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1. What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?

Explanation

The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using firefighting equipment and techniques to try and put out the fire. It is important to attempt to extinguish the fire before evacuating personnel or calling the fire department, as extinguishing the fire early can help prevent further damage and potential danger to individuals.

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Langley CST - Z3dx5x Vol 2 - Quiz

The Langley CST - Z3DX5X VOL 2 quiz assesses knowledge on mishap prevention, safety regulations, and responsibilities within an Air Force setting. It focuses on protecting resources, analyzing job safety, and adhering to AF regulations, vital for personnel and resource safety.

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2. What action is the main purpose of system cache?

Explanation

The main purpose of system cache is to reduce the central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache is a small and fast memory component that stores frequently accessed data from the main memory. By keeping this data closer to the CPU, the cache reduces the time it takes for the CPU to retrieve the data, resulting in faster processing speeds. This helps to improve overall system performance and efficiency.

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3. Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users' own end terminals?

Explanation

End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection as it ensures that the information is fully encoded from the source to the destination, without being decrypted or accessed by any intermediaries or third parties. This type of encryption guarantees that only the intended users at the end terminals can access and decode the information, providing a high level of security and privacy.

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4. What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

Explanation

The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect both resources and personnel from potential harm. This program aims to prevent any damage, loss, injury, or even death that may occur as a result of accidents or mishaps. By implementing safety measures and practices, the program ensures the well-being and safety of individuals and the preservation of resources.

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5. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of

Explanation

The correct answer is Labor. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency that falls under the United States Department of Labor. Its main purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees by setting and enforcing standards, providing training and education, and conducting inspections and investigations.

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6. Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

Explanation

The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They are specifically designated to ensure the implementation and enforcement of safety protocols and regulations to maintain a safe working environment for all personnel.

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7. What three sub-categories make up human factors?

Explanation

The correct answer is Physical, physiological, organizational. Human factors refer to the study of how humans interact with systems and environments. The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical factors, which include ergonomics and design of physical spaces; physiological factors, which involve understanding human capabilities and limitations; and organizational factors, which focus on the impact of work organization and management on human performance. These three sub-categories collectively contribute to understanding and optimizing human performance and well-being in various contexts.

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8. What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

Explanation

In a typical office setting, falls are the greatest hazard. This could be due to various factors such as slippery floors, uneven surfaces, or objects obstructing walkways. Falls can result in injuries ranging from minor bruises to more severe fractures or head injuries. It is important for employers to prioritize safety measures like regular maintenance, proper signage, and employee training to prevent falls and ensure a safe working environment.

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9. What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

Explanation

The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is a comprehensive documentation system that includes three main parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record contains all the necessary paperwork related to the installation, such as contracts, permits, and correspondence. The drawing record includes detailed diagrams and schematics of the system layout. The maintenance record documents all the maintenance activities performed on the system, including repairs, upgrades, and inspections. These three parts together provide a complete record of the installation, ensuring that all necessary information is readily available for future reference and maintenance purposes.

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10. What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?

Explanation

The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for commonly used services and protocols, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). They are standardized and well-known across different operating systems and network devices. Ports within this range are typically used by system processes or by programs executed by privileged users.

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11. Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?

Explanation

A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. It allows users to securely connect to a private network over a public network, such as the Internet. By encrypting the data and creating a secure connection, VPNs ensure that the information transmitted between the user and the private network remains private and protected from unauthorized access. This makes VPNs an essential tool for remote workers, businesses, and individuals who want to maintain the security and privacy of their online activities.

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12. Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?

Explanation

The network that supports unclassified e-mail service to the user is the Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network is specifically designed for transmitting unclassified information and is used by government and military personnel to communicate and share information that does not require a higher level of security clearance. It allows for the transmission of sensitive but unclassified data without the need for encryption or other security measures.

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13. Which network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet?

Explanation

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet. It is specifically designed for unclassified, but sensitive information, and offers a secure and controlled environment for DOD users to access the internet while protecting sensitive data from unauthorized access.

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14. What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

Explanation

Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves systematically identifying potential hazards associated with the task, evaluating the risks, and implementing appropriate control measures to ensure the safety of employees. By conducting a JSA, supervisors can effectively assess the task's safety requirements and develop necessary procedures and precautions to mitigate any potential risks.

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15. What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.

Explanation

The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it only protects the individual wearing it and does not address the hazard at its source. PPE should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards as it does not eliminate or reduce the hazard, but rather provides a barrier between the hazard and the individual. It is more effective to implement other control measures such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process, as these methods aim to eliminate or reduce the hazard itself.

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16. Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

Explanation

When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they undergo a chemical reaction and transform into a new classification known as Class C. This change in classification is due to the alteration in the properties and behavior of the fuel caused by the introduction of the electric current.

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17. Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

Explanation

Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. Cardiac arrest occurs when the electrical activity in the heart becomes disrupted, leading to the heart not pumping blood effectively. At 50 milliamps, the electrical current can interfere with the normal electrical signals in the heart, potentially leading to a life-threatening condition. It is important to note that this is a general guideline and individual susceptibility to electric shock may vary.

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18. Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Apply the process irregularly and continuously." This action is not a part of risk management because risk management should be applied consistently and regularly to effectively identify, assess, and mitigate risks. Applying the process irregularly and continuously may result in overlooking potential risks and not effectively managing them. Risk management should be integrated into operations and planning at all levels, risk decisions should be made at the appropriate level, and unnecessary risks should be avoided.

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19. What topology offers centralized management of a network?

Explanation

The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, and communication between devices is facilitated through this central point. This allows for easier management and troubleshooting of the network, as any issues can be identified and addressed at the central hub. Additionally, adding or removing devices is simpler in a star topology compared to other topologies, making it a preferred choice for networks that require centralized control.

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20. What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

Explanation

When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to manage communication between devices. If this central node point fails, it can lead to large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that communication between those isolated portions and the rest of the network will be disrupted. This negative effect highlights the vulnerability of interconnected star networks and the importance of ensuring the reliability and redundancy of the central node point.

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21. What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

Explanation

The Header Checksum portion of the IP Datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them. The Header Checksum is a mathematical calculation performed on the header of the packet, which includes various fields such as source and destination IP addresses, protocol information, and other control information. This calculation generates a checksum value that is included in the header. When the packet reaches its destination, the recipient device recalculates the checksum and compares it with the checksum value in the header. If the values do not match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the packet is discarded.

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22. What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?

Explanation

The major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM) is that ROM is non-volatile, meaning that the data stored in ROM is retained even when power is turned off, while RAM is volatile, meaning that the data stored in RAM is lost when power is turned off.

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23. Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?

Explanation

A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it into a digital image. Unlike a printer, which produces a physical copy of a digital image, a scanner captures the image and converts it into a digital format that can be viewed and edited on a computer. A monitor is a display device that shows digital images, while a camera lens is a part of a camera that focuses light onto the image sensor. Therefore, the correct answer is scanner.

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24. What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?

Explanation

Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is primarily used for managing emails, calendars, contacts, tasks, and notes. Outlook allows users to organize and track their personal and professional information effectively. It also provides features like email integration, scheduling meetings, setting reminders, and managing multiple email accounts. Unlike Word, Access, and PowerPoint, which are primarily used for word processing, database management, and creating presentations respectively, Outlook focuses on managing personal information and communication.

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25. Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?

Explanation

Changing the combination on a container storing classified materials is necessary in certain situations to maintain security. When the container is placed in service, it is important to establish a new combination to ensure that only authorized personnel have access. Similarly, when the container is removed from service, changing the combination prevents unauthorized access. If there is a suspicion of compromise of the combination, changing it becomes crucial to prevent any potential security breaches. However, cleaning the storage container does not pose a risk to the security of the classified materials, so there is no valid reason to change the combination in this scenario.

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26. Which action is a physiological factor?

Explanation

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27. What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

Explanation

When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building about the fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. By sounding the fire alarm, you can ensure that everyone is aware of the emergency and can take appropriate action to evacuate the building. Calling the fire department and extinguishing the fire may be necessary steps, but sounding the fire alarm is the first priority to ensure the safety of all personnel.

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28. Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

Explanation

Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material and does not conduct electricity. This reduces the risk of electric shock or electrocution when working near electrical circuits. However, it is still important to exercise caution and follow safety guidelines to ensure that the ladder is stable and secure to prevent any accidents or injuries.

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29. Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

Explanation

The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. OMB is responsible for overseeing the budget and management of federal agencies, and it plays a key role in ensuring that agencies make informed decisions about their IT investments. By evaluating these efforts, OMB helps to ensure that taxpayer dollars are being used effectively and efficiently in the implementation of IT projects.

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30. What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.

Explanation

The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The OSI reference model consists of seven layers, namely Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application. The Data Transport layer is responsible for the reliable delivery of data between devices, while the Application layer provides services to end-users, such as email, file transfer, and web browsing. Therefore, the two categories of layers mentioned in the answer correctly represent the Data Transport and Application layers of the OSI model.

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31. What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for providing error control, flow control, and framing of data packets. It ensures reliable transmission of data between two devices connected by a single link, handling any errors or issues that may occur during the transmission process.

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32. Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body that is responsible for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD). They have authority over every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. DISA ensures that secure and reliable IT systems are in place to support the DOD's missions and operations. They also provide a wide range of IT services and capabilities to the DOD and other government organizations.

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33. What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?

Explanation

A sliding window in TCP is used to regulate the flow of data between the transmitting and receiving devices. It determines the amount of data that can be sent before the receiving host must acknowledge it. This helps in preventing network congestion by ensuring that the transmitting devices do not overwhelm the receiving devices with excessive data.

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34. What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?

Explanation

Fiber optic cables have various advantages over other types of cables, such as high bandwidth, low attenuation (signal loss), and immunity to electromagnetic interference. However, one characteristic that is not an advantage of fiber optic cables is the cost associated with installing and training technicians. Fiber optic cables require specialized equipment and expertise for installation and maintenance, which can be expensive compared to other types of cables.

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35. What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?

Explanation

The UNIX kernel is the core component of the operating system that interacts directly with the hardware. It is responsible for managing system resources, such as memory, processes, and input/output devices. The kernel provides an interface for user programs and shell to interact with the hardware, allowing them to perform tasks and access system resources. Therefore, the kernel is the UNIX system software that interacts most closely with the hardware.

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36. Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

Explanation

Spyware is computer software specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. Unlike adware, which displays unwanted advertisements, spyware operates covertly in the background, gathering sensitive data such as login credentials, financial information, or browsing habits. Malware is a broader term encompassing various malicious software types, including spyware, adware, and Trojans. However, Trojans are a specific type of malware that disguises itself as legitimate software to deceive users into installing it, while spyware focuses on unauthorized data collection. Therefore, the correct answer is spyware.

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37. How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is required or another supplemental control is sufficient?

Explanation

To determine if an intrusion detection system is required or if another supplemental control is sufficient, a risk assessment needs to be completed. This assessment helps identify the potential risks and vulnerabilities within the system or network. By evaluating the likelihood and impact of these risks, it becomes possible to determine the appropriate level of security measures needed. This includes determining whether an intrusion detection system is necessary or if other controls can adequately mitigate the identified risks. The General Service Administration (GSA), Office of Special Investigation (OSI), and Wing information office may be involved in the decision-making process, but ultimately, it is the risk assessment that drives the determination.

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38. What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Portal. The Air Force Portal is a major program that provides a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel. It is a web-based platform that allows users to access a wide range of resources, including training materials, personnel records, and communication tools. The portal serves as a central hub for all Air Force personnel to access the information and services they need in their day-to-day operations.

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39. Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

Explanation

Encryption is the best method for hiding a message in a special code. Encryption involves converting plain text into a secret code using an algorithm, making it unreadable to anyone who does not have the decryption key. This ensures that only authorized parties can access and understand the message, providing a high level of security for wireless local area networks (WLANs). SSID broadcasting, MAC filtering, and tunneling are not specifically related to hiding messages in a special code, making encryption the most suitable method for this purpose.

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40. Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management?

Explanation

The Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN) provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management. This network is specifically designed for secure and reliable communication within the defense community, allowing for efficient coordination and decision-making during critical situations. It ensures the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of sensitive information, making it the ideal choice for such operations.

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41. How many impact classifications do hardhats have?

Explanation

Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to protect against two different levels of impact. These classifications help ensure that the hardhat provides adequate protection for the wearer in various working environments.

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42. What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?

Explanation

The development of Air Force architectures is mandated at the federal level. This means that the requirements for these architectures are set and regulated by the federal government. The federal level is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the activities of various departments and agencies, including the Air Force, to ensure that they align with national goals and objectives. Therefore, the federal level is the appropriate authority to establish the requirements for the development of Air Force architectures.

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43. What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

Explanation

In Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4), an octet is a group of 8 bits. Each bit can have a value of either 0 or 1, resulting in a maximum value of 255 (11111111 in binary). Therefore, the maximum value of an octet in IPv4 is 255.

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44. What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?

Explanation

The maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode is five GB/S. This means that data can be transferred at a speed of five gigabits per second.

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45. What is a peripheral device?

Explanation

A peripheral device refers to any device that is not a main internal component of a computer and can be either internal or external. This means that it is not essential to the functioning of the computer but can be connected to it to enhance its capabilities or provide additional functionality. Examples of peripheral devices include printers, scanners, keyboards, mice, and external hard drives.

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46. Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?

Explanation

A local area network (LAN) is a network of computers and devices that are connected together and share a common communications line. This type of network is typically limited to a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or building. In a LAN, the computers and devices can share resources such as files, printers, and internet access. LANs are commonly used in homes and businesses to facilitate communication and resource sharing among a group of users.

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47. Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

Explanation

A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects local area networks (LAN) and metropolitan area networks (MAN) using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. Unlike LANs and MANs, which cover smaller geographic areas, a WAN spans large distances and allows for communication between different locations. Therefore, a WAN is the correct answer for this question.

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48. What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratifies the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE)?

Explanation

In 1999, the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratified the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE). This means that in 1999, the IEEE officially approved and standardized the use of GbE, which is a high-speed networking technology capable of transmitting data at a rate of one gigabit per second.

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49. Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling.

Explanation

A media converter is a device that converts the electrical signal used in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling. This conversion is necessary because copper UTP cables transmit data using electrical signals, while fiber optic cables transmit data using light waves. A media converter allows for seamless integration between these two different types of network cabling, enabling communication between devices connected through copper UTP and fiber optic cables.

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50. Describe a network bridge.

Explanation

A network bridge is a Data Link layer network device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It allows for the division of a network into smaller segments, which helps to reduce network congestion and improve overall network performance. By separating the network into segments, a bridge can also help to isolate network issues and prevent them from affecting the entire network.

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51. Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?

Explanation

The given answer, "Attacker's lack of ability," is the correct answer because it refers to the absence of skill or capability on the part of the attacker. The other options all relate to vulnerabilities within a computer system, such as the attacker's capability to exploit a flaw, the system's susceptibility to a flaw, and the attacker's access to the flaw. However, the lack of ability on the part of the attacker is not a vulnerability within the computer system itself.

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52. Which Air Force (AF) form records the destruction of Top Secret classified material?

Explanation

AF Form 143 is the correct answer because it is the form specifically designed for recording the destruction of Top Secret classified material in the Air Force. The other forms listed are not specifically designated for this purpose and are used for different types of documentation or reporting within the Air Force.

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53. Which of the following services provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas?

Explanation

The aerial layer provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas. This means that it utilizes aircraft and drones to establish a network infrastructure in the sky, allowing for extended and uninterrupted communication coverage over a wide area.

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54. Which system of the Global Command and Control System-Air Force (GCCS-AF) monitors status of resources and training systems ensuring that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available to the for mission completion?

Explanation

The correct answer is GSORTS, which stands for GCCS Status of Resources and Training. This system is responsible for monitoring the status of resources and training systems in the Global Command and Control System-Air Force (GCCS-AF). It ensures that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available for mission completion.

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55. Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?

Explanation

Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors. This means that wearing a class C helmet may not protect against electric shocks or other electrical hazards. It is important to wear the appropriate helmet class for the specific task or environment to ensure safety.

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56. How are fires classified?

Explanation

Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuels, such as wood, paper, gasoline, or electrical equipment, can lead to different types of fires with varying characteristics. Understanding the fuel type helps in determining the appropriate extinguishing methods and safety precautions to be taken. Heat source, temperature, and atmospheric conditions can all play a role in the behavior and intensity of a fire, but they are not the primary factor used for classification.

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57. Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?

Explanation

The maintenance record is typically retained in the production work center of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). This record contains important information about the maintenance activities performed on the systems, including any repairs or updates. It allows the work center to track the history of maintenance and ensure that the systems are in proper working order. The administrative record, drawing record, and outage record may also be important, but they are not specifically mentioned as being retained in the production work center.

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58. What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?

Explanation

The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify different functions in the process of network communication. These layers include the physical layer, data link layer, network layer, transport layer, session layer, presentation layer, and application layer. Each layer has its own specific function, with the network layer responsible for addressing, routing, and packet forwarding. It ensures that data packets are properly delivered across different networks.

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59. Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?

Explanation

Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which means that the first three octets are used to identify the network and the last octet is used to identify the host. With 8 bits available in the last octet, there are 256 possible combinations, but 2 of them are reserved for network and broadcast addresses, leaving 254 usable host addresses. Class A and Class B addresses have larger address spaces and therefore allow for more hosts per network. Class D addresses are used for multicast and do not have a fixed number of hosts per network.

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60. Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?

Explanation

Wireless local area network (WLAN) uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol used in WLANs where devices listen to the wireless medium before transmitting data. If the medium is found to be busy, the device waits for a random period of time before attempting to transmit again. This helps in avoiding collisions and ensuring efficient data transmission in WLANs.

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61. What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?

Explanation

Access is the correct answer because it is a Microsoft application specifically designed for creating and managing desktop databases. Word is a word processing program, Outlook is an email and personal information management application, and PowerPoint is used for creating presentations. Only Access is specifically designed for creating and managing databases.

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62. Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?

Explanation

When a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system, it is referred to as a classified message incident. This incident involves the unauthorized transfer of classified information to a system that has a lower level of security clearance. It can potentially compromise the confidentiality and integrity of the classified data, leading to potential security breaches and unauthorized access to sensitive information.

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63. What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?

Explanation

The correct answer is 475. The Air Force (AF) uses form 475 to report a hazard. This form is likely used to document and report any potential risks or dangers that may be present in the Air Force operations or facilities. By using this form, the AF can ensure that any hazards are properly identified and addressed in order to maintain a safe and secure environment for its personnel and equipment.

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64. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

Explanation

Office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers, according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). This suggests that the risk of falling and getting injured is significantly higher for office workers, possibly due to factors such as working in a sedentary environment, lack of physical activity, or hazards specific to office settings.

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65. What class is reserved for multicast addressing?

Explanation

Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing is a method of sending data packets to a group of devices simultaneously. In IPv4, multicast addresses are identified by the range of IP addresses starting from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255. These addresses are used for specific multicast group communication, where data is sent to a specific group rather than to a single device. Class D addresses are specifically designated for multicast communication, making it the correct answer.

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66. What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems to connect together?

Explanation

Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) is a network routing protocol that allows multiple autonomous systems to connect together. Unlike Interior Gateway Protocols (IGPs) such as Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) and Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP), which are used within a single autonomous system, EGP is specifically designed for interconnecting different autonomous systems. It enables the exchange of routing information between these systems, facilitating communication and routing decisions across the network.

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67. Which system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on a powerful server-based computer system that takes inputs from long range and short-range radars and displays it all on a scope?

Explanation

The correct answer is Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F). This system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program that is hosted on a powerful server-based computer system. It takes inputs from both long range and short-range radars and displays the information on a scope. BCS-F is specifically designed for battle control and provides a comprehensive view of the radar data, allowing for effective tracking and correlation of targets.

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68. What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?

Explanation

Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.

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69. Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?

Explanation

The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data. This section typically includes detailed drawings, diagrams, and schematics that illustrate the placement and configuration of the systems. It serves as a visual reference for technicians and engineers involved in the installation and maintenance of these systems.

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70. How many T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits do Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer?

Explanation

Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer 7 T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits. This means that these terminals can provide connectivity for up to 7 T1 DSN circuits, allowing for communication between military personnel and defense networks.

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71. Which system is the primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?

Explanation

The primary network used to transmit Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field is the Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS). This system is specifically designed for the transmission of critical messages and commands in a secure and efficient manner. It allows for rapid communication and coordination between the NMCC and the commanders on the ground, ensuring that important information reaches the right people in a timely manner. The other options listed, such as Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS), Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS), and Global Combat Support System (GCSS), are not specifically designed for this purpose and therefore are not the correct answer.

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72. What system mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users?

Explanation

The Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS) is the correct answer because its mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users. This system uses high frequency radio waves to transmit and receive messages, allowing for long-range communication capabilities. The other options, SACCS, DCGS, and GCSS, do not specifically mention the mission of providing reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users.

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73. What system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Global HF system. This system provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war. The other options mentioned, such as Mystic Star, Defense Communication System (DCS) entry, and System of Inter-American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA), are not specifically designed for this purpose.

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74. What classification do flammable liquids receive?

Explanation

Flammable liquids receive the classification of Class B. This classification is used to categorize substances that have a flash point below 100 degrees Fahrenheit and can easily ignite and burn. Class B liquids include gasoline, ethanol, and certain solvents. They are typically involved in fires that are fueled by flammable liquids and require specialized extinguishing agents, such as foam or dry chemical, to suppress the flames.

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75. The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. The Data Link layer is responsible for providing error-free transmission over the physical layer, and the LLC sublayer specifically handles flow control, error control, and framing of data.

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76. What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

Explanation

A linear topology is another name for a bus topology because it consists of a single communication line that connects all the devices in a linear manner. In a bus topology, each device is connected to the main communication line, creating a linear network structure. This topology allows for easy scalability and flexibility as devices can be added or removed without disrupting the entire network.

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77. What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a host network?

Explanation

A gateway is a network device that provides connectivity between different networks, allowing a remote network to access and communicate with a host network. It acts as an entry point or an interface between networks, facilitating the transfer of data packets between them. A gateway can be a hardware device or a software program, and it typically performs tasks such as protocol conversion, routing, and network address translation. In this context, a gateway would enable a remote network to establish a connection and access resources in a host network.

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78. What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an organization's mission critical information via its communications and ISs?

Explanation

Hostile information operations pose the greatest threat to an organization's mission critical information via its communications and information systems. These operations involve deliberate and malicious actions aimed at disrupting or manipulating an organization's information systems, potentially causing significant damage or loss of sensitive data. Unlike other threats such as malware or denial of service attacks, hostile information operations are specifically targeted and strategically planned to undermine the organization's mission and compromise its information security. It is important for organizations to be aware of and implement effective measures to detect and defend against such operations.

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79. Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday?

Explanation

The Security Manager has the authority to grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday. This role is responsible for overseeing security protocols and ensuring compliance with regulations regarding the handling and transportation of classified information. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the risks and make informed decisions regarding the shipment of such materials during weekends.

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80. How many air defenses sectors is the Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) divided into?

Explanation

The Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) is divided into two air defense sectors.

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81. What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Explanation

The media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network access and use the physical medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies, to transmit and receive data. The MAC sublayer ensures that multiple devices can share the same physical medium without causing collisions or interference, by implementing various access control mechanisms like CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection) or CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance).

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82. When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's

Explanation

The word "topology" typically refers to the arrangement or structure of elements in a system. In the context of a network, "physical topology" specifically refers to the physical layout or configuration of devices and connections. This includes the physical placement of routers, switches, cables, and other components. It describes how the network is physically organized and how devices are connected to each other. The physical topology does not consider the logical flow of data or the type of signals used for communication. Therefore, "physical topology" is the most appropriate choice among the given options.

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83. Which classified document markings identifies the highest level of classification?

Explanation

Banner Lines are the markings that identify the highest level of classification in a classified document. They are usually placed at the top and bottom of each page and contain the highest level of classification, such as Top Secret or Confidential. Banner Lines serve as a visual indicator to ensure that the document is handled and protected according to its classification level. Portion Marks, Component and office, and Classification authority are also important markings in classified documents, but they do not specifically indicate the highest level of classification.

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84. Which system is a space-based high data rate communications link for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces?

Explanation

The Global Broadcast System (GBS) is a space-based high data rate communications link that enables the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces. It provides a reliable and efficient means of transmitting critical information such as intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance data to support military operations. The other options, Global Combat Support System (GCSS), Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS), and Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS), are not specifically designed for high data rate communications or for transmitting information to deployed forces.

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85. Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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86. What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?

Explanation

The correct answer is 978. The Air Force uses form 978 to report ground mishaps.

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87. Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?

Explanation

Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the potential risks and develop appropriate measures to protect the health and well-being of individuals. This includes conducting assessments, implementing control measures, and providing guidance and recommendations to ensure a safe and healthy environment.

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88. The risk management process includes how many steps?

Explanation

The risk management process includes five steps. These steps are identification, assessment, prioritization, mitigation, and monitoring. Identification involves identifying potential risks that may occur. Assessment involves evaluating the likelihood and impact of each risk. Prioritization involves ranking the risks based on their significance. Mitigation involves developing strategies to minimize or eliminate the risks. Monitoring involves continuously monitoring the risks and implementing necessary actions to address them.

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89. Which classified document marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and shall indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Classification authority." This marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and is used to indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification. It helps to identify who made the decision to classify the document and for how long it should remain classified.

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90. What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?

Explanation

A TCP socket is a combination of a port number and an IP address that is used by a process to request network services. It acts as an argument between layers, allowing the process to communicate with other processes on different machines. This combination uniquely identifies the destination for the data transmission and ensures that the data is sent to the correct location.

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91. What system provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions?

Explanation

The Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) is the correct answer because it provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions. SACCS is specifically designed to ensure the secure and reliable transmission of critical information for strategic operations, making it the most suitable system for this purpose. The other options, Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS), Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS), and Global Combat Support System (GCSS), do not have the same focus on secure communications for strategic aircraft and missile functions.

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92. What system includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority?

Explanation

The Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority. This system is responsible for providing secure and reliable communication and information sharing capabilities to the Department of Defense. It encompasses a wide range of networks, systems, and services that support the military's information needs and ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information across the Department of Defense.

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93. Which system is the Department of Defense's (DOD) command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler?

Explanation

The Global Command and Control System (GCCS) is the Department of Defense's (DOD) command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler. This system is responsible for providing situational awareness, decision-making support, and information sharing capabilities to the DOD. It allows for the coordination and synchronization of military operations across various domains, including land, sea, air, space, and cyberspace. The GCCS is designed to enhance the DOD's ability to command and control forces, enabling them to achieve full spectrum dominance in any operational environment.

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94. What system is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities?

Explanation

The National Military Command System (NMCS) is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities. This system is crucial for command and control, communication, and coordination of military operations at the highest level. It ensures that the nation's top leaders have the necessary information and capabilities to make strategic decisions and effectively manage military forces.

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95. What system is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space, divided by security demands, transmission requirements and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers?

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Network (DISN) is a system that provides a telecommunications network for the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space. It is divided based on security demands, transmission requirements, and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers. DISN is specifically designed to support the Department of Defense and its various agencies, ensuring secure and reliable communication capabilities.

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96. Which system is the Air Forces' primary intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis and dissemination system?

Explanation

The correct answer is Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS). The DCGS is the primary intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis, and dissemination system used by the Air Forces. It is a network-centric system that allows for the integration of multiple ISR platforms and sensors, enabling the collection and analysis of data from various sources. The DCGS provides commanders with real-time situational awareness and intelligence to support mission planning and decision-making.

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97. How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?

Explanation

The Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is composed of four volumes. Each volume provides detailed guidance and standards for different aspects of the framework, such as the methodology, architecture data, and the architecture products.

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98. Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information?

Explanation

The Information Assurance Officer is the correct person to seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information. This is because the Information Assurance Officer is responsible for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information and information systems, which includes the secure transportation of sensitive information. The Classified Information Program Manager may be responsible for managing classified information, but may not have specific knowledge or expertise in transportation. The Security Manager and Supervisor may have some knowledge on security protocols, but the Information Assurance Officer is specifically trained in information security and would be the best resource for this specific need.

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99. In general, how many operating system task categories are there?

Explanation

There are six operating system task categories in general. These categories include process management, memory management, file system management, device management, user interface management, and network management. Each category plays a crucial role in the overall functioning and management of an operating system.

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100. Computer security (COMPUSEC) vulnerabilities are broken down into how many categories?

Explanation

Computer security vulnerabilities are broken down into four categories. These categories help in identifying and addressing different types of vulnerabilities that can affect computer systems. By categorizing vulnerabilities, it becomes easier to understand and manage potential risks to the system.

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The risk management process includes how many steps?
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