Z3dx5x Ures Volume 2

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 2185

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Z3dx5x Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      A. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–200.

    • B. 

      B. AFI 91–202.

    • C. 

      C. Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91–200.

    • D. 

      D. AFMAN 91–202.

  • 2. 
    (201) What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
    • A. 

      A. Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.

    • B. 

      B. Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.

    • C. 

      C. Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.

    • D. 

      D. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.

  • 3. 
    (201) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of
    • A. 

      A. Commerce.

    • B. 

      B. the Treasury.

    • C. 

      C. Defense.

    • D. 

      D. Labor.

  • 4. 
    (201) What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?
    • A. 

      A. Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO).

    • B. 

      B. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).

    • C. 

      C. Review AF Form 55.

    • D. 

      D. Certify the employee.

  • 5. 
    (201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?
    • A. 

      A. 475.

    • B. 

      B. 480.

    • C. 

      C. 978.

    • D. 

      D. 980.

  • 6. 
    (201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?
    • A. 

      A. 475.

    • B. 

      B. 480.

    • C. 

      C. 978.

    • D. 

      D. 980.

  • 7. 
    (202) What three sub-categories make up human factors?
    • A. 

      A. Physiological, physical, stress.

    • B. 

      B. Physiological, Physical, social.

    • C. 

      C. Stress, organizational, physical.

    • D. 

      D. Physical, physiological, organizational.

  • 8. 
    • A. 

      A. Performing a task while fatigued.

    • B. 

      B. Performing a task while intoxicated.

    • C. 

      C. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.

    • D. 

      D. Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness.

  • 9. 
    (201) Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?
    • A. 

      A. Air Staff.

    • B. 

      B. Civil Engineering.

    • C. 

      C. Squadron commander.

    • D. 

      D. Installation safety office.

  • 10. 
    (202) Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?
    • A. 

      A. Bioenvironmental Engineering.

    • B. 

      B. Installation safety office.

    • C. 

      C. Base civil engineer.

    • D. 

      D. Supervisors.

  • 11. 
    (202) What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.
    • A. 

      A. Isolating operations.

    • B. 

      B. Providing administrative controls.

    • C. 

      C. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).

    • D. 

      D. Substitution a less hazardous material or process.

  • 12. 
    (202) How many impact classifications do hardhats have?
    • A. 

      A. One.

    • B. 

      B. Two.

    • C. 

      C. Three.

    • D. 

      D. Four.

  • 13. 
    (202) Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?
    • A. 

      A. A.

    • B. 

      B. C.

    • C. 

      C. E.

    • D. 

      D. G.

  • 14. 
    (203) What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
    • A. 

      A. Falls.

    • B. 

      B. Poor lighting.

    • C. 

      C. Horseplay.

    • D. 

      D. Poor ergonomics.

  • 15. 
    (203) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?
    • A. 

      A. 1 to 2.

    • B. 

      B. 2 to 2.5.

    • C. 

      C. 2 to 4.5.

    • D. 

      D. 2.5 to 3.

  • 16. 
    (203) What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?
    • A. 

      A. 8.

    • B. 

      B. 9.

    • C. 

      C. 10.

    • D. 

      D. 11.

  • 17. 
    (203) How are fires classified?
    • A. 

      A. Fuel type.

    • B. 

      B. Heat source.

    • C. 

      C. Temperature.

    • D. 

      D. Atmospheric conditions.

  • 18. 
    (203) What classification do flammable liquids receive?
    • A. 

      A. Class A.

    • B. 

      B. Class B.

    • C. 

      C. Class C.

    • D. 

      D. Class D.

  • 19. 
    (203) Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?
    • A. 

      A. Class A.

    • B. 

      B. Class B.

    • C. 

      C. Class C.

    • D. 

      D. Class D.

  • 20. 
    (203) What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
    • A. 

      A. Evacuate personnel from the building.

    • B. 

      B. Extinguish the fire if possible.

    • C. 

      C. Call the fire department.

    • D. 

      D. Sound the fire alarm.

  • 21. 
    (203) What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?
    • A. 

      A. Evacuate personnel from the building.

    • B. 

      B. Extinguish the fire if possible.

    • C. 

      C. Call the fire department.

    • D. 

      D. Sound the fire alarm.

  • 22. 
    (203) Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?
    • A. 

      A. 50.

    • B. 

      B. 40.

    • C. 

      C. 20.

    • D. 

      D. 10.

  • 23. 
    • A. 

      A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.

    • B. 

      B. Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder.

    • C. 

      C. Using a ladder as a scaffold.

    • D. 

      D. Using a homemade ladder.

  • 24. 
    (204) Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?
    • A. 

      A. Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B. 

      B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C. 

      C. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.

    • D. 

      D. Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels.

  • 25. 
    (204) The risk management process includes how many steps?
    • A. 

      A. Four.

    • B. 

      B. Five.

    • C. 

      C. Six.

    • D. 

      D. Seven.

  • 26. 
    (205) How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?
    • A. 

      A. One.

    • B. 

      B. Two.

    • C. 

      C. Three.

    • D. 

      D. Four.

  • 27. 
    • A. 

      A. Office of Administration.

    • B. 

      Office of Communications.

    • C. 

      C. Office of Public Engagement.

    • D. 

      D. Office of Management and Budget.

  • 28. 
    (205) What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?
    • A. 

      A. State level.

    • B. 

      B. Federal level.

    • C. 

      C. Congressional level.

    • D. 

      D. Department of Defense level.

  • 29. 
    (206) What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?
    • A. 

      A. Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record.

    • B. 

      B. Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.

    • C. 

      C. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.

    • D. 

      D. Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record.

  • 30. 
    (206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?
    • A. 

      A. Administrative record.

    • B. 

      B. Maintenance record.

    • C. 

      C. Drawing record.

    • D. 

      D. Outage record.

  • 31. 
    (206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?
    • A. 

      A. Administrative record.

    • B. 

      B. Maintenance record.

    • C. 

      C. Drawing record.

    • D. 

      D. Outage record.

  • 32. 
    (207) What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?
    • A. 

      A. Programming.

    • B. 

      B. Transport.

    • C. 

      C. Network.

    • D. 

      D. Data.

  • 33. 
    (207) What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.
    • A. 

      A. Data Transport and Application.

    • B. 

      B. Session and Data Transport.

    • C. 

      C. Network and Presentation.

    • D. 

      D. Application and Session.

  • 34. 
    (207) The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?
    • A. 

      A. Transport.

    • B. 

      B. Data Link.

    • C. 

      C. Physical.

    • D. 

      D. Session.

  • 35. 
    • A. 

      A. Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.

    • B. 

      B. Communications between devices over a single link of a network.

    • C. 

      C. Protocol access to the physical network medium.

    • D. 

      D. Protocol access to the links of a network.

  • 36. 
    (207) What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?
    • A. 

      A. Communications between devices over a single link of a network.

    • B. 

      B. Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.

    • C. 

      C. Protocol access to the physical network medium.

    • D. 

      D. Protocol access to the links of a network.

  • 37. 
    (208) When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network’s
    • A. 

      A. transport topology.

    • B. 

      B. physical topology.

    • C. 

      C. physical medium.

    • D. 

      D. logical topology.

  • 38. 
    (208) What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
    • A. 

      A. Star.

    • B. 

      B. Ring.

    • C. 

      C. Loop.

    • D. 

      D. Linear.

  • 39. 
    (208) What topology offers centralized management of a network?
    • A. 

      A. Bus.

    • B. 

      B. Star.

    • C. 

      C. Ring.

    • D. 

      D. Radial.

  • 40. 
    • A. 

      A. There are no negative effects.

    • B. 

      B. A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication.

    • C. 

      C. Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices.

    • D. 

      D. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.

  • 41. 
    • A. 

      A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • B. 

      B. Federal Communications Commission (FCC).

    • C. 

      C. Department of Homeland Security (DHS).

    • D. 

      D. Department of Defense (DOD).

  • 42. 
    • A. 

      A. Regular of how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.

    • B. 

      B. Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine (in the application layer).

    • C. 

      C. Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.

    • D. 

      D. Preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.

  • 43. 
    • A. 

      A. Request network services and pass arguments between layers.

    • B. 

      B. Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine.

    • C. 

      C. Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.

    • D. 

      D. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.

  • 44. 
    (211) What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?
    • A. 

      A. Version Identification.

    • B. 

      B. Header Checksum.

    • C. 

      C. Time to Live.

    • D. 

      D. Flags.

  • 45. 
    (211) What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?
    • A. 

      A. 239.

    • B. 

      B. 254.

    • C. 

      C. 255.

    • D. 

      D. 256.

  • 46. 
    (211) Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?
    • A. 

      A. Class A address.

    • B. 

      B. Class B address.

    • C. 

      C. Class C address.

    • D. 

      D. Class D address.

  • 47. 
    (211) What class is reserved for multicast addressing?
    • A. 

      A. Class A address.

    • B. 

      B. Class B address.

    • C. 

      C. Class C address.

    • D. 

      D. Class D address.

  • 48. 
    (212) What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?
    • A. 

      A. 0–1023.

    • B. 

      . 1024–49151.

    • C. 

      C. 49152–65535.

    • D. 

      D. 65536–87000.

  • 49. 
    • A. 

      A. ROM is volatile, RAM in non-volatile.

    • B. 

      B. ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile.

    • C. 

      C. RAM has a slower access time versus ROM.

    • D. 

      D. ROM has a slower access time versus RAM.

  • 50. 
    • A. 

      A. Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM).

    • B. 

      B. Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data.

    • C. 

      C. Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.

    • D. 

      D. Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data.

  • 51. 
    (214) What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?
    • A. 

      A. Two gigabits per second (GB/S).

    • B. 

      B. Four GB/S.

    • C. 

      C. Five GB/S.

    • D. 

      D. 10 GB/S.

  • 52. 
    • A. 

      A. A main internal component of a computer.

    • B. 

      B. Not a main internal component of a computer.

    • C. 

      C. A main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.

    • D. 

      D. Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.

  • 53. 
    (215) Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?
    • A. 

      A. Printer.

    • B. 

      B. Scanner.

    • C. 

      C. Monitor.

    • D. 

      D. Camera lens.

  • 54. 
    • A. 

      A. Local area network (LAN).

    • B. 

      B. Wide area network (WAN).

    • C. 

      C. Virtual private network (VPN).

    • D. 

      D. Metropolitan area network (MAN).

  • 55. 
    • A. 

      A. Local area network (LAN).

    • B. 

      B. Wide area network (WAN).

    • C. 

      C. Virtual private network (VPN).

    • D. 

      D. Metropolitan area network (MAN).

  • 56. 
    (216) Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?
    • A. 

      A. Local area network (LAN).

    • B. 

      B. Wide area network (WAN).

    • C. 

      C. Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    • D. 

      D. Wireless local area network (WLAN).

  • 57. 
    (216) Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?
    • A. 

      A. Service set identifier (SSID) Broadcasting.

    • B. 

      B. Media access control (MAC) Filtering.

    • C. 

      C. Encryption.

    • D. 

      D. Tunneling.

  • 58. 
    216) Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?
    • A. 

      A. Local area network (LAN).

    • B. 

      B. Wide area network (WAN).

    • C. 

      C. Virtual private network (VPN).

    • D. 

      D. Metropolitan area network (MAN).

  • 59. 
    (217) What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratifies the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE)?
    • A. 

      A. 1988.

    • B. 

      B. 1999.

    • C. 

      C. 2005.

    • D. 

      D. 2009.

  • 60. 
    (218) How many T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits do Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer?
    • A. 

      A. 24.

    • B. 

      B. 15.

    • C. 

      C. 10.

    • D. 

      D. 7.

  • 61. 
    (219) Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling.
    • A. 

      A. Media converter.

    • B. 

      B. Modem.

    • C. 

      C. Switch.

    • D. 

      D. Router.

  • 62. 
    • A. 

      A. Data Link layer network device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks.

    • B. 

      B. Network layer device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks.

    • C. 

      C. Data Link layer device that provide central connection to network devices.

    • D. 

      D. Network layer device that provide central connection to network devices.

  • 63. 
    (221) What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems to connect together?
    • A. 

      A. Open shortest path first (OSPF).

    • B. 

      B. Exterior gateway protocol (EGP).

    • C. 

      C. Interior gateway protocol (IGP).

    • D. 

      D. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP).

  • 64. 
    (222) What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a host network?
    • A. 

      A. Switch.

    • B. 

      B. Modem.

    • C. 

      C. Gateway.

    • D. 

      D. Converter.

  • 65. 
    • A. 

      A. Internet Protocol.

    • B. 

      B. End-to-end.

    • C. 

      C. Bulk.

    • D. 

      D. Link.

  • 66. 
    (224) What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?
    • A. 

      A. Cost to install and train technicians.

    • B. 

      B. Electromagnetic immunity.

    • C. 

      C. Low attenuation.

    • D. 

      D. Security.

  • 67. 
    (225) In general, how many operating system task categories are there?
    • A. 

      A. Four.

    • B. 

      B. Five.

    • C. 

      C. Six.

    • D. 

      D. Seven.

  • 68. 
    (225) What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?
    • A. 

      A. Shell.

    • B. 

      B. Kernel.

    • C. 

      C. User programs.

    • D. 

      D. Dynamic-link library.

  • 69. 
    (226) What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?
    • A. 

      A. Word.

    • B. 

      B. Access.

    • C. 

      C. Outlook.

    • D. 

      D. PowerPoint.

  • 70. 
    (226) What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?
    • A. 

      A. Word.

    • B. 

      B. Access.

    • C. 

      C. Outlook.

    • D. 

      D. PowerPoint.

  • 71. 
    (227) What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an organization’s mission critical information via its communications and ISs?
    • A. 

      A. Malware.

    • B. 

      B. Denial of service attacks.

    • C. 

      C. Inadvertent employee activity.

    • D. 

      D. Hostile information operations.

  • 72. 
    (228) Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?
    • A. 

      A. Attacker’s capability to exploit the flaw.

    • B. 

      B. System’s susceptibility to a flaw.

    • C. 

      C. Attacker’s access to the flaw.

    • D. 

      D. Attacker’s lack of ability.

  • 73. 
    • A. 

      A. 4.

    • B. 

      B. 6.

    • C. 

      C. 8.

    • D. 

      D. 10.

  • 74. 
    (228) Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?
    • A. 

      A. Malware.

    • B. 

      B. Spyware.

    • C. 

      C. Adware.

    • D. 

      D. Trojans.

  • 75. 
    • A. 

      A. Classified message incident.

    • B. 

      B. Eavesdropping.

    • C. 

      C. Data Spillage.

    • D. 

      D. Backdoor.

  • 76. 
    (229) Which classified document markings identifies the highest level of classification?
    • A. 

      A. Banner Lines.

    • B. 

      B. Portion Marks.

    • C. 

      C. Component and office.

    • D. 

      D. Classification authority.

  • 77. 
    • A. 

      A. Banner Lines.

    • B. 

      B. Portion Marks.

    • C. 

      C. Component and office.

    • D. 

      D. Classification authority.

  • 78. 
    • A. 

      A. General Service Administration (GSA) makes that determination.

    • B. 

      B. Office of Special Investigation (OSI) makes that determination.

    • C. 

      C. Wing information office makes that determination.

    • D. 

      D. By competing a risk assessment.

  • 79. 
    (230) Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?
    • A. 

      A. When it is placed in service.

    • B. 

      B. When it is removed from service.

    • C. 

      C. When the storage container has been cleaned.

    • D. 

      D. When compromise of the combination is suspected.

  • 80. 
    (230) Which Air Force (AF) form records the destruction of Top Secret classified material?
    • A. 

      A. AF Form 88.

    • B. 

      B. AF Form 143.

    • C. 

      C. AF Form 144.

    • D. 

      D. AF Form 1776.

  • 81. 
    (231) Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information?
    • A. 

      A. Classified Information Program Manager.

    • B. 

      B. Information Assurance Officer.

    • C. 

      C. Security Manager.

    • D. 

      D. Supervisor.

  • 82. 
    (231) Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday?
    • A. 

      A. Classified Information Program Manager.

    • B. 

      B. Information Assurance Officer.

    • C. 

      C. Security Manager.

    • D. 

      D. Supervisor.

  • 83. 
    • A. 

      A. Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN).

    • B. 

      B. Defense Information Systems Network (DISN).

    • C. 

      C. Air Force Information Network (AFIN).

    • D. 

      D. Defense Intelligence Network (DIN).

  • 84. 
    (232) Which of the following services provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas?
    • A. 

      A. Transport.

    • B. 

      B. Application.

    • C. 

      C. Aerial layer.

    • D. 

      D. Satellite communication (SATCOM).

  • 85. 
    • A. 

      A. Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN).

    • B. 

      B. Defense Information Systems Network (DISN).

    • C. 

      C. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • D. 

      D. Air Force Information Network (AFIN).

  • 86. 
    (233) Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?
    • A. 

      A. Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).

    • B. 

      B. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).

    • C. 

      C. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.

    • D. 

      D. Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data.

  • 87. 
    • A. 

      A. Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).

    • B. 

      B. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).

    • C. 

      C. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.

    • D. 

      D. Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data.

  • 88. 
    • A. 

      A. Defense Switched Network (DSN).

    • B. 

      B. Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN).

    • C. 

      C. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.

    • D. 

      C. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data. d. Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) Internet Protocol (IP) Data.

  • 89. 
    • A. 

      A. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

    • B. 

      B. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

    • C. 

      C. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

    • D. 

      D. Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

  • 90. 
    • A. 

      A. Common Operational Picture (COP).

    • B. 

      B. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

    • C. 

      C. GCCS Status of Resources and Training (GSORTS).

    • D. 

      D. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution System (DCAPES).

  • 91. 
    (236) What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?
    • A. 

      A. Air Force Portal.

    • B. 

      B. IMDS.

    • C. 

      C. Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS).

    • D. 

      D. Electronic-publications (E-pub).

  • 92. 
    • A. 

      A. Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

    • B. 

      B. Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

    • C. 

      C. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

    • D. 

      D. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

  • 93. 
    • A. 

      A. Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

    • B. 

      B. Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

    • C. 

      C. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

    • D. 

      D. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

  • 94. 
    (238) How many air defenses sectors is the Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) divided into?
    • A. 

      A. Six.

    • B. 

      B. Five.

    • C. 

      C. Four.

    • D. 

      D. Two.

  • 95. 
    • A. 

      A. Global Broadcast System (GBS).

    • B. 

      B. Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

    • C. 

      C. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

    • D. 

      D. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

  • 96. 
    • A. 

      A. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

    • B. 

      B. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

    • C. 

      C. National Military Command Center (NMCC).

    • D. 

      D. Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).

  • 97. 
    • A. 

      A. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

    • B. 

      B. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

    • C. 

      C. Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).

    • D. 

      D. Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

  • 98. 
    • A. 

      A. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

    • B. 

      B. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

    • C. 

      C. Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).

    • D. 

      D. Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

  • 99. 
    (242) What system mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users?
    • A. 

      A. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

    • B. 

      B. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

    • C. 

      C. Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).

    • D. 

      D. Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

  • 100. 
    • A. 

      A. Mystic Star.

    • B. 

      B. Global HF system.

    • C. 

      C. Defense Communication System (DCS) entry.

    • D. 

      D. System of Inter-American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA).