Vita - Volume 2 All Ure

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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled 'Vita - Volume 2 All URE,' assesses knowledge on the Air Force's Mishap Prevention Program, safety responsibilities, and compliance with standards like AFI 91-202 and OSHA. It aims to enhance resource protection and personnel safety on Air Force installations.

Vita - Volume 2 All Ure - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

    • Air Staff.

    • Civil Engineering.

    • Squadron commander.

    • Installation safety office.

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation safety office.
    Explanation
    The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They are specifically designated to handle safety concerns and provide guidance to ensure the well-being of personnel and the overall safety of the installation.

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  • 3. 

    What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

    • Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO).

    • Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).

    • Review AF Form 55.

    • Certify the employee.

    Correct Answer
    A. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).
    Explanation
    Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves thoroughly examining the task to identify potential hazards and implementing appropriate safety measures to mitigate those risks. By conducting a JSA, supervisors ensure that employees are aware of the potential dangers associated with the task and are equipped with the necessary knowledge and precautions to perform it safely.

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  • 4. 

    What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?

    • 475

    • 480.

    • 978.

    • 980.

    Correct Answer
    A. 978.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 978. The Air Force uses form 978 to report ground mishaps. This form is specifically designed for documenting and reporting accidents or incidents that occur on the ground involving Air Force personnel or equipment. It allows for the collection of important information such as the date, time, location, and details of the mishap, as well as any injuries or damages that occurred. This form is an essential tool in maintaining safety standards and identifying areas for improvement within the Air Force.

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  • 5. 

    What three sub-categories make up human factors?

    • Physiological, physical, stress.

    • Physiological, Physical, social.

    • Stress, organizational, physical.

    • Physical, physiological, organizational

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical, physiological, organizational
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Physical, physiological, organizational. Human factors encompass various aspects that influence human performance and behavior in different contexts. The physical sub-category refers to the physical characteristics and capabilities of individuals, such as strength and dexterity. The physiological sub-category relates to the physiological processes and functions of the human body, including perception, cognition, and fatigue. The organizational sub-category focuses on the impact of organizational systems, policies, and culture on human performance and well-being. Together, these three sub-categories provide a comprehensive understanding of the factors that affect human performance and behavior in various settings.

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  • 6. 

    Which action is a physiological factor?

    • Performing a task while fatigued

    • Performing a task while intoxicated

    • Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders

    • Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness

    Correct Answer
    A. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders
    Explanation
    Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders can be considered a physiological factor as it relates to the individual's mental state and decision-making abilities. It may be influenced by factors such as stress, lack of focus, or cognitive impairment, which can all affect the individual's physiological functioning.

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  • 7. 

    Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?

    • Bioenvironmental Engineering

    • Installation safety office

    • Base civil engineer

    • Supervisors

    Correct Answer
    A. Bioenvironmental Engineering
    Explanation
    Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess and analyze the potential health hazards in an environment and provide recommendations on how to minimize or eliminate those risks. This includes implementing control measures such as engineering controls, administrative controls, and personal protective equipment to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals in the environment.

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  • 8. 

    What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.

    • Isolating operations

    • Providing administrative controls

    • Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).

    • Substitution a less hazardous material or process

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).
    Explanation
    The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. PPE is the last line of defense and should only be used when other control measures such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substitution of a less hazardous material or process are not feasible or effective. PPE is not as effective as eliminating or minimizing the hazard at its source, and it may not provide complete protection against all hazards. Therefore, it is important to prioritize other control methods over relying solely on PPE.

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  • 9. 

    Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?

    • A

    • C

    • E

    • G

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors.

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  • 10. 

    What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

    • Falls.

    • Poor lighting

    • Horseplay.

    • Poor ergonomics

    Correct Answer
    A. Falls.
    Explanation
    The greatest hazard in a typical office is falls. This can occur due to various reasons such as slippery floors, loose carpets, or tripping over objects. Falls can result in injuries like sprains, fractures, or head trauma. It is important to maintain a safe and clutter-free workspace, use proper lighting, and ensure that floors are clean and dry to prevent falls in the office.

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  • 11. 

    According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

    • 1 to 2

    • 2 to 2.5

    • 2 to 4.5

    • 2.5 to 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 to 2.5
    Explanation
    According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers.

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  • 12. 

    16. (203) What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?

    • 8

    • 9

    • 10

    • 11

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.

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  • 13. 

    How are fires classified?

    • Fuel type

    • Heat source

    • Temperature

    • Atmospheric conditions

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuel type
    Explanation
    Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuel, such as wood, paper, or gasoline, can produce different types of fires with varying characteristics. By understanding the fuel type, firefighters can determine the most effective methods to extinguish the fire and minimize its spread.

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  • 14. 

    What classification do flammable liquids receive?

    • Class A.

    • Class B

    • Class C

    • Class D.

    Correct Answer
    A. Class B
    Explanation
    Flammable liquids are classified as Class B. This classification is used to categorize substances that have a flashpoint below 100 degrees Fahrenheit and can catch fire easily. Class B substances include gasoline, alcohol, and certain solvents. They pose a significant fire hazard and require special precautions for storage, handling, and transportation to prevent accidents and minimize the risk of fire.

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  • 15. 

    Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

    • Class A

    • Class B.

    • Class C.

    • Class D.

    Correct Answer
    A. Class C.
    Explanation
    When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they will change to Class C. This change in classification is due to the fact that the introduction of an electric current can cause these fuels to become conductive and potentially ignite more easily. Class C fuels are those that are flammable and conductive, making them more dangerous in the presence of an electric current.

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  • 16. 

    What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

    • Evacuate personnel from the building

    • Extinguish the fire if possible

    • Call the fire department

    • Sound the fire alarm

    Correct Answer
    A. Sound the fire alarm
    Explanation
    When encountering a fire, the first action to take is to sound the fire alarm. This is crucial as it alerts everyone in the building to the presence of a fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. By sounding the fire alarm, you ensure that everyone is aware of the emergency and can take appropriate action. Evacuating personnel from the building and calling the fire department are important steps to follow, but sounding the fire alarm takes priority in order to initiate the evacuation process. Extinguishing the fire should only be attempted if it is safe to do so and does not hinder the evacuation process.

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  • 17. 

    What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?

    • Evacuate personnel from the building

    • Extinguish the fire if possible

    • Call the fire department

    • Sound the fire alarm

    Correct Answer
    A. Extinguish the fire if possible
    Explanation
    The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to try and put out the fire before it spreads further or causes more damage. It is important to prioritize the safety of personnel and evacuate them from the building before attempting to extinguish the fire. Once the fire is extinguished or if it is not possible to do so safely, the next step would be to call the fire department for professional assistance.

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  • 18. 

    Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

    • 50

    • 40

    • 20

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 50
    Explanation
    Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. This means that if a person were to be exposed to a current of 50 milliamps, it could disrupt the normal electrical signals in the heart and potentially lead to a life-threatening condition. It is important to note that this is the threshold for cardiac arrest, and any current below this level may still cause significant harm or injury.

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  • 19. 

    Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

    • Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits

    • Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder

    • Using a ladder as a scaffold.

    • Using a homemade ladder

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits
    Explanation
    Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material and does not conduct electricity. Therefore, there is no risk of electric shock or short circuits when using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits.

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  • 20. 

    Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

    • Accept no unnecessary risk

    • Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • Apply the process irregularly and continuously.

    • Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels

    Correct Answer
    A. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Apply the process irregularly and continuously." This action is not a part of risk management because risk management requires a systematic and consistent approach to identify, assess, and mitigate risks. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would result in an inconsistent and ineffective risk management process. Instead, risk management involves accepting no unnecessary risk, making risk decisions at the appropriate level, and integrating risk management into operations and planning at all levels for a comprehensive and proactive approach to managing risks.

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  • 21. 

    The risk management process includes how many steps?

    • Four

    • Five

    • Six

    • Seven

    Correct Answer
    A. Five
    Explanation
    The risk management process typically includes five steps. These steps are: risk identification, risk assessment, risk mitigation, risk monitoring, and risk communication. Each step is crucial in effectively managing and minimizing potential risks within a project or organization. By following these five steps, organizations can identify potential risks, assess their impact and likelihood, develop strategies to mitigate them, regularly monitor and update the risk management plan, and effectively communicate the risks and mitigation strategies to relevant stakeholders.

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  • 22. 

    How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Four
    Explanation
    The Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is made up of four volumes. These volumes provide a comprehensive guide for creating and managing architectures within the Department of Defense. Each volume focuses on different aspects of the framework, including the overall architecture process, the architecture data and information, the architecture views and viewpoints, and the architecture products. These four volumes work together to ensure that the DODAF specification is thorough and covers all necessary aspects of architecture development and management.

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  • 23. 

    Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

    • Office of Administration

    • Office of Communications

    • Office of Public Engagement

    • Office of Management and Budget

    Correct Answer
    A. Office of Management and Budget
    Explanation
    The Office of Management and Budget annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management.

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  • 24. 

    What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?

    • State level

    • Federal level

    • Congressional level

    • Department of Defense level

    Correct Answer
    A. Federal level
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Federal level". This is because the development of Air Force architectures is mandated by requirements at the federal level. The federal government sets the policies and guidelines for the development of military architectures, including those of the Air Force. These requirements ensure that the Air Force architectures align with the overall national defense strategy and objectives.

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  • 25. 

    The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?

    • Transport.

    • Data Link

    • Physical.

    • Session.

    Correct Answer
    A. Data Link
    Explanation
    The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. This layer is responsible for providing error-free and reliable data transfer between adjacent network nodes. It handles framing, flow control, and error detection and correction. The LLC sublayer ensures that data is properly formatted and synchronized before transmission, and it also manages access to the physical medium.

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  • 26. 

    What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

    • There are no negative effects

    • A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication

    • Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices

    • When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated

    Correct Answer
    A. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated
    Explanation
    When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to facilitate communication between the different networks. If this central node point fails, it can result in large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that communication between those isolated portions and the rest of the network would be disrupted, leading to a negative effect on the overall network connectivity and functionality.

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  • 27. 

    Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

    • Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • Federal Communications Commission (FCC).

    • Department of Homeland Security (DHS).

    • Department of Defense (DOD).

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body for information technology communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and is responsible for managing and operating the DOD information network. They oversee all levels of IT communication, from the DOD information network to the warfighter, ensuring that secure and reliable communication systems are in place for the DOD.

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  • 28. 

    What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

    • Version Identification

    • Header Checksum

    • Time to Live

    • Flags.

    Correct Answer
    A. Header Checksum
    Explanation
    The header checksum in an IP datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them. The header checksum is a value calculated from the bits in the header, and it is used to verify the integrity of the header. If the checksum does not match the calculated value, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission and the datagram is discarded to prevent further processing with potentially incorrect information.

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  • 29. 

    What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

    • 239.

    • 254.

    • 255.

    • 256.

    Correct Answer
    A. 255.
    Explanation
    In Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4), an octet is a group of 8 bits. Each bit can have a value of either 0 or 1, resulting in a total of 256 possible combinations (2^8). However, since the values range from 0 to 255, the maximum value of an octet in IPv4 is 255.

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  • 30. 

    Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?

    • Class A address

    • Class B address

    • Class C address

    • Class D address

    Correct Answer
    A. Class C address
    Explanation
    Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. In the classful addressing system, Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which means that the network portion of the address is made up of the first three octets, while the last octet is reserved for host addresses. Since there are 8 bits available for host addresses in the last octet, we can have a maximum of 2^8 - 2 = 254 hosts per network.

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  • 31. 

    Which class is reserved for multicast addressing?

    • Class A address

    • Class B address

    • Class C address

    • Class D address

    Correct Answer
    A. Class D address
    Explanation
    Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing is a method of sending a message to a group of hosts on a network. In contrast to unicast (one-to-one) and broadcast (one-to-all) addressing, multicast allows for one-to-many or many-to-many communication. Class D addresses have their first four bits set to 1 1 1 0, which falls within the range of 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255. These addresses are used for multicast group identification.

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  • 32. 

    What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?

    • 0–1023

    • 1024–49151

    • 49152–65535

    • 65536–87000

    Correct Answer
    A. 0–1023
    Explanation
    The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for specific services or protocols that are commonly used and recognized. They are assigned by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) and include ports for popular services like HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22).

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  • 33. 

    What action is the main purpose of system cache?

    • Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM)

    • Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data

    • Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data

    • Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data
    Explanation
    The main purpose of system cache is to reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache is a small and fast memory that stores frequently accessed data from the main memory (RAM). By keeping this data in the cache, the CPU can access it more quickly, which helps to improve overall system performance. This reduces the need for the CPU to fetch data from the slower main memory, resulting in faster processing times.

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  • 34. 

    What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?

    • Two gigabits per second (GB/S).

    • Four GB/S

    • Five GB/S

    • 10 GB/S.

    Correct Answer
    A. Five GB/S
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Five GB/S. USB 3.0 SuperSpeed transfer mode has a maximum data transfer rate of five gigabits per second (GB/S). This means that it can transfer data at a speed of five gigabytes per second, which is significantly faster than the previous USB 2.0 standard. USB 3.0 SuperSpeed is commonly used for high-speed data transfer, such as transferring large files or backing up data.

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  • 35. 

    Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?

    • Printer.

    • Scanner.

    • Monitor.

    • Camera lens

    Correct Answer
    A. Scanner.
    Explanation
    A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image. It uses a light source to illuminate the image or object, and then captures the reflected light using a photosensitive sensor. This captured information is then converted into a digital format that can be stored, edited, and displayed on a computer. Scanners are commonly used for tasks such as scanning documents, photos, and artwork.

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  • 36. 

    54. (216) Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?

    • Local area network (LAN).

    • Wide area network (WAN).

    • Virtual private network (VPN).

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Local area network (LAN).
    Explanation
    A local area network (LAN) is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area. This means that the computers and devices connected to the LAN can communicate with each other and share resources such as files, printers, and internet access. A LAN is usually limited to a specific location, such as a home, office, or school, and is commonly used for internal communication and resource sharing within that location.

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  • 37. 

    Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

    • Service set identifier (SSID) Broadcasting

    • Media access control (MAC) Filtering

    • Encryption.

    • Tunneling.

    Correct Answer
    A. Encryption.
    Explanation
    Encryption is the best described method for hiding a message in a special code. Encryption is the process of converting plain text into cipher text, making it unreadable to unauthorized users. By using encryption, the message is encoded in a special code that can only be deciphered by those who have the decryption key. This ensures that the message remains secure and private during transmission over a wireless local area network (WLAN). SSID broadcasting and MAC filtering are security measures that do not involve hiding messages in special codes. Tunneling is a method used to encapsulate and encrypt data for secure transmission over a public network.

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  • 38. 

    Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?

    • Local area network (LAN).

    • Wide area network (WAN).

    • Virtual private network (VPN)

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Virtual private network (VPN)
    Explanation
    A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. It allows users to securely access and transmit data over a public network, such as the Internet, by encrypting the data and creating a secure connection. This ensures that the data remains confidential and protected from unauthorized access. VPNs are commonly used by individuals and organizations to establish secure connections for remote access, online privacy, and to connect geographically dispersed networks.

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  • 39. 

    What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratifies the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE)?

    • 1988.

    • 1999.

    • 2005.

    • 2009.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1999.
    Explanation
    In 1999, the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratified the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE). This means that in 1999, the IEEE officially approved and standardized the use of GbE technology, which allows for data transfer rates of up to one gigabit per second. This advancement in Ethernet technology provided faster and more efficient networking capabilities, enabling the transmission of large amounts of data at high speeds.

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  • 40. 

    Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling.

    • Media converter

    • Modem.

    • Switch.

    • Router.

    Correct Answer
    A. Media converter
    Explanation
    A media converter is a device that converts signals from one type of media to another. In this case, the media converter is used to convert electrical signals used in copper UTP network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling. This allows for the transmission of data over longer distances and at higher speeds. A modem is used to connect a computer or network to the internet, a switch is used to connect multiple devices within a network, and a router is used to connect different networks together. None of these devices specifically convert signals from copper UTP to fiber optic cabling.

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  • 41. 

    Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?

    • Attacker’s capability to exploit the flaw

    • System’s susceptibility to a flaw

    • Attacker’s access to the flaw

    • Attacker’s lack of ability

    Correct Answer
    A. Attacker’s lack of ability
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Attacker’s lack of ability," is the correct answer because it refers to the attacker's inability to exploit a flaw in the computer system. The other options, such as the attacker's capability to exploit the flaw, the system's susceptibility to a flaw, and the attacker's access to the flaw, all relate to vulnerabilities and factors that contribute to the potential exploitation of a flaw in the system. However, the attacker's lack of ability indicates that the vulnerability does not exist within the computer system itself.

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  • 42. 

    Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

    • Malware.

    • Spyware.

    • Adware.

    • Trojans.

    Correct Answer
    A. Spyware.
    Explanation
    Spyware is a type of computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. Unlike adware, which displays unwanted advertisements, or trojans, which disguise themselves as legitimate software, spyware operates covertly in the background, often without the user's knowledge. It can track online activities, monitor keystrokes, and gather sensitive information such as passwords and credit card details. This unauthorized data collection makes spyware a significant threat to privacy and security.

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  • 43. 

    Which classified document markings identifies the highest level of classification?

    • Banner Lines

    • Portion Marks

    • Component and office

    • Classification authority.

    Correct Answer
    A. Banner Lines
    Explanation
    Banner Lines are used to identify the highest level of classification in classified documents. They are typically placed at the top and bottom of each page and contain information such as the document's classification level, special access requirements, and handling instructions. Banner Lines serve as a visual reminder to individuals handling the document that it contains sensitive information and should be treated with the highest level of security.

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  • 44. 

    78. (230) How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is required or another supplemental control is sufficient?

    • General Service Administration (GSA) makes that determination

    • Office of Special Investigation (OSI) makes that determination

    • Wing information office makes that determination

    • By competing a risk assessment

    Correct Answer
    A. By competing a risk assessment
    Explanation
    To determine if an intrusion detection system is required or if another supplemental control is sufficient, a risk assessment needs to be completed. This assessment helps in identifying potential threats, vulnerabilities, and the potential impact of those risks. By evaluating the risks, it becomes possible to determine the level of protection needed. The decision is not made by the General Service Administration (GSA), Office of Special Investigation (OSI), or the Wing Information Office, but rather by conducting a thorough risk assessment.

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  • 45. 

    Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?

    • When it is placed in service

    • When it is removed from service

    • When the storage container has been cleaned

    • When compromise of the combination is suspected

    Correct Answer
    A. When the storage container has been cleaned
    Explanation
    When the storage container has been cleaned is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials because cleaning the container does not affect the security or integrity of the combination. The combination is only changed when there is a potential compromise of the combination or when the container is being placed in or removed from service, as these events could pose a risk to the security of the classified materials.

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  • 46. 

    Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday?

    • Classified Information Program Manager

    • Information Assurance Officer

    • Security Manager

    • Supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Security Manager
    Explanation
    The Security Manager has the authority to grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday. As the individual responsible for overseeing and implementing security measures within an organization, the Security Manager is entrusted with the task of ensuring the proper handling and transportation of classified materials. This includes granting permissions for shipping such materials during weekends or specific timeframes. The Classified Information Program Manager, Information Assurance Officer, and Supervisor may have their own roles and responsibilities within the organization, but the ultimate authority for granting permission in this scenario lies with the Security Manager.

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  • 47. 

    Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?

    • Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET)

    • Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).

    • Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.

    • Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user. The SBU IP Data or NIPRNET is a network that allows users to send and receive unclassified information securely. It is separate from the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET), which is used for classified information. The Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data and Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data are also used for classified information and not for unclassified e-mail service.

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  • 48. 

    Which network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet?

    • Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).

    • Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).

    • Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data

    • Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet. It is specifically designed for unclassified information and allows DOD personnel to communicate and access resources securely while connected to the Internet.

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  • 49. 

    What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?

    • Air Force Portal

    • IMDS.

    • Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS).

    • Electronic-publications (E-pub).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Portal
    Explanation
    The Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides the Air Force Portal as a major program that serves as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel. The Air Force Portal is a secure website that offers a wide range of resources, including news, career information, training materials, and access to various Air Force systems and applications. It allows Air Force personnel to easily access and manage their personal and professional information, making it an essential tool for communication and collaboration within the Air Force community.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 15, 2024 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 15, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 22, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Kahri

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