Langley CST - Z3dx5x Vol 2

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Quizzes Created: 6 | Total Attempts: 2,101
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  • 1/100 Questions

    What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?

    • Evacuate personnel from the building.
    • Extinguish the fire if possible.
    • Call the fire department.
    • Sound the fire alarm.
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About This Quiz

The Langley CST - Z3DX5X VOL 2 quiz assesses knowledge on mishap prevention, safety regulations, and responsibilities within an Air Force setting. It focuses on protecting resources, analyzing job safety, and adhering to AF regulations, vital for personnel and resource safety.

Langley CST - Z3dx5x Vol 2 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What action is the main purpose of system cache?

    • Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM).

    • Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data.

    • Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.

    • Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.
    Explanation
    The main purpose of system cache is to reduce the central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache is a small and fast memory component that stores frequently accessed data from the main memory. By keeping this data closer to the CPU, the cache reduces the time it takes for the CPU to retrieve the data, resulting in faster processing speeds. This helps to improve overall system performance and efficiency.

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  • 3. 

    Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users’ own end terminals?

    • Internet Protocol.

    • End-to-end.

    • Bulk.

    • Link.

    Correct Answer
    A. End-to-end.
    Explanation
    End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection as it ensures that the information is fully encoded from the source to the destination, without being decrypted or accessed by any intermediaries or third parties. This type of encryption guarantees that only the intended users at the end terminals can access and decode the information, providing a high level of security and privacy.

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  • 4. 

    What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

    • Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.

    • Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.

    • Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.

    • Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect both resources and personnel from potential harm. This program aims to prevent any damage, loss, injury, or even death that may occur as a result of accidents or mishaps. By implementing safety measures and practices, the program ensures the well-being and safety of individuals and the preservation of resources.

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  • 5. 

    The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of

    • Commerce.

    • The Treasury.

    • Defense.

    • Labor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Labor.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Labor. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency that falls under the United States Department of Labor. Its main purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees by setting and enforcing standards, providing training and education, and conducting inspections and investigations.

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  • 6. 

    Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

    • Air Staff.

    • Civil Engineering.

    • Squadron commander.

    • Installation safety office.

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation safety office.
    Explanation
    The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They are specifically designated to ensure the implementation and enforcement of safety protocols and regulations to maintain a safe working environment for all personnel.

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  • 7. 

    What three sub-categories make up human factors?

    • Physiological, physical, stress.

    • Physiological, Physical, social.

    • Stress, organizational, physical.

    • Physical, physiological, organizational.

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical, physiological, organizational.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Physical, physiological, organizational. Human factors refer to the study of how humans interact with systems and environments. The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical factors, which include ergonomics and design of physical spaces; physiological factors, which involve understanding human capabilities and limitations; and organizational factors, which focus on the impact of work organization and management on human performance. These three sub-categories collectively contribute to understanding and optimizing human performance and well-being in various contexts.

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  • 8. 

    What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

    • Falls.

    • Poor lighting.

    • Horseplay.

    • Poor ergonomics.

    Correct Answer
    A. Falls.
    Explanation
    In a typical office setting, falls are the greatest hazard. This could be due to various factors such as slippery floors, uneven surfaces, or objects obstructing walkways. Falls can result in injuries ranging from minor bruises to more severe fractures or head injuries. It is important for employers to prioritize safety measures like regular maintenance, proper signage, and employee training to prevent falls and ensure a safe working environment.

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  • 9. 

    What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

    • Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record.

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record.

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.
    Explanation
    The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is a comprehensive documentation system that includes three main parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record contains all the necessary paperwork related to the installation, such as contracts, permits, and correspondence. The drawing record includes detailed diagrams and schematics of the system layout. The maintenance record documents all the maintenance activities performed on the system, including repairs, upgrades, and inspections. These three parts together provide a complete record of the installation, ensuring that all necessary information is readily available for future reference and maintenance purposes.

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  • 10. 

    What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?

    • 0–1023.

    • 1024–49151.

    • 49152–65535.

    • 65536–87000.

    Correct Answer
    A. 0–1023.
    Explanation
    The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for commonly used services and protocols, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). They are standardized and well-known across different operating systems and network devices. Ports within this range are typically used by system processes or by programs executed by privileged users.

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  • 11. 

    Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?

    • Local area network (LAN).

    • Wide area network (WAN).

    • Virtual private network (VPN).

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Virtual private network (VPN).
    Explanation
    A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. It allows users to securely connect to a private network over a public network, such as the Internet. By encrypting the data and creating a secure connection, VPNs ensure that the information transmitted between the user and the private network remains private and protected from unauthorized access. This makes VPNs an essential tool for remote workers, businesses, and individuals who want to maintain the security and privacy of their online activities.

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  • 12. 

    Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?

    • Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).

    • Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).

    • Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.

    • Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).
    Explanation
    The network that supports unclassified e-mail service to the user is the Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network is specifically designed for transmitting unclassified information and is used by government and military personnel to communicate and share information that does not require a higher level of security clearance. It allows for the transmission of sensitive but unclassified data without the need for encryption or other security measures.

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  • 13. 

    Which network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet?

    • Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).

    • Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).

    • Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.

    • Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet. It is specifically designed for unclassified, but sensitive information, and offers a secure and controlled environment for DOD users to access the internet while protecting sensitive data from unauthorized access.

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  • 14. 

    What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

    • Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO).

    • Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).

    • Review AF Form 55.

    • Certify the employee.

    Correct Answer
    A. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).
    Explanation
    Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves systematically identifying potential hazards associated with the task, evaluating the risks, and implementing appropriate control measures to ensure the safety of employees. By conducting a JSA, supervisors can effectively assess the task's safety requirements and develop necessary procedures and precautions to mitigate any potential risks.

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  • 15. 

    What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.

    • Isolating operations.

    • Providing administrative controls.

    • Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).

    • Substitution a less hazardous material or process.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).
    Explanation
    The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it only protects the individual wearing it and does not address the hazard at its source. PPE should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards as it does not eliminate or reduce the hazard, but rather provides a barrier between the hazard and the individual. It is more effective to implement other control measures such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process, as these methods aim to eliminate or reduce the hazard itself.

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  • 16. 

    Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

    • Class A.

    • Class B.

    • Class C.

    • Class D.

    Correct Answer
    A. Class C.
    Explanation
    When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they undergo a chemical reaction and transform into a new classification known as Class C. This change in classification is due to the alteration in the properties and behavior of the fuel caused by the introduction of the electric current.

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  • 17. 

    Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

    • 50.

    • 40.

    • 20.

    • 10.

    Correct Answer
    A. 50.
    Explanation
    Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. Cardiac arrest occurs when the electrical activity in the heart becomes disrupted, leading to the heart not pumping blood effectively. At 50 milliamps, the electrical current can interfere with the normal electrical signals in the heart, potentially leading to a life-threatening condition. It is important to note that this is a general guideline and individual susceptibility to electric shock may vary.

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  • 18. 

    Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

    • Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • Apply the process irregularly and continuously.

    • Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    A. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Apply the process irregularly and continuously." This action is not a part of risk management because risk management should be applied consistently and regularly to effectively identify, assess, and mitigate risks. Applying the process irregularly and continuously may result in overlooking potential risks and not effectively managing them. Risk management should be integrated into operations and planning at all levels, risk decisions should be made at the appropriate level, and unnecessary risks should be avoided.

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  • 19. 

    What topology offers centralized management of a network?

    • Bus.

    • Star.

    • Ring.

    • Radial.

    Correct Answer
    A. Star.
    Explanation
    The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, and communication between devices is facilitated through this central point. This allows for easier management and troubleshooting of the network, as any issues can be identified and addressed at the central hub. Additionally, adding or removing devices is simpler in a star topology compared to other topologies, making it a preferred choice for networks that require centralized control.

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  • 20. 

    What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

    • There are no negative effects.

    • A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication.

    • Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices.

    • When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.

    Correct Answer
    A. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.
    Explanation
    When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to manage communication between devices. If this central node point fails, it can lead to large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that communication between those isolated portions and the rest of the network will be disrupted. This negative effect highlights the vulnerability of interconnected star networks and the importance of ensuring the reliability and redundancy of the central node point.

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  • 21. 

    What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

    • Version Identification.

    • Header Checksum.

    • Time to Live.

    • Flags.

    Correct Answer
    A. Header Checksum.
    Explanation
    The Header Checksum portion of the IP Datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them. The Header Checksum is a mathematical calculation performed on the header of the packet, which includes various fields such as source and destination IP addresses, protocol information, and other control information. This calculation generates a checksum value that is included in the header. When the packet reaches its destination, the recipient device recalculates the checksum and compares it with the checksum value in the header. If the values do not match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the packet is discarded.

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  • 22. 

    What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?

    • ROM is volatile, RAM in non-volatile.

    • ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile.

    • RAM has a slower access time versus ROM.

    • ROM has a slower access time versus RAM.

    Correct Answer
    A. ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile.
    Explanation
    The major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM) is that ROM is non-volatile, meaning that the data stored in ROM is retained even when power is turned off, while RAM is volatile, meaning that the data stored in RAM is lost when power is turned off.

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  • 23. 

    Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?

    • Printer.

    • Scanner.

    • Monitor.

    • Camera lens.

    Correct Answer
    A. Scanner.
    Explanation
    A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it into a digital image. Unlike a printer, which produces a physical copy of a digital image, a scanner captures the image and converts it into a digital format that can be viewed and edited on a computer. A monitor is a display device that shows digital images, while a camera lens is a part of a camera that focuses light onto the image sensor. Therefore, the correct answer is scanner.

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  • 24. 

    What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?

    • Word.

    • Access.

    • Outlook.

    • PowerPoint.

    Correct Answer
    A. Outlook.
    Explanation
    Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is primarily used for managing emails, calendars, contacts, tasks, and notes. Outlook allows users to organize and track their personal and professional information effectively. It also provides features like email integration, scheduling meetings, setting reminders, and managing multiple email accounts. Unlike Word, Access, and PowerPoint, which are primarily used for word processing, database management, and creating presentations respectively, Outlook focuses on managing personal information and communication.

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  • 25. 

    Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?

    • When it is placed in service.

    • When it is removed from service.

    • When the storage container has been cleaned.

    • When compromise of the combination is suspected.

    Correct Answer
    A. When the storage container has been cleaned.
    Explanation
    Changing the combination on a container storing classified materials is necessary in certain situations to maintain security. When the container is placed in service, it is important to establish a new combination to ensure that only authorized personnel have access. Similarly, when the container is removed from service, changing the combination prevents unauthorized access. If there is a suspicion of compromise of the combination, changing it becomes crucial to prevent any potential security breaches. However, cleaning the storage container does not pose a risk to the security of the classified materials, so there is no valid reason to change the combination in this scenario.

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  • 26. 

    Which action is a physiological factor?

    • Performing a task while fatigued.

    • Performing a task while intoxicated.

    • Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.

    • Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.
  • 27. 

    What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

    • Evacuate personnel from the building.

    • Extinguish the fire if possible.

    • Call the fire department.

    • Sound the fire alarm.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sound the fire alarm.
    Explanation
    When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building about the fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. By sounding the fire alarm, you can ensure that everyone is aware of the emergency and can take appropriate action to evacuate the building. Calling the fire department and extinguishing the fire may be necessary steps, but sounding the fire alarm is the first priority to ensure the safety of all personnel.

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  • 28. 

    Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

    • Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.

    • Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder.

    • Using a ladder as a scaffold.

    • Using a homemade ladder.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.
    Explanation
    Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material and does not conduct electricity. This reduces the risk of electric shock or electrocution when working near electrical circuits. However, it is still important to exercise caution and follow safety guidelines to ensure that the ladder is stable and secure to prevent any accidents or injuries.

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  • 29. 

    Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

    • Office of Administration.

    • Office of Communications.

    • Office of Public Engagement.

    • Office of Management and Budget.

    Correct Answer
    A. Office of Management and Budget.
    Explanation
    The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. OMB is responsible for overseeing the budget and management of federal agencies, and it plays a key role in ensuring that agencies make informed decisions about their IT investments. By evaluating these efforts, OMB helps to ensure that taxpayer dollars are being used effectively and efficiently in the implementation of IT projects.

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  • 30. 

    What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.

    • Data Transport and Application.

    • Session and Data Transport.

    • Network and Presentation.

    • Application and Session.

    Correct Answer
    A. Data Transport and Application.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The OSI reference model consists of seven layers, namely Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application. The Data Transport layer is responsible for the reliable delivery of data between devices, while the Application layer provides services to end-users, such as email, file transfer, and web browsing. Therefore, the two categories of layers mentioned in the answer correctly represent the Data Transport and Application layers of the OSI model.

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  • 31. 

    What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

    • Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.

    • Communications between devices over a single link of a network.

    • Protocol access to the physical network medium.

    • Protocol access to the links of a network.

    Correct Answer
    A. Communications between devices over a single link of a network.
    Explanation
    The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for providing error control, flow control, and framing of data packets. It ensures reliable transmission of data between two devices connected by a single link, handling any errors or issues that may occur during the transmission process.

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  • 32. 

    Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

    • Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • Federal Communications Commission (FCC).

    • Department of Homeland Security (DHS).

    • Department of Defense (DOD).

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body that is responsible for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD). They have authority over every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. DISA ensures that secure and reliable IT systems are in place to support the DOD's missions and operations. They also provide a wide range of IT services and capabilities to the DOD and other government organizations.

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  • 33. 

    What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?

    • Request network services and pass arguments between layers.

    • Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine.

    • Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.

    • Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.

    Correct Answer
    A. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
    Explanation
    A sliding window in TCP is used to regulate the flow of data between the transmitting and receiving devices. It determines the amount of data that can be sent before the receiving host must acknowledge it. This helps in preventing network congestion by ensuring that the transmitting devices do not overwhelm the receiving devices with excessive data.

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  • 34. 

    What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?

    • Cost to install and train technicians.

    • Electromagnetic immunity.

    • Low attenuation.

    • Security.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cost to install and train technicians.
    Explanation
    Fiber optic cables have various advantages over other types of cables, such as high bandwidth, low attenuation (signal loss), and immunity to electromagnetic interference. However, one characteristic that is not an advantage of fiber optic cables is the cost associated with installing and training technicians. Fiber optic cables require specialized equipment and expertise for installation and maintenance, which can be expensive compared to other types of cables.

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  • 35. 

    What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?

    • Shell.

    • Kernel.

    • User programs.

    • Dynamic-link library.

    Correct Answer
    A. Kernel.
    Explanation
    The UNIX kernel is the core component of the operating system that interacts directly with the hardware. It is responsible for managing system resources, such as memory, processes, and input/output devices. The kernel provides an interface for user programs and shell to interact with the hardware, allowing them to perform tasks and access system resources. Therefore, the kernel is the UNIX system software that interacts most closely with the hardware.

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  • 36. 

    Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

    • Malware.

    • Spyware.

    • Adware.

    • Trojans.

    Correct Answer
    A. Spyware.
    Explanation
    Spyware is computer software specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. Unlike adware, which displays unwanted advertisements, spyware operates covertly in the background, gathering sensitive data such as login credentials, financial information, or browsing habits. Malware is a broader term encompassing various malicious software types, including spyware, adware, and Trojans. However, Trojans are a specific type of malware that disguises itself as legitimate software to deceive users into installing it, while spyware focuses on unauthorized data collection. Therefore, the correct answer is spyware.

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  • 37. 

    How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is required or another supplemental control is sufficient?

    • General Service Administration (GSA) makes that determination.

    • Office of Special Investigation (OSI) makes that determination.

    • Wing information office makes that determination.

    • By competing a risk assessment.

    Correct Answer
    A. By competing a risk assessment.
    Explanation
    To determine if an intrusion detection system is required or if another supplemental control is sufficient, a risk assessment needs to be completed. This assessment helps identify the potential risks and vulnerabilities within the system or network. By evaluating the likelihood and impact of these risks, it becomes possible to determine the appropriate level of security measures needed. This includes determining whether an intrusion detection system is necessary or if other controls can adequately mitigate the identified risks. The General Service Administration (GSA), Office of Special Investigation (OSI), and Wing information office may be involved in the decision-making process, but ultimately, it is the risk assessment that drives the determination.

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  • 38. 

    What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?

    • Air Force Portal.

    • IMDS.

    • Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS).

    • Electronic-publications (E-pub).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Portal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force Portal. The Air Force Portal is a major program that provides a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel. It is a web-based platform that allows users to access a wide range of resources, including training materials, personnel records, and communication tools. The portal serves as a central hub for all Air Force personnel to access the information and services they need in their day-to-day operations.

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  • 39. 

    Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

    • Service set identifier (SSID) Broadcasting.

    • Media access control (MAC) Filtering.

    • Encryption.

    • Tunneling.

    Correct Answer
    A. Encryption.
    Explanation
    Encryption is the best method for hiding a message in a special code. Encryption involves converting plain text into a secret code using an algorithm, making it unreadable to anyone who does not have the decryption key. This ensures that only authorized parties can access and understand the message, providing a high level of security for wireless local area networks (WLANs). SSID broadcasting, MAC filtering, and tunneling are not specifically related to hiding messages in a special code, making encryption the most suitable method for this purpose.

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  • 40. 

    Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management?

    • Defense Switched Network (DSN).

    • Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN).

    • Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.

    • Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) Internet Protocol (IP) Data.

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN).
    Explanation
    The Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN) provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management. This network is specifically designed for secure and reliable communication within the defense community, allowing for efficient coordination and decision-making during critical situations. It ensures the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of sensitive information, making it the ideal choice for such operations.

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  • 41. 

    How many impact classifications do hardhats have?

    • One.

    • Two.

    • Three.

    • Four.

    Correct Answer
    A. Two.
    Explanation
    Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to protect against two different levels of impact. These classifications help ensure that the hardhat provides adequate protection for the wearer in various working environments.

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  • 42. 

    What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?

    • State level.

    • Federal level.

    • Congressional level.

    • Department of Defense level.

    Correct Answer
    A. Federal level.
    Explanation
    The development of Air Force architectures is mandated at the federal level. This means that the requirements for these architectures are set and regulated by the federal government. The federal level is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the activities of various departments and agencies, including the Air Force, to ensure that they align with national goals and objectives. Therefore, the federal level is the appropriate authority to establish the requirements for the development of Air Force architectures.

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  • 43. 

    What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

    • 239.

    • 254.

    • 255.

    • 256.

    Correct Answer
    A. 255.
    Explanation
    In Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4), an octet is a group of 8 bits. Each bit can have a value of either 0 or 1, resulting in a maximum value of 255 (11111111 in binary). Therefore, the maximum value of an octet in IPv4 is 255.

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  • 44. 

    What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?

    • Two gigabits per second (GB/S).

    • Four GB/S.

    • Five GB/S.

    • 10 GB/S.

    Correct Answer
    A. Five GB/S.
    Explanation
    The maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode is five GB/S. This means that data can be transferred at a speed of five gigabits per second.

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  • 45. 

    What is a peripheral device?

    • A main internal component of a computer.

    • Not a main internal component of a computer.

    • A main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.

    • Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.

    Correct Answer
    A. Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.
    Explanation
    A peripheral device refers to any device that is not a main internal component of a computer and can be either internal or external. This means that it is not essential to the functioning of the computer but can be connected to it to enhance its capabilities or provide additional functionality. Examples of peripheral devices include printers, scanners, keyboards, mice, and external hard drives.

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  • 46. 

    Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?

    • Local area network (LAN).

    • Wide area network (WAN).

    • Virtual private network (VPN).

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Local area network (LAN).
    Explanation
    A local area network (LAN) is a network of computers and devices that are connected together and share a common communications line. This type of network is typically limited to a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or building. In a LAN, the computers and devices can share resources such as files, printers, and internet access. LANs are commonly used in homes and businesses to facilitate communication and resource sharing among a group of users.

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  • 47. 

    Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

    • Local area network (LAN).

    • Wide area network (WAN).

    • Virtual private network (VPN).

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Wide area network (WAN).
    Explanation
    A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects local area networks (LAN) and metropolitan area networks (MAN) using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. Unlike LANs and MANs, which cover smaller geographic areas, a WAN spans large distances and allows for communication between different locations. Therefore, a WAN is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 48. 

    What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratifies the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE)?

    • 1988.

    • 1999.

    • 2005.

    • 2009.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1999.
    Explanation
    In 1999, the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratified the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE). This means that in 1999, the IEEE officially approved and standardized the use of GbE, which is a high-speed networking technology capable of transmitting data at a rate of one gigabit per second.

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  • 49. 

    Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling.

    • Media converter.

    • Modem.

    • Switch.

    • Router.

    Correct Answer
    A. Media converter.
    Explanation
    A media converter is a device that converts the electrical signal used in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling. This conversion is necessary because copper UTP cables transmit data using electrical signals, while fiber optic cables transmit data using light waves. A media converter allows for seamless integration between these two different types of network cabling, enabling communication between devices connected through copper UTP and fiber optic cables.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jan 23, 2017
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    Jordan
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