Z3dx5x UREs Volume 2

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  • 1/100 Questions

    216) Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?

    • A. Local area network (LAN).
    • B. Wide area network (WAN).
    • C. Virtual private network (VPN).
    • D. Metropolitan area network (MAN).
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Z3dx5x UREs Volume 2 - Quiz
About This Quiz

The Z3DX5X UREs Volume 2 quiz assesses knowledge on mishap prevention in the Air Force, covering regulations like AFMAN 91-202 and safety protocols. It's designed to enhance understanding of safety measures necessary to protect resources and personnel.


Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    (215) Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?

    • A. Printer.

    • B. Scanner.

    • C. Monitor.

    • D. Camera lens.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Scanner.
    Explanation
    A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image. It uses a combination of sensors and light to capture the image or text and then converts it into a digital format that can be stored or manipulated on a computer. Unlike a printer, which produces physical copies of digital images or text, a scanner takes physical copies and converts them into digital files. A monitor is a display device, and a camera lens is a part of a camera, neither of which directly convert physical images or text into digital format.

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  • 3. 

    (201) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of

    • A. Commerce.

    • B. the Treasury.

    • C. Defense.

    • D. Labor.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Labor.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. Labor. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency that is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States. It falls under the jurisdiction of the Department of Labor, which is responsible for protecting workers' rights and promoting fair and safe working conditions. The Department of Commerce, the Treasury, and Defense do not have direct involvement in workplace safety and health regulations.

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  • 4. 

    (203) What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

    • A. Evacuate personnel from the building.

    • B. Extinguish the fire if possible.

    • C. Call the fire department.

    • D. Sound the fire alarm.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Sound the fire alarm.
    Explanation
    The first action to take when encountering a fire is to sound the fire alarm. This is crucial because it alerts everyone in the building to the emergency, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. By sounding the alarm, you are taking immediate action to ensure the safety of all personnel. Evacuating personnel, extinguishing the fire, and calling the fire department are important steps to follow, but they should be done after the fire alarm has been sounded.

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  • 5. 

    (208) What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

    • A. Star.

    • B. Ring.

    • C. Loop.

    • D. Linear.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Linear.
    Explanation
    A bus topology is a network configuration in which all devices are connected to a single cable called a bus. This type of topology is also known as a linear topology because the devices are arranged in a linear manner along the bus. Each device on the network can transmit data to all other devices on the bus, making it a simple and cost-effective solution for small networks. The other options, star, ring, and loop, refer to different network topologies that have different configurations and characteristics.

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  • 6. 

    (224) What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?

    • A. Cost to install and train technicians.

    • B. Electromagnetic immunity.

    • C. Low attenuation.

    • D. Security.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Cost to install and train technicians.
    Explanation
    Fiber optic cable has several advantages, including electromagnetic immunity, low attenuation, and security. However, one characteristic that is not an advantage is the cost to install and train technicians. Fiber optic cables require specialized equipment and expertise for installation and maintenance, which can be expensive. Additionally, training technicians to work with fiber optic cables can also be costly. Therefore, the cost to install and train technicians is not a benefit of fiber optic cable.

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  • 7. 

    (228) Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

    • A. Malware.

    • B. Spyware.

    • C. Adware.

    • D. Trojans.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Spyware.
    Explanation
    Spyware is a type of computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It can be installed on a computer without the user's knowledge and can track their online activities, gather sensitive information such as passwords and credit card details, and send this data to third parties. Unlike adware, which displays unwanted advertisements, spyware focuses on gathering personal data covertly. Malware, adware, and Trojans may also pose security risks, but they do not specifically target personal information collection like spyware does.

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  • 8. 

    (233) Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?

    • A. Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).

    • B. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).

    • C. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.

    • D. Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user. The SBU IP Data or NIPRNET is used for transmitting unclassified information within the Department of Defense (DoD) and other government agencies. It provides a non-secure means of communication for routine and non-sensitive information.

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  • 9. 

    (203) What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

    • A. Falls.

    • B. Poor lighting.

    • C. Horseplay.

    • D. Poor ergonomics.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Falls.
    Explanation
    The greatest hazard in a typical office is falls. This can include slips, trips, and falls due to wet floors, uneven surfaces, or cluttered walkways. Falls can result in serious injuries such as fractures or head trauma. It is important for employers to maintain a safe working environment by keeping walkways clear, providing proper lighting, and implementing measures to prevent falls, such as installing handrails and using non-slip mats.

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  • 10. 

    (212) What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?

    • A. 0–1023.

    • . 1024–49151.

    • C. 49152–65535.

    • D. 65536–87000.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 0–1023.
    Explanation
    Well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are assigned to commonly used services and protocols such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). These ports are reserved for specific purposes and are well-known within the networking community.

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  • 11. 

    (216) Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

    • A. Service set identifier (SSID) Broadcasting.

    • B. Media access control (MAC) Filtering.

    • C. Encryption.

    • D. Tunneling.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Encryption.
    Explanation
    Encryption is the best method described as hiding a message in a special code. Encryption is the process of converting plain text into cipher text using an algorithm and a key. The cipher text can only be decrypted back into plain text by someone who has the correct key. This ensures that unauthorized users cannot understand the message even if they intercept it. Encryption is commonly used in WLANs to secure data transmission and protect against eavesdropping and unauthorized access.

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  • 12. 

    (201) What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

    • A. Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.

    • B. Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.

    • C. Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.

    • D. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death. This program aims to prevent accidents, incidents, and mishaps that could result in harm or negative consequences. By implementing safety measures, conducting risk assessments, and promoting safe practices, the program seeks to minimize the potential for accidents and protect both the physical assets and the well-being of individuals involved.

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  • 13. 

    (201) Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

    • A. Air Staff.

    • B. Civil Engineering.

    • C. Squadron commander.

    • D. Installation safety office.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Installation safety office.
    Explanation
    The responsibility of advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation lies with the Installation safety office. They are specifically designated to provide guidance and support in ensuring the safety of personnel and operations within the installation.

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  • 14. 

    (203) How are fires classified?

    • A. Fuel type.

    • B. Heat source.

    • C. Temperature.

    • D. Atmospheric conditions.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Fuel type.
    Explanation
    Fires are classified based on the type of fuel they burn. Different types of fuel, such as wood, paper, or gasoline, produce different types of fires with varying characteristics. Understanding the fuel type is crucial in determining the appropriate firefighting techniques and strategies to control and extinguish the fire effectively. The classification helps in identifying the potential hazards, predicting fire behavior, and selecting the appropriate firefighting equipment and agents.

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  • 15. 

    (203) Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

    • A. Class A.

    • B. Class B.

    • C. Class C.

    • D. Class D.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Class C.
    Explanation
    When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they will change to Class C. This is because Class C fuels are flammable liquids that can conduct electricity. The introduction of an electric current can cause these fuels to become conductive and increase the risk of fire or explosion. Therefore, the correct answer is c. Class C.

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  • 16. 

    (204) Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

    • A. Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.

    • D. Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.
    Explanation
    Risk management involves systematically identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks, and then implementing strategies to mitigate or manage those risks. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would contradict the principles of risk management, as it should be consistently and regularly applied to ensure the effectiveness of risk mitigation strategies.

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  • 17. 

    (208) What topology offers centralized management of a network?

    • A. Bus.

    • B. Star.

    • C. Ring.

    • D. Radial.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Star.
    Explanation
    The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch. This central hub acts as a central point of control and allows for easy monitoring and management of the network. Any changes or updates can be made at the central hub, making it a convenient and efficient topology for network management.

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  • 18. 

    (208) What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

    • A. There are no negative effects.

    • B. A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication.

    • C. Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices.

    • D. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.
    Explanation
    When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to manage communication between the different networks. If this central node point fails, it can result in large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that communication between those isolated portions and the rest of the network would be disrupted, leading to a negative effect on the overall network connectivity.

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  • 19. 

    (211) What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

    • A. Version Identification.

    • B. Header Checksum.

    • C. Time to Live.

    • D. Flags.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Header Checksum.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Header Checksum. The header checksum is a field in the IP datagram that allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers. It is a simple mathematical calculation performed on the header data, and the result is included in the header. When the receiving device receives the datagram, it recalculates the checksum and compares it to the one in the header. If they don't match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the datagram is discarded. This helps to ensure the integrity of the IP datagram headers.

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  • 20. 

    (216) Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?

    • A. Local area network (LAN).

    • B. Wide area network (WAN).

    • C. Virtual private network (VPN).

    • D. Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Local area network (LAN).
    Explanation
    A local area network (LAN) is a network of computers and devices that are connected to a common communications line and share resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area. This type of network is typically used in homes, offices, or schools where the computers and devices are in close proximity to each other. LANs allow for the sharing of files, printers, and internet connections, making it easier for users to collaborate and communicate with each other.

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  • 21. 

    (219) Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling.

    • A. Media converter.

    • B. Modem.

    • C. Switch.

    • D. Router.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Media converter.
    Explanation
    A media converter is a device that converts the electrical signal used in copper UTP network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling. This conversion is necessary because copper UTP cables use electrical signals to transmit data, while fiber optic cables use light waves. The media converter acts as a transceiver, receiving the electrical signal from the UTP cable and converting it into light waves to be transmitted through the fiber optic cable. This allows for the integration of different types of network cabling and enables communication between devices using different cable types.

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  • 22. 

    (203) What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?

    • A. Evacuate personnel from the building.

    • B. Extinguish the fire if possible.

    • C. Call the fire department.

    • D. Sound the fire alarm.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Extinguish the fire if possible.
    Explanation
    The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to try and put out the fire. It is important to prioritize the safety of personnel and evacuate them from the building before attempting to extinguish the fire. Calling the fire department should be done earlier in the procedure to ensure professional assistance is on the way. Sounding the fire alarm is typically done at the beginning of the procedure to alert everyone in the building of the emergency.

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  • 23. 

    (206) What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

    • A. Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record.

    • B. Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.

    • C. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.

    • D. Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.
    Explanation
    The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) consists of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes documentation related to the installation, such as contracts, permits, and correspondence. The drawing record contains diagrams and blueprints of the installation layout. The maintenance record includes information about the ongoing maintenance and repairs performed on the system. These three parts collectively provide a comprehensive record of the installation, its design, and its maintenance history.

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  • 24. 

    (209) Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

    • A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • B. Federal Communications Commission (FCC).

    • C. Department of Homeland Security (DHS).

    • D. Department of Defense (DOD).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
    Explanation
    The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the governing body for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD). They have authority over every level of IT communication, from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. They are responsible for managing and securing the DOD's information infrastructure, ensuring effective and efficient communication capabilities for the DOD.

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  • 25. 

    (216) Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

    • A. Local area network (LAN).

    • B. Wide area network (WAN).

    • C. Virtual private network (VPN).

    • D. Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Wide area network (WAN).
    Explanation
    A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects local area networks (LAN) and metropolitan area networks (MAN) using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. This allows for communication and data transfer between different LANs and MANs over a larger geographical area.

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  • 26. 

    (225) What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?

    • A. Shell.

    • B. Kernel.

    • C. User programs.

    • D. Dynamic-link library.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Kernel.
    Explanation
    The UNIX system software that interacts most closely with the hardware is the kernel. The kernel is the core component of the operating system that manages the system's resources and provides an interface for user programs to access the hardware. It handles tasks such as memory management, process scheduling, device drivers, and file system management. The kernel acts as a bridge between the hardware and the user programs, allowing them to execute and communicate with the hardware efficiently.

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  • 27. 

    (230) Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?

    • A. When it is placed in service.

    • B. When it is removed from service.

    • C. When the storage container has been cleaned.

    • D. When compromise of the combination is suspected.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. When the storage container has been cleaned.
    Explanation
    Changing the combination on a container storing classified materials is necessary when there is a potential compromise of security. Placing the container in service and removing it from service are valid reasons to change the combination as it ensures that only authorized personnel have access to the materials. However, cleaning the storage container does not pose a security risk or compromise the combination, so it is not a valid reason to change it.

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  • 28. 

    (202) What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.

    • A. Isolating operations.

    • B. Providing administrative controls.

    • C. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).

    • D. Substitution a less hazardous material or process.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).
    Explanation
    The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it only provides protection to the individual wearing it and does not eliminate or reduce the hazard at its source. PPE should be used in conjunction with other control measures such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. Relying solely on PPE may not effectively protect against hazards and should be used as a last resort when other control methods are not feasible or practical.

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  • 29. 

    (203) Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

    • A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.

    • B. Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder.

    • C. Using a ladder as a scaffold.

    • D. Using a homemade ladder.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.
    Explanation
    The use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, there is no risk of electric shock or electrical accidents when using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits. However, it is still important to exercise caution and follow safety guidelines when working with electrical equipment.

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  • 30. 

    (205) Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

    • A. Office of Administration.

    • Office of Communications.

    • C. Office of Public Engagement.

    • D. Office of Management and Budget.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Office of Management and Budget.
    Explanation
    The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. OMB plays a crucial role in overseeing and managing the federal budget, including evaluating agency IT investments to ensure they align with strategic goals and deliver value to the government and the public.

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  • 31. 

    (226) What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?

    • A. Word.

    • B. Access.

    • C. Outlook.

    • D. PowerPoint.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Access.
    Explanation
    Access is a Microsoft application that allows users to create a desktop database. It provides tools and features for designing and building databases, as well as creating forms, reports, and queries. With Access, users can easily organize and manage large amounts of data, making it a useful tool for businesses and individuals who need to store and retrieve information efficiently. Word, Outlook, and PowerPoint are not specifically designed for creating databases, making them incorrect options for this question.

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  • 32. 

    (236) What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?

    • A. Air Force Portal.

    • B. IMDS.

    • C. Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS).

    • D. Electronic-publications (E-pub).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Air Force Portal.
    Explanation
    The Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides the Air Force Portal as a major program that serves as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel. The Air Force Portal is a secure website that offers a wide range of resources and tools for Air Force members, including access to email, calendars, training materials, and other important information. It is designed to streamline communication and provide easy access to essential resources, making it an invaluable tool for Air Force personnel.

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  • 33. 

    (202) Which action is a physiological factor?

    • A. Performing a task while fatigued.

    • B. Performing a task while intoxicated.

    • C. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.

    • D. Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.
  • 34. 

    (203) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

    • A. 1 to 2.

    • B. 2 to 2.5.

    • C. 2 to 4.5.

    • D. 2.5 to 3.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 2 to 2.5.
    Explanation
    According to the CDC, office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers.

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  • 35. 

    (217) What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratifies the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE)?

    • A. 1988.

    • B. 1999.

    • C. 2005.

    • D. 2009.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 1999.
    Explanation
    In 1999, the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratified the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE). This means that in 1999, the IEEE officially approved and standardized the use of GbE, which is a high-speed networking technology that can transmit data at a rate of one gigabit per second.

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  • 36. 

    (228) Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?

    • A. Attacker’s capability to exploit the flaw.

    • B. System’s susceptibility to a flaw.

    • C. Attacker’s access to the flaw.

    • D. Attacker’s lack of ability.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Attacker’s lack of ability.
    Explanation
    This question is asking about a computer system vulnerability that is not present in a computer system. Options a, b, and c all refer to aspects of a vulnerability that can exist in a computer system, such as the attacker's capability to exploit the flaw, the system's susceptibility to a flaw, and the attacker's access to the flaw. Option d, on the other hand, states that the vulnerability is due to the attacker's lack of ability, which is not a characteristic of a vulnerability within a computer system.

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  • 37. 

    (203) Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

    • A. 50.

    • B. 40.

    • C. 20.

    • D. 10.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 50.
    Explanation
    Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps can cause cardiac arrest. This means that if a person is exposed to a current of this magnitude, it can disrupt the normal electrical signals in the heart and lead to a potentially life-threatening condition. It is important to note that this is a general guideline and individual susceptibility to electric shock can vary.

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  • 38. 

    (208) When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network’s

    • A. transport topology.

    • B. physical topology.

    • C. physical medium.

    • D. logical topology.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. physical topology.
    Explanation
    The word "topology" refers to the arrangement or structure of a network. When used alone, it typically refers to the physical arrangement of the network, known as the physical topology. This includes the physical components such as cables, devices, and their physical connections. The physical topology describes how these components are physically organized and connected to each other. Therefore, option b. physical topology is the correct answer.

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  • 39. 

    (216) Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?

    • A. Local area network (LAN).

    • B. Wide area network (WAN).

    • C. Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    • D. Wireless local area network (WLAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Wireless local area network (WLAN).
    Explanation
    Wireless local area networks (WLANs) use Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol that allows devices to sense the wireless medium before transmitting data. If the medium is busy, the device waits until it becomes idle before transmitting. This helps to avoid collisions between multiple devices trying to transmit at the same time. WLANs typically use CSMA/CA because they operate in an environment with shared wireless channels where collisions are more likely to occur.

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  • 40. 

    (207) The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?

    • A. Transport.

    • B. Data Link.

    • C. Physical.

    • D. Session.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Data Link.
    Explanation
    The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. The Data Link layer is responsible for providing error-free transmission of data over the physical layer. The LLC sublayer specifically handles flow control and error checking, ensuring reliable communication between network devices. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Data Link.

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  • 41. 

    (215) What is a peripheral device?

    • A. A main internal component of a computer.

    • B. Not a main internal component of a computer.

    • C. A main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.

    • D. Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.
    Explanation
    A peripheral device is not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external. This means that it is not essential for the basic functioning of a computer, but rather an additional device that can be connected to enhance its capabilities. Examples of peripheral devices include printers, scanners, keyboards, and mice. These devices can be either inside the computer case, such as a sound card or a network card, or external, such as a monitor or a webcam.

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  • 42. 

    (226) What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?

    • A. Word.

    • B. Access.

    • C. Outlook.

    • D. PowerPoint.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Outlook.
    Explanation
    Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is primarily used for managing emails, calendars, contacts, and tasks. It allows users to organize and prioritize their personal and professional information in one place. With features like email organization, scheduling meetings, and managing contacts, Outlook helps individuals stay organized and efficient in their daily activities.

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  • 43. 

    (201) What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

    • A. Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO).

    • B. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).

    • C. Review AF Form 55.

    • D. Certify the employee.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).
    Explanation
    Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves identifying potential hazards, assessing risks, and determining appropriate control measures to ensure the safety of employees. By conducting a JSA, supervisors can effectively plan and execute the task in a manner that minimizes the likelihood of accidents or injuries.

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  • 44. 

    (202) What three sub-categories make up human factors?

    • A. Physiological, physical, stress.

    • B. Physiological, Physical, social.

    • C. Stress, organizational, physical.

    • D. Physical, physiological, organizational.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Physical, physiological, organizational.
    Explanation
    The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical, physiological, and organizational. Physical factors refer to the physical environment and equipment that individuals interact with. Physiological factors involve the psychological and cognitive aspects of human performance, such as attention, perception, and decision-making. Organizational factors encompass the social and organizational aspects that influence human behavior and performance, including communication, teamwork, and workload management.

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  • 45. 

    (210) What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?

    • A. Request network services and pass arguments between layers.

    • B. Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine.

    • C. Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.

    • D. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
    Explanation
    The purpose of a sliding window in TCP is to regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps in managing the flow of data between the sender and receiver, ensuring that the sender does not overwhelm the receiver with too much data at once. The sliding window mechanism allows for efficient and reliable data transmission by dynamically adjusting the amount of data that can be sent before waiting for acknowledgements.

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  • 46. 

    (205) What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?

    • A. State level.

    • B. Federal level.

    • C. Congressional level.

    • D. Department of Defense level.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Federal level.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Federal level. Federal level requirements mandate the development of Air Force architectures. This means that the requirements are set by the federal government, specifically at a national level. These requirements are likely to be broad and overarching, ensuring that the Air Force aligns with national objectives and priorities. It is important for the Air Force to develop architectures that meet these federal level requirements in order to effectively carry out its mission and support national security.

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  • 47. 

    (206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?

    • A. Administrative record.

    • B. Maintenance record.

    • C. Drawing record.

    • D. Outage record.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Drawing record.
    Explanation
    The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems. It provides engineering data such as diagrams, schematics, and blueprints that show the arrangement of equipment and cables. This section is essential for understanding the infrastructure and design of the communication and information systems installation.

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  • 48. 

    (214) What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?

    • A. Two gigabits per second (GB/S).

    • B. Four GB/S.

    • C. Five GB/S.

    • D. 10 GB/S.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Five GB/S.
    Explanation
    The maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode is five GB/S.

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  • 49. 

    (228) Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?

    • A. Classified message incident.

    • B. Eavesdropping.

    • C. Data Spillage.

    • D. Backdoor.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Classified message incident.
    Explanation
    When a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system, it can lead to a classified message incident. This means that sensitive information is being transmitted to a system that is not authorized to access or handle that level of classified data. This can result in a breach of security and potential unauthorized access to the sensitive information.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

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  • Jan 20, 2025
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jul 22, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Iamthestreetclea
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