Langley CST - Z3dx5x Vol 2
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?
- A.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–200.
- B.
AFI 91–202.
- C.
Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91–200.
- D.
AFMAN 91–202.
Correct Answer
B. AFI 91–202. -
- 2.
What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
- A.
Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.
- B.
Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.
- C.
Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.
- D.
Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.
Correct Answer
D. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.Explanation
The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect both resources and personnel from potential harm. This program aims to prevent any damage, loss, injury, or even death that may occur as a result of accidents or mishaps. By implementing safety measures and practices, the program ensures the well-being and safety of individuals and the preservation of resources.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of
- A.
Commerce.
- B.
The Treasury.
- C.
Defense.
- D.
Labor.
Correct Answer
D. Labor.Explanation
The correct answer is Labor. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency that falls under the United States Department of Labor. Its main purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees by setting and enforcing standards, providing training and education, and conducting inspections and investigations.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?
- A.
Air Staff.
- B.
Civil Engineering.
- C.
Squadron commander.
- D.
Installation safety office.
Correct Answer
D. Installation safety office.Explanation
The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They are specifically designated to ensure the implementation and enforcement of safety protocols and regulations to maintain a safe working environment for all personnel.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?
- A.
Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO).
- B.
Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).
- C.
Review AF Form 55.
- D.
Certify the employee.
Correct Answer
B. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).Explanation
Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves systematically identifying potential hazards associated with the task, evaluating the risks, and implementing appropriate control measures to ensure the safety of employees. By conducting a JSA, supervisors can effectively assess the task's safety requirements and develop necessary procedures and precautions to mitigate any potential risks.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?
- A.
475.
- B.
480.
- C.
978.
- D.
980.
Correct Answer
C. 978.Explanation
The correct answer is 978. The Air Force uses form 978 to report ground mishaps.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?
- A.
475.
- B.
480.
- C.
978.
- D.
980.
Correct Answer
A. 475.Explanation
The correct answer is 475. The Air Force (AF) uses form 475 to report a hazard. This form is likely used to document and report any potential risks or dangers that may be present in the Air Force operations or facilities. By using this form, the AF can ensure that any hazards are properly identified and addressed in order to maintain a safe and secure environment for its personnel and equipment.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What three sub-categories make up human factors?
- A.
Physiological, physical, stress.
- B.
Physiological, Physical, social.
- C.
Stress, organizational, physical.
- D.
Physical, physiological, organizational.
Correct Answer
D. Physical, physiological, organizational.Explanation
The correct answer is Physical, physiological, organizational. Human factors refer to the study of how humans interact with systems and environments. The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical factors, which include ergonomics and design of physical spaces; physiological factors, which involve understanding human capabilities and limitations; and organizational factors, which focus on the impact of work organization and management on human performance. These three sub-categories collectively contribute to understanding and optimizing human performance and well-being in various contexts.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which action is a physiological factor?
- A.
Performing a task while fatigued.
- B.
Performing a task while intoxicated.
- C.
Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.
- D.
Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness.
Correct Answer
C. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders. -
- 10.
Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?
- A.
Bioenvironmental Engineering.
- B.
Installation safety office.
- C.
Base civil engineer.
- D.
Supervisors.
Correct Answer
A. Bioenvironmental Engineering.Explanation
Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the potential risks and develop appropriate measures to protect the health and well-being of individuals. This includes conducting assessments, implementing control measures, and providing guidance and recommendations to ensure a safe and healthy environment.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.
- A.
Isolating operations.
- B.
Providing administrative controls.
- C.
Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).
- D.
Substitution a less hazardous material or process.
Correct Answer
C. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).Explanation
The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it only protects the individual wearing it and does not address the hazard at its source. PPE should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards as it does not eliminate or reduce the hazard, but rather provides a barrier between the hazard and the individual. It is more effective to implement other control measures such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process, as these methods aim to eliminate or reduce the hazard itself.Rate this question:
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- 12.
How many impact classifications do hardhats have?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
Correct Answer
B. Two.Explanation
Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to protect against two different levels of impact. These classifications help ensure that the hardhat provides adequate protection for the wearer in various working environments.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?
- A.
A.
- B.
C.
- C.
E.
- D.
G.
Correct Answer
B. C.Explanation
Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors. This means that wearing a class C helmet may not protect against electric shocks or other electrical hazards. It is important to wear the appropriate helmet class for the specific task or environment to ensure safety.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
- A.
Falls.
- B.
Poor lighting.
- C.
Horseplay.
- D.
Poor ergonomics.
Correct Answer
A. Falls.Explanation
In a typical office setting, falls are the greatest hazard. This could be due to various factors such as slippery floors, uneven surfaces, or objects obstructing walkways. Falls can result in injuries ranging from minor bruises to more severe fractures or head injuries. It is important for employers to prioritize safety measures like regular maintenance, proper signage, and employee training to prevent falls and ensure a safe working environment.Rate this question:
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- 15.
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?
- A.
1 to 2.
- B.
2 to 2.5.
- C.
2 to 4.5.
- D.
2.5 to 3.
Correct Answer
B. 2 to 2.5.Explanation
Office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers, according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). This suggests that the risk of falling and getting injured is significantly higher for office workers, possibly due to factors such as working in a sedentary environment, lack of physical activity, or hazards specific to office settings.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?
- A.
8.
- B.
9.
- C.
10.
- D.
11.
Correct Answer
C. 10.Explanation
Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.Rate this question:
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- 17.
How are fires classified?
- A.
Fuel type.
- B.
Heat source.
- C.
Temperature.
- D.
Atmospheric conditions.
Correct Answer
A. Fuel type.Explanation
Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuels, such as wood, paper, gasoline, or electrical equipment, can lead to different types of fires with varying characteristics. Understanding the fuel type helps in determining the appropriate extinguishing methods and safety precautions to be taken. Heat source, temperature, and atmospheric conditions can all play a role in the behavior and intensity of a fire, but they are not the primary factor used for classification.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What classification do flammable liquids receive?
- A.
Class A.
- B.
Class B.
- C.
Class C.
- D.
Class D.
Correct Answer
B. Class B.Explanation
Flammable liquids receive the classification of Class B. This classification is used to categorize substances that have a flash point below 100 degrees Fahrenheit and can easily ignite and burn. Class B liquids include gasoline, ethanol, and certain solvents. They are typically involved in fires that are fueled by flammable liquids and require specialized extinguishing agents, such as foam or dry chemical, to suppress the flames.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?
- A.
Class A.
- B.
Class B.
- C.
Class C.
- D.
Class D.
Correct Answer
C. Class C.Explanation
When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they undergo a chemical reaction and transform into a new classification known as Class C. This change in classification is due to the alteration in the properties and behavior of the fuel caused by the introduction of the electric current.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
- A.
Evacuate personnel from the building.
- B.
Extinguish the fire if possible.
- C.
Call the fire department.
- D.
Sound the fire alarm.
Correct Answer
D. Sound the fire alarm.Explanation
When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building about the fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. By sounding the fire alarm, you can ensure that everyone is aware of the emergency and can take appropriate action to evacuate the building. Calling the fire department and extinguishing the fire may be necessary steps, but sounding the fire alarm is the first priority to ensure the safety of all personnel.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?
- A.
Evacuate personnel from the building.
- B.
Extinguish the fire if possible.
- C.
Call the fire department.
- D.
Sound the fire alarm.
Correct Answer
B. Extinguish the fire if possible.Explanation
The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using firefighting equipment and techniques to try and put out the fire. It is important to attempt to extinguish the fire before evacuating personnel or calling the fire department, as extinguishing the fire early can help prevent further damage and potential danger to individuals.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?
- A.
50.
- B.
40.
- C.
20.
- D.
10.
Correct Answer
A. 50.Explanation
Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. Cardiac arrest occurs when the electrical activity in the heart becomes disrupted, leading to the heart not pumping blood effectively. At 50 milliamps, the electrical current can interfere with the normal electrical signals in the heart, potentially leading to a life-threatening condition. It is important to note that this is a general guideline and individual susceptibility to electric shock may vary.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which ladder practice is not prohibited?
- A.
Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.
- B.
Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder.
- C.
Using a ladder as a scaffold.
- D.
Using a homemade ladder.
Correct Answer
A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.Explanation
Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material and does not conduct electricity. This reduces the risk of electric shock or electrocution when working near electrical circuits. However, it is still important to exercise caution and follow safety guidelines to ensure that the ladder is stable and secure to prevent any accidents or injuries.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?
- A.
Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B.
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C.
Apply the process irregularly and continuously.
- D.
Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer
C. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.Explanation
The correct answer is "Apply the process irregularly and continuously." This action is not a part of risk management because risk management should be applied consistently and regularly to effectively identify, assess, and mitigate risks. Applying the process irregularly and continuously may result in overlooking potential risks and not effectively managing them. Risk management should be integrated into operations and planning at all levels, risk decisions should be made at the appropriate level, and unnecessary risks should be avoided.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The risk management process includes how many steps?
- A.
Four.
- B.
Five.
- C.
Six.
- D.
Seven.
Correct Answer
B. Five.Explanation
The risk management process includes five steps. These steps are identification, assessment, prioritization, mitigation, and monitoring. Identification involves identifying potential risks that may occur. Assessment involves evaluating the likelihood and impact of each risk. Prioritization involves ranking the risks based on their significance. Mitigation involves developing strategies to minimize or eliminate the risks. Monitoring involves continuously monitoring the risks and implementing necessary actions to address them.Rate this question:
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- 26.
How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
Correct Answer
D. Four.Explanation
The Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is composed of four volumes. Each volume provides detailed guidance and standards for different aspects of the framework, such as the methodology, architecture data, and the architecture products.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?
- A.
Office of Administration.
- B.
Office of Communications.
- C.
Office of Public Engagement.
- D.
Office of Management and Budget.
Correct Answer
D. Office of Management and Budget.Explanation
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. OMB is responsible for overseeing the budget and management of federal agencies, and it plays a key role in ensuring that agencies make informed decisions about their IT investments. By evaluating these efforts, OMB helps to ensure that taxpayer dollars are being used effectively and efficiently in the implementation of IT projects.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?
- A.
State level.
- B.
Federal level.
- C.
Congressional level.
- D.
Department of Defense level.
Correct Answer
B. Federal level.Explanation
The development of Air Force architectures is mandated at the federal level. This means that the requirements for these architectures are set and regulated by the federal government. The federal level is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the activities of various departments and agencies, including the Air Force, to ensure that they align with national goals and objectives. Therefore, the federal level is the appropriate authority to establish the requirements for the development of Air Force architectures.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?
- A.
Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record.
- B.
Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.
- C.
Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.
- D.
Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record.
Correct Answer
C. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.Explanation
The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is a comprehensive documentation system that includes three main parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record contains all the necessary paperwork related to the installation, such as contracts, permits, and correspondence. The drawing record includes detailed diagrams and schematics of the system layout. The maintenance record documents all the maintenance activities performed on the system, including repairs, upgrades, and inspections. These three parts together provide a complete record of the installation, ensuring that all necessary information is readily available for future reference and maintenance purposes.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?
- A.
Administrative record.
- B.
Maintenance record.
- C.
Drawing record.
- D.
Outage record.
Correct Answer
C. Drawing record.Explanation
The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data. This section typically includes detailed drawings, diagrams, and schematics that illustrate the placement and configuration of the systems. It serves as a visual reference for technicians and engineers involved in the installation and maintenance of these systems.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?
- A.
Administrative record.
- B.
Maintenance record.
- C.
Drawing record.
- D.
Outage record.
Correct Answer
B. Maintenance record.Explanation
The maintenance record is typically retained in the production work center of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). This record contains important information about the maintenance activities performed on the systems, including any repairs or updates. It allows the work center to track the history of maintenance and ensure that the systems are in proper working order. The administrative record, drawing record, and outage record may also be important, but they are not specifically mentioned as being retained in the production work center.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?
- A.
Programming.
- B.
Transport.
- C.
Network.
- D.
Data.
Correct Answer
C. Network.Explanation
The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify different functions in the process of network communication. These layers include the physical layer, data link layer, network layer, transport layer, session layer, presentation layer, and application layer. Each layer has its own specific function, with the network layer responsible for addressing, routing, and packet forwarding. It ensures that data packets are properly delivered across different networks.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.
- A.
Data Transport and Application.
- B.
Session and Data Transport.
- C.
Network and Presentation.
- D.
Application and Session.
Correct Answer
A. Data Transport and Application.Explanation
The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The OSI reference model consists of seven layers, namely Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application. The Data Transport layer is responsible for the reliable delivery of data between devices, while the Application layer provides services to end-users, such as email, file transfer, and web browsing. Therefore, the two categories of layers mentioned in the answer correctly represent the Data Transport and Application layers of the OSI model.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?
- A.
Transport.
- B.
Data Link.
- C.
Physical.
- D.
Session.
Correct Answer
B. Data Link.Explanation
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. The Data Link layer is responsible for providing error-free transmission over the physical layer, and the LLC sublayer specifically handles flow control, error control, and framing of data.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?
- A.
Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.
- B.
Communications between devices over a single link of a network.
- C.
Protocol access to the physical network medium.
- D.
Protocol access to the links of a network.
Correct Answer
B. Communications between devices over a single link of a network.Explanation
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for providing error control, flow control, and framing of data packets. It ensures reliable transmission of data between two devices connected by a single link, handling any errors or issues that may occur during the transmission process.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?
- A.
Communications between devices over a single link of a network.
- B.
Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.
- C.
Protocol access to the physical network medium.
- D.
Protocol access to the links of a network.
Correct Answer
C. Protocol access to the physical network medium.Explanation
The media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network access and use the physical medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies, to transmit and receive data. The MAC sublayer ensures that multiple devices can share the same physical medium without causing collisions or interference, by implementing various access control mechanisms like CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection) or CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance).Rate this question:
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- 37.
When used alone, the word “topology” often refers to a network’s
- A.
Transport topology.
- B.
Physical topology.
- C.
Physical medium.
- D.
Logical topology.
Correct Answer
B. Physical topology.Explanation
The word "topology" typically refers to the arrangement or structure of elements in a system. In the context of a network, "physical topology" specifically refers to the physical layout or configuration of devices and connections. This includes the physical placement of routers, switches, cables, and other components. It describes how the network is physically organized and how devices are connected to each other. The physical topology does not consider the logical flow of data or the type of signals used for communication. Therefore, "physical topology" is the most appropriate choice among the given options.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
- A.
Star.
- B.
Ring.
- C.
Loop.
- D.
Linear.
Correct Answer
D. Linear.Explanation
A linear topology is another name for a bus topology because it consists of a single communication line that connects all the devices in a linear manner. In a bus topology, each device is connected to the main communication line, creating a linear network structure. This topology allows for easy scalability and flexibility as devices can be added or removed without disrupting the entire network.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What topology offers centralized management of a network?
- A.
Bus.
- B.
Star.
- C.
Ring.
- D.
Radial.
Correct Answer
B. Star.Explanation
The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, and communication between devices is facilitated through this central point. This allows for easier management and troubleshooting of the network, as any issues can be identified and addressed at the central hub. Additionally, adding or removing devices is simpler in a star topology compared to other topologies, making it a preferred choice for networks that require centralized control.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?
- A.
There are no negative effects.
- B.
A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication.
- C.
Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices.
- D.
When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.
Correct Answer
D. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.Explanation
When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to manage communication between devices. If this central node point fails, it can lead to large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that communication between those isolated portions and the rest of the network will be disrupted. This negative effect highlights the vulnerability of interconnected star networks and the importance of ensuring the reliability and redundancy of the central node point.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?
- A.
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
- B.
Federal Communications Commission (FCC).
- C.
Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
- D.
Department of Defense (DOD).
Correct Answer
A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).Explanation
The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body that is responsible for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD). They have authority over every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. DISA ensures that secure and reliable IT systems are in place to support the DOD's missions and operations. They also provide a wide range of IT services and capabilities to the DOD and other government organizations.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?
- A.
Regular of how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
- B.
Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine (in the application layer).
- C.
Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.
- D.
Preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.
Correct Answer
C. Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.Explanation
A TCP socket is a combination of a port number and an IP address that is used by a process to request network services. It acts as an argument between layers, allowing the process to communicate with other processes on different machines. This combination uniquely identifies the destination for the data transmission and ensures that the data is sent to the correct location.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?
- A.
Request network services and pass arguments between layers.
- B.
Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine.
- C.
Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.
- D.
Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
Correct Answer
D. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.Explanation
A sliding window in TCP is used to regulate the flow of data between the transmitting and receiving devices. It determines the amount of data that can be sent before the receiving host must acknowledge it. This helps in preventing network congestion by ensuring that the transmitting devices do not overwhelm the receiving devices with excessive data.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?
- A.
Version Identification.
- B.
Header Checksum.
- C.
Time to Live.
- D.
Flags.
Correct Answer
B. Header Checksum.Explanation
The Header Checksum portion of the IP Datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them. The Header Checksum is a mathematical calculation performed on the header of the packet, which includes various fields such as source and destination IP addresses, protocol information, and other control information. This calculation generates a checksum value that is included in the header. When the packet reaches its destination, the recipient device recalculates the checksum and compares it with the checksum value in the header. If the values do not match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the packet is discarded.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?
- A.
239.
- B.
254.
- C.
255.
- D.
256.
Correct Answer
C. 255.Explanation
In Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4), an octet is a group of 8 bits. Each bit can have a value of either 0 or 1, resulting in a maximum value of 255 (11111111 in binary). Therefore, the maximum value of an octet in IPv4 is 255.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?
- A.
Class A address.
- B.
Class B address.
- C.
Class C address.
- D.
Class D address.
Correct Answer
C. Class C address.Explanation
Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which means that the first three octets are used to identify the network and the last octet is used to identify the host. With 8 bits available in the last octet, there are 256 possible combinations, but 2 of them are reserved for network and broadcast addresses, leaving 254 usable host addresses. Class A and Class B addresses have larger address spaces and therefore allow for more hosts per network. Class D addresses are used for multicast and do not have a fixed number of hosts per network.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What class is reserved for multicast addressing?
- A.
Class A address.
- B.
Class B address.
- C.
Class C address.
- D.
Class D address.
Correct Answer
D. Class D address.Explanation
Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing is a method of sending data packets to a group of devices simultaneously. In IPv4, multicast addresses are identified by the range of IP addresses starting from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255. These addresses are used for specific multicast group communication, where data is sent to a specific group rather than to a single device. Class D addresses are specifically designated for multicast communication, making it the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?
- A.
0–1023.
- B.
1024–49151.
- C.
49152–65535.
- D.
65536–87000.
Correct Answer
A. 0–1023.Explanation
The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for commonly used services and protocols, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). They are standardized and well-known across different operating systems and network devices. Ports within this range are typically used by system processes or by programs executed by privileged users.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?
- A.
ROM is volatile, RAM in non-volatile.
- B.
ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile.
- C.
RAM has a slower access time versus ROM.
- D.
ROM has a slower access time versus RAM.
Correct Answer
B. ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile.Explanation
The major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM) is that ROM is non-volatile, meaning that the data stored in ROM is retained even when power is turned off, while RAM is volatile, meaning that the data stored in RAM is lost when power is turned off.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What action is the main purpose of system cache?
- A.
Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM).
- B.
Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data.
- C.
Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.
- D.
Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data.
Correct Answer
C. Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.Explanation
The main purpose of system cache is to reduce the central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache is a small and fast memory component that stores frequently accessed data from the main memory. By keeping this data closer to the CPU, the cache reduces the time it takes for the CPU to retrieve the data, resulting in faster processing speeds. This helps to improve overall system performance and efficiency.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 23, 2017Quiz Created by
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