3DX5X Vol 1/2. Edit Code 02

177 Questions

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3DX5X Vol 1/2. Edit Code 02

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (201) Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?
    • A. 

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–200.

    • B. 

      AFI 91–202.

    • C. 

      Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91–200.

    • D. 

      AFMAN 91–202.

  • 2. 
    (201) What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
    • A. 

      Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.

    • B. 

      Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.

    • C. 

      Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.

    • D. 

      Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.

  • 3. 
    (201) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of
    • A. 

      Commerce.

    • B. 

      The Treasury.

    • C. 

      Defense.

    • D. 

      Labor.

  • 4. 
    (201) Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?
    • A. 

      Air Staff.

    • B. 

      Civil Engineering.

    • C. 

      Squadron commander.

    • D. 

      Installation safety office.

  • 5. 
    (201) What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?
    • A. 

      Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO).

    • B. 

      Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).

    • C. 

      Review AF Form 55.

    • D. 

      Certify the employee.

  • 6. 
    (201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?
    • A. 

      475.

    • B. 

      480.

    • C. 

      978.

    • D. 

      980.

  • 7. 
    (201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?
    • A. 

      475.

    • B. 

      480.

    • C. 

      978.

    • D. 

      980.

  • 8. 
    (202) What three sub-categories make up human factors?
    • A. 

      Physiological, physical, stress.

    • B. 

      Physiological, Physical, social.

    • C. 

      Stress, organizational, physical.

    • D. 

      Physical, physiological, organizational.

  • 9. 
    (202) Which action is a physiological factor?
    • A. 

      Performing a task while fatigued.

    • B. 

      Performing a task while intoxicated.

    • C. 

      Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.

    • D. 

      Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness.

  • 10. 
    (202) Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?
    • A. 

      Bioenvironmental Engineering.

    • B. 

      Installation safety office.

    • C. 

      Base civil engineer.

    • D. 

      Supervisors.

  • 11. 
    (202) What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.
    • A. 

      Isolating operations.

    • B. 

      Providing administrative controls.

    • C. 

      Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).

    • D. 

      Substitution a less hazardous material or process.

  • 12. 
    (202) How many impact classifications do hardhats have?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 13. 
    (202) Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?
    • A. 

      A.

    • B. 

      C.

    • C. 

      E.

    • D. 

      G.

  • 14. 
    (203) What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
    • A. 

      Falls.

    • B. 

      Poor lighting.

    • C. 

      Horseplay.

    • D. 

      Poor ergonomics.

  • 15. 
    (203) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?
    • A. 

      1 to 2.

    • B. 

      2 to 2.5.

    • C. 

      2 to 4.5.

    • D. 

      2.5 to 3.

  • 16. 
    (203) What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?
    • A. 

      8.

    • B. 

      9.

    • C. 

      10.

    • D. 

      11.

  • 17. 
    (203) How are fires classified?
    • A. 

      Fuel type.

    • B. 

      Heat source.

    • C. 

      Temperature.

    • D. 

      Atmospheric conditions.

  • 18. 
    (203) What classification do flammable liquids receive?
    • A. 

      Class A.

    • B. 

      Class B.

    • C. 

      Class C.

    • D. 

      Class D.

  • 19. 
    (203) Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?
    • A. 

      Class A.

    • B. 

      Class B.

    • C. 

      Class C.

    • D. 

      Class D.

  • 20. 
    (203) What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
    • A. 

      Evacuate personnel from the building.

    • B. 

      Extinguish the fire if possible.

    • C. 

      Call the fire department.

    • D. 

      Sound the fire alarm.

  • 21. 
    (203) What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?  
    • A. 

      Evacuate personnel from the building.

    • B. 

      Extinguish the fire if possible.

    • C. 

      Call the fire department.

    • D. 

      Sound the fire alarm.

  • 22. 
    (203) Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?
    • A. 

      50.

    • B. 

      40.

    • C. 

      20.

    • D. 

      10.

  • 23. 
    (203) Which ladder practice is not prohibited?
    • A. 

      Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.

    • B. 

      Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder.

    • C. 

      Using a ladder as a scaffold.

    • D. 

      Using a homemade ladder.

  • 24. 
    (204) Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?
    • A. 

      Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B. 

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C. 

      Apply the process irregularly and continuously.

    • D. 

      Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels.

  • 25. 
    (204) The risk management process includes how many steps?
    • A. 

      Four.

    • B. 

      Five.

    • C. 

      Six.

    • D. 

      Seven.

  • 26. 
    (205) How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 27. 
    (205) Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?
    • A. 

      Office of Administration.

    • B. 

      Office of Communications.

    • C. 

      Office of Public Engagement.

    • D. 

      Office of Management and Budget.

  • 28. 
    (205) What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?
    • A. 

      State level.

    • B. 

      Federal level.

    • C. 

      Congressional level.

    • D. 

      Department of Defense level.

  • 29. 
    (206) What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?
    • A. 

      Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record.

    • B. 

      Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.

    • C. 

      Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.

    • D. 

      Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record.

  • 30. 
    (206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?
    • A. 

      Administrative record.

    • B. 

      Maintenance record.

    • C. 

      Drawing record.

    • D. 

      Outage record.

  • 31. 
    (206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?
    • A. 

      Administrative record.

    • B. 

      Maintenance record.

    • C. 

      Drawing record.

    • D. 

      Outage record.

  • 32. 
    (207) What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?
    • A. 

      Programming.

    • B. 

      Transport.

    • C. 

      Network.

    • D. 

      Data.

  • 33. 
    (207) What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.
    • A. 

      Data Transport and Application.

    • B. 

      Session and Data Transport.

    • C. 

      Network and Presentation.

    • D. 

      Application and Session.

  • 34. 
    (207) The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?
    • A. 

      Transport.

    • B. 

      Data Link.

    • C. 

      Physical.

    • D. 

      Session.

  • 35. 
    (207) What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?
    • A. 

      Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.

    • B. 

      Communications between devices over a single link of a network.

    • C. 

      Protocol access to the physical network medium.

    • D. 

      Protocol access to the links of a network.

  • 36. 
    • A. 

      Communications between devices over a single link of a network.

    • B. 

      Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.

    • C. 

      Protocol access to the physical network medium.

    • D. 

      Protocol access to the links of a network.

  • 37. 
    (208) When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network’s
    • A. 

      Transport topology.

    • B. 

      Physical topology.

    • C. 

      Physical medium.

    • D. 

      Logical topology.

  • 38. 
    (208) What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
    • A. 

      Star.

    • B. 

      Ring.

    • C. 

      Loop.

    • D. 

      Linear.

  • 39. 
    (208) What topology offers centralized management of a network?
    • A. 

      Bus.

    • B. 

      Star.

    • C. 

      Ring.

    • D. 

      Radial.

  • 40. 
    (208) What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?
    • A. 

      There are no negative effects.

    • B. 

      A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication.

    • C. 

      Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices.

    • D. 

      When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.

  • 41. 
    (209) Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?
    • A. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • B. 

      Federal Communications Commission (FCC).

    • C. 

      Department of Homeland Security (DHS).

    • D. 

      Department of Defense (DOD).

  • 42. 
    (210) What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?
    • A. 

      Regular of how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.

    • B. 

      Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine (in the application layer).

    • C. 

      Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.

    • D. 

      Preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.

  • 43. 
    (210) What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?
    • A. 

      Request network services and pass arguments between layers.

    • B. 

      Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine.

    • C. 

      Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.

    • D. 

      Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.

  • 44. 
    (211) What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?
    • A. 

      Version Identification.

    • B. 

      Header Checksum.

    • C. 

      Time to Live.

    • D. 

      Flags.

  • 45. 
    (211) What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?
    • A. 

      239.

    • B. 

      254.

    • C. 

      255.

    • D. 

      256.

  • 46. 
    (211) Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?
    • A. 

      Class A address.

    • B. 

      Class B address.

    • C. 

      Class C address.

    • D. 

      Class D address.

  • 47. 
    (211) What class is reserved for multicast addressing?
    • A. 

      Class A address.

    • B. 

      Class B address.

    • C. 

      Class C address.

    • D. 

      Class D address.

  • 48. 
    (212) What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?
    • A. 

      0–1023.

    • B. 

      1024–49151.

    • C. 

      49152–65535.

    • D. 

      65536–87000.

  • 49. 
    (213) What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?
    • A. 

      ROM is volatile, RAM in non-volatile.

    • B. 

      ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile.

    • C. 

      RAM has a slower access time versus ROM.

    • D. 

      ROM has a slower access time versus RAM.

  • 50. 
    (213) What action is the main purpose of system cache?
    • A. 

      Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM).

    • B. 

      Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data.

    • C. 

      Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.

    • D. 

      Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data.

  • 51. 
    (214) What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?
    • A. 

      Two gigabits per second (GB/S).

    • B. 

      Four GB/S.

    • C. 

      Five GB/S.

    • D. 

      10 GB/S.

  • 52. 
    (215) What is a peripheral device?
    • A. 

      A main internal component of a computer.

    • B. 

      Not a main internal component of a computer.

    • C. 

      A main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.

    • D. 

      Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.

  • 53. 
    (215) Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?
    • A. 

      Printer.

    • B. 

      Scanner.

    • C. 

      Monitor.

    • D. 

      Camera lens.

  • 54. 
    (216) Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?
    • A. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • B. 

      Wide area network (WAN).

    • C. 

      Virtual private network (VPN).

    • D. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN).

  • 55. 
    (216) Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?
    • A. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • B. 

      Wide area network (WAN).

    • C. 

      Virtual private network (VPN).

    • D. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN).

  • 56. 
    (216) Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?
    • A. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • B. 

      Wide area network (WAN).

    • C. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    • D. 

      Wireless local area network (WLAN).

  • 57. 
    (216) Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?
    • A. 

      Service set identifier (SSID) Broadcasting.

    • B. 

      Media access control (MAC) Filtering.

    • C. 

      Encryption.

    • D. 

      Tunneling.

  • 58. 
    (216) Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?
    • A. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • B. 

      Wide area network (WAN).

    • C. 

      Virtual private network (VPN).

    • D. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN).

  • 59. 
    (217) What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratifies the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE)?
    • A. 

      1988.

    • B. 

      1999.

    • C. 

      2005.

    • D. 

      2009.

  • 60. 
    (218) How many T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits do Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer?
    • A. 

      24.

    • B. 

      15.

    • C. 

      10.

    • D. 

      7.

  • 61. 
    (219) Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling.
    • A. 

      Media converter.

    • B. 

      Modem.

    • C. 

      Switch.

    • D. 

      Router.

  • 62. 
    (220) Describe a network bridge.
    • A. 

      Data Link layer network device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks.

    • B. 

      Network layer device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks.

    • C. 

      Data Link layer device that provide central connection to network devices.

    • D. 

      Network layer device that provide central connection to network devices.

  • 63. 
    (221) What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems to connect together?
    • A. 

      Open shortest path first (OSPF).

    • B. 

      Exterior gateway protocol (EGP).

    • C. 

      Interior gateway protocol (IGP).

    • D. 

      Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP).

  • 64. 
    (222) What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a host network?
    • A. 

      Switch.

    • B. 

      Modem.

    • C. 

      Gateway.

    • D. 

      Converter.

  • 65. 
    (223) Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users’ own end terminals?
    • A. 

      Internet Protocol.

    • B. 

      End-to-end.

    • C. 

      Bulk.

    • D. 

      Link.

  • 66. 
    (224) What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?
    • A. 

      Cost to install and train technicians.

    • B. 

      Electromagnetic immunity.

    • C. 

      Low attenuation.

    • D. 

      Security.

  • 67. 
    (225) In general, how many operating system task categories are there?
    • A. 

      Four.

    • B. 

      Five.

    • C. 

      Six.

    • D. 

      Seven.

  • 68. 
    (225) What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?
    • A. 

      Shell.

    • B. 

      Kernel.

    • C. 

      User programs.

    • D. 

      Dynamic-link library.

  • 69. 
    (226) What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?
    • A. 

      Word.

    • B. 

      Access.

    • C. 

      Outlook.

    • D. 

      PowerPoint.

  • 70. 
     (226) What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?
    • A. 

      Word.

    • B. 

      Access.

    • C. 

      Outlook.

    • D. 

      PowerPoint.

  • 71. 
    (227) What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an organization’s mission critical information via its communications and ISs?
    • A. 

      Malware.

    • B. 

      Denial of service attacks.

    • C. 

      Inadvertent employee activity.

    • D. 

      Hostile information operations.

  • 72. 
    (228) Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?  
    • A. 

      Attacker’s capability to exploit the flaw.

    • B. 

      System’s susceptibility to a flaw.

    • C. 

      Attacker’s access to the flaw.

    • D. 

      Attacker’s lack of ability.

  • 73. 
    (228) Computer security (COMPUSEC) vulnerabilities are broken down into how many categories?
    • A. 

      4.

    • B. 

      6.

    • C. 

      8.

    • D. 

      10.

  • 74. 
    (228) Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?
    • A. 

      Malware.

    • B. 

      Spyware.

    • C. 

      Adware.

    • D. 

      Trojans.

  • 75. 
    (228) Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?
    • A. 

      Classified message incident.

    • B. 

      Eavesdropping.

    • C. 

      Data Spillage.

    • D. 

      Backdoor.

  • 76. 
    (229) Which classified document markings identifies the highest level of classification?
    • A. 

      Banner Lines.

    • B. 

      Portion Marks.

    • C. 

      Component and office.

    • D. 

      Classification authority.

  • 77. 
    (229) Which classified document marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and shall indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification.
    • A. 

      Banner Lines

    • B. 

      Portion Marks.

    • C. 

      Component and office.

    • D. 

      Classification authority.

  • 78. 
    (230) How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is required or another supplemental control is sufficient?
    • A. 

      General Service Administration (GSA) makes that determination.

    • B. 

      Office of Special Investigation (OSI) makes that determination

    • C. 

      Wing information office makes that determination.

    • D. 

      By competing a risk assessment.

  • 79. 
    (230) Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?
    • A. 

      When it is placed in service.

    • B. 

      When it is removed from service.

    • C. 

      When the storage container has been cleaned.

    • D. 

      When compromise of the combination is suspected.

  • 80. 
    (230) Which Air Force (AF) form records the destruction of Top Secret classified material?
    • A. 

      AF Form 88.

    • B. 

      AF Form 143.

    • C. 

      AF Form 144.

    • D. 

      AF Form 1776.

  • 81. 
    (231) Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information?
    • A. 

      Classified Information Program Manager.

    • B. 

      Information Assurance Officer.

    • C. 

      Security Manager.

    • D. 

      Supervisor.

  • 82. 
    (231) Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday?
    • A. 

      Classified Information Program Manager.

    • B. 

      Information Assurance Officer.

    • C. 

      Security Manager.

    • D. 

      Supervisor.

  • 83. 
    (232) What system includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority?
    • A. 

      Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN).

    • B. 

      Defense Information Systems Network (DISN).

    • C. 

      Air Force Information Network (AFIN).

    • D. 

      Defense Intelligence Network (DIN).

  • 84. 
    (232) Which of the following services provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas?
    • A. 

      Transport.

    • B. 

      Application.

    • C. 

      Aerial layer.

    • D. 

      Satellite communication (SATCOM).

  • 85. 
    (233) What system is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space, divided by security demands, transmission requirements and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers?
    • A. 

      Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN).

    • B. 

      Defense Information Systems Network (DISN).

    • C. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • D. 

      Air Force Information Network (AFIN).

  • 86. 
    (233) Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?
    • A. 

      Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).

    • B. 

      Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).

    • C. 

      Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.

    • D. 

      Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data.

  • 87. 
    (234) Which network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet?
    • A. 

      Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).

    • B. 

      Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).

    • C. 

      Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.

    • D. 

      Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data.

  • 88. 
    (234) Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management?
    • A. 

      Defense Switched Network (DSN).

    • B. 

      Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN).

    • C. 

      Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.

    • D. 

      Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) Internet Protocol (IP) Data.

  • 89. 
    (235) Which system is the Department of Defense’s (DOD) command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler?
    • A. 

      Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

    • B. 

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

    • C. 

      Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

    • D. 

      Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

  • 90. 
    (235) Which system of the Global Command and Control System-Air Force (GCCS-AF) monitors status of resources and training systems ensuring that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available to the for mission completion?
    • A. 

      Common Operational Picture (COP).

    • B. 

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

    • C. 

      GCCS Status of Resources and Training (GSORTS).

    • D. 

      Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution System (DCAPES).

  • 91. 
    (236) What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?
    • A. 

      Air Force Portal.

    • B. 

      IMDS.

    • C. 

      Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS).

    • D. 

      Electronic-publications (E-pub).

  • 92. 
    (237) Which system is the Air Forces’ primary intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis and dissemination system?
    • A. 

      Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

    • B. 

      Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

    • C. 

      Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

    • D. 

      Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

  • 93. 
    (238) Which system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on a powerful server- based computer system that takes inputs from long range and short-range radars and displays it all on a scope?
    • A. 

      Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

    • B. 

      Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

    • C. 

      Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

    • D. 

      Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

  • 94. 
    (238) How many air defenses sectors is the Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) divided into?
    • A. 

      Six.

    • B. 

      Five.

    • C. 

      Four.

    • D. 

      Two.

  • 95. 
    (239) Which system is a space-based high data rate communications link for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces?
    • A. 

      Global Broadcast System (GBS).

    • B. 

      Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

    • C. 

      Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

    • D. 

      Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

  • 96. 
    (240) What system is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities?
    • A. 

      Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

    • B. 

      Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

    • C. 

      National Military Command Center (NMCC).

    • D. 

      Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).

  • 97. 
    • A. 

      Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

    • B. 

      Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

    • C. 

      Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).

    • D. 

      Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

  • 98. 
    (241) What system provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force’s strategic aircraft and missile functions?
    • A. 

      Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

    • B. 

      Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

    • C. 

      Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).

    • D. 

      Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

  • 99. 
    (242) What system mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users?
    • A. 

      Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

    • B. 

      Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

    • C. 

      Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).

    • D. 

      Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

  • 100. 
    • A. 

      Mystic Star.

    • B. 

      Global HF system.

    • C. 

      Defense Communication System (DCS) entry.

    • D. 

      System of Inter-American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA).

  • 101. 
    (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
    • A. 

      Spectrum Operations.

    • B. 

      Ground Radar Systems.

    • C. 

      Cable and Antenna Systems.

    • D. 

      Radio Frequency Transmission.

  • 102. 
    (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
    • A. 

      Spectrum Operations.

    • B. 

      Ground Radar Systems.

    • C. 

      Cable and Antenna Systems.

    • D. 

      Radio Frequency Transmission.

  • 103. 
    (002) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?
    • A. 

      Core task.

    • B. 

      Duty competency.

    • C. 

      Core competency.

    • D. 

      Duty position task.

  • 104. 
    (003) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
    • A. 

      Unit training manager (UTM).

    • B. 

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C. 

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D. 

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

  • 105. 
    (003) Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?
    • A. 

      Unit training manager (UTM).

    • B. 

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C. 

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D. 

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

  • 106. 
    (003) Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?
    • A. 

      Unit training manager (UTM).

    • B. 

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C. 

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D. 

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

  • 107. 
    (003) Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
    • A. 

      Unit training manager (UTM).

    • B. 

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C. 

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D. 

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

  • 108. 
    (003) What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
    • A. 

      Unit training manager (UTM).

    • B. 

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C. 

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D. 

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

  • 109. 
    (004) Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?
    • A. 

      Modify local training.

    • B. 

      Allocate manpower.

    • C. 

      Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).

    • D. 

      Assist the unit training manager in course development.

  • 110. 
    (004) What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
    • A. 

      Conduct climate training surveys.

    • B. 

      Develop Career Development Courses.

    • C. 

      Review the occupational analysis report.

    • D. 

      Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

  • 111. 
    (004) Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?
    • A. 

      Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).

    • B. 

      Air Force Career FieldManager (AFCFM) in conjunction with the SME.

    • C. 

      MFM in conjunction with the subject matter expert (SME).

    • D. 

      AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM.

  • 112. 
    (005) What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?
    • A. 

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • B. 

      Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).

    • C. 

      On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.

    • D. 

      Occupational Analysis Program.

  • 113. 
    (006) Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
    • A. 

      Quality Assessments.

    • B. 

      Quality Assurance.

    • C. 

      Quality System.

    • D. 

      Trend Analysis.

  • 114. 
    (006) Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
    • A. 

      Technical Evaluation.

    • B. 

      Personnel Evaluation.

    • C. 

      Managerial Evaluation.

    • D. 

      Standard Evaluation.

  • 115. 
    (006) Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?
    • A. 

      Trend analysis.

    • B. 

      Quality System.

    • C. 

      Quality Assessments.

    • D. 

      Managerial Assessments.

  • 116. 
    (007) What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?
    • A. 

      Management Inspection (MI).

    • B. 

      Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).

    • C. 

      Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI).

    • D. 

      Commander’s Inspection Program (CCIP).

  • 117. 
    (008) What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?
    • A. 

      Remedy.

    • B. 

      Training Business Area.

    • C. 

      Telephone Management System.

    • D. 

      Integrated Maintenance Data System.

  • 118. 
    (009) What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
    • A. 

      Title 10.

    • B. 

      Title 18.

    • C. 

      Title 32.

    • D. 

      Title 50.

  • 119. 
    (009) The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?
    • A. 

      Title 3.

    • B. 

      Title 8.

    • C. 

      Title 10.

    • D. 

      Title 18.

  • 120. 
    (010) What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?
    • A. 

      National Military Cyberspace Strategy.

    • B. 

      National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

    • C. 

      National Military Strategy for Cyberspace.

    • D. 

      National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

  • 121. 
    (010) Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America’s critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?
    • A. 

      National Security Policy.

    • B. 

      National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

    • C. 

      Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.

    • D. 

      National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.

  • 122. 
    (010) What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces’ comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?
    • A. 

      National Security Policy.

    • B. 

      National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

    • C. 

      Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.

    • D. 

      National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.

  • 123. 
    (010) When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?
    • A. 

      Title 10.

    • B. 

      Title 30.

    • C. 

      Title 50.

    • D. 

      Title 52.

  • 124. 
    (010) An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as
    • A. 

      Misuse of position.

    • B. 

      Covered relationships.

    • C. 

      Non-public information.

    • D. 

      Personal conflict of interest.

  • 125. 
    (010) Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?
    • A. 

      Misuse of position.

    • B. 

      Covered relationship.

    • C. 

      Personal conflict of interest.

    • D. 

      None, this is not an example of an unethical situation.

  • 126. 
    • A. 

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

    • B. 

      Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

    • C. 

      Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

    • D. 

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

  • 127. 
    • A. 

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

    • B. 

      Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

    • C. 

      Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

    • D. 

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

  • 128. 
    (011) What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?
    • A. 

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

    • B. 

      Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

    • C. 

      Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

    • D. 

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

  • 129. 
    (011) Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?
    • A. 

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

    • B. 

      Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

    • C. 

      Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

    • D. 

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

  • 130. 
    • A. 

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

    • B. 

      Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

    • C. 

      Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

    • D. 

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.

  • 131. 
    (011) What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?
    • A. 

      Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.

    • B. 

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

    • C. 

      Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System.

    • D. 

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.

  • 132. 
    (012) What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?
    • A. 

      Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force.

    • B. 

      Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force.

    • C. 

      Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force.

    • D. 

      Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force.

  • 133. 
    (012) What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.
    • A. 

      Active and reactive.

    • B. 

      Evasive and decisive.

    • C. 

      Subversive and divisive.

    • D. 

      Offensive and defensive.

  • 134. 
    (012) Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?
    • A. 

      Counterintelligence (CI).

    • B. 

      Operation Security (OPSEC).

    • C. 

      Military deception (MILDEC).

    • D. 

      Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR).

  • 135. 
    (013) What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?
    • A. 

      Strategic Considerations.

    • B. 

      Military Strategic Framework.

    • C. 

      Implementation and Assessment.

    • D. 

      Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.

  • 136. 
    (013) Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?
    • A. 

      Defense Industrial Base (DIB).

    • B. 

      Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).

    • C. 

      National Reconnaissance Office (NRO).

    • D. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

  • 137. 
    (014) What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?
    • A. 

      644th Combat Communication Squadron.

    • B. 

      85th Engineering Installation Squadron.

    • C. 

      83th Network Operations Squadron.

    • D. 

      4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing.

  • 138. 
    (015) Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?
    • A. 

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

    • B. 

      Area Processing Center (APC).

    • C. 

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

    • D. 

      Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).

  • 139. 
    (015) What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?
    • A. 

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

    • B. 

      Area Processing Center (APC).

    • C. 

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

    • D. 

      Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).

  • 140. 
    (015) What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?
    • A. 

      Manpower.

    • B. 

      Efficiency.

    • C. 

      Reduce costs.

    • D. 

      Department of Defense 8570 mandate.

  • 141. 
    (015) What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?
    • A. 

      2009.

    • B. 

      2010.

    • C. 

      2011.

    • D. 

      2012.

  • 142. 
    (016) What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?
    • A. 

      Subordinate unified command and geographical command.

    • B. 

      Unified command and subordinate unified command.

    • C. 

      Functional command and geographical command.

    • D. 

      Unified command and functional command.

  • 143. 
    (016) The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a
    • A. 

      Combined force air and space component commander (CFAAC).

    • B. 

      Joint force air and space component commander (JFACC).

    • C. 

      Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF).

    • D. 

      Joint Force Commander (JFC).

  • 144. 
    (017) What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?
    • A. 

      Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF).

    • B. 

      Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF).

    • C. 

      Unit type codes (UTC).

    • D. 

      Stratum levels (SL).

  • 145. 
    (017) What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
    • A. 

      Coding.

    • B. 

      Positioning.

    • C. 

      Tempo bands.

    • D. 

      Unit type code.

  • 146. 
    (018) Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?
    • A. 

      Service Transition.

    • B. 

      Service Strategy.

    • C. 

      Service Contact.

    • D. 

      Service Design.

  • 147. 
    (018) What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?
    • A. 

      Continual Service Improvement.

    • B. 

      Service Transition.

    • C. 

      Service Strategy.

    • D. 

      Service Design.

  • 148. 
    (019) The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to
    • A. 

      Safeguard information in an enterprise-wide environment.

    • B. 

      Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.

    • C. 

      Improve the effectiveness of the mission.

    • D. 

      Improve the efficiency of the mission.

  • 149. 
    (019) Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?
    • A. 

      Article 32.

    • B. 

      Article 40.

    • C. 

      Article 92.

    • D. 

      Article 100.

  • 150. 
    (019) How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?
    • A. 

      Two.

    • B. 

      Four.

    • C. 

      Six.

    • D. 

      Eight.

  • 151. 
    (019) What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?
    • A. 

      A rewriting of the main point.

    • B. 

      A well-written summary.

    • C. 

      A postscript message.

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 152. 
    (020) How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a SharePoint Server?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 153. 
    (021) Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official government record?"
    • A. 

      AFI 33−321.

    • B. 

      AFI 33−322.

    • C. 

      AFI 33−329.

    • D. 

      AFI 33−332.

  • 154. 
    (021) Which document is NOT considered an official government record?
    • A. 

      Published doctrines.

    • B. 

      Geographical base maps.

    • C. 

      Photographs of a retreat ceremony.

    • D. 

      Library reference or museum exhibitions.

  • 155. 
    (021) Records that are considered to be in draft format
    • A. 

      Can be altered and are not officially released.

    • B. 

      Can’t be altered, but are officially released.

    • C. 

      Can’t be altered and are officially signed.

    • D. 

      Officially signed and officially released.

  • 156. 
    (022) Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?
    • A. 

      Base records manager.

    • B. 

      Chief of Office of Records.

    • C. 

      Command records manager.

    • D. 

      Functional area records manager.

  • 157. 
    (022) Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?
    • A. 

      Base records manager.

    • B. 

      Chief of Office of Records.

    • C. 

      Command records manager.

    • D. 

      Functional area records manager.

  • 158. 
    (022) Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?
    • A. 

      Base records manager.

    • B. 

      Chief of Office of Records.

    • C. 

      Command records manager.

    • D. 

      Functional area records manager.

  • 159. 
    (022) Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?
    • A. 

      Base records manager.

    • B. 

      Command records manager.

    • C. 

      Chief of the Office of Records.

    • D. 

      Functional area records manager.

  • 160. 
    (023) Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?
    • A. 

      The President.

    • B. 

      The Chief of Staff.

    • C. 

      The Vice President.

    • D. 

      The Deputy Secretary.

  • 161. 
    (023) What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships and authority?
    • A. 

      Direct oversight directives.

    • B. 

      Secretary Policy memo.

    • C. 

      Directive-type memo.

    • D. 

      Chartering directives.

  • 162. 
    (023) What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?
    • A. 

      DODD 8140.01.

    • B. 

      DODD 5515.01.

    • C. 

      DODD 8220.01.

    • D. 

      DODD 8570.01.

  • 163. 
    (023) How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI) are there?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 164. 
    (023) What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups?
    • A. 

      Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.

    • B. 

      Deputy Secretary of Defense and authorized signers.

    • C. 

      Chief, Manuals Division (MD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS).

    • D. 

      Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS).

  • 165. 
    (023) What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?
    • A. 

      JP 6–0, Joint Communications System.

    • B. 

      JP 5–0, Joint Communications System.

    • C. 

      JP 5–0, Joint Operation Planning.

    • D. 

      JP 6–0, Joint Operations Series.

  • 166. 
    (024) What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?
    • A. 

      Directive.

    • B. 

      Non-directive.

    • C. 

      Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM).

    • D. 

      Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD).

  • 167. 
    (024) What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?
    • A. 

      AF Doctrine.

    • B. 

      AF Handbook (AFH).

    • C. 

      AF Pamphlet (AFPAM).

    • D. 

      AF Visual Aid (AFVA).

  • 168. 
    • A. 

      Air Force Instructions (AFI).

    • B. 

      Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD).

    • C. 

      Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).

    • D. 

      Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM).

  • 169. 
    (024) What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?
    • A. 

      Air Force Instructions (AFI).

    • B. 

      Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD).

    • C. 

      Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).

    • D. 

      Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM).

  • 170. 
    (024) What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units?
    • A. 

      Air Force Instructions (AFI).

    • B. 

      Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD).

    • C. 

      Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).

    • D. 

      Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM).

  • 171. 
    (024) What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws?
    • A. 

      Air Force Instructions (AFI).

    • B. 

      Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD).

    • C. 

      Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).

    • D. 

      Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM).

  • 172. 
    (025) Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00–5– 1?
    • A. 

      Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

    • B. 

      Resources required to manage and use TOs.

    • C. 

      Infrastructure to manage and use TOs.

    • D. 

      Training to manage and use TOs.

  • 173. 
    (025) What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?
    • A. 

      Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).

    • B. 

      Office Automation System (OAS).

    • C. 

      Decision Support System (DSS).

    • D. 

      Training Business Area (TBA).

  • 174. 
    (025) What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?
    • A. 

      Library custodian.

    • B. 

      Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).

    • C. 

      Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).

    • D. 

      Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge (NCOIC).

  • 175. 
    (025) Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data?
    • A. 

      Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).

    • B. 

      Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).

    • C. 

      Library custodian.

    • D. 

      Any user.

  • 176. 
    (025) Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?
    • A. 

      Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO).

    • B. 

      Operation and Maintenance TO.

    • C. 

      Methods and Procedures TO.

    • D. 

      General TO.

  • 177. 
    (026) Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?
    • A. 

      Defense Standardization Program (DSP).

    • B. 

      Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).

    • C. 

      Information and Communications Technology (ICT).

    • D. 

      Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).