.

      B. Two.

    • C.

      C. Three.

    • D.

      D. Four.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Four.
    Explanation
    The Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is composed of four volumes. Each volume provides guidance and standards for different aspects of the architecture framework, including the overall framework, the architecture data, the architecture products, and the architecture usage guide. These volumes work together to provide a comprehensive approach to developing and managing architectures within the Department of Defense.

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  • 27. 

    (205) Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

    • A.

      A. Office of Administration.

    • B.

      Office of Communications.

    • C.

      C. Office of Public Engagement.

    • D.

      D. Office of Management and Budget.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Office of Management and Budget.
    Explanation
    The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. OMB plays a crucial role in overseeing and managing the federal budget, including evaluating agency IT investments to ensure they align with strategic goals and deliver value to the government and the public.

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  • 28. 

    (205) What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?

    • A.

      A. State level.

    • B.

      B. Federal level.

    • C.

      C. Congressional level.

    • D.

      D. Department of Defense level.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Federal level.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Federal level. Federal level requirements mandate the development of Air Force architectures. This means that the requirements are set by the federal government, specifically at a national level. These requirements are likely to be broad and overarching, ensuring that the Air Force aligns with national objectives and priorities. It is important for the Air Force to develop architectures that meet these federal level requirements in order to effectively carry out its mission and support national security.

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  • 29. 

    (206) What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

    • A.

      A. Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record.

    • B.

      B. Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.

    • C.

      C. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.

    • D.

      D. Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.
    Explanation
    The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) consists of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes documentation related to the installation, such as contracts, permits, and correspondence. The drawing record contains diagrams and blueprints of the installation layout. The maintenance record includes information about the ongoing maintenance and repairs performed on the system. These three parts collectively provide a comprehensive record of the installation, its design, and its maintenance history.

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  • 30. 

    (206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?

    • A.

      A. Administrative record.

    • B.

      B. Maintenance record.

    • C.

      C. Drawing record.

    • D.

      D. Outage record.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Drawing record.
    Explanation
    The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems. It provides engineering data such as diagrams, schematics, and blueprints that show the arrangement of equipment and cables. This section is essential for understanding the infrastructure and design of the communication and information systems installation.

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  • 31. 

    (206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?

    • A.

      A. Administrative record.

    • B.

      B. Maintenance record.

    • C.

      C. Drawing record.

    • D.

      D. Outage record.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Maintenance record.
    Explanation
    The maintenance record is typically retained in the production work center of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). This record contains important information about the maintenance activities performed on the systems, including repairs, replacements, and upgrades. It helps track the history of maintenance work done on the systems and is essential for troubleshooting and future maintenance planning.

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  • 32. 

    (207) What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?

    • A.

      A. Programming.

    • B.

      B. Transport.

    • C.

      C. Network.

    • D.

      D. Data.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Network.
    Explanation
    The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify different functions related to network communication. The network layer is responsible for addressing and routing packets across different networks. It determines the best path for data transmission and handles logical addressing. The other options, programming, transport, and data, do not accurately describe the functions of the OSI layers.

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  • 33. 

    (207) What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.

    • A.

      A. Data Transport and Application.

    • B.

      B. Session and Data Transport.

    • C.

      C. Network and Presentation.

    • D.

      D. Application and Session.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Data Transport and Application.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Data Transport and Application. The OSI reference model consists of seven layers: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application. The two categories of these layers are Data Transport (Physical, Data Link, Network, and Transport) and Application (Session, Presentation, and Application). The Data Transport layers are responsible for the movement of data across the network, while the Application layers are responsible for providing services to the end-user applications.

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  • 34. 

    (207) The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?

    • A.

      A. Transport.

    • B.

      B. Data Link.

    • C.

      C. Physical.

    • D.

      D. Session.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Data Link.
    Explanation
    The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. The Data Link layer is responsible for providing error-free transmission of data over the physical layer. The LLC sublayer specifically handles flow control and error checking, ensuring reliable communication between network devices. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Data Link.

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  • 35. 

    (207) What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

    • A.

      A. Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.

    • B.

      B. Communications between devices over a single link of a network.

    • C.

      C. Protocol access to the physical network medium.

    • D.

      D. Protocol access to the links of a network.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Communications between devices over a single link of a network.
    Explanation
    The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for error control, flow control, and framing of data packets. It provides a reliable and transparent link for upper-layer protocols to transmit data over the network. The LLC sublayer ensures that data is properly encapsulated and delivered to the correct destination on the same network link.

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  • 36. 

    (207) What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

    • A.

      A. Communications between devices over a single link of a network.

    • B.

      B. Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.

    • C.

      C. Protocol access to the physical network medium.

    • D.

      D. Protocol access to the links of a network.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Protocol access to the physical network medium.
    Explanation
    The media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it is responsible for controlling how devices on a network gain access to the physical medium (such as cables or wireless frequencies) in order to transmit their data. The MAC sublayer determines when and how devices can transmit data, manages collision detection and resolution, and ensures that only one device can transmit at a time to avoid data corruption or loss.

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  • 37. 

    (208) When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network’s

    • A.

      A. transport topology.

    • B.

      B. physical topology.

    • C.

      C. physical medium.

    • D.

      D. logical topology.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. physical topology.
    Explanation
    The word "topology" refers to the arrangement or structure of a network. When used alone, it typically refers to the physical arrangement of the network, known as the physical topology. This includes the physical components such as cables, devices, and their physical connections. The physical topology describes how these components are physically organized and connected to each other. Therefore, option b. physical topology is the correct answer.

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  • 38. 

    (208) What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

    • A.

      A. Star.

    • B.

      B. Ring.

    • C.

      C. Loop.

    • D.

      D. Linear.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Linear.
    Explanation
    A bus topology is a network configuration in which all devices are connected to a single cable called a bus. This type of topology is also known as a linear topology because the devices are arranged in a linear manner along the bus. Each device on the network can transmit data to all other devices on the bus, making it a simple and cost-effective solution for small networks. The other options, star, ring, and loop, refer to different network topologies that have different configurations and characteristics.

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  • 39. 

    (208) What topology offers centralized management of a network?

    • A.

      A. Bus.

    • B.

      B. Star.

    • C.

      C. Ring.

    • D.

      D. Radial.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Star.
    Explanation
    The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch. This central hub acts as a central point of control and allows for easy monitoring and management of the network. Any changes or updates can be made at the central hub, making it a convenient and efficient topology for network management.

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  • 40. 

    (208) What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

    • A.

      A. There are no negative effects.

    • B.

      B. A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication.

    • C.

      C. Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices.

    • D.

      D. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.
    Explanation
    When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to manage communication between the different networks. If this central node point fails, it can result in large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that communication between those isolated portions and the rest of the network would be disrupted, leading to a negative effect on the overall network connectivity.

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  • 41. 

    (209) Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

    • A.

      A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • B.

      B. Federal Communications Commission (FCC).

    • C.

      C. Department of Homeland Security (DHS).

    • D.

      D. Department of Defense (DOD).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
    Explanation
    The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the governing body for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD). They have authority over every level of IT communication, from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. They are responsible for managing and securing the DOD's information infrastructure, ensuring effective and efficient communication capabilities for the DOD.

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  • 42. 

    (210) What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?

    • A.

      A. Regular of how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.

    • B.

      B. Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine (in the application layer).

    • C.

      C. Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.

    • D.

      D. Preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.
    Explanation
    A TCP socket is a combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers. This means that when a process wants to communicate over a network using TCP, it needs to specify a port number and an IP address to establish a connection with another process. The TCP socket acts as a unique identifier for the communication between the two processes, allowing them to send and receive data over the network.

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  • 43. 

    (210) What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?

    • A.

      A. Request network services and pass arguments between layers.

    • B.

      B. Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine.

    • C.

      C. Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.

    • D.

      D. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
    Explanation
    The purpose of a sliding window in TCP is to regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps in managing the flow of data between the sender and receiver, ensuring that the sender does not overwhelm the receiver with too much data at once. The sliding window mechanism allows for efficient and reliable data transmission by dynamically adjusting the amount of data that can be sent before waiting for acknowledgements.

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  • 44. 

    (211) What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

    • A.

      A. Version Identification.

    • B.

      B. Header Checksum.

    • C.

      C. Time to Live.

    • D.

      D. Flags.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Header Checksum.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Header Checksum. The header checksum is a field in the IP datagram that allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers. It is a simple mathematical calculation performed on the header data, and the result is included in the header. When the receiving device receives the datagram, it recalculates the checksum and compares it to the one in the header. If they don't match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the datagram is discarded. This helps to ensure the integrity of the IP datagram headers.

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  • 45. 

    (211) What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

    • A.

      A. 239.

    • B.

      B. 254.

    • C.

      C. 255.

    • D.

      D. 256.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 255.
    Explanation
    The maximum value of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) is 255. An octet is a unit of data that consists of 8 bits, and in IPv4, each octet represents a number ranging from 0 to 255. Therefore, the correct answer is c. 255.

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  • 46. 

    (211) Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?

    • A.

      A. Class A address.

    • B.

      B. Class B address.

    • C.

      C. Class C address.

    • D.

      D. Class D address.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Class C address.
    Explanation
    Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. In Class C addressing, the first three octets represent the network portion, while the last octet represents the host portion. Since the host portion consists of 8 bits (2^8 = 256), but the first and last addresses are reserved for network and broadcast addresses respectively, the actual number of usable hosts is 254. Class A and Class B addresses have larger network portions, which means they can accommodate more hosts per network. Class D addresses are used for multicast purposes and do not have a specific limit on the number of hosts per network.

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  • 47. 

    (211) What class is reserved for multicast addressing?

    • A.

      A. Class A address.

    • B.

      B. Class B address.

    • C.

      C. Class C address.

    • D.

      D. Class D address.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Class D address.
    Explanation
    Class D addresses are reserved for multicast addressing. In IP addressing, multicast allows a single packet to be sent to multiple recipients simultaneously. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255, and they are used for multicast groups. These addresses are not assigned to individual devices like Class A, B, or C addresses, but rather used for communication between groups of devices that have joined a multicast group.

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  • 48. 

    (212) What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?

    • A.

      A. 0–1023.

    • B.

      . 1024–49151.

    • C.

      C. 49152–65535.

    • D.

      D. 65536–87000.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 0–1023.
    Explanation
    Well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are assigned to commonly used services and protocols such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). These ports are reserved for specific purposes and are well-known within the networking community.

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  • 49. 

    (213) What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?

    • A.

      A. ROM is volatile, RAM in non-volatile.

    • B.

      B. ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile.

    • C.

      C. RAM has a slower access time versus ROM.

    • D.

      D. ROM has a slower access time versus RAM.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. ROM has a slower access time versus RAM.
    Explanation
    ROM stands for Read Only Memory, which means that the data stored in ROM cannot be modified or erased. On the other hand, RAM stands for Random Access Memory, which allows data to be both read and written. The major difference between ROM and RAM is the access time. ROM has a slower access time compared to RAM, meaning that it takes more time to retrieve data from ROM compared to RAM. This is because ROM is designed for permanent storage and is typically used to store firmware or other essential system data that does not need to be accessed frequently. RAM, on the other hand, is used for temporary storage and needs to be accessed quickly.

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  • 50. 

    (213) What action is the main purpose of system cache?

    • A.

      A. Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM).

    • B.

      B. Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data.

    • C.

      C. Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.

    • D.

      D. Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.
    Explanation
    The main purpose of system cache is to reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache is a small, high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data from the main memory. By storing this data closer to the CPU, the cache reduces the time it takes for the CPU to access the data, improving overall system performance. This helps to speed up the execution of programs and tasks by reducing the time needed to fetch data from the main memory.

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