3DX5X Vol 1/2. Edit Code 02
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(201) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of
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Commerce.
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The Treasury.
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Defense.
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Labor.
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This quiz, titled '3DX5X Vol 1\/2. Edit Code 02,' assesses knowledge on the Air Force Mishap Prevention Program, including safety regulations, responsibilities, and reporting procedures. It is crucial for ensuring personnel and resource safety.
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- 2.
(203) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?
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1 to 2.
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2 to 2.5.
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2 to 4.5.
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2.5 to 3.
Correct Answer
A. 2 to 2.5.Explanation
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(203) How are fires classified?
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Fuel type.
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Heat source.
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Temperature.
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Atmospheric conditions.
Correct Answer
A. Fuel type.Explanation
Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuels, such as wood, paper, or gasoline, can result in different fire behaviors and require different extinguishing methods. Classifying fires based on fuel type helps firefighters and emergency responders understand the nature of the fire and determine the most effective strategies to control and extinguish it.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(203) Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?
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50.
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40.
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20.
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10.
Correct Answer
A. 50.Explanation
Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. This means that if a person is exposed to an electrical current of 50 milliamps, it could disrupt the normal functioning of the heart and potentially lead to cardiac arrest. It is important to be cautious around electrical sources and take necessary safety precautions to prevent such incidents.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(204) Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?
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Accept no unnecessary risk.
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Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
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Apply the process irregularly and continuously.
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Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer
A. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.Explanation
The correct answer is "Apply the process irregularly and continuously." This action goes against the principles of risk management, which emphasize the need for a systematic and consistent approach to identifying, assessing, and managing risks. Risk management should be applied regularly and continuously to ensure that potential risks are identified and addressed in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(207) The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?
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Transport.
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Data Link.
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Physical.
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Session.
Correct Answer
A. Data Link.Explanation
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. The Data Link layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between two nodes on the same network segment. The LLC sublayer provides flow control, error control, and access control for the data link layer. It ensures that data is delivered accurately and efficiently between the sender and receiver. Therefore, the correct answer is Data Link.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(208) What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?
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There are no negative effects.
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A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication.
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Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices.
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When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.
Correct Answer
A. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.Explanation
When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to facilitate communication between the different networks. If this central node point fails, it can result in large portions of the network becoming isolated, meaning that communication between those isolated portions will be disrupted. This can lead to a significant negative effect on the overall network connectivity and functionality.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(210) What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?
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Request network services and pass arguments between layers.
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Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine.
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Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.
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Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
Correct Answer
A. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.Explanation
The purpose of a sliding window in TCP is to regulate the amount of information that can be sent over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps to control the flow of data and prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices with data.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(212) What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?
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0–1023.
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1024–49151.
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49152–65535.
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65536–87000.
Correct Answer
A. 0–1023.Explanation
The range of numbers that are well-known port numbers is 0-1023. Well-known port numbers are standardized numbers assigned to specific services or protocols. These port numbers are commonly used and recognized by most operating systems and network devices.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(216) Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?
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Local area network (LAN).
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Wide area network (WAN).
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Virtual private network (VPN).
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Metropolitan area network (MAN).
Correct Answer
A. Wide area network (WAN).Explanation
A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects local area networks (LANs) and metropolitan area networks (MANs) by utilizing long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. This allows for the exchange of data and information over large geographical distances. Unlike LANs and MANs, which are limited to specific locations, WANs provide connectivity between different locations, enabling organizations to communicate and share resources across multiple sites. Therefore, WAN is the correct answer in this context.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(216) Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?
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Service set identifier (SSID) Broadcasting.
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Media access control (MAC) Filtering.
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Encryption.
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Tunneling.
Correct Answer
A. Encryption.Explanation
Encryption is the best described method of hiding a message in a special code. Encryption involves converting plain text into cipher text using an algorithm and a cryptographic key. This ensures that the message is secure and cannot be understood by unauthorized individuals. It provides confidentiality and protects the integrity of the data being transmitted over the wireless local area network (WLAN).Rate this question:
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- 12.
(216) Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?
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Local area network (LAN).
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Wide area network (WAN).
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Virtual private network (VPN).
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Metropolitan area network (MAN).
Correct Answer
A. Virtual private network (VPN).Explanation
A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. It allows users to securely access a private network over a public network, such as the Internet. By encrypting the data and creating a secure connection, VPNs ensure that the information transmitted between the user and the private network remains private and protected from unauthorized access. This makes VPNs a popular choice for remote workers or individuals who want to access private resources over the Internet securely.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(219) Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling.
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Media converter.
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Modem.
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Switch.
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Router.
Correct Answer
A. Media converter.Explanation
A media converter is a device that converts the electrical signal used in copper UTP network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling. It acts as a transceiver, allowing the transmission of data between different types of cables. A modem is used to connect to the internet, a switch is used to connect multiple devices within a network, and a router is used to connect multiple networks. Therefore, the correct answer is media converter.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(228) Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?
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Malware.
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Spyware.
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Adware.
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Trojans.
Correct Answer
A. Spyware.Explanation
Spyware is computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It is typically installed on a user's computer without their knowledge and can track their online activities, monitor keystrokes, steal sensitive information such as passwords and credit card details, and even take control of their computer. Unlike adware, which displays unwanted advertisements, spyware focuses on gathering personal data without the user's permission. Trojans, on the other hand, are malicious programs that disguise themselves as legitimate software, while malware is a broader term that encompasses various types of malicious software, including spyware.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(230) Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?
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When it is placed in service.
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When it is removed from service.
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When the storage container has been cleaned.
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When compromise of the combination is suspected.
Correct Answer
A. When the storage container has been cleaned.Explanation
Changing the combination on a container storing classified materials is necessary when there is a suspicion of compromise of the combination, as this could potentially lead to unauthorized access to the materials. It is also important to change the combination when the container is removed from service, as it may be reassigned to someone else who should not have access to the materials. Similarly, changing the combination when the container is placed in service ensures that only authorized personnel can access the materials. However, cleaning the storage container does not pose a risk of compromise, so changing the combination in this situation is not necessary.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
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Spectrum Operations.
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Ground Radar Systems.
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Cable and Antenna Systems.
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Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
A. Cable and Antenna Systems.Explanation
Cable and Antenna Systems are responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations. This includes setting up and maintaining the cables and antennas that are used for communication and networking purposes. They ensure that the wiring is properly installed and functioning correctly to support the operations of the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(009) The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?
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Title 3.
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Title 8.
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Title 10.
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Title 18.
Correct Answer
A. Title 10.Explanation
The correct answer is Title 10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 is also known as the "Armed Forces" and it outlines the structure, organization, and regulations of the military. The UCMJ is a set of laws that govern the conduct of members of the military and provides a framework for disciplinary actions and legal proceedings within the military justice system.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(010) When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?
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Title 10.
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Title 30.
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Title 50.
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Title 52.
Correct Answer
A. Title 10.Explanation
When Air National Guard personnel are in Title 32 status, they are under the control of their state governor and can only train for cyber operations. In order to actually execute those missions, they must be in Title 10 status, which places them under the control of the federal government and allows them to carry out their assigned tasks.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(019) What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?
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A rewriting of the main point.
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A well-written summary.
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A postscript message.
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None of the above.
Correct Answer
A. A well-written summary.Explanation
A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose. This requires you to comprehend the main points of the message and effectively condense them into a concise and clear summary. A well-written summary demonstrates your comprehension and communication skills by accurately conveying the main purpose of the original message.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(021) Records that are considered to be in draft format
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Can be altered and are not officially released.
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Can’t be altered, but are officially released.
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Can’t be altered and are officially signed.
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Officially signed and officially released.
Correct Answer
A. Can be altered and are not officially released.Explanation
Records that are considered to be in draft format can be altered and are not officially released. This means that these records are still in the process of being finalized and may undergo changes before they are officially released. As they are not officially released, they are not considered final or official versions. Therefore, they can be modified or edited as necessary.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(023) Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?
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The President.
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The Chief of Staff.
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The Vice President.
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The Deputy Secretary.
Correct Answer
A. The Deputy Secretary.Explanation
The Deputy Secretary is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense. This position is responsible for assisting the Secretary of Defense in managing the department and overseeing its operations. While the President is the Commander-in-Chief and has ultimate authority over the Department of Defense, the Deputy Secretary holds a higher rank and plays a more direct role in the day-to-day operations and decision-making within the department. The Chief of Staff is an important position but does not hold the same level of authority as the Deputy Secretary. The Vice President, although an important political figure, does not hold an official position within the Department of Defense.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(201) What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
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Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.
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Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.
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Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.
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Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.
Correct Answer
A. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.Explanation
The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death. This program aims to prevent accidents and mishaps by implementing safety measures and practices. By doing so, it ensures the well-being and safety of both the organization's assets and its personnel.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(201) Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?
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Air Staff.
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Civil Engineering.
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Squadron commander.
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Installation safety office.
Correct Answer
A. Installation safety office.Explanation
The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They play a crucial role in ensuring that safety protocols and procedures are followed, and they provide guidance and support to promote a safe working environment. The Air Staff, Civil Engineering, and Squadron commander may have their own roles and responsibilities, but the installation safety office specifically focuses on safety matters.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(202) What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.
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Isolating operations.
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Providing administrative controls.
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Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).
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Substitution a less hazardous material or process.
Correct Answer
A. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).Explanation
The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. PPE is the last line of defense and should only be used in conjunction with other control measures. It is more effective to eliminate or control hazards at the source through methods such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. PPE should be seen as a supplementary measure to further reduce the risk of exposure to hazards.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(203) What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
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Falls.
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Poor lighting.
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Horseplay.
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Poor ergonomics.
Correct Answer
A. Falls.Explanation
The greatest hazard in the typical office is falls. This could be due to slippery floors, tripping over objects, or falling from heights such as ladders or stairs. Falls can result in serious injuries, including broken bones or head trauma. It is important for employers to ensure that the office environment is free from hazards that could lead to falls, such as maintaining clean and dry floors, providing proper lighting, and implementing safety measures for working at heights.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(203) Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?
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Class A.
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Class B.
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Class C.
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Class D.
Correct Answer
A. Class C.Explanation
When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are typically classified as A or B, they will change to Class C. This change in classification is due to the increased risk of fire and explosion that occurs when an electric current is present. Class C fuels are those that are electrically conductive and can ignite or explode if exposed to an electrical source.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(203) What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
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Evacuate personnel from the building.
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Extinguish the fire if possible.
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Call the fire department.
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Sound the fire alarm.
Correct Answer
A. Sound the fire alarm.Explanation
When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building to the presence of a fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. Evacuating personnel from the building is the next step, ensuring that everyone is out of harm's way. Calling the fire department should be done after sounding the alarm and evacuating, as they will need to be notified and dispatched to the scene. Extinguishing the fire, if possible, should only be attempted by trained individuals and should not be the first action taken.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(203) What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?
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Evacuate personnel from the building.
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Extinguish the fire if possible.
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Call the fire department.
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Sound the fire alarm.
Correct Answer
A. Extinguish the fire if possible.Explanation
The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to try and put out the fire. It is important to assess the situation and determine if it is safe to attempt extinguishing the fire. If the fire is small and manageable, it is recommended to try and extinguish it before it spreads and becomes more dangerous. However, if the fire is too large or if there are any safety concerns, it is best to evacuate personnel from the building and call the fire department for professional assistance.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(208) What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
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Star.
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Ring.
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Loop.
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Linear.
Correct Answer
A. Linear.Explanation
A bus topology is a network layout where all devices are connected to a single cable, resembling a straight line. This topology is also known as a linear topology since the devices are arranged in a linear fashion along the cable. The other options, such as star, ring, and loop, represent different network topologies with distinct characteristics and configurations.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(211) What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?
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Version Identification.
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Header Checksum.
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Time to Live.
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Flags.
Correct Answer
A. Header Checksum.Explanation
The correct answer is Header Checksum. The header checksum is a field in the IP datagram that allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers. It is a simple error-checking mechanism that calculates the checksum of the header and compares it with the received checksum. If the two values do not match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission and the datagram is discarded. This helps ensure the integrity of the IP packet and prevent the delivery of corrupted or tampered data.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(215) Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?
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Printer.
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Scanner.
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Monitor.
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Camera lens.
Correct Answer
A. Scanner.Explanation
A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it into a digital image. Unlike a printer, which produces physical copies of digital images or text, a scanner captures the image or text and converts it into a digital format that can be stored or manipulated on a computer. A monitor is a display device, and a camera lens is a component of a camera that focuses light onto the image sensor. Therefore, the correct answer is scanner.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(216) Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?
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Local area network (LAN).
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Wide area network (WAN).
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Virtual private network (VPN).
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Metropolitan area network (MAN).
Correct Answer
A. Local area network (LAN).Explanation
A local area network (LAN) is a group of computers and associated devices that are connected to a common communications line and share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area. LANs are typically used in homes, offices, or schools where the distance between the devices is relatively small. In a LAN, computers can share files, printers, and other resources, allowing for efficient communication and collaboration among users.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(216) Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?
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Local area network (LAN).
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Wide area network (WAN).
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Metropolitan area network (MAN).
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Wireless local area network (WLAN).
Correct Answer
A. Wireless local area network (WLAN).Explanation
Wireless local area networks (WLANs) use Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol used in WLANs to ensure that multiple devices can access the network without causing collisions. It works by having devices listen for a clear channel before transmitting data, and if a collision is detected, the devices use a random backoff time before retransmitting. This helps to prevent data collisions and ensures efficient transmission in WLANs.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(222) What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a host network?
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Switch.
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Modem.
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Gateway.
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Converter.
Correct Answer
A. Gateway.Explanation
A gateway is a network device that provides connectivity between two different networks, allowing data to flow between them. In this scenario, a remote network needs to connect to a host network, and a gateway would facilitate this connection by acting as an entry and exit point for data between the two networks. A switch, modem, or converter does not provide this specific functionality of connecting two networks, making gateway the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(223) Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users’ own end terminals?
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Internet Protocol.
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End-to-end.
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Bulk.
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Link.
Correct Answer
A. End-to-end.Explanation
End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection as it ensures that the information is fully encoded from the sender's end terminal all the way to the recipient's end terminal. This means that even if the data is intercepted or accessed during transmission, it remains encrypted and cannot be deciphered without the proper decryption keys. This type of encryption is considered highly secure and is commonly used for sensitive communications, such as online banking or secure messaging applications.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(224) What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?
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Cost to install and train technicians.
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Electromagnetic immunity.
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Low attenuation.
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Security.
Correct Answer
A. Cost to install and train technicians.Explanation
The characteristic of "Cost to install and train technicians" is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cables are known for their advantages such as high bandwidth, low attenuation, and immunity to electromagnetic interference. However, the installation and training of technicians for fiber optic cables can be expensive compared to other types of cables.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(225) What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?
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Shell.
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Kernel.
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User programs.
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Dynamic-link library.
Correct Answer
A. Kernel.Explanation
The kernel is the UNIX system software that interacts most closely with the hardware. It is responsible for managing the system's resources, including memory, processes, and input/output devices. The kernel acts as a bridge between the hardware and the user programs, providing an interface for them to access the system's resources. The shell, on the other hand, is a user interface that allows users to interact with the system and execute commands. While user programs and dynamic-link libraries are important components of the UNIX system, they do not directly interact with the hardware like the kernel does.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(228) Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?
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Classified message incident.
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Eavesdropping.
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Data Spillage.
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Backdoor.
Correct Answer
A. Classified message incident.Explanation
When a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system, it is referred to as a classified message incident. This incident involves the transfer of sensitive information from a higher level of classification to a lower level, which can potentially compromise the security and confidentiality of the data. It is important to ensure that proper security protocols and measures are in place to prevent such incidents and protect classified information.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(230) Which Air Force (AF) form records the destruction of Top Secret classified material?
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AF Form 88.
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AF Form 143.
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AF Form 144.
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AF Form 1776.
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 143.Explanation
AF Form 143 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force form that is used to record the destruction of Top Secret classified material. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and ensures that the destruction process is properly documented and accounted for. It is important to have a standardized form like AF Form 143 to maintain the integrity and security of Top Secret information throughout its lifecycle.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(236) What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?
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Air Force Portal.
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IMDS.
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Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS).
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Electronic-publications (E-pub).
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Portal.Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Portal. The Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides the Air Force Portal as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel. The Air Force Portal is a web-based platform that allows users to access various tools, resources, and services related to their roles and responsibilities in the Air Force. It provides a centralized location for personnel to find information, collaborate with others, and access important documents and applications.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
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Spectrum Operations.
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Ground Radar Systems.
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Cable and Antenna Systems.
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Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
A. Radio Frequency Transmission.Explanation
The responsibility of the 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) of Radio Frequency Transmission includes the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. This AFS is specifically focused on managing and maintaining the transmission of RF signals, ensuring that communication systems are operating effectively and efficiently. They are responsible for setting up and maintaining the equipment necessary for radio frequency transmission, as well as troubleshooting and repairing any issues that may arise.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(003) Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?
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Unit training manager (UTM).
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Base functional manager (BFM).
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Major command functional manager (MFM).
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Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
A. Major command functional manager (MFM).Explanation
The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW). This individual is responsible for representing the interests of the MAJCOM and ensuring that the training and utilization needs of the career field are met. The MFM works closely with the Unit Training Manager (UTM), Base Functional Manager (BFM), and Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) to coordinate and implement training strategies and plans within the MAJCOM.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(006) Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?
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Trend analysis.
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Quality System.
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Quality Assessments.
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Managerial Assessments.
Correct Answer
A. Trend analysis.Explanation
Trend analysis is the correct answer as it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps in identifying patterns, trends, and anomalies in the data, which can be used to make informed decisions and improvements in the quality assurance processes. It provides valuable insights into the performance and effectiveness of the processes, allowing for continuous improvement and optimization. Quality System, Quality Assessments, and Managerial Assessments are not specifically focused on collecting and analyzing data on processes sampled by QA personnel.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(007) What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?
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Management Inspection (MI).
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Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).
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Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI).
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Commander’s Inspection Program (CCIP).
Correct Answer
A. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).Explanation
The correct answer is Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI). This inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to assess the overall effectiveness of a unit. It goes beyond traditional compliance inspections by evaluating the unit's ability to meet its mission requirements, achieve its objectives, and effectively utilize its resources. The UEI provides a comprehensive assessment of the unit's overall performance and effectiveness, helping identify areas for improvement and ensuring that the unit is prepared to carry out its mission effectively.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(008) What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?
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Remedy.
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Training Business Area.
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Telephone Management System.
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Integrated Maintenance Data System.
Correct Answer
A. Remedy.Explanation
Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets from procurement through retirement. It helps in tracking and managing IT assets, including hardware, software, and licenses. Remedy also assists in managing service requests, incidents, and changes related to IT assets, ensuring efficient and effective asset management throughout their lifecycle.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(009) What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
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Title 10.
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Title 18.
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Title 32.
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Title 50.
Correct Answer
A. Title 10.Explanation
Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title outlines the organization, structure, and authorities of the DOD and its component services, providing the legal framework for their existence and operations.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(012) Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?
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Counterintelligence (CI).
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Operation Security (OPSEC).
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Military deception (MILDEC).
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Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR).
Correct Answer
A. Military deception (MILDEC).Explanation
MILDEC, or military deception, is designed to mislead the enemy by manipulating their perception of events, intentions, and capabilities. It involves actions to induce the enemy to react in a way that is advantageous to the friendly forces. Since MISO and PA share a common specific audience, their activities are focused on disseminating information and shaping public opinion, rather than deliberately misleading the enemy. Counterintelligence (CI) is focused on detecting and countering enemy intelligence activities, while Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information from being exploited by the enemy. Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) involves collecting information about the enemy's activities.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(013) Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?
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Defense Industrial Base (DIB).
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Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).
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National Reconnaissance Office (NRO).
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Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
Correct Answer
A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).Explanation
The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. DISA is an agency within the Department of Defense that provides information technology and communications support to the military. They oversee the GIG, which is a globally interconnected network of information capabilities used by the military to collect, process, store, and disseminate information. As such, DISA plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and effectiveness of the GIG infrastructure.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(015) What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?
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Manpower.
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Efficiency.
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Reduce costs.
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Department of Defense 8570 mandate.
Correct Answer
A. Efficiency.Explanation
The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By centralizing the control centers and creating a single service desk, organizations can streamline their operations, reduce duplication of efforts, and enhance communication and coordination. This consolidation allows for better utilization of resources and ensures that issues are addressed promptly and effectively, resulting in improved overall efficiency of the network operations.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 26, 2016Quiz Created by
Joeshmo
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