Vita - Volume 2 All Ure
(62).webp "Vita - Volume 2 All Ure - Quiz")
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?
- A.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–200.
- B.
AFI 91–202.
- C.
Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91–200.
- D.
AFMAN 91–202.
Correct Answer
B. AFI 91–202. -
- 2.
What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
- A.
Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.
- B.
Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.
- C.
Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.
- D.
Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.
Correct Answer
D. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.Explanation
The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect both resources and personnel from any potential harm. This program aims to prevent any damage, loss, injury, or even death that may occur as a result of unsafe practices or situations. By implementing this program, organizations can ensure the safety and well-being of their resources and personnel, minimizing the risks associated with their operations.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of
- A.
Commerce.
- B.
The Treasury.
- C.
Defense.
- D.
Labor
Correct Answer
D. LaborExplanation
The correct answer is Labor because the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency that is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States. It is a part of the United States Department of Labor, which is the federal agency that oversees labor and employment issues in the country. OSHA sets and enforces standards, conducts inspections, provides training and education, and promotes workplace safety and health.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?
- A.
Air Staff.
- B.
Civil Engineering.
- C.
Squadron commander.
- D.
Installation safety office.
Correct Answer
D. Installation safety office.Explanation
The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They are specifically designated to handle safety concerns and provide guidance to ensure the well-being of personnel and the overall safety of the installation.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?
- A.
Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO).
- B.
Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).
- C.
Review AF Form 55.
- D.
Certify the employee.
Correct Answer
B. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).Explanation
Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves thoroughly examining the task to identify potential hazards and implementing appropriate safety measures to mitigate those risks. By conducting a JSA, supervisors ensure that employees are aware of the potential dangers associated with the task and are equipped with the necessary knowledge and precautions to perform it safely.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?
- A.
475
- B.
480.
- C.
978.
- D.
980.
Correct Answer
C. 978.Explanation
The correct answer is 978. The Air Force uses form 978 to report ground mishaps. This form is specifically designed for documenting and reporting accidents or incidents that occur on the ground involving Air Force personnel or equipment. It allows for the collection of important information such as the date, time, location, and details of the mishap, as well as any injuries or damages that occurred. This form is an essential tool in maintaining safety standards and identifying areas for improvement within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?
- A.
475 or 457 (not sure)
- B.
480.
- C.
978.
- D.
980.
Correct Answer
A. 475 or 457 (not sure) -
- 8.
What three sub-categories make up human factors?
- A.
Physiological, physical, stress.
- B.
Physiological, Physical, social.
- C.
Stress, organizational, physical.
- D.
Physical, physiological, organizational
Correct Answer
D. Physical, physiological, organizationalExplanation
The correct answer is Physical, physiological, organizational. Human factors encompass various aspects that influence human performance and behavior in different contexts. The physical sub-category refers to the physical characteristics and capabilities of individuals, such as strength and dexterity. The physiological sub-category relates to the physiological processes and functions of the human body, including perception, cognition, and fatigue. The organizational sub-category focuses on the impact of organizational systems, policies, and culture on human performance and well-being. Together, these three sub-categories provide a comprehensive understanding of the factors that affect human performance and behavior in various settings.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which action is a physiological factor?
- A.
Performing a task while fatigued
- B.
Performing a task while intoxicated
- C.
Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders
- D.
Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness
Correct Answer
C. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leadersExplanation
Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders can be considered a physiological factor as it relates to the individual's mental state and decision-making abilities. It may be influenced by factors such as stress, lack of focus, or cognitive impairment, which can all affect the individual's physiological functioning.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?
- A.
Bioenvironmental Engineering
- B.
Installation safety office
- C.
Base civil engineer
- D.
Supervisors
Correct Answer
A. Bioenvironmental EngineeringExplanation
Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess and analyze the potential health hazards in an environment and provide recommendations on how to minimize or eliminate those risks. This includes implementing control measures such as engineering controls, administrative controls, and personal protective equipment to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals in the environment.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.
- A.
Isolating operations
- B.
Providing administrative controls
- C.
Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).
- D.
Substitution a less hazardous material or process
Correct Answer
C. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).Explanation
The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. PPE is the last line of defense and should only be used when other control measures such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substitution of a less hazardous material or process are not feasible or effective. PPE is not as effective as eliminating or minimizing the hazard at its source, and it may not provide complete protection against all hazards. Therefore, it is important to prioritize other control methods over relying solely on PPE.Rate this question:
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- 12.
How many impact classifications do hardhats have?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
Correct Answer
B. Two.Explanation
Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that hardhats are designed to protect against two different levels of impact. The impact classifications indicate the level of protection provided by the hardhat and help ensure the safety of the wearer in different hazardous situations.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?
- A.
A
- B.
C
- C.
E
- D.
G
Correct Answer
B. CExplanation
Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
- A.
Falls.
- B.
Poor lighting
- C.
Horseplay.
- D.
Poor ergonomics
Correct Answer
A. Falls.Explanation
The greatest hazard in a typical office is falls. This can occur due to various reasons such as slippery floors, loose carpets, or tripping over objects. Falls can result in injuries like sprains, fractures, or head trauma. It is important to maintain a safe and clutter-free workspace, use proper lighting, and ensure that floors are clean and dry to prevent falls in the office.Rate this question:
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- 15.
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?
- A.
1 to 2
- B.
2 to 2.5
- C.
2 to 4.5
- D.
2.5 to 3
Correct Answer
B. 2 to 2.5Explanation
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers.Rate this question:
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- 16.
16. (203) What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?
- A.
8
- B.
9
- C.
10
- D.
11
Correct Answer
C. 10Explanation
Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.Rate this question:
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- 17.
How are fires classified?
- A.
Fuel type
- B.
Heat source
- C.
Temperature
- D.
Atmospheric conditions
Correct Answer
A. Fuel typeExplanation
Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuel, such as wood, paper, or gasoline, can produce different types of fires with varying characteristics. By understanding the fuel type, firefighters can determine the most effective methods to extinguish the fire and minimize its spread.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What classification do flammable liquids receive?
- A.
Class A.
- B.
Class B
- C.
Class C
- D.
Class D.
Correct Answer
B. Class BExplanation
Flammable liquids are classified as Class B. This classification is used to categorize substances that have a flashpoint below 100 degrees Fahrenheit and can catch fire easily. Class B substances include gasoline, alcohol, and certain solvents. They pose a significant fire hazard and require special precautions for storage, handling, and transportation to prevent accidents and minimize the risk of fire.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?
- A.
Class A
- B.
Class B.
- C.
Class C.
- D.
Class D.
Correct Answer
C. Class C.Explanation
When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they will change to Class C. This change in classification is due to the fact that the introduction of an electric current can cause these fuels to become conductive and potentially ignite more easily. Class C fuels are those that are flammable and conductive, making them more dangerous in the presence of an electric current.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
- A.
Evacuate personnel from the building
- B.
Extinguish the fire if possible
- C.
Call the fire department
- D.
Sound the fire alarm
Correct Answer
D. Sound the fire alarmExplanation
When encountering a fire, the first action to take is to sound the fire alarm. This is crucial as it alerts everyone in the building to the presence of a fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. By sounding the fire alarm, you ensure that everyone is aware of the emergency and can take appropriate action. Evacuating personnel from the building and calling the fire department are important steps to follow, but sounding the fire alarm takes priority in order to initiate the evacuation process. Extinguishing the fire should only be attempted if it is safe to do so and does not hinder the evacuation process.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?
- A.
Evacuate personnel from the building
- B.
Extinguish the fire if possible
- C.
Call the fire department
- D.
Sound the fire alarm
Correct Answer
B. Extinguish the fire if possibleExplanation
The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to try and put out the fire before it spreads further or causes more damage. It is important to prioritize the safety of personnel and evacuate them from the building before attempting to extinguish the fire. Once the fire is extinguished or if it is not possible to do so safely, the next step would be to call the fire department for professional assistance.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?
- A.
50
- B.
40
- C.
20
- D.
10
Correct Answer
A. 50Explanation
Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. This means that if a person were to be exposed to a current of 50 milliamps, it could disrupt the normal electrical signals in the heart and potentially lead to a life-threatening condition. It is important to note that this is the threshold for cardiac arrest, and any current below this level may still cause significant harm or injury.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which ladder practice is not prohibited?
- A.
Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits
- B.
Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder
- C.
Using a ladder as a scaffold.
- D.
Using a homemade ladder
Correct Answer
A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuitsExplanation
Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material and does not conduct electricity. Therefore, there is no risk of electric shock or short circuits when using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?
- A.
Accept no unnecessary risk
- B.
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level
- C.
Apply the process irregularly and continuously.
- D.
Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels
Correct Answer
C. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.Explanation
The correct answer is "Apply the process irregularly and continuously." This action is not a part of risk management because risk management requires a systematic and consistent approach to identify, assess, and mitigate risks. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would result in an inconsistent and ineffective risk management process. Instead, risk management involves accepting no unnecessary risk, making risk decisions at the appropriate level, and integrating risk management into operations and planning at all levels for a comprehensive and proactive approach to managing risks.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The risk management process includes how many steps?
- A.
Four
- B.
Five
- C.
Six
- D.
Seven
Correct Answer
B. FiveExplanation
The risk management process typically includes five steps. These steps are: risk identification, risk assessment, risk mitigation, risk monitoring, and risk communication. Each step is crucial in effectively managing and minimizing potential risks within a project or organization. By following these five steps, organizations can identify potential risks, assess their impact and likelihood, develop strategies to mitigate them, regularly monitor and update the risk management plan, and effectively communicate the risks and mitigation strategies to relevant stakeholders.Rate this question:
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- 26.
How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
D. FourExplanation
The Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is made up of four volumes. These volumes provide a comprehensive guide for creating and managing architectures within the Department of Defense. Each volume focuses on different aspects of the framework, including the overall architecture process, the architecture data and information, the architecture views and viewpoints, and the architecture products. These four volumes work together to ensure that the DODAF specification is thorough and covers all necessary aspects of architecture development and management.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?
- A.
Office of Administration
- B.
Office of Communications
- C.
Office of Public Engagement
- D.
Office of Management and Budget
Correct Answer
D. Office of Management and BudgetExplanation
The Office of Management and Budget annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?
- A.
State level
- B.
Federal level
- C.
Congressional level
- D.
Department of Defense level
Correct Answer
B. Federal levelExplanation
The correct answer is "Federal level". This is because the development of Air Force architectures is mandated by requirements at the federal level. The federal government sets the policies and guidelines for the development of military architectures, including those of the Air Force. These requirements ensure that the Air Force architectures align with the overall national defense strategy and objectives.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?
- A.
Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record
- B.
Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.
- C.
Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record
- D.
Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record
Correct Answer
C. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance recordExplanation
The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) consists of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes all the necessary paperwork and documentation related to the installation, such as contracts, permits, and licenses. The drawing record contains detailed diagrams and plans of the installation, including layouts and schematics. The maintenance record documents all the maintenance activities performed on the system, including repairs, upgrades, and inspections. These three parts together provide a comprehensive record of the installation, its documentation, and its maintenance history.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?
- A.
Administrative record
- B.
Maintenance record
- C.
Drawing record
- D.
Outage record
Correct Answer
C. Drawing recordExplanation
The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data. This section includes detailed drawings and diagrams that illustrate the placement and configuration of the systems, as well as technical specifications and measurements. It is an essential part of the CSIR as it allows for accurate planning, installation, and maintenance of the communication and information systems.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?
- A.
Administrative record
- B.
Maintenance record.
- C.
Drawing record
- D.
Outage record
Correct Answer
B. Maintenance record.Explanation
The maintenance record is the part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) that is typically retained in the production work center. This record contains important information about the maintenance activities performed on the system, including details about repairs, replacements, and upgrades. Keeping the maintenance record in the production work center allows the technicians and operators to easily access and reference this information when needed, ensuring efficient and effective maintenance procedures.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?
- A.
Programming.
- B.
Transport.
- C.
Network.
- D.
Data.
Correct Answer
C. Network.Explanation
The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify different functions related to network communication. These layers include physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, and application layers. The network layer, specifically, is responsible for addressing, routing, and forwarding data packets across different networks. It ensures that data is delivered to the correct destination by choosing the most efficient path and handling any network congestion or errors that may occur.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.
- A.
Data Transport and Application
- B.
Session and Data Transport
- C.
Network and Presentation
- D.
Application and Session
Correct Answer
A. Data Transport and ApplicationExplanation
The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The OSI reference model consists of seven layers, which are divided into two categories. The lower three layers (Physical, Data Link, and Network) are responsible for data transport, while the upper four layers (Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application) are responsible for application-related functions. Therefore, the two categories of the seven layers are Data Transport and Application.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?
- A.
Transport.
- B.
Data Link
- C.
Physical.
- D.
Session.
Correct Answer
B. Data LinkExplanation
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. This layer is responsible for providing error-free and reliable data transfer between adjacent network nodes. It handles framing, flow control, and error detection and correction. The LLC sublayer ensures that data is properly formatted and synchronized before transmission, and it also manages access to the physical medium.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?
- A.
Communications between devices over multiple links of a network
- B.
Communications between devices over a single link of a network
- C.
Protocol access to the physical network medium
- D.
Protocol access to the links of a network
Correct Answer
B. Communications between devices over a single link of a networkExplanation
The LLC sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for providing a reliable and error-free link between two devices on the same network. It handles tasks such as flow control, error detection and correction, and data framing. By managing communications over a single link, the LLC sublayer ensures that data is transmitted accurately and efficiently between devices within the network.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?
- A.
Communications between devices over a single link of a network
- B.
Communications between devices over multiple links of a network
- C.
Protocol access to the physical network medium
- D.
Protocol access to the links of a network
Correct Answer
C. Protocol access to the physical network mediumExplanation
The media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages the protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network access and use the physical transmission medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies. The MAC sublayer is responsible for tasks like addressing, framing, and error checking to ensure efficient and reliable communication between devices on the network.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When used alone, the word “topology” often refers to a network’s
- A.
Transport topology
- B.
Physical topology.
- C.
Physical medium
- D.
Logical topology
Correct Answer
B. Physical topology.Explanation
The word "topology" can have different meanings depending on the context. In this case, when used alone, it typically refers to the physical arrangement of devices and cables in a network. This includes the layout of the network, the connections between devices, and the physical medium used for communication. It does not refer to the transport topology or logical topology, which are different aspects of a network.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
- A.
Star.
- B.
Ring.
- C.
Loop.
- D.
Linear.
Correct Answer
D. Linear.Explanation
A bus topology is a type of network configuration where all devices are connected to a common communication medium, resembling a linear structure. In this topology, data is transmitted in a single direction, from one end to the other. Therefore, the term "linear" is another name for a bus topology, as it accurately describes the physical layout of the network.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What topology offers centralized management of a network?
- A.
Bus.
- B.
Star.
- C.
Ring.
- D.
Radial.
Correct Answer
B. Star.Explanation
The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In this topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which acts as a central point for managing and controlling the network. This central hub allows for easier monitoring and administration of the network, as well as efficient troubleshooting and maintenance. Additionally, the star topology provides better scalability and flexibility, as new devices can be easily added or removed without affecting the rest of the network.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?
- A.
There are no negative effects
- B.
A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication
- C.
Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices
- D.
When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated
Correct Answer
D. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolatedExplanation
When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to facilitate communication between the different networks. If this central node point fails, it can result in large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that communication between those isolated portions and the rest of the network would be disrupted, leading to a negative effect on the overall network connectivity and functionality.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?
- A.
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
- B.
Federal Communications Commission (FCC).
- C.
Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
- D.
Department of Defense (DOD).
Correct Answer
A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).Explanation
The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body for information technology communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and is responsible for managing and operating the DOD information network. They oversee all levels of IT communication, from the DOD information network to the warfighter, ensuring that secure and reliable communication systems are in place for the DOD.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?
- A.
Regular of how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement
- B.
Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine (in the application layer).
- C.
Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers
- D.
Preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data
Correct Answer
C. Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layersExplanation
A Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket is a combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers. This allows the process to establish a connection with another process on a different machine and exchange data over the network. The port number identifies the specific process or service on the machine, while the IP address identifies the machine itself. By using this combination, the TCP socket enables communication between different processes on different machines within a network.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?
- A.
Request network services and pass arguments between layers
- B.
Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine
- C.
Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data
- D.
Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement
Correct Answer
D. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgementExplanation
The purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is to regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps to ensure that the transmission is efficient and prevents overwhelming the receiving devices with data.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?
- A.
Version Identification
- B.
Header Checksum
- C.
Time to Live
- D.
Flags.
Correct Answer
B. Header ChecksumExplanation
The header checksum in an IP datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them. The header checksum is a value calculated from the bits in the header, and it is used to verify the integrity of the header. If the checksum does not match the calculated value, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission and the datagram is discarded to prevent further processing with potentially incorrect information.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?
- A.
239.
- B.
254.
- C.
255.
- D.
256.
Correct Answer
C. 255.Explanation
In Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4), an octet is a group of 8 bits. Each bit can have a value of either 0 or 1, resulting in a total of 256 possible combinations (2^8). However, since the values range from 0 to 255, the maximum value of an octet in IPv4 is 255.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?
- A.
Class A address
- B.
Class B address
- C.
Class C address
- D.
Class D address
Correct Answer
C. Class C addressExplanation
Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. In the classful addressing system, Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which means that the network portion of the address is made up of the first three octets, while the last octet is reserved for host addresses. Since there are 8 bits available for host addresses in the last octet, we can have a maximum of 2^8 - 2 = 254 hosts per network.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which class is reserved for multicast addressing?
- A.
Class A address
- B.
Class B address
- C.
Class C address
- D.
Class D address
Correct Answer
D. Class D addressExplanation
Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing is a method of sending a message to a group of hosts on a network. In contrast to unicast (one-to-one) and broadcast (one-to-all) addressing, multicast allows for one-to-many or many-to-many communication. Class D addresses have their first four bits set to 1 1 1 0, which falls within the range of 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255. These addresses are used for multicast group identification.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?
- A.
0–1023
- B.
1024–49151
- C.
49152–65535
- D.
65536–87000
Correct Answer
A. 0–1023Explanation
The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for specific services or protocols that are commonly used and recognized. They are assigned by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) and include ports for popular services like HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22).Rate this question:
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- 49.
What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?
- A.
ROM is volatile, RAM in non-volatile
- B.
ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile
- C.
RAM has a slower access time versus ROM
- D.
ROM has a slower access time versus RAM
Correct Answer
B. ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatileExplanation
The major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM) is that ROM is non-volatile, meaning that it retains its data even when power is turned off, while RAM is volatile, meaning that it loses its data when power is turned off.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What action is the main purpose of system cache?
- A.
Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM)
- B.
Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data
- C.
Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data
- D.
Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data
Correct Answer
C. Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored dataExplanation
The main purpose of system cache is to reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache is a small and fast memory that stores frequently accessed data from the main memory (RAM). By keeping this data in the cache, the CPU can access it more quickly, which helps to improve overall system performance. This reduces the need for the CPU to fetch data from the slower main memory, resulting in faster processing times.Rate this question:
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Mar 15, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Nov 22, 2016Quiz Created by
Kahri
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