3DX5X Vol 1/2. Edit Code 02

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1. (201) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of

Explanation

The correct answer is Labor. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency that falls under the United States Department of Labor. Its main responsibility is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees by enforcing workplace safety standards and regulations.

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3DX5X Vol 1/2. Edit Code 02 - Quiz

This quiz, titled '3DX5X Vol 1\/2. Edit Code 02,' assesses knowledge on the Air Force Mishap Prevention Program, including safety regulations, responsibilities, and reporting procedures. It is crucial for ensuring personnel and resource safety.

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2. (203) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

Explanation

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers.

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3. (203) How are fires classified?

Explanation

Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuels, such as wood, paper, or gasoline, can result in different fire behaviors and require different extinguishing methods. Classifying fires based on fuel type helps firefighters and emergency responders understand the nature of the fire and determine the most effective strategies to control and extinguish it.

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4. (203) Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

Explanation

Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. This means that if a person is exposed to an electrical current of 50 milliamps, it could disrupt the normal functioning of the heart and potentially lead to cardiac arrest. It is important to be cautious around electrical sources and take necessary safety precautions to prevent such incidents.

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5. (204) Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Apply the process irregularly and continuously." This action goes against the principles of risk management, which emphasize the need for a systematic and consistent approach to identifying, assessing, and managing risks. Risk management should be applied regularly and continuously to ensure that potential risks are identified and addressed in a timely manner.

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6. (207) The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. The Data Link layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between two nodes on the same network segment. The LLC sublayer provides flow control, error control, and access control for the data link layer. It ensures that data is delivered accurately and efficiently between the sender and receiver. Therefore, the correct answer is Data Link.

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7. (208) What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

Explanation

When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to facilitate communication between the different networks. If this central node point fails, it can result in large portions of the network becoming isolated, meaning that communication between those isolated portions will be disrupted. This can lead to a significant negative effect on the overall network connectivity and functionality.

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8. (210) What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?

Explanation

The purpose of a sliding window in TCP is to regulate the amount of information that can be sent over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps to control the flow of data and prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices with data.

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9. (212) What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?

Explanation

The range of numbers that are well-known port numbers is 0-1023. Well-known port numbers are standardized numbers assigned to specific services or protocols. These port numbers are commonly used and recognized by most operating systems and network devices.

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10. (216) Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

Explanation

A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects local area networks (LANs) and metropolitan area networks (MANs) by utilizing long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. This allows for the exchange of data and information over large geographical distances. Unlike LANs and MANs, which are limited to specific locations, WANs provide connectivity between different locations, enabling organizations to communicate and share resources across multiple sites. Therefore, WAN is the correct answer in this context.

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11. (216) Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

Explanation

Encryption is the best described method of hiding a message in a special code. Encryption involves converting plain text into cipher text using an algorithm and a cryptographic key. This ensures that the message is secure and cannot be understood by unauthorized individuals. It provides confidentiality and protects the integrity of the data being transmitted over the wireless local area network (WLAN).

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12. (216) Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?

Explanation

A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. It allows users to securely access a private network over a public network, such as the Internet. By encrypting the data and creating a secure connection, VPNs ensure that the information transmitted between the user and the private network remains private and protected from unauthorized access. This makes VPNs a popular choice for remote workers or individuals who want to access private resources over the Internet securely.

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13. (219) Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling.

Explanation

A media converter is a device that converts the electrical signal used in copper UTP network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling. It acts as a transceiver, allowing the transmission of data between different types of cables. A modem is used to connect to the internet, a switch is used to connect multiple devices within a network, and a router is used to connect multiple networks. Therefore, the correct answer is media converter.

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14. (228) Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

Explanation

Spyware is computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It is typically installed on a user's computer without their knowledge and can track their online activities, monitor keystrokes, steal sensitive information such as passwords and credit card details, and even take control of their computer. Unlike adware, which displays unwanted advertisements, spyware focuses on gathering personal data without the user's permission. Trojans, on the other hand, are malicious programs that disguise themselves as legitimate software, while malware is a broader term that encompasses various types of malicious software, including spyware.

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15. (230) Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?

Explanation

Changing the combination on a container storing classified materials is necessary when there is a suspicion of compromise of the combination, as this could potentially lead to unauthorized access to the materials. It is also important to change the combination when the container is removed from service, as it may be reassigned to someone else who should not have access to the materials. Similarly, changing the combination when the container is placed in service ensures that only authorized personnel can access the materials. However, cleaning the storage container does not pose a risk of compromise, so changing the combination in this situation is not necessary.

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16. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

Explanation

Cable and Antenna Systems are responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations. This includes setting up and maintaining the cables and antennas that are used for communication and networking purposes. They ensure that the wiring is properly installed and functioning correctly to support the operations of the Air Force.

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17. (009) The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Title 10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 is also known as the "Armed Forces" and it outlines the structure, organization, and regulations of the military. The UCMJ is a set of laws that govern the conduct of members of the military and provides a framework for disciplinary actions and legal proceedings within the military justice system.

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18. (010) When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

Explanation

When Air National Guard personnel are in Title 32 status, they are under the control of their state governor and can only train for cyber operations. In order to actually execute those missions, they must be in Title 10 status, which places them under the control of the federal government and allows them to carry out their assigned tasks.

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19. (019) What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?

Explanation

A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose. This requires you to comprehend the main points of the message and effectively condense them into a concise and clear summary. A well-written summary demonstrates your comprehension and communication skills by accurately conveying the main purpose of the original message.

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20. (021) Records that are considered to be in draft format

Explanation

Records that are considered to be in draft format can be altered and are not officially released. This means that these records are still in the process of being finalized and may undergo changes before they are officially released. As they are not officially released, they are not considered final or official versions. Therefore, they can be modified or edited as necessary.

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21. (023) Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?

Explanation

The Deputy Secretary is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense. This position is responsible for assisting the Secretary of Defense in managing the department and overseeing its operations. While the President is the Commander-in-Chief and has ultimate authority over the Department of Defense, the Deputy Secretary holds a higher rank and plays a more direct role in the day-to-day operations and decision-making within the department. The Chief of Staff is an important position but does not hold the same level of authority as the Deputy Secretary. The Vice President, although an important political figure, does not hold an official position within the Department of Defense.

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22. (201) What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

Explanation

The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death. This program aims to prevent accidents and mishaps by implementing safety measures and practices. By doing so, it ensures the well-being and safety of both the organization's assets and its personnel.

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23. (201) Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

Explanation

The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They play a crucial role in ensuring that safety protocols and procedures are followed, and they provide guidance and support to promote a safe working environment. The Air Staff, Civil Engineering, and Squadron commander may have their own roles and responsibilities, but the installation safety office specifically focuses on safety matters.

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24. (202) What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.

Explanation

The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. PPE is the last line of defense and should only be used in conjunction with other control measures. It is more effective to eliminate or control hazards at the source through methods such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. PPE should be seen as a supplementary measure to further reduce the risk of exposure to hazards.

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25. (203) What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

Explanation

The greatest hazard in the typical office is falls. This could be due to slippery floors, tripping over objects, or falling from heights such as ladders or stairs. Falls can result in serious injuries, including broken bones or head trauma. It is important for employers to ensure that the office environment is free from hazards that could lead to falls, such as maintaining clean and dry floors, providing proper lighting, and implementing safety measures for working at heights.

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26. (203) Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

Explanation

When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are typically classified as A or B, they will change to Class C. This change in classification is due to the increased risk of fire and explosion that occurs when an electric current is present. Class C fuels are those that are electrically conductive and can ignite or explode if exposed to an electrical source.

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27. (203) What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

Explanation

When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building to the presence of a fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. Evacuating personnel from the building is the next step, ensuring that everyone is out of harm's way. Calling the fire department should be done after sounding the alarm and evacuating, as they will need to be notified and dispatched to the scene. Extinguishing the fire, if possible, should only be attempted by trained individuals and should not be the first action taken.

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28. (203) What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?  

Explanation

The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to try and put out the fire. It is important to assess the situation and determine if it is safe to attempt extinguishing the fire. If the fire is small and manageable, it is recommended to try and extinguish it before it spreads and becomes more dangerous. However, if the fire is too large or if there are any safety concerns, it is best to evacuate personnel from the building and call the fire department for professional assistance.

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29. (208) What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

Explanation

A bus topology is a network layout where all devices are connected to a single cable, resembling a straight line. This topology is also known as a linear topology since the devices are arranged in a linear fashion along the cable. The other options, such as star, ring, and loop, represent different network topologies with distinct characteristics and configurations.

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30. (211) What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

Explanation

The correct answer is Header Checksum. The header checksum is a field in the IP datagram that allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers. It is a simple error-checking mechanism that calculates the checksum of the header and compares it with the received checksum. If the two values do not match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission and the datagram is discarded. This helps ensure the integrity of the IP packet and prevent the delivery of corrupted or tampered data.

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31. (215) Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?

Explanation

A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it into a digital image. Unlike a printer, which produces physical copies of digital images or text, a scanner captures the image or text and converts it into a digital format that can be stored or manipulated on a computer. A monitor is a display device, and a camera lens is a component of a camera that focuses light onto the image sensor. Therefore, the correct answer is scanner.

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32. (216) Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?

Explanation

A local area network (LAN) is a group of computers and associated devices that are connected to a common communications line and share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area. LANs are typically used in homes, offices, or schools where the distance between the devices is relatively small. In a LAN, computers can share files, printers, and other resources, allowing for efficient communication and collaboration among users.

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33. (216) Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?

Explanation

Wireless local area networks (WLANs) use Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol used in WLANs to ensure that multiple devices can access the network without causing collisions. It works by having devices listen for a clear channel before transmitting data, and if a collision is detected, the devices use a random backoff time before retransmitting. This helps to prevent data collisions and ensures efficient transmission in WLANs.

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34. (222) What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a host network?

Explanation

A gateway is a network device that provides connectivity between two different networks, allowing data to flow between them. In this scenario, a remote network needs to connect to a host network, and a gateway would facilitate this connection by acting as an entry and exit point for data between the two networks. A switch, modem, or converter does not provide this specific functionality of connecting two networks, making gateway the correct answer.

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35. (223) Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users' own end terminals?

Explanation

End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection as it ensures that the information is fully encoded from the sender's end terminal all the way to the recipient's end terminal. This means that even if the data is intercepted or accessed during transmission, it remains encrypted and cannot be deciphered without the proper decryption keys. This type of encryption is considered highly secure and is commonly used for sensitive communications, such as online banking or secure messaging applications.

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36. (224) What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?

Explanation

The characteristic of "Cost to install and train technicians" is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cables are known for their advantages such as high bandwidth, low attenuation, and immunity to electromagnetic interference. However, the installation and training of technicians for fiber optic cables can be expensive compared to other types of cables.

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37. (225) What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?

Explanation

The kernel is the UNIX system software that interacts most closely with the hardware. It is responsible for managing the system's resources, including memory, processes, and input/output devices. The kernel acts as a bridge between the hardware and the user programs, providing an interface for them to access the system's resources. The shell, on the other hand, is a user interface that allows users to interact with the system and execute commands. While user programs and dynamic-link libraries are important components of the UNIX system, they do not directly interact with the hardware like the kernel does.

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38. (228) Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?

Explanation

When a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system, it is referred to as a classified message incident. This incident involves the transfer of sensitive information from a higher level of classification to a lower level, which can potentially compromise the security and confidentiality of the data. It is important to ensure that proper security protocols and measures are in place to prevent such incidents and protect classified information.

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39. (230) Which Air Force (AF) form records the destruction of Top Secret classified material?

Explanation

AF Form 143 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force form that is used to record the destruction of Top Secret classified material. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and ensures that the destruction process is properly documented and accounted for. It is important to have a standardized form like AF Form 143 to maintain the integrity and security of Top Secret information throughout its lifecycle.

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40. (236) What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Portal. The Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides the Air Force Portal as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel. The Air Force Portal is a web-based platform that allows users to access various tools, resources, and services related to their roles and responsibilities in the Air Force. It provides a centralized location for personnel to find information, collaborate with others, and access important documents and applications.

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41. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

Explanation

The responsibility of the 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) of Radio Frequency Transmission includes the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. This AFS is specifically focused on managing and maintaining the transmission of RF signals, ensuring that communication systems are operating effectively and efficiently. They are responsible for setting up and maintaining the equipment necessary for radio frequency transmission, as well as troubleshooting and repairing any issues that may arise.

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42. (003) Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

Explanation

The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW). This individual is responsible for representing the interests of the MAJCOM and ensuring that the training and utilization needs of the career field are met. The MFM works closely with the Unit Training Manager (UTM), Base Functional Manager (BFM), and Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) to coordinate and implement training strategies and plans within the MAJCOM.

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43. (006) Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

Explanation

Trend analysis is the correct answer as it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps in identifying patterns, trends, and anomalies in the data, which can be used to make informed decisions and improvements in the quality assurance processes. It provides valuable insights into the performance and effectiveness of the processes, allowing for continuous improvement and optimization. Quality System, Quality Assessments, and Managerial Assessments are not specifically focused on collecting and analyzing data on processes sampled by QA personnel.

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44. (007) What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

Explanation

The correct answer is Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI). This inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to assess the overall effectiveness of a unit. It goes beyond traditional compliance inspections by evaluating the unit's ability to meet its mission requirements, achieve its objectives, and effectively utilize its resources. The UEI provides a comprehensive assessment of the unit's overall performance and effectiveness, helping identify areas for improvement and ensuring that the unit is prepared to carry out its mission effectively.

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45. (008) What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

Explanation

Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets from procurement through retirement. It helps in tracking and managing IT assets, including hardware, software, and licenses. Remedy also assists in managing service requests, incidents, and changes related to IT assets, ensuring efficient and effective asset management throughout their lifecycle.

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46. (009) What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

Explanation

Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title outlines the organization, structure, and authorities of the DOD and its component services, providing the legal framework for their existence and operations.

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47. (012) Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

Explanation

MILDEC, or military deception, is designed to mislead the enemy by manipulating their perception of events, intentions, and capabilities. It involves actions to induce the enemy to react in a way that is advantageous to the friendly forces. Since MISO and PA share a common specific audience, their activities are focused on disseminating information and shaping public opinion, rather than deliberately misleading the enemy. Counterintelligence (CI) is focused on detecting and countering enemy intelligence activities, while Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information from being exploited by the enemy. Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) involves collecting information about the enemy's activities.

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48. (013) Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. DISA is an agency within the Department of Defense that provides information technology and communications support to the military. They oversee the GIG, which is a globally interconnected network of information capabilities used by the military to collect, process, store, and disseminate information. As such, DISA plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and effectiveness of the GIG infrastructure.

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49. (015) What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

Explanation

The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By centralizing the control centers and creating a single service desk, organizations can streamline their operations, reduce duplication of efforts, and enhance communication and coordination. This consolidation allows for better utilization of resources and ensures that issues are addressed promptly and effectively, resulting in improved overall efficiency of the network operations.

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50. (016) The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint Force Commander (JFC). The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commander (JFC). The JFC is responsible for the overall planning and execution of joint operations, including air and space operations, in a theater of operations. The COMAFFOR supports the JFC by commanding the AETF and ensuring the effective employment of air and space forces.

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51. (019) Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

Explanation

Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is considered a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. Article 92 specifically addresses failure to obey orders or regulations, and failing to adhere to the guidelines outlined in AFMAN 33-153 would fall under this category.

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52. (208) What topology offers centralized management of a network?

Explanation

The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which acts as a central point of control. This allows for easier management and troubleshooting of the network, as any changes or issues can be addressed at the central hub. Additionally, the star topology provides better performance and reliability compared to other topologies like bus or ring, as a failure in one device does not affect the rest of the network.

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53. (211) What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

Explanation

In Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4), an octet is a group of 8 bits. The maximum value that can be represented by 8 bits is 255. Therefore, the correct answer is 255.

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54. (226) What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?

Explanation

Access is a Microsoft application that allows users to create a desktop database. It provides a user-friendly interface for designing and managing databases, making it easier for users to store, organize, and retrieve data. With Access, users can create tables, forms, queries, and reports to efficiently manage and analyze their data. Word, Outlook, and PowerPoint are other Microsoft applications that serve different purposes and do not specifically focus on creating desktop databases.

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55. (234) Which network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet?

Explanation

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet. It is specifically designed for unclassified information that requires protection but is not classified as secret. NIPRNET allows DOD users to access the internet for non-sensitive information while maintaining security measures to protect sensitive but unclassified data.

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56. (201) Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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57. (203) Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

Explanation

Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wooden ladders are non-conductive and do not pose a risk of electric shock. However, using a ladder as a scaffold, carrying material while ascending or descending a ladder, and using a homemade ladder may all be prohibited due to safety concerns and the increased risk of accidents or injuries.

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58. (205) Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

Explanation

The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. The OMB plays a crucial role in overseeing and coordinating the federal government's budget and management policies, including IT investments. They ensure that agencies are effectively utilizing their resources and making informed decisions regarding IT investments to improve overall efficiency and effectiveness in government operations.

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59. (206) What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

Explanation

The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) consists of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes information related to the installation process, such as project documentation, contracts, and correspondence. The drawing record contains diagrams and schematics of the installed systems. The maintenance record keeps track of maintenance activities, including repairs, upgrades, and inspections. These three parts together provide a comprehensive documentation of the installation process and ongoing maintenance of the communications and information systems.

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60. (209) Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body that is responsible for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and at every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their control. They provide command and control capabilities and a globally accessible enterprise information infrastructure to support joint warfighters, national-level leaders, and other mission and coalition partners across the full spectrum of operations.

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61. (213) What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?

Explanation

The major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM) is that ROM is non-volatile, meaning that it retains its data even when the power is turned off, while RAM is volatile, meaning that it loses its data when the power is turned off. This distinction is important because it determines whether the memory can store and retain data without a constant power source.

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62. (214) What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?

Explanation

USB 3.0 SuperSpeed transfer mode has a maximum data transfer rate of five gigabits per second (GB/S). This means that it can transfer data at a speed of five billion bits per second. This is significantly faster than the previous USB 2.0 standard, which had a maximum transfer rate of 480 megabits per second (Mbps). With USB 3.0, users can enjoy faster file transfers and quicker access to their data.

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63. (215) What is a peripheral device?

Explanation

A peripheral device is not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external. Peripheral devices are additional devices that can be connected to a computer to enhance its functionality or provide additional features. Examples of peripheral devices include printers, scanners, keyboards, mice, and external hard drives. These devices are not essential for the basic functioning of a computer, but they can greatly enhance the user experience and expand the capabilities of the system.

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64. (230) How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is required or another supplemental control is sufficient?

Explanation

To determine if an intrusion detection system is required or if another supplemental control is sufficient, a risk assessment needs to be completed. This involves evaluating the potential risks and vulnerabilities of the system and determining the likelihood and impact of potential intrusions. By conducting a risk assessment, the organization can identify the level of risk and make an informed decision on whether an intrusion detection system is necessary or if other controls can adequately mitigate the risks. The General Service Administration (GSA), Office of Special Investigation (OSI), and Wing information office may have roles in the overall security process, but the ultimate determination of the need for an intrusion detection system is made through a risk assessment.

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65. (003) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is responsible for advising on all matters affecting the career field. They have the expertise and knowledge to provide guidance and support to individuals within the career field, ensuring that they are on the right track and making informed decisions. The AFCFM is the go-to person for any career-related questions or concerns, making them the advisor for all matters affecting the career field.

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66. (003) Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). This means that the AFCFM has the power to exempt individuals from these training requirements based on their specific circumstances or qualifications. The AFCFM is responsible for overseeing the career field and ensuring that the necessary training and education are completed by personnel in that field.

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67. (004) What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

Explanation

The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This plan outlines the education and training requirements for a specific career field and ensures that the workforce is properly trained and qualified. Conducting climate training surveys, developing Career Development Courses, and reviewing the occupational analysis report may be important steps in the U&TW process, but the ultimate objective is to establish a comprehensive CFETP.

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68. (005) What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

Explanation

The On-the-Job Training (OJT) program provides training for personnel to attain the knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform their duties in their specialty. This program allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while working in a real-world environment under the guidance of experienced professionals. It is a hands-on approach to training that allows individuals to gain practical experience and acquire the necessary expertise to excel in their specific field.

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69. (006) Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Explanation

The correct answer is Standard Evaluation. In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, technical evaluation, personnel evaluation, and managerial evaluation are all common assessment types used to measure and improve the quality of products or services. However, standard evaluation is not typically considered a separate assessment type in a QA program. It is more likely that standards are used as a benchmark or criteria against which the other evaluation types are measured.

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70. (012) What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.

Explanation

Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing, as well as directly countering an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to actively identifying and responding to threats in real-time, while reactive defense involves reacting to an attack after it has occurred. These two defenses work in tandem to actively monitor and analyze network activity, and then react swiftly and effectively to neutralize threats and protect the network from further intrusion.

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71. (014) What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

Explanation

The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is the correct answer because they are responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (Command, Control, Communications, and Computers) systems for combatant commanders. This unit has the capability to perform these tasks anywhere and at any time, making them the appropriate choice for the given question.

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72. (015) What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

Explanation

In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which enabled support to all locations within a single ticketing system. This implementation streamlined the process of handling support requests and improved efficiency within the Air Force.

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73. (016) What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

Explanation

Joint Task Forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: Unified command and subordinate unified command. Unified command refers to the highest level of command, where multiple services and components are brought together under a single commander. Subordinate unified command, on the other hand, refers to a lower level of command where specific tasks or missions are assigned to a subordinate commander within the JTF. This division allows for effective coordination and execution of military operations.

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74. (018) What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

Explanation

Continual Service Improvement is the correct answer because it is the ITIL stage that focuses on maintaining and improving the quality of services. This stage involves regularly reviewing and assessing service performance, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to enhance service delivery. It aims to ensure that services align with business objectives and meet customer needs, making it an overarching stage for maintaining service quality. Service Transition, Service Strategy, and Service Design are other stages in the ITIL framework, but they focus on different aspects of service management rather than specifically addressing service quality maintenance.

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75. (021) Which document is NOT considered an official government record?

Explanation

Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not typically created or maintained by government agencies for official purposes. While they may contain valuable information or historical artifacts, they are not the primary source of official government records. Official government records are typically documents, maps, or photographs that are created or received by government agencies in the course of their official duties and are used as evidence of actions, decisions, or policies.

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76. (025) What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

Explanation

The correct answer is Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). ETIMS is a system that manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders. It is specifically designed to handle technical information and ensure its proper distribution to the users who need it. ETIMS helps in organizing, updating, and distributing technical orders efficiently, making it the most suitable system for this purpose.

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77. (202) Which action is a physiological factor?

Explanation

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78.   (226) What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?

Explanation

Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is primarily used as an email application but also includes features such as a calendar, task manager, contact manager, note-taking, journal, and web browsing. Outlook allows users to manage their personal information and communicate effectively, making it a suitable choice for a personal information manager application.

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79. (233) Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?

Explanation

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user. SBU IP Data or NIPRNET is a network that allows for the transmission of sensitive but unclassified information, including unclassified e-mails. It is separate from classified networks like Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET), which are used for transmitting classified information. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data and Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data are also classified networks and not applicable for unclassified e-mail service.

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80. (010) An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

Explanation

A covered relationship refers to an employee or employer relationship that may create a conflict of interest or the appearance of impartiality or favoritism. This unethical situation arises when individuals in a professional setting have personal relationships that could compromise their objectivity or decision-making processes. It is important to maintain professional boundaries and avoid any actions that may undermine fairness or transparency in the workplace.

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81. (202) Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?

Explanation

Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the risks and develop appropriate measures to protect the health and safety of individuals within a given environment. This includes identifying potential hazards, conducting risk assessments, and recommending control measures such as engineering controls, administrative controls, and personal protective equipment. Their role is crucial in ensuring the well-being of personnel and preventing the spread of diseases or illnesses within a facility or installation.

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82. (203) What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?

Explanation

Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.

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83. (206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?

Explanation

The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) provides the physical layout of communications and information systems along with engineering data. This section includes detailed drawings and diagrams that depict the placement and configuration of the systems. It is an essential part of the CSIR as it helps in understanding the physical infrastructure and assists in maintenance and troubleshooting activities. The administrative record section focuses on the administrative aspects of the installation, the maintenance record section tracks the maintenance activities, and the outage record section documents any system outages or downtime.

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84. (217) What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratifies the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE)?

Explanation

In 1999, the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratified the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE). This means that in 1999, the IEEE officially approved and standardized the use of GbE, which is a high-speed networking technology capable of transmitting data at a rate of one billion bits per second.

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85. (228) Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?  

Explanation

The given question asks about a computer system vulnerability that is not present in a computer system. The correct answer, "Attacker's lack of ability," refers to the fact that a vulnerability is not caused by an attacker's lack of ability, but rather by a flaw or susceptibility in the system itself. Vulnerabilities arise from weaknesses in the system's design, configuration, or implementation, which can be exploited by attackers who have the necessary capability, access, and knowledge.

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86. (231) Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday?

Explanation

The Security Manager has the authority to grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday. This individual is responsible for overseeing and managing the security of classified information within an organization. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the risks and make informed decisions regarding the transportation of classified materials. The Classified Information Program Manager, Information Assurance Officer, and Supervisor may have related responsibilities, but they do not specifically have the authority to grant permission for shipping classified materials on specific days.

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87. (232) Which of the following services provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas?

Explanation

The aerial layer is a service that provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages. This allows for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas. Unlike satellite communication, which relies on satellites in space, the aerial layer utilizes aircraft and drones to provide the necessary infrastructure for communication. This service is particularly useful in areas where traditional communication methods may be limited or unavailable.

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88. (003) What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Base functional manager (BFM). This title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO). The BFM is responsible for managing and coordinating the cyberspace operations within their assigned base. They ensure that the base's cyber systems are operating effectively and securely, and they provide guidance and support to other personnel in the cyberspace career field. The BFM plays a crucial role in maintaining the base's cyber capabilities and ensuring mission readiness.

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89. (004) Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

Explanation

Occupational surveys are used to gather information about specific job roles and tasks performed within a career field. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC) that provides training and education to individuals in that career field. The CDC helps individuals enhance their skills and knowledge, and prepares them for advancement within their career. Therefore, developing a CDC is another use for occupational surveys.

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90. (006) Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Explanation

In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, the essential elements include quality assessments, quality system, and trend analysis. Quality assurance itself is not considered an essential element because it is the overall process of ensuring that quality standards are met, which encompasses the other elements. Quality assurance involves monitoring and evaluating the quality of products or services, implementing corrective actions, and continuously improving the quality system. Therefore, quality assurance is not a standalone element but rather the overarching process that incorporates all the other essential elements.

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91. (010) Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

Explanation

A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a close personal relationship with someone who is directly or indirectly involved in their work or business. In this case, the members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship can create a conflict of interest or bias in decision-making, leading to unethical situations. Therefore, the correct answer is covered relationship.

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92. (012) What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

Explanation

Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission.

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93. (017) What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

Explanation

Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit type codes provide a standardized way to classify and identify different types of military units, allowing for efficient coordination and organization during planning and deployments. By using unit type codes, military personnel can easily understand the capabilities and composition of various units, facilitating effective decision-making and resource allocation.

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94. (023) What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?

Explanation

DODD 8570.01 is the correct answer because it establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems must receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and complete annual IA refresher awareness. This directive specifically addresses the requirements for IA training and certification for DOD personnel, ensuring that they have the necessary knowledge and skills to protect DOD information systems and networks.

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95. (023) What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups?

Explanation

The Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS) assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups.

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96. (024) What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?

Explanation

Non-directive Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that can be modified to fit the circumstances. These publications provide general information and recommendations without imposing specific requirements or procedures. They allow for flexibility and adaptability in different situations, giving individuals the freedom to make decisions based on their own judgment and the specific needs of the situation.

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97. (024) What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD). This publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization, and relationships of MAJCOMs (Major Commands), FOAs (Field Operating Agencies), and DRUs (Direct Reporting Units) with their respective units. It provides guidance and direction for these entities to carry out their assigned missions effectively and efficiently.

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98. (202) Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?

Explanation

Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors. This means that if someone is wearing a class C helmet and comes into contact with electrical conductors, they will not be protected from electrical shock or other electrical hazards. It is important to choose the appropriate helmet class for the specific work environment to ensure safety.

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99. (207) What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.

Explanation

The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model consists of seven layers: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application. The two categories mentioned in the question are Data Transport and Application. The Data Transport category includes the Transport layer, responsible for end-to-end delivery of data, and the Network layer, responsible for routing and addressing. The Application category includes the Presentation layer, responsible for data formatting and encryption, and the Application layer, responsible for user interfaces and application services.

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100. (213) What action is the main purpose of system cache?

Explanation

The main purpose of system cache is to reduce the central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. The system cache stores frequently accessed data from the main memory, allowing the CPU to quickly retrieve this data instead of having to access it from the slower main memory. This helps to improve overall system performance by reducing the time it takes for the CPU to access data, resulting in faster processing speeds.

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101. (004) Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

Explanation

The correct answer is AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM. The AFCFM, or Air Force Career Field Manager, is responsible for overseeing and managing the career field. The TPM, or Training Pipeline Manager, is responsible for coordinating and scheduling training requirements. Together, they work collaboratively to schedule the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT), ensuring that training needs are met efficiently and effectively.

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102. (205) What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?

Explanation

The correct answer is Federal level. This means that the requirements for developing Air Force architectures are mandated at the federal level. This suggests that the development of these architectures is not solely determined by state, congressional, or Department of Defense levels, but rather by the overarching federal government. This ensures consistent and standardized approaches to the development of Air Force architectures across the entire country.

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103. (208) When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's

Explanation

When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's physical topology. This means that it is referring to the physical layout or structure of the network, including the arrangement of devices, cables, and connections. It does not refer to the logical or conceptual organization of the network, the physical medium used for communication, or the transport topology which deals with the movement of data packets.

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104. (211) What class is reserved for multicast addressing?

Explanation

Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing allows a single packet to be sent to multiple recipients simultaneously. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are used for group communication. These addresses are not assigned to specific devices but are instead used to identify groups of devices that are interested in receiving multicast packets.

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105. (234) Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management?

Explanation

The Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN) is the correct answer because it provides high-quality and secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management. The DRSN is specifically designed for use by the Department of Defense and is used to transmit classified information, ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of communications. It is a secure network that allows military and government officials to communicate and coordinate effectively during critical situations. The other options mentioned, such as the Defense Switched Network (DSN), Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data, and Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) Internet Protocol (IP) Data, may also provide secure communications, but they may not be specifically tailored for command and control and crisis management purposes.

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106. (242) What system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network provides rapid, reliable, non- dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war?

Explanation

The Global HF system is the correct answer because it is the system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network that provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war. The other options mentioned, such as Mystic Star, Defense Communication System (DCS) entry, and System of Inter-American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA), are not specifically mentioned in the question and do not fit the description of the system being asked for.

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107. (023) What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?

Explanation

The correct answer is JP 6-0, Joint Communications System. This publication is considered the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications. It provides guidance and doctrine for joint communications systems and their integration into joint operations. It covers topics such as communications planning, architecture, networks, and information systems.

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108. (025) Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00–5– 1?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures." This means that the information outlined in TO 00-5-1 does not include details about TCTO procedures. The TO 00-5-1 likely covers other aspects such as resources required to manage and use TOs, infrastructure needed, and training for managing and using TOs.

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109. (026) Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). The ECIA develops standards for interconnect, passive, and electro-mechanical electronic components under the ANSI designation of EIA standards. The Defense Standardization Program (DSP) is responsible for developing standards for defense-related products and services. The Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA) develops standards for the telecommunications industry. The Information and Communications Technology (ICT) refers to the broader field of technology that encompasses telecommunications and other related areas.

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110. (207) What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?

Explanation

The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify different functions in a network. The network layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks. It determines the best path for data transmission and handles addressing and logical connectivity. The other layers mentioned in the question, such as programming, transport, and data, are not part of the OSI model and do not specify functions in the same way.

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111. (221) What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems to connect together?

Explanation

Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) is a network routing protocol that allows multiple autonomous systems to connect together. It is specifically designed for interconnecting different autonomous systems and exchanging routing information between them. EGP enables the exchange of routing information between different administrative domains, facilitating communication and connectivity between these systems.

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112. (235) Which system of the Global Command and Control System-Air Force (GCCS-AF) monitors status of resources and training systems ensuring that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available to the for mission completion?

Explanation

The GCCS Status of Resources and Training (GSORTS) system monitors the status of resources and training systems within the Global Command and Control System-Air Force (GCCS-AF). It ensures that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available for mission completion. This suggests that GSORTS provides real-time information on the availability and readiness of resources, allowing decision makers to effectively plan and execute missions.

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113. (002) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?

Explanation

In accordance with AFI 36-2201, the supervisor assigns the enlisted training element known as the "Duty position task." This refers to the specific tasks and responsibilities that are associated with a particular duty position within the Air Force. It is the supervisor's responsibility to ensure that individuals are trained and competent in their assigned duty position tasks.

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114. (211) Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?

Explanation

Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. In Class C addresses, the first three octets are reserved for the network portion, while the last octet is used for host addressing. Since there are 8 bits in the last octet, it can accommodate a maximum of 2^8 - 2 = 254 hosts. Class A and Class B addresses have larger network portions, which reduce the number of available host addresses. Class D addresses, on the other hand, are used for multicast purposes and do not have a fixed number of hosts per network.

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115. (218) How many T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits do Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer?

Explanation

Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer 7 T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits. This means that these terminals can provide connectivity for up to 7 separate DSN access circuits, allowing for communication and data transfer over the DSN network.

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116. (019) How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?

Explanation

There are six rules for effective communication via e-mail. The question is asking about the number of rules, and the correct answer is six.

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117. (019) The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to

Explanation

The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools that enable users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment. This means that EIM aims to maximize the value and potential of information within an organization, allowing users to effectively utilize it to achieve their goals and objectives. By harnessing the power of information, EIM helps organizations make informed decisions, improve processes, and gain a competitive advantage in the market.

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118. (025) Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?

Explanation

The correct answer is Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO). This type of technical order has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices.

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119. (201) What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

Explanation

Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves thoroughly assessing the task to identify potential hazards and develop appropriate safety measures and procedures. The JSA helps ensure that employees are aware of the risks involved and are equipped with the necessary knowledge and resources to safely complete the task. It is an essential step in promoting a safe work environment and preventing accidents or injuries.

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120. (210) What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?

Explanation

A Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket is a combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers. This means that when a process wants to communicate over a network, it needs to specify a port number and an IP address to establish a connection with another process on a remote machine. The TCP socket acts as a unique identifier for the connection, allowing data to be sent and received between the two processes.

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121. (202) How many impact classifications do hardhats have?

Explanation

Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to provide protection against two different levels of impact. Having multiple impact classifications allows hardhats to offer varying degrees of protection based on the specific hazards and risks present in different work environments.

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122. (231) Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information?

Explanation

The Information Assurance Officer is the correct person to seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information. This is because the Information Assurance Officer is responsible for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information within an organization. They are knowledgeable about the security protocols and procedures for handling classified information, including its transportation. Seeking their guidance would ensure that the transportation of Top Secret information is done in a secure and compliant manner.

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123. (238) Which system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on a powerful server- based computer system that takes inputs from long range and short-range radars and displays it all on a scope?

Explanation

The correct answer is Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F). This system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on a powerful server-based computer system. It takes inputs from long range and short-range radars and displays the information on a scope. The BCS-F is designed to provide situational awareness and facilitate command and control for military operations.

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124. (022) Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

Explanation

The Chief of the Office of Records has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of records within the organization. They have the knowledge and expertise to determine who is best suited to fulfill the role of a record custodian and ensure that proper recordkeeping practices are followed. The other options, such as the Base records manager, Command records manager, and Functional area records manager, may have some authority or involvement in record management, but the ultimate authority lies with the Chief of the Office of Records.

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125. (025) What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?

Explanation

The Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO) is responsible for overseeing technical order requirements and distribution within an organization. They ensure that technical orders, which provide instructions and information for the operation and maintenance of equipment, are properly distributed to the relevant personnel. The TODO plays a crucial role in ensuring that the organization has access to the necessary technical information to carry out their duties effectively.

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126. (025) Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data?

Explanation

Any user may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data. This means that as long as a user has the necessary training and authorization, they have the capability to make updates to a technical order. This ensures that those with the appropriate knowledge and clearance can contribute to the accuracy and relevancy of the technical order.

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127. (202) What three sub-categories make up human factors?

Explanation

The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical, physiological, and organizational. Physical factors refer to the physical environment in which tasks are performed, such as lighting, noise, and equipment design. Physiological factors relate to the individual's physical and mental capabilities, including vision, hearing, and cognitive abilities. Organizational factors involve the social and organizational aspects that influence human performance, such as communication, workload, and teamwork.

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128. (206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?

Explanation

The maintenance record is typically retained in the production work center of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). This record contains important information regarding the maintenance activities performed on the systems, including any repairs, upgrades, or replacements. It serves as a reference for future maintenance and troubleshooting, ensuring that the systems are properly maintained and functioning efficiently. The administrative record may contain administrative details such as personnel information and scheduling, while the drawing record includes diagrams and schematics. The outage record documents any system outages or disruptions.

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129. (207) What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for providing error control, flow control, and sequencing of frames over a single link. It ensures that data is transmitted reliably and in the correct order between devices connected by a single link, regardless of the type of physical network medium being used.

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130. (227) What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an organization's mission critical information via its communications and ISs?

Explanation

Hostile information operations pose the greatest threat to an organization's mission critical information via its communications and information systems. This refers to deliberate and malicious activities carried out by external entities or adversaries with the intent to disrupt, exploit, or sabotage an organization's information systems. These operations can include cyber espionage, hacking, data breaches, and other targeted attacks that aim to compromise sensitive information and undermine the organization's operations and reputation.

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131. (010) What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

Explanation

The National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations outlines the US Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to ensure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain. This policy provides guidance and direction for conducting cyberspace operations and addresses the integration of cyberspace capabilities into broader military operations. It focuses specifically on the military's role in cyberspace and emphasizes the importance of maintaining superiority in this domain to protect national security interests. The other options mentioned, such as the National Security Policy, National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace, and Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative, are not specifically focused on the military's strategic approach to cyberspace operations.

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132. (015) Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

Explanation

The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity. This implies that the ESU focuses on streamlining and optimizing the services provided to the warfighter, making them more efficient and effective in their operations. By doing so, the ESU aims to minimize the time and resources spent on training, allowing for a greater allocation of resources towards enhancing the warfighter's capabilities.

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133. (021) Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official government record?"

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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134. (203) What classification do flammable liquids receive?

Explanation

Flammable liquids receive classification as Class B. This classification is used for substances that have a flash point below 100 degrees Fahrenheit. Flammable liquids can easily ignite and pose a fire hazard. Class B also includes flammable gases and volatile flammable materials.

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135. (010) What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?

Explanation

The correct answer is "National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace." This document outlines the comprehensive strategy for the United States to protect and secure cyberspace. It provides guidelines and directives for government agencies, businesses, and individuals to enhance cybersecurity and defend against cyber threats. This strategy aims to promote cooperation between public and private sectors, improve information sharing, and develop robust defense capabilities to safeguard critical infrastructure and sensitive information in cyberspace. The document emphasizes the importance of collaboration and collective efforts in addressing cyber threats and ensuring the resilience of the nation's cyber ecosystem.

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136. (010) Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?

Explanation

The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace is a policy that prioritizes the prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure. This policy recognizes the importance of protecting the country's key assets from cyber threats and outlines strategic measures to enhance cybersecurity. It aims to promote collaboration between government, private sector, and international partners to create a secure cyberspace environment.

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137. (018) Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Service Contact." The ITIL Service Life Cycle stages consist of Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement. Service Contact is not one of the recognized stages in the ITIL framework.

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138. (020) How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a SharePoint Server?

Explanation

There are three workflow capabilities available on a SharePoint Server. These capabilities allow users to automate and streamline business processes, including approval workflows, feedback workflows, and signature workflows. These workflows help to improve efficiency and collaboration within an organization by automating repetitive tasks and providing a structured framework for managing and tracking processes.

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139. (024) What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?

Explanation

Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM) publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD). This means that AFPM publications have a limited lifespan and are subject to being replaced or updated by higher-level directives. Therefore, AFPM publications are not considered as long-lasting or permanent as other directive publications such as Air Force Instructions (AFI) or Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD).

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140. (229) Which classified document markings identifies the highest level of classification?

Explanation

Banner Lines are classified document markings that identify the highest level of classification. These lines typically appear at the top and bottom of each page of a document and indicate the level of classification, such as "Top Secret" or "Confidential." They serve as a visual reminder to the reader that the information contained in the document is highly sensitive and should be handled accordingly. Portion Marks, Component and office, and Classification authority are not specific markings that indicate the level of classification.

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141. (240) What system is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities?

Explanation

The National Military Command Center (NMCC) is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities. It serves as the primary command and control center for the Department of Defense during peacetime, crisis, and war. The NMCC provides real-time situational awareness, coordination, and decision-making capabilities to senior military and civilian leaders, ensuring effective communication and command capabilities at all times.

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142. (023) What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships and authority?

Explanation

Chartering directives are a type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) that establish the official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships, and authority of the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies. These directives provide a framework for the operations and management of these entities within the OSD, outlining their roles and responsibilities. They serve as a guiding document for the OSD and its component heads to ensure effective coordination and execution of their duties.

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143. (220) Describe a network bridge.

Explanation

A network bridge is a Data Link layer network device or software set that is used to logically separate a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It allows for the creation of separate broadcast domains, reducing network congestion and improving overall network performance. By connecting multiple network segments, a bridge enables communication between devices on different segments while keeping traffic separate within each segment. This helps to enhance network efficiency and security.

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144. (238) How many air defenses sectors is the Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) divided into?

Explanation

The Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) is divided into two air defense sectors.

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145. (242) What system mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users?

Explanation

The correct answer is Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS). This system's mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users. This suggests that the HF-GCS is specifically designed to facilitate communication across different platforms and locations, ensuring that users can effectively communicate with each other regardless of their location or mode of operation. The other options, such as SACCS, DCGS, and GCSS, do not specifically mention the mission of providing reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users, making them less likely to be the correct answer.

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146. (011) What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

Explanation

The Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to identify vulnerabilities and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. This system helps in ensuring the security of cyberspace by detecting and addressing any weaknesses or vulnerabilities that could be exploited by malicious actors. The other options mentioned do not have the same purpose or functionality as the Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.

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147. (013) What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

Explanation

The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance is the document that directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This document provides guidance and direction for the overall strategic planning efforts of the Department of Defense, including the development of plans and policies related to cyberspace security. It outlines the strategic priorities and objectives that the Department of Defense should focus on in order to effectively secure cyberspace.

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148. (024) What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?

Explanation

AF Handbook (AFH) is a type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication that is not subject to frequent change. This type of publication provides detailed guidance and information on specific topics within the AF. Unlike AF Doctrine, AF Handbook is not a foundational document that establishes and guides the overall principles and concepts of the AF. AF Pamphlet (AFPAM) and AF Visual Aid (AFVA) are also subject to more frequent updates and changes compared to AF Handbook. Therefore, AF Handbook is the correct answer as it is a non-directive AF publication that remains relatively stable over time.

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149. (201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?

Explanation

The correct answer is 475. The question asks for the Air Force (AF) form used to report a hazard. The form number 475 is the correct answer because it is the specific form used by the Air Force to report hazards.

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150. (241) What system provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS). This system provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions. It is specifically designed to ensure the security and reliability of communication between strategic assets and command centers, allowing for effective command and control of these critical functions. The other options, Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS), Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS), and Global Combat Support System (GCSS), do not specifically address the secure communications needs of strategic aircraft and missile functions.

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151. (201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?

Explanation

Air Force (AF) form 978 is used to report ground mishaps. This form is specifically designed to document and report any accidents or incidents that occur on the ground within the Air Force. It is important to have a standardized form like AF 978 to ensure that all necessary information is collected and reported accurately, allowing for proper investigation and analysis of the mishap.

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152. (239) Which system is a space-based high data rate communications link for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces?

Explanation

The Global Broadcast System (GBS) is a space-based high data rate communications link that allows for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces. It provides a reliable and efficient means of transmitting critical information and intelligence to military personnel in the field. The other options, Global Combat Support System (GCSS), Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS), and Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS), do not specifically pertain to high data rate communications or the flow of information to deployed forces.

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153. (003) Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The Major command functional manager (MFM) assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of the specialty knowledge test (SKT) and the career development course (CDC). The MFM is responsible for overseeing the career field at the major command level and plays a crucial role in ensuring that the SKT and CDC are relevant and up-to-date. They have the knowledge and expertise to identify SMEs who can contribute to the development of these training materials. The unit training manager (UTM), base functional manager (BFM), and Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) may have other roles and responsibilities, but they are not specifically mentioned in relation to the identification of SMEs for the SKT and CDC.

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154. (015) What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?

Explanation

The regional computing and data center that provides enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage is the Area Processing Center (APC). This center is responsible for managing and maintaining the computing resources and data storage for the enterprise. It ensures that services like messaging, Web access, and storage are available and accessible to users within the region. The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), Enterprise Service Desk (ESD), and Network Operations Security Center (NOSC) are not specifically designed to provide these services.

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155. (023) How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI) are there?

Explanation

There are two different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI). The question is asking about the number of different types of DODI, and the correct answer is two.

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156. (204) The risk management process includes how many steps?

Explanation

The risk management process includes five steps. These steps include identifying risks, assessing the risks, developing risk response strategies, implementing the strategies, and monitoring the risks. Each step is crucial in effectively managing risks and minimizing their impact on the organization.

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157. (225) In general, how many operating system task categories are there?

Explanation

There are six operating system task categories in general.

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158. (229) Which classified document marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and shall indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Classification authority." This marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and serves to indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification. It helps identify who has the authority to classify the document and for how long it should remain classified.

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159. (011) What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

Explanation

The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System is the correct answer because it is described as the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN). This system is responsible for controlling and securing the Air Force's intranet, ensuring that unauthorized access is prevented and sensitive information is protected. The other options, such as the Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System, Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System, and Air Force Cyber Security and Control System, do not specifically mention being the top-level boundary and entry point into AFIN, making them incorrect choices.

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160. (024) What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws?

Explanation

Air Force Instructions (AFI) are directive publications that provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws. These instructions serve as a comprehensive source of information and guidance for Air Force personnel to ensure compliance with established policies and procedures. They outline specific steps, processes, and requirements that need to be followed in order to carry out various tasks and responsibilities effectively. AFIs are regularly updated to reflect changes in policies, laws, and procedures, ensuring that Air Force personnel have the most current and accurate information to perform their duties.

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161. (232) What system includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority?

Explanation

The correct answer is Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN). This system includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority. It is a comprehensive network that supports the Department of Defense's information needs and ensures the secure and reliable transmission of data across different military branches and agencies.

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162. (022) Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

Explanation

A functional area records manager is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management. This individual is responsible for managing and organizing records specific to their functional area, ensuring compliance with record-keeping policies and regulations. They play a crucial role in maintaining accurate and accessible records within their respective units.

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163. (024) What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities?

Explanation

Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD) are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities. These directives provide clear guidance and instructions for Air Force personnel to follow in order to ensure consistent and effective implementation of policies. They serve as a means of communicating the SECAF's intent and expectations to the entire Air Force community, helping to maintain uniformity and standardization in operations and decision-making processes.

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164. (207) What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Explanation

The media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages the protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network share and access the physical transmission medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies. The MAC sublayer ensures that devices take turns transmitting data and that collisions are avoided. It also handles tasks like addressing and error detection, making sure that data is transmitted reliably and efficiently over the network.

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165. (228) Computer security (COMPUSEC) vulnerabilities are broken down into how many categories?

Explanation

Computer security vulnerabilities are categorized into 8 different categories. These categories help in understanding and addressing the various types of vulnerabilities that can exist in computer systems. By categorizing vulnerabilities, it becomes easier to identify and mitigate potential risks and threats. This classification system allows security professionals to have a comprehensive approach towards securing computer systems and networks.

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166. (205) How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?

Explanation

The correct answer is four because the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification consists of four volumes. Each volume focuses on different aspects of the framework, including the overall guidance, the architecture data, the architecture products, and the architecture usage. These volumes provide a comprehensive and standardized approach for developing and implementing architectures within the Department of Defense.

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167. (017) What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

Explanation

The Air Force uses the Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) methodology for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR). This methodology ensures that the Air Force can rapidly deploy and sustain forces in support of combat operations. The AEF system is based on a rotational cycle, where units and personnel are organized into AEF packages that have specific deployment windows. This allows the Air Force to provide predictable and sustainable force capabilities to meet the needs of combatant commanders.

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168. (022) Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

Explanation

The base records manager is responsible for providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training. This role involves overseeing the organization and maintenance of records within a specific military base or installation. They ensure that records are properly stored, accessible, and up to date. Additionally, they may provide guidance and training to personnel on record-keeping procedures and protocols.

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169. (235) Which system is the Department of Defense's (DOD) command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler?

Explanation

The correct answer is Global Command and Control System (GCCS). This system is the Department of Defense's (DOD) command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler. It serves as a comprehensive tool for planning, executing, and assessing military operations. It provides real-time situational awareness, information sharing, and decision-making capabilities to military commanders and staff at all levels. With its ability to integrate data from various sources and provide a common operational picture, GCCS plays a crucial role in enabling the DOD to achieve full spectrum dominance.

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170. (022) Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?

Explanation

The command records manager is responsible for establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers. This role ensures that these managers are properly trained and equipped to handle their duties and responsibilities related to records management within the command. The command records manager has the knowledge and expertise to develop effective training programs that address the specific needs and requirements of base records managers.

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171. (237) Which system is the Air Forces' primary intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis and dissemination system?

Explanation

The correct answer is Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS). The DCGS is the Air Forces' primary ISR system that is responsible for collecting, processing, exploiting, analyzing, and disseminating intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance information. It is a network of systems and sensors that enables the Air Force to gather and share critical information in real-time, supporting mission planning and decision-making processes. The DCGS plays a crucial role in enhancing situational awareness and providing intelligence support to military operations.

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172. (233) What system is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space, divided by security demands, transmission requirements and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers?

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Network (DISN). DISN is a telecommunications network that provides interoperable and global exchange of information. It is divided by security demands, transmission requirements, and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers. The other options, Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN), Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA), and Air Force Information Network (AFIN), are not the correct answers as they do not accurately describe the telecommunications network described in the question.

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173. (241) Which system is the primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?

Explanation

The primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field is the Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

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174. (011) Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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175. (011) What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

Explanation

The Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System ensures unfettered access, mission assurance, and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations. It is responsible for managing and controlling cyberspace operations, ensuring the availability, integrity, and confidentiality of information, and coordinating with other military branches and agencies to protect and defend against cyber threats. This system plays a crucial role in maintaining the operational capabilities of the Air Force in cyberspace.

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176. (011) What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC). This system is responsible for managing and securing the Air Force's cyberspace operations.

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177. (011) What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I- NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), and Area Processing Center (APC) functions. It is responsible for managing and securing the Air Force's cyberspace operations, ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of its networks and information systems.

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(201) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a...
(203) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention...
(203) How are fires classified?
(203) Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could...
(204) Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?
(207) The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open...
(208) What negative effect could occur when star networks are...
(210) What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission...
(212) What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?
(216) Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN)...
(216) Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best...
(216) Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?
(219) Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical...
(228) Which computer software is designed to collect personal...
(230) Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a...
(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the...
(009) The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what...
(010) When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for...
(019) What tests your understanding of the original message and your...
(021) Records that are considered to be in draft format
(023) Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of...
(201) What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
(201) Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers,...
(202) What method is considered the least preferred when controlling...
(203) What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
(203) Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what...
(203) What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
(203) What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?  
(208) What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
(211) What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet)...
(215) Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an...
(216) Which network is a group of computers and associated devices...
(216) Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision...
(222) What network device provides a remote network with connectivity...
(223) Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of...
(224) What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?
(225) What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the...
(228) Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data...
(230) Which Air Force (AF) form records the destruction of Top Secret...
(236) What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air...
(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the...
(003) Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative...
(006) Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects,...
(007) What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness...
(008) What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle...
(009) What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of...
(012) Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public...
(013) Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the...
(015) What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network...
(016) The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air...
(019) Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of...
(208) What topology offers centralized management of a network?
(211) What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol...
(226) What Microsoft application is a software program that allows...
(234) Which network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers...
(201) Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?
(203) Which ladder practice is not prohibited?
(205) Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the...
(206) What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems...
(209) Which governing body is the authority for information technology...
(213) What characteristic is the major difference between Random...
(214) What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0...
(215) What is a peripheral device?
(230) How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is...
(003) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
(003) Who is the final authority to waive career field education...
(004) What action is the main goal of the utilization and training...
(005) What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge...
(006) Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality...
(012) What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring...
(014) What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems...
(015) What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of...
(016) What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?
(018) What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage...
(021) Which document is NOT considered an official government record?
(025) What system manages the distribution and printing of paper...
(202) Which action is a physiological factor?
  (226) What Microsoft application is a personal information...
(233) Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?
(010) An employee or employer relationship that leads to the...
(202) Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with...
(203) What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air...
(206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems...
(217) What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics...
(228) Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer...
(231) Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified...
(232) Which of the following services provides additional...
(003) What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D...
(004) Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge...
(006) Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality...
(010) Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close...
(012) What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned...
(017) What basic building block is used in joint force planning and...
(023) What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all...
(023) What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD)...
(024) What Air Force publications are informational and suggest...
(024) What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of...
(202) Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact...
(207) What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the...
(213) What action is the main purpose of system cache?
(004) Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training...
(205) What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?
(208) When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a...
(211) What class is reserved for multicast addressing?
(234) Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications...
(242) What system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network provides...
(023) What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the...
(025) Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in...
(026) Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and...
(207) What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems...
(221) What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems...
(235) Which system of the Global Command and Control System-Air Force...
(002) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in...
(211) Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?
(218) How many T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits do...
(019) How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?
(019) The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to...
(025) Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator...
(201) What action must supervisors take before a work task not...
(210) What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?
(202) How many impact classifications do hardhats have?
(231) Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting...
(238) Which system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program...
(022) Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an...
(025) What personnel oversees technical order requirements and...
(025) Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are...
(202) What three sub-categories make up human factors?
(206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems...
(207) What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data...
(227) What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an...
(010) What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces'...
(015) Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps)...
(021) Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official...
(203) What classification do flammable liquids receive?
(010) What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the...
(010) Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's...
(018) Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology...
(020) How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a...
(024) What directive publications expire one year after their...
(229) Which classified document markings identifies the highest level...
(240) What system is the priority component of the Department of...
(023) What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes...
(220) Describe a network bridge.
(238) How many air defenses sectors is the Battle Control System-Fixed...
(242) What system mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way...
(011) What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and...
(013) What document directs the development of the National Military...
(024) What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not...
(201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?
(241) What system provides a secure communications path for command...
(201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?
(239) Which system is a space-based high data rate communications link...
(003) Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter...
(015) What regional computing and data center provide enterprise...
(023) How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions...
(204) The risk management process includes how many steps?
(225) In general, how many operating system task categories are there?
(229) Which classified document marking appears on the face of each...
(011) What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and...
(024) What directive publications provide essential procedural...
(232) What system includes all owned and leased communications and...
(022) Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office...
(024) What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air...
(207) What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data...
(228) Computer security (COMPUSEC) vulnerabilities are broken down...
(205) How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture...
(017) What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to...
(022) Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging...
(235) Which system is the Department of Defense's (DOD) command and...
(022) Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs...
(237) Which system is the Air Forces' primary intelligence,...
(233) What system is a telecommunications network that provides the...
(241) Which system is the primary network used to transmit the...
(011) Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines...
(011) What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission...
(011) What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational...
(011) What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network...
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