Vita - Volume 2 All Ure

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1. What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.

Explanation

The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. PPE is the last line of defense and should only be used when other control measures such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substitution of a less hazardous material or process are not feasible or effective. PPE is not as effective as eliminating or minimizing the hazard at its source, and it may not provide complete protection against all hazards. Therefore, it is important to prioritize other control methods over relying solely on PPE.

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About This Quiz
Vita - Volume 2 All Ure - Quiz

This quiz, titled 'Vita - Volume 2 All URE,' assesses knowledge on the Air Force's Mishap Prevention Program, safety responsibilities, and compliance with standards like AFI 91-202 and OSHA. It aims to enhance resource protection and personnel safety on Air Force installations.

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2. Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?

Explanation

Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors.

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3. What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

Explanation

The greatest hazard in a typical office is falls. This can occur due to various reasons such as slippery floors, loose carpets, or tripping over objects. Falls can result in injuries like sprains, fractures, or head trauma. It is important to maintain a safe and clutter-free workspace, use proper lighting, and ensure that floors are clean and dry to prevent falls in the office.

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4. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

Explanation

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers.

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5. 16. (203) What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?

Explanation

Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.

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6. How are fires classified?

Explanation

Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuel, such as wood, paper, or gasoline, can produce different types of fires with varying characteristics. By understanding the fuel type, firefighters can determine the most effective methods to extinguish the fire and minimize its spread.

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7. What classification do flammable liquids receive?

Explanation

Flammable liquids are classified as Class B. This classification is used to categorize substances that have a flashpoint below 100 degrees Fahrenheit and can catch fire easily. Class B substances include gasoline, alcohol, and certain solvents. They pose a significant fire hazard and require special precautions for storage, handling, and transportation to prevent accidents and minimize the risk of fire.

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8. Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

Explanation

When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they will change to Class C. This change in classification is due to the fact that the introduction of an electric current can cause these fuels to become conductive and potentially ignite more easily. Class C fuels are those that are flammable and conductive, making them more dangerous in the presence of an electric current.

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9. What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

Explanation

When encountering a fire, the first action to take is to sound the fire alarm. This is crucial as it alerts everyone in the building to the presence of a fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. By sounding the fire alarm, you ensure that everyone is aware of the emergency and can take appropriate action. Evacuating personnel from the building and calling the fire department are important steps to follow, but sounding the fire alarm takes priority in order to initiate the evacuation process. Extinguishing the fire should only be attempted if it is safe to do so and does not hinder the evacuation process.

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10. What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?

Explanation

The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to try and put out the fire before it spreads further or causes more damage. It is important to prioritize the safety of personnel and evacuate them from the building before attempting to extinguish the fire. Once the fire is extinguished or if it is not possible to do so safely, the next step would be to call the fire department for professional assistance.

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11. Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

Explanation

Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. This means that if a person were to be exposed to a current of 50 milliamps, it could disrupt the normal electrical signals in the heart and potentially lead to a life-threatening condition. It is important to note that this is the threshold for cardiac arrest, and any current below this level may still cause significant harm or injury.

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12. Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

Explanation

Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material and does not conduct electricity. Therefore, there is no risk of electric shock or short circuits when using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits.

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13. Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Apply the process irregularly and continuously." This action is not a part of risk management because risk management requires a systematic and consistent approach to identify, assess, and mitigate risks. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would result in an inconsistent and ineffective risk management process. Instead, risk management involves accepting no unnecessary risk, making risk decisions at the appropriate level, and integrating risk management into operations and planning at all levels for a comprehensive and proactive approach to managing risks.

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14. The risk management process includes how many steps?

Explanation

The risk management process typically includes five steps. These steps are: risk identification, risk assessment, risk mitigation, risk monitoring, and risk communication. Each step is crucial in effectively managing and minimizing potential risks within a project or organization. By following these five steps, organizations can identify potential risks, assess their impact and likelihood, develop strategies to mitigate them, regularly monitor and update the risk management plan, and effectively communicate the risks and mitigation strategies to relevant stakeholders.

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15. How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?

Explanation

The Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is made up of four volumes. These volumes provide a comprehensive guide for creating and managing architectures within the Department of Defense. Each volume focuses on different aspects of the framework, including the overall architecture process, the architecture data and information, the architecture views and viewpoints, and the architecture products. These four volumes work together to ensure that the DODAF specification is thorough and covers all necessary aspects of architecture development and management.

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16. Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

Explanation

The Office of Management and Budget annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management.

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17. What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Federal level". This is because the development of Air Force architectures is mandated by requirements at the federal level. The federal government sets the policies and guidelines for the development of military architectures, including those of the Air Force. These requirements ensure that the Air Force architectures align with the overall national defense strategy and objectives.

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18. The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. This layer is responsible for providing error-free and reliable data transfer between adjacent network nodes. It handles framing, flow control, and error detection and correction. The LLC sublayer ensures that data is properly formatted and synchronized before transmission, and it also manages access to the physical medium.

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19. What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

Explanation

When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to facilitate communication between the different networks. If this central node point fails, it can result in large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that communication between those isolated portions and the rest of the network would be disrupted, leading to a negative effect on the overall network connectivity and functionality.

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20. Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body for information technology communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and is responsible for managing and operating the DOD information network. They oversee all levels of IT communication, from the DOD information network to the warfighter, ensuring that secure and reliable communication systems are in place for the DOD.

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21. What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

Explanation

The header checksum in an IP datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them. The header checksum is a value calculated from the bits in the header, and it is used to verify the integrity of the header. If the checksum does not match the calculated value, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission and the datagram is discarded to prevent further processing with potentially incorrect information.

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22. What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

Explanation

In Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4), an octet is a group of 8 bits. Each bit can have a value of either 0 or 1, resulting in a total of 256 possible combinations (2^8). However, since the values range from 0 to 255, the maximum value of an octet in IPv4 is 255.

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23. Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?

Explanation

Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. In the classful addressing system, Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which means that the network portion of the address is made up of the first three octets, while the last octet is reserved for host addresses. Since there are 8 bits available for host addresses in the last octet, we can have a maximum of 2^8 - 2 = 254 hosts per network.

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24. Which class is reserved for multicast addressing?

Explanation

Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing is a method of sending a message to a group of hosts on a network. In contrast to unicast (one-to-one) and broadcast (one-to-all) addressing, multicast allows for one-to-many or many-to-many communication. Class D addresses have their first four bits set to 1 1 1 0, which falls within the range of 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255. These addresses are used for multicast group identification.

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25. What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?

Explanation

The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for specific services or protocols that are commonly used and recognized. They are assigned by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) and include ports for popular services like HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22).

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26. What action is the main purpose of system cache?

Explanation

The main purpose of system cache is to reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache is a small and fast memory that stores frequently accessed data from the main memory (RAM). By keeping this data in the cache, the CPU can access it more quickly, which helps to improve overall system performance. This reduces the need for the CPU to fetch data from the slower main memory, resulting in faster processing times.

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27. What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?

Explanation

The correct answer is Five GB/S. USB 3.0 SuperSpeed transfer mode has a maximum data transfer rate of five gigabits per second (GB/S). This means that it can transfer data at a speed of five gigabytes per second, which is significantly faster than the previous USB 2.0 standard. USB 3.0 SuperSpeed is commonly used for high-speed data transfer, such as transferring large files or backing up data.

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28. Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?

Explanation

A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image. It uses a light source to illuminate the image or object, and then captures the reflected light using a photosensitive sensor. This captured information is then converted into a digital format that can be stored, edited, and displayed on a computer. Scanners are commonly used for tasks such as scanning documents, photos, and artwork.

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29. 54. (216) Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?

Explanation

A local area network (LAN) is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area. This means that the computers and devices connected to the LAN can communicate with each other and share resources such as files, printers, and internet access. A LAN is usually limited to a specific location, such as a home, office, or school, and is commonly used for internal communication and resource sharing within that location.

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30. Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

Explanation

Encryption is the best described method for hiding a message in a special code. Encryption is the process of converting plain text into cipher text, making it unreadable to unauthorized users. By using encryption, the message is encoded in a special code that can only be deciphered by those who have the decryption key. This ensures that the message remains secure and private during transmission over a wireless local area network (WLAN). SSID broadcasting and MAC filtering are security measures that do not involve hiding messages in special codes. Tunneling is a method used to encapsulate and encrypt data for secure transmission over a public network.

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31. Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?

Explanation

A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. It allows users to securely access and transmit data over a public network, such as the Internet, by encrypting the data and creating a secure connection. This ensures that the data remains confidential and protected from unauthorized access. VPNs are commonly used by individuals and organizations to establish secure connections for remote access, online privacy, and to connect geographically dispersed networks.

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32. What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratifies the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE)?

Explanation

In 1999, the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratified the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE). This means that in 1999, the IEEE officially approved and standardized the use of GbE technology, which allows for data transfer rates of up to one gigabit per second. This advancement in Ethernet technology provided faster and more efficient networking capabilities, enabling the transmission of large amounts of data at high speeds.

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33. Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling.

Explanation

A media converter is a device that converts signals from one type of media to another. In this case, the media converter is used to convert electrical signals used in copper UTP network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling. This allows for the transmission of data over longer distances and at higher speeds. A modem is used to connect a computer or network to the internet, a switch is used to connect multiple devices within a network, and a router is used to connect different networks together. None of these devices specifically convert signals from copper UTP to fiber optic cabling.

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34. Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?

Explanation

The given answer, "Attacker’s lack of ability," is the correct answer because it refers to the attacker's inability to exploit a flaw in the computer system. The other options, such as the attacker's capability to exploit the flaw, the system's susceptibility to a flaw, and the attacker's access to the flaw, all relate to vulnerabilities and factors that contribute to the potential exploitation of a flaw in the system. However, the attacker's lack of ability indicates that the vulnerability does not exist within the computer system itself.

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35. Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

Explanation

Spyware is a type of computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. Unlike adware, which displays unwanted advertisements, or trojans, which disguise themselves as legitimate software, spyware operates covertly in the background, often without the user's knowledge. It can track online activities, monitor keystrokes, and gather sensitive information such as passwords and credit card details. This unauthorized data collection makes spyware a significant threat to privacy and security.

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36. Which classified document markings identifies the highest level of classification?

Explanation

Banner Lines are used to identify the highest level of classification in classified documents. They are typically placed at the top and bottom of each page and contain information such as the document's classification level, special access requirements, and handling instructions. Banner Lines serve as a visual reminder to individuals handling the document that it contains sensitive information and should be treated with the highest level of security.

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37. 78. (230) How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is required or another supplemental control is sufficient?

Explanation

To determine if an intrusion detection system is required or if another supplemental control is sufficient, a risk assessment needs to be completed. This assessment helps in identifying potential threats, vulnerabilities, and the potential impact of those risks. By evaluating the risks, it becomes possible to determine the level of protection needed. The decision is not made by the General Service Administration (GSA), Office of Special Investigation (OSI), or the Wing Information Office, but rather by conducting a thorough risk assessment.

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38. Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?

Explanation

When the storage container has been cleaned is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials because cleaning the container does not affect the security or integrity of the combination. The combination is only changed when there is a potential compromise of the combination or when the container is being placed in or removed from service, as these events could pose a risk to the security of the classified materials.

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39. Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday?

Explanation

The Security Manager has the authority to grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday. As the individual responsible for overseeing and implementing security measures within an organization, the Security Manager is entrusted with the task of ensuring the proper handling and transportation of classified materials. This includes granting permissions for shipping such materials during weekends or specific timeframes. The Classified Information Program Manager, Information Assurance Officer, and Supervisor may have their own roles and responsibilities within the organization, but the ultimate authority for granting permission in this scenario lies with the Security Manager.

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40. Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?

Explanation

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user. The SBU IP Data or NIPRNET is a network that allows users to send and receive unclassified information securely. It is separate from the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET), which is used for classified information. The Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data and Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data are also used for classified information and not for unclassified e-mail service.

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41. Which network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet?

Explanation

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet. It is specifically designed for unclassified information and allows DOD personnel to communicate and access resources securely while connected to the Internet.

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42. What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?

Explanation

The Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides the Air Force Portal as a major program that serves as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel. The Air Force Portal is a secure website that offers a wide range of resources, including news, career information, training materials, and access to various Air Force systems and applications. It allows Air Force personnel to easily access and manage their personal and professional information, making it an essential tool for communication and collaboration within the Air Force community.

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43. What system is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities?

Explanation

The National Military Command Center (NMCC) is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities. The NMCC serves as the focal point for the operational-level command and control of U.S. military forces, providing timely and accurate information for decision-making and coordinating military activities. It ensures effective communication and coordination among senior military leaders during times of crisis or conflict, making it a critical system for the defense of the nation.

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44. What system mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users?

Explanation

The Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS) is the correct answer because its mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users. HF-GCS is a worldwide network of high-frequency radio stations that enables long-range communications, particularly in remote areas or during emergencies when other communication systems may be unavailable. The system allows for communication between different military branches and international partners, ensuring effective coordination and information sharing across various operational environments.

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45. 64. (222) What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a host network?

Explanation

A gateway is a network device that provides connectivity between two different networks, allowing communication between them. In this context, a gateway would provide a remote network with connectivity to a host network, allowing devices on the remote network to access resources and services on the host network. A switch, modem, and converter are different types of network devices that serve different purposes and do not specifically provide connectivity between networks.

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46. What system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war?

Explanation

The Global HF system provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war.

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47. 65. (223) Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users' own end terminals?

Explanation

End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection as it ensures that the information is fully encoded from the source to the destination, without being decrypted at any intermediary points in the network. This means that only the intended recipient with the proper decryption key can access the information, providing a higher level of security and privacy.

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48. What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?

Explanation

The cost to install and train technicians is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cables are known for their high installation and training costs compared to other types of cables. However, this drawback is outweighed by the numerous advantages of fiber optic cables such as low attenuation, high data transfer rates, and immunity to electromagnetic interference. Additionally, fiber optic cables provide enhanced security due to their ability to transmit data over long distances without any signal loss or interception.

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49. What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?

Explanation

The kernel is the UNIX system software that interacts most closely with the hardware. It is responsible for managing the computer's resources, such as memory and CPU, and provides the necessary services for user programs to run efficiently. The kernel acts as a bridge between the hardware and the user programs, handling low-level tasks like device drivers, memory management, and scheduling processes. It is the core component of the operating system and plays a crucial role in ensuring the proper functioning of the system.

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50. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of

Explanation

The correct answer is Labor because the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency that is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States. It is a part of the United States Department of Labor, which is the federal agency that oversees labor and employment issues in the country. OSHA sets and enforces standards, conducts inspections, provides training and education, and promotes workplace safety and health.

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51. Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

Explanation

The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They are specifically designated to handle safety concerns and provide guidance to ensure the well-being of personnel and the overall safety of the installation.

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52. What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

Explanation

Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves thoroughly examining the task to identify potential hazards and implementing appropriate safety measures to mitigate those risks. By conducting a JSA, supervisors ensure that employees are aware of the potential dangers associated with the task and are equipped with the necessary knowledge and precautions to perform it safely.

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53. What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?

Explanation

The correct answer is 978. The Air Force uses form 978 to report ground mishaps. This form is specifically designed for documenting and reporting accidents or incidents that occur on the ground involving Air Force personnel or equipment. It allows for the collection of important information such as the date, time, location, and details of the mishap, as well as any injuries or damages that occurred. This form is an essential tool in maintaining safety standards and identifying areas for improvement within the Air Force.

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54. What three sub-categories make up human factors?

Explanation

The correct answer is Physical, physiological, organizational. Human factors encompass various aspects that influence human performance and behavior in different contexts. The physical sub-category refers to the physical characteristics and capabilities of individuals, such as strength and dexterity. The physiological sub-category relates to the physiological processes and functions of the human body, including perception, cognition, and fatigue. The organizational sub-category focuses on the impact of organizational systems, policies, and culture on human performance and well-being. Together, these three sub-categories provide a comprehensive understanding of the factors that affect human performance and behavior in various settings.

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55. Which action is a physiological factor?

Explanation

Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders can be considered a physiological factor as it relates to the individual's mental state and decision-making abilities. It may be influenced by factors such as stress, lack of focus, or cognitive impairment, which can all affect the individual's physiological functioning.

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56. Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?

Explanation

Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess and analyze the potential health hazards in an environment and provide recommendations on how to minimize or eliminate those risks. This includes implementing control measures such as engineering controls, administrative controls, and personal protective equipment to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals in the environment.

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57. How many impact classifications do hardhats have?

Explanation

Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that hardhats are designed to protect against two different levels of impact. The impact classifications indicate the level of protection provided by the hardhat and help ensure the safety of the wearer in different hazardous situations.

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58. What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

Explanation

The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) consists of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes all the necessary paperwork and documentation related to the installation, such as contracts, permits, and licenses. The drawing record contains detailed diagrams and plans of the installation, including layouts and schematics. The maintenance record documents all the maintenance activities performed on the system, including repairs, upgrades, and inspections. These three parts together provide a comprehensive record of the installation, its documentation, and its maintenance history.

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59. Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?

Explanation

The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data. This section includes detailed drawings and diagrams that illustrate the placement and configuration of the systems, as well as technical specifications and measurements. It is an essential part of the CSIR as it allows for accurate planning, installation, and maintenance of the communication and information systems.

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60. Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?

Explanation

The maintenance record is the part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) that is typically retained in the production work center. This record contains important information about the maintenance activities performed on the system, including details about repairs, replacements, and upgrades. Keeping the maintenance record in the production work center allows the technicians and operators to easily access and reference this information when needed, ensuring efficient and effective maintenance procedures.

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61. What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

Explanation

A bus topology is a type of network configuration where all devices are connected to a common communication medium, resembling a linear structure. In this topology, data is transmitted in a single direction, from one end to the other. Therefore, the term "linear" is another name for a bus topology, as it accurately describes the physical layout of the network.

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62. What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?

Explanation

A Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket is a combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers. This allows the process to establish a connection with another process on a different machine and exchange data over the network. The port number identifies the specific process or service on the machine, while the IP address identifies the machine itself. By using this combination, the TCP socket enables communication between different processes on different machines within a network.

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63. What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?

Explanation

The major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM) is that ROM is non-volatile, meaning that it retains its data even when power is turned off, while RAM is volatile, meaning that it loses its data when power is turned off.

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64. What system includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority?

Explanation

The Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority. This network is specifically designed to provide secure and reliable information sharing capabilities to the Department of Defense. It encompasses a wide range of systems and services that are essential for maintaining information superiority within the defense sector.

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65. What system is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space, divided by security demands, transmission requirements and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers?

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Network (DISN) is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space. It is divided by security demands, transmission requirements, and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers. The other options listed are different networks or agencies within the Department of Defense, but they do not specifically match the description provided in the question.

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66. What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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67. What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.

Explanation

The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The OSI reference model consists of seven layers, which are divided into two categories. The lower three layers (Physical, Data Link, and Network) are responsible for data transport, while the upper four layers (Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application) are responsible for application-related functions. Therefore, the two categories of the seven layers are Data Transport and Application.

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68. What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Explanation

The LLC sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for providing a reliable and error-free link between two devices on the same network. It handles tasks such as flow control, error detection and correction, and data framing. By managing communications over a single link, the LLC sublayer ensures that data is transmitted accurately and efficiently between devices within the network.

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69. What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Explanation

The media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages the protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network access and use the physical transmission medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies. The MAC sublayer is responsible for tasks like addressing, framing, and error checking to ensure efficient and reliable communication between devices on the network.

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70. When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's

Explanation

The word "topology" can have different meanings depending on the context. In this case, when used alone, it typically refers to the physical arrangement of devices and cables in a network. This includes the layout of the network, the connections between devices, and the physical medium used for communication. It does not refer to the transport topology or logical topology, which are different aspects of a network.

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71. What topology offers centralized management of a network?

Explanation

The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In this topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which acts as a central point for managing and controlling the network. This central hub allows for easier monitoring and administration of the network, as well as efficient troubleshooting and maintenance. Additionally, the star topology provides better scalability and flexibility, as new devices can be easily added or removed without affecting the rest of the network.

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72. What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?

Explanation

The purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is to regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps to ensure that the transmission is efficient and prevents overwhelming the receiving devices with data.

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73. What is a peripheral device?

Explanation

A peripheral device is a device that is not considered a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external. These devices are used to input or output data from a computer system. Examples of peripheral devices include keyboards, mice, printers, scanners, and external hard drives. They are connected to the computer system to enhance its functionality and provide additional capabilities.

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74. Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?

Explanation

Wireless local area networks (WLANs) use Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol used in wireless networks to ensure that multiple devices do not transmit at the same time and cause collisions. This protocol requires devices to listen for ongoing transmissions before transmitting their own data, and if a transmission is detected, they wait for a random amount of time before attempting to transmit again. This helps to avoid collisions and ensure efficient data transmission in WLANs.

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75. How many T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits do Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer?

Explanation

Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer 7 T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits.

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76. What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an organization's mission critical information via its communications and ISs?

Explanation

Hostile information operations pose the greatest threat to an organization's mission critical information via its communications and information systems. These operations involve deliberate and malicious actions by external entities or individuals who aim to disrupt, manipulate, or steal sensitive information. Unlike other threats listed, hostile information operations are specifically designed to target and compromise an organization's information systems, making them the most dangerous threat in terms of potential damage and impact on the organization's mission critical information.

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77. Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?

Explanation

When a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system, it is referred to as a classified message incident. This means that sensitive information has been sent to a system that is not authorized to access or handle it. This can lead to a breach of security and potential leakage of classified data.

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78. Which classified document marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and shall indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Classification authority" because this marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and indicates the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification. This marking is essential for identifying who has the authority to classify the document and for how long it should remain classified. It helps to ensure that proper procedures and protocols are followed in regards to the classification of sensitive information.

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79. Which of the following services provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas?

Explanation

The aerial layer is the correct answer because it refers to the use of manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages. This means that it utilizes aircraft and other airborne platforms to provide continuous communications coverage over large geographic areas. By using the aerial layer, additional communications capacity can be provided, enhancing the ability to maintain continuous communications in areas where traditional ground-based systems may not be sufficient.

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80. Which system is the Department of Defense's (DOD) command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler?

Explanation

The correct answer is Global Command and Control System (GCCS). This system is the Department of Defense's command and control system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler. It is a comprehensive system that allows for the planning, execution, and management of military operations across all domains. GCCS provides real-time situational awareness, decision support, and information sharing capabilities, making it a critical tool for the DOD in achieving its objectives.

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81. Which system is the Air Forces' primary intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis and dissemination system?

Explanation

The correct answer is Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS). DCGS is the primary system used by the Air Forces for intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis, and dissemination. It is a network-centric system that allows for the integration of various intelligence sources and provides a common operating picture for decision-makers. DCGS enables real-time data sharing and collaboration among different units and agencies, enhancing the Air Forces' ability to gather and analyze intelligence effectively.

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82. Which system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on a powerful server-based computer system that takes inputs from long range and short-range radars and displays it all on a scope?

Explanation

The correct answer is Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F). BCS-F is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program that is hosted on a powerful server-based computer system. It takes inputs from both long range and short-range radars and displays the information on a scope. BCS-F is specifically designed for battle control purposes, making it the most suitable option among the given choices.

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83. Which system is a space-based high data rate communications link for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces?

Explanation

The Global Broadcast System (GBS) is a space-based high data rate communications link that allows for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces. It provides a reliable and secure means of transmitting large amounts of data, such as video, imagery, and other intelligence information, to military personnel in the field. The GBS enables real-time situational awareness and facilitates effective decision-making by ensuring that critical information reaches the right people at the right time.

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84. Which system is the primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?

Explanation

The primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field is the Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS). This system is specifically designed for command and control operations and is responsible for transmitting critical messages and orders during emergency situations. It ensures efficient and secure communication between the NMCC and the warfighting commanders, enabling effective coordination and response in times of crisis. The other options mentioned, such as Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS), Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS), and Global Combat Support System (GCSS), are not specifically designed for transmitting EAMs in the same manner as SACCS.

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85. What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems to connect together?

Explanation

Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) is a network routing protocol that allows multiple autonomous systems to connect together. EGP is specifically designed for interconnecting different autonomous systems and exchanging routing information between them. It enables the exchange of routing information between routers in different autonomous systems, facilitating communication and connectivity between them. EGP is an important protocol for interconnecting networks and enabling the seamless flow of data across multiple autonomous systems.

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86. What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?

Explanation

Access is a Microsoft application that allows users to create a desktop database. It provides tools and features to design and build a database, enter and manage data, and create forms, reports, and queries. Word, Outlook, and PowerPoint are not designed for creating databases, but rather for word processing, email management, and creating presentations, respectively.

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87. What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?

Explanation

Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is widely used for managing emails, calendars, contacts, tasks, and notes. Outlook provides features like email organization, scheduling meetings, setting reminders, and managing personal and professional information in one place. This application helps users stay organized and efficient in managing their personal and work-related information, making it the correct answer to the question.

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88. Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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89. What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

Explanation

The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect both resources and personnel from any potential harm. This program aims to prevent any damage, loss, injury, or even death that may occur as a result of unsafe practices or situations. By implementing this program, organizations can ensure the safety and well-being of their resources and personnel, minimizing the risks associated with their operations.

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90. In general, how many operating system task categories are there?

Explanation

There are six operating system task categories in general.

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91. What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?

Explanation

The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify different functions related to network communication. These layers include physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, and application layers. The network layer, specifically, is responsible for addressing, routing, and forwarding data packets across different networks. It ensures that data is delivered to the correct destination by choosing the most efficient path and handling any network congestion or errors that may occur.

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92. Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

Explanation

A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects local area networks (LAN) and metropolitan area networks (MAN) through long-distance communication links provided by a telecommunications company. This allows for the sharing of resources and data between different LANs and MANs over a larger geographical area. Unlike LANs, which are limited to a single location, WANs cover a wider area and can span across cities, countries, or even continents. Therefore, a WAN is the correct answer for this question.

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93. Describe a network bridge.

Explanation

A network bridge is a Data Link layer network device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It allows for the segmentation of network traffic, reducing collisions and improving network performance. By separating the network into multiple segments, a bridge can effectively manage network traffic and prevent congestion. This helps to improve the overall efficiency and reliability of the network.

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94. Which Air Force (AF) form records the destruction of Top Secret classified material?

Explanation

AF Form 143 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force form that is specifically used to record the destruction of Top Secret classified material. This form is designed to ensure proper documentation and accountability for the destruction process, maintaining the highest level of security and confidentiality. The other forms listed are not specifically designated for this purpose, making AF Form 143 the most suitable choice.

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95. Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management?

Explanation

The Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to provide high-quality and secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management. DRSN is a secure voice network used by the United States Department of Defense and is capable of handling classified information. It ensures reliable and encrypted communication for military leaders and top-level officials during critical operations and emergencies.

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96. Which system of the Global Command and Control System-Air Force (GCCS-AF) monitors status of resources and training systems ensuring that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available to the for mission completion?

Explanation

The correct answer is GSORTS because it is the system within GCCS-AF that monitors the status of resources and training systems. It provides decision makers with an accurate snapshot of the resources available for mission completion.

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97. How many air defenses sectors is the Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) divided into?

Explanation

The Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) is divided into two air defense sectors.

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98. What system provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions?

Explanation

The Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS) provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions. It is a global network that uses high-frequency radio waves to transmit and receive encrypted communications, ensuring the security and reliability of the information being transmitted. The HF-GCS allows for effective communication between strategic assets and enables the Air Force to maintain control and coordination of its operations.

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99. Computer security (COMPUSEC) vulnerabilities are broken down into how many categories?

Explanation

Computer security vulnerabilities are categorized into four main categories: physical, network, software, and human. Physical vulnerabilities refer to physical threats like unauthorized access to computer systems. Network vulnerabilities involve weaknesses in network infrastructure that can be exploited by attackers. Software vulnerabilities are flaws in software programs that can be exploited to gain unauthorized access or cause damage. Human vulnerabilities refer to the actions or mistakes made by individuals that can compromise computer security. Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

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100. Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information?

Explanation

The Information Assurance Officer is the correct person to seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information. This is because the Information Assurance Officer is responsible for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information, including classified information. They have the knowledge and expertise to provide guidance and support on the proper procedures and protocols for transporting Top Secret information securely.

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