3DX5X Vol 1/2. Edit Code 02

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3DX5X Vol 1/2. Edit Code 02 - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (201) Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?

    • A.

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–200.

    • B.

      AFI 91–202.

    • C.

      Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91–200.

    • D.

      AFMAN 91–202.

    Correct Answer
    B. AFI 91–202.
  • 2. 

    (201) What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

    • A.

      Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.

    • B.

      Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.

    • C.

      Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.

    • D.

      Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.

    Correct Answer
    D. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death. This program aims to prevent accidents and mishaps by implementing safety measures and practices. By doing so, it ensures the well-being and safety of both the organization's assets and its personnel.

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  • 3. 

    (201) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of

    • A.

      Commerce.

    • B.

      The Treasury.

    • C.

      Defense.

    • D.

      Labor.

    Correct Answer
    D. Labor.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Labor. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency that falls under the United States Department of Labor. Its main responsibility is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees by enforcing workplace safety standards and regulations.

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  • 4. 

    (201) Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

    • A.

      Air Staff.

    • B.

      Civil Engineering.

    • C.

      Squadron commander.

    • D.

      Installation safety office.

    Correct Answer
    D. Installation safety office.
    Explanation
    The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They play a crucial role in ensuring that safety protocols and procedures are followed, and they provide guidance and support to promote a safe working environment. The Air Staff, Civil Engineering, and Squadron commander may have their own roles and responsibilities, but the installation safety office specifically focuses on safety matters.

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  • 5. 

    (201) What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

    • A.

      Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO).

    • B.

      Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).

    • C.

      Review AF Form 55.

    • D.

      Certify the employee.

    Correct Answer
    B. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).
    Explanation
    Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves thoroughly assessing the task to identify potential hazards and develop appropriate safety measures and procedures. The JSA helps ensure that employees are aware of the risks involved and are equipped with the necessary knowledge and resources to safely complete the task. It is an essential step in promoting a safe work environment and preventing accidents or injuries.

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  • 6. 

    (201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?

    • A.

      475.

    • B.

      480.

    • C.

      978.

    • D.

      980.

    Correct Answer
    C. 978.
    Explanation
    Air Force (AF) form 978 is used to report ground mishaps. This form is specifically designed to document and report any accidents or incidents that occur on the ground within the Air Force. It is important to have a standardized form like AF 978 to ensure that all necessary information is collected and reported accurately, allowing for proper investigation and analysis of the mishap.

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  • 7. 

    (201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?

    • A.

      475.

    • B.

      480.

    • C.

      978.

    • D.

      980.

    Correct Answer
    A. 475.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 475. The question asks for the Air Force (AF) form used to report a hazard. The form number 475 is the correct answer because it is the specific form used by the Air Force to report hazards.

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  • 8. 

    (202) What three sub-categories make up human factors?

    • A.

      Physiological, physical, stress.

    • B.

      Physiological, Physical, social.

    • C.

      Stress, organizational, physical.

    • D.

      Physical, physiological, organizational.

    Correct Answer
    D. Physical, physiological, organizational.
    Explanation
    The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical, physiological, and organizational. Physical factors refer to the physical environment in which tasks are performed, such as lighting, noise, and equipment design. Physiological factors relate to the individual's physical and mental capabilities, including vision, hearing, and cognitive abilities. Organizational factors involve the social and organizational aspects that influence human performance, such as communication, workload, and teamwork.

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  • 9. 

    (202) Which action is a physiological factor?

    • A.

      Performing a task while fatigued.

    • B.

      Performing a task while intoxicated.

    • C.

      Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.

    • D.

      Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness.

    Correct Answer
    C. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.
  • 10. 

    (202) Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?

    • A.

      Bioenvironmental Engineering.

    • B.

      Installation safety office.

    • C.

      Base civil engineer.

    • D.

      Supervisors.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bioenvironmental Engineering.
    Explanation
    Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the risks and develop appropriate measures to protect the health and safety of individuals within a given environment. This includes identifying potential hazards, conducting risk assessments, and recommending control measures such as engineering controls, administrative controls, and personal protective equipment. Their role is crucial in ensuring the well-being of personnel and preventing the spread of diseases or illnesses within a facility or installation.

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  • 11. 

    (202) What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.

    • A.

      Isolating operations.

    • B.

      Providing administrative controls.

    • C.

      Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).

    • D.

      Substitution a less hazardous material or process.

    Correct Answer
    C. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).
    Explanation
    The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. PPE is the last line of defense and should only be used in conjunction with other control measures. It is more effective to eliminate or control hazards at the source through methods such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. PPE should be seen as a supplementary measure to further reduce the risk of exposure to hazards.

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  • 12. 

    (202) How many impact classifications do hardhats have?

    • A.

      One.

    • B.

      Two.

    • C.

      Three.

    • D.

      Four.

    Correct Answer
    B. Two.
    Explanation
    Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to provide protection against two different levels of impact. Having multiple impact classifications allows hardhats to offer varying degrees of protection based on the specific hazards and risks present in different work environments.

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  • 13. 

    (202) Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?

    • A.

      A.

    • B.

      C.

    • C.

      E.

    • D.

      G.

    Correct Answer
    B. C.
    Explanation
    Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors. This means that if someone is wearing a class C helmet and comes into contact with electrical conductors, they will not be protected from electrical shock or other electrical hazards. It is important to choose the appropriate helmet class for the specific work environment to ensure safety.

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  • 14. 

    (203) What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

    • A.

      Falls.

    • B.

      Poor lighting.

    • C.

      Horseplay.

    • D.

      Poor ergonomics.

    Correct Answer
    A. Falls.
    Explanation
    The greatest hazard in the typical office is falls. This could be due to slippery floors, tripping over objects, or falling from heights such as ladders or stairs. Falls can result in serious injuries, including broken bones or head trauma. It is important for employers to ensure that the office environment is free from hazards that could lead to falls, such as maintaining clean and dry floors, providing proper lighting, and implementing safety measures for working at heights.

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  • 15. 

    (203) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

    • A.

      1 to 2.

    • B.

      2 to 2.5.

    • C.

      2 to 4.5.

    • D.

      2.5 to 3.

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 to 2.5.
    Explanation
    According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers.

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  • 16. 

    (203) What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?

    • A.

      8.

    • B.

      9.

    • C.

      10.

    • D.

      11.

    Correct Answer
    C. 10.
    Explanation
    Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.

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  • 17. 

    (203) How are fires classified?

    • A.

      Fuel type.

    • B.

      Heat source.

    • C.

      Temperature.

    • D.

      Atmospheric conditions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuel type.
    Explanation
    Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuels, such as wood, paper, or gasoline, can result in different fire behaviors and require different extinguishing methods. Classifying fires based on fuel type helps firefighters and emergency responders understand the nature of the fire and determine the most effective strategies to control and extinguish it.

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  • 18. 

    (203) What classification do flammable liquids receive?

    • A.

      Class A.

    • B.

      Class B.

    • C.

      Class C.

    • D.

      Class D.

    Correct Answer
    B. Class B.
    Explanation
    Flammable liquids receive classification as Class B. This classification is used for substances that have a flash point below 100 degrees Fahrenheit. Flammable liquids can easily ignite and pose a fire hazard. Class B also includes flammable gases and volatile flammable materials.

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  • 19. 

    (203) Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

    • A.

      Class A.

    • B.

      Class B.

    • C.

      Class C.

    • D.

      Class D.

    Correct Answer
    C. Class C.
    Explanation
    When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are typically classified as A or B, they will change to Class C. This change in classification is due to the increased risk of fire and explosion that occurs when an electric current is present. Class C fuels are those that are electrically conductive and can ignite or explode if exposed to an electrical source.

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  • 20. 

    (203) What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

    • A.

      Evacuate personnel from the building.

    • B.

      Extinguish the fire if possible.

    • C.

      Call the fire department.

    • D.

      Sound the fire alarm.

    Correct Answer
    D. Sound the fire alarm.
    Explanation
    When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building to the presence of a fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. Evacuating personnel from the building is the next step, ensuring that everyone is out of harm's way. Calling the fire department should be done after sounding the alarm and evacuating, as they will need to be notified and dispatched to the scene. Extinguishing the fire, if possible, should only be attempted by trained individuals and should not be the first action taken.

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  • 21. 

    (203) What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?  

    • A.

      Evacuate personnel from the building.

    • B.

      Extinguish the fire if possible.

    • C.

      Call the fire department.

    • D.

      Sound the fire alarm.

    Correct Answer
    B. Extinguish the fire if possible.
    Explanation
    The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to try and put out the fire. It is important to assess the situation and determine if it is safe to attempt extinguishing the fire. If the fire is small and manageable, it is recommended to try and extinguish it before it spreads and becomes more dangerous. However, if the fire is too large or if there are any safety concerns, it is best to evacuate personnel from the building and call the fire department for professional assistance.

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  • 22. 

    (203) Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

    • A.

      50.

    • B.

      40.

    • C.

      20.

    • D.

      10.

    Correct Answer
    A. 50.
    Explanation
    Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. This means that if a person is exposed to an electrical current of 50 milliamps, it could disrupt the normal functioning of the heart and potentially lead to cardiac arrest. It is important to be cautious around electrical sources and take necessary safety precautions to prevent such incidents.

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  • 23. 

    (203) Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

    • A.

      Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.

    • B.

      Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder.

    • C.

      Using a ladder as a scaffold.

    • D.

      Using a homemade ladder.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.
    Explanation
    Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wooden ladders are non-conductive and do not pose a risk of electric shock. However, using a ladder as a scaffold, carrying material while ascending or descending a ladder, and using a homemade ladder may all be prohibited due to safety concerns and the increased risk of accidents or injuries.

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  • 24. 

    (204) Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C.

      Apply the process irregularly and continuously.

    • D.

      Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    C. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Apply the process irregularly and continuously." This action goes against the principles of risk management, which emphasize the need for a systematic and consistent approach to identifying, assessing, and managing risks. Risk management should be applied regularly and continuously to ensure that potential risks are identified and addressed in a timely manner.

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  • 25. 

    (204) The risk management process includes how many steps?

    • A.

      Four.

    • B.

      Five.

    • C.

      Six.

    • D.

      Seven.

    Correct Answer
    B. Five.
    Explanation
    The risk management process includes five steps. These steps include identifying risks, assessing the risks, developing risk response strategies, implementing the strategies, and monitoring the risks. Each step is crucial in effectively managing risks and minimizing their impact on the organization.

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  • 26. 

    (205) How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?

    • A.

      One.

    • B.

      Two.

    • C.

      Three.

    • D.

      Four.

    Correct Answer
    D. Four.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is four because the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification consists of four volumes. Each volume focuses on different aspects of the framework, including the overall guidance, the architecture data, the architecture products, and the architecture usage. These volumes provide a comprehensive and standardized approach for developing and implementing architectures within the Department of Defense.

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  • 27. 

    (205) Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

    • A.

      Office of Administration.

    • B.

      Office of Communications.

    • C.

      Office of Public Engagement.

    • D.

      Office of Management and Budget.

    Correct Answer
    D. Office of Management and Budget.
    Explanation
    The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. The OMB plays a crucial role in overseeing and coordinating the federal government's budget and management policies, including IT investments. They ensure that agencies are effectively utilizing their resources and making informed decisions regarding IT investments to improve overall efficiency and effectiveness in government operations.

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  • 28. 

    (205) What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?

    • A.

      State level.

    • B.

      Federal level.

    • C.

      Congressional level.

    • D.

      Department of Defense level.

    Correct Answer
    B. Federal level.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Federal level. This means that the requirements for developing Air Force architectures are mandated at the federal level. This suggests that the development of these architectures is not solely determined by state, congressional, or Department of Defense levels, but rather by the overarching federal government. This ensures consistent and standardized approaches to the development of Air Force architectures across the entire country.

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  • 29. 

    (206) What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

    • A.

      Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record.

    • B.

      Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.

    • C.

      Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.

    • D.

      Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record.

    Correct Answer
    C. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.
    Explanation
    The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) consists of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes information related to the installation process, such as project documentation, contracts, and correspondence. The drawing record contains diagrams and schematics of the installed systems. The maintenance record keeps track of maintenance activities, including repairs, upgrades, and inspections. These three parts together provide a comprehensive documentation of the installation process and ongoing maintenance of the communications and information systems.

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  • 30. 

    (206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?

    • A.

      Administrative record.

    • B.

      Maintenance record.

    • C.

      Drawing record.

    • D.

      Outage record.

    Correct Answer
    C. Drawing record.
    Explanation
    The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) provides the physical layout of communications and information systems along with engineering data. This section includes detailed drawings and diagrams that depict the placement and configuration of the systems. It is an essential part of the CSIR as it helps in understanding the physical infrastructure and assists in maintenance and troubleshooting activities. The administrative record section focuses on the administrative aspects of the installation, the maintenance record section tracks the maintenance activities, and the outage record section documents any system outages or downtime.

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  • 31. 

    (206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?

    • A.

      Administrative record.

    • B.

      Maintenance record.

    • C.

      Drawing record.

    • D.

      Outage record.

    Correct Answer
    B. Maintenance record.
    Explanation
    The maintenance record is typically retained in the production work center of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). This record contains important information regarding the maintenance activities performed on the systems, including any repairs, upgrades, or replacements. It serves as a reference for future maintenance and troubleshooting, ensuring that the systems are properly maintained and functioning efficiently. The administrative record may contain administrative details such as personnel information and scheduling, while the drawing record includes diagrams and schematics. The outage record documents any system outages or disruptions.

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  • 32. 

    (207) What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?

    • A.

      Programming.

    • B.

      Transport.

    • C.

      Network.

    • D.

      Data.

    Correct Answer
    C. Network.
    Explanation
    The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify different functions in a network. The network layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks. It determines the best path for data transmission and handles addressing and logical connectivity. The other layers mentioned in the question, such as programming, transport, and data, are not part of the OSI model and do not specify functions in the same way.

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  • 33. 

    (207) What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.

    • A.

      Data Transport and Application.

    • B.

      Session and Data Transport.

    • C.

      Network and Presentation.

    • D.

      Application and Session.

    Correct Answer
    A. Data Transport and Application.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model consists of seven layers: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application. The two categories mentioned in the question are Data Transport and Application. The Data Transport category includes the Transport layer, responsible for end-to-end delivery of data, and the Network layer, responsible for routing and addressing. The Application category includes the Presentation layer, responsible for data formatting and encryption, and the Application layer, responsible for user interfaces and application services.

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  • 34. 

    (207) The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?

    • A.

      Transport.

    • B.

      Data Link.

    • C.

      Physical.

    • D.

      Session.

    Correct Answer
    B. Data Link.
    Explanation
    The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. The Data Link layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between two nodes on the same network segment. The LLC sublayer provides flow control, error control, and access control for the data link layer. It ensures that data is delivered accurately and efficiently between the sender and receiver. Therefore, the correct answer is Data Link.

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  • 35. 

    (207) What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

    • A.

      Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.

    • B.

      Communications between devices over a single link of a network.

    • C.

      Protocol access to the physical network medium.

    • D.

      Protocol access to the links of a network.

    Correct Answer
    B. Communications between devices over a single link of a network.
    Explanation
    The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for providing error control, flow control, and sequencing of frames over a single link. It ensures that data is transmitted reliably and in the correct order between devices connected by a single link, regardless of the type of physical network medium being used.

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  • 36. 

    (207) What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

    • A.

      Communications between devices over a single link of a network.

    • B.

      Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.

    • C.

      Protocol access to the physical network medium.

    • D.

      Protocol access to the links of a network.

    Correct Answer
    C. Protocol access to the physical network medium.
    Explanation
    The media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages the protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network share and access the physical transmission medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies. The MAC sublayer ensures that devices take turns transmitting data and that collisions are avoided. It also handles tasks like addressing and error detection, making sure that data is transmitted reliably and efficiently over the network.

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  • 37. 

    (208) When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network’s

    • A.

      Transport topology.

    • B.

      Physical topology.

    • C.

      Physical medium.

    • D.

      Logical topology.

    Correct Answer
    B. Physical topology.
    Explanation
    When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's physical topology. This means that it is referring to the physical layout or structure of the network, including the arrangement of devices, cables, and connections. It does not refer to the logical or conceptual organization of the network, the physical medium used for communication, or the transport topology which deals with the movement of data packets.

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  • 38. 

    (208) What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

    • A.

      Star.

    • B.

      Ring.

    • C.

      Loop.

    • D.

      Linear.

    Correct Answer
    D. Linear.
    Explanation
    A bus topology is a network layout where all devices are connected to a single cable, resembling a straight line. This topology is also known as a linear topology since the devices are arranged in a linear fashion along the cable. The other options, such as star, ring, and loop, represent different network topologies with distinct characteristics and configurations.

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  • 39. 

    (208) What topology offers centralized management of a network?

    • A.

      Bus.

    • B.

      Star.

    • C.

      Ring.

    • D.

      Radial.

    Correct Answer
    B. Star.
    Explanation
    The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which acts as a central point of control. This allows for easier management and troubleshooting of the network, as any changes or issues can be addressed at the central hub. Additionally, the star topology provides better performance and reliability compared to other topologies like bus or ring, as a failure in one device does not affect the rest of the network.

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  • 40. 

    (208) What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

    • A.

      There are no negative effects.

    • B.

      A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication.

    • C.

      Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices.

    • D.

      When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.

    Correct Answer
    D. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.
    Explanation
    When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to facilitate communication between the different networks. If this central node point fails, it can result in large portions of the network becoming isolated, meaning that communication between those isolated portions will be disrupted. This can lead to a significant negative effect on the overall network connectivity and functionality.

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  • 41. 

    (209) Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

    • A.

      Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • B.

      Federal Communications Commission (FCC).

    • C.

      Department of Homeland Security (DHS).

    • D.

      Department of Defense (DOD).

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body that is responsible for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and at every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their control. They provide command and control capabilities and a globally accessible enterprise information infrastructure to support joint warfighters, national-level leaders, and other mission and coalition partners across the full spectrum of operations.

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  • 42. 

    (210) What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?

    • A.

      Regular of how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.

    • B.

      Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine (in the application layer).

    • C.

      Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.

    • D.

      Preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.

    Correct Answer
    C. Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.
    Explanation
    A Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket is a combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers. This means that when a process wants to communicate over a network, it needs to specify a port number and an IP address to establish a connection with another process on a remote machine. The TCP socket acts as a unique identifier for the connection, allowing data to be sent and received between the two processes.

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  • 43. 

    (210) What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?

    • A.

      Request network services and pass arguments between layers.

    • B.

      Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine.

    • C.

      Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.

    • D.

      Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.

    Correct Answer
    D. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
    Explanation
    The purpose of a sliding window in TCP is to regulate the amount of information that can be sent over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps to control the flow of data and prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices with data.

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  • 44. 

    (211) What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

    • A.

      Version Identification.

    • B.

      Header Checksum.

    • C.

      Time to Live.

    • D.

      Flags.

    Correct Answer
    B. Header Checksum.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Header Checksum. The header checksum is a field in the IP datagram that allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers. It is a simple error-checking mechanism that calculates the checksum of the header and compares it with the received checksum. If the two values do not match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission and the datagram is discarded. This helps ensure the integrity of the IP packet and prevent the delivery of corrupted or tampered data.

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  • 45. 

    (211) What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

    • A.

      239.

    • B.

      254.

    • C.

      255.

    • D.

      256.

    Correct Answer
    C. 255.
    Explanation
    In Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4), an octet is a group of 8 bits. The maximum value that can be represented by 8 bits is 255. Therefore, the correct answer is 255.

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  • 46. 

    (211) Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?

    • A.

      Class A address.

    • B.

      Class B address.

    • C.

      Class C address.

    • D.

      Class D address.

    Correct Answer
    C. Class C address.
    Explanation
    Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. In Class C addresses, the first three octets are reserved for the network portion, while the last octet is used for host addressing. Since there are 8 bits in the last octet, it can accommodate a maximum of 2^8 - 2 = 254 hosts. Class A and Class B addresses have larger network portions, which reduce the number of available host addresses. Class D addresses, on the other hand, are used for multicast purposes and do not have a fixed number of hosts per network.

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  • 47. 

    (211) What class is reserved for multicast addressing?

    • A.

      Class A address.

    • B.

      Class B address.

    • C.

      Class C address.

    • D.

      Class D address.

    Correct Answer
    D. Class D address.
    Explanation
    Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing allows a single packet to be sent to multiple recipients simultaneously. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are used for group communication. These addresses are not assigned to specific devices but are instead used to identify groups of devices that are interested in receiving multicast packets.

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  • 48. 

    (212) What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?

    • A.

      0–1023.

    • B.

      1024–49151.

    • C.

      49152–65535.

    • D.

      65536–87000.

    Correct Answer
    A. 0–1023.
    Explanation
    The range of numbers that are well-known port numbers is 0-1023. Well-known port numbers are standardized numbers assigned to specific services or protocols. These port numbers are commonly used and recognized by most operating systems and network devices.

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  • 49. 

    (213) What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?

    • A.

      ROM is volatile, RAM in non-volatile.

    • B.

      ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile.

    • C.

      RAM has a slower access time versus ROM.

    • D.

      ROM has a slower access time versus RAM.

    Correct Answer
    B. ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile.
    Explanation
    The major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM) is that ROM is non-volatile, meaning that it retains its data even when the power is turned off, while RAM is volatile, meaning that it loses its data when the power is turned off. This distinction is important because it determines whether the memory can store and retain data without a constant power source.

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  • 50. 

    (213) What action is the main purpose of system cache?

    • A.

      Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM).

    • B.

      Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data.

    • C.

      Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.

    • D.

      Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data.

    Correct Answer
    C. Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.
    Explanation
    The main purpose of system cache is to reduce the central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. The system cache stores frequently accessed data from the main memory, allowing the CPU to quickly retrieve this data instead of having to access it from the slower main memory. This helps to improve overall system performance by reducing the time it takes for the CPU to access data, resulting in faster processing speeds.

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