1s051 Vol 1 CDC

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 132

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1/55 Questions

The National Security Act of 1947 created the Department of Defense and the
- National Safety Council
- National Surety Council
- National Safety Committee
- National Surety Committee

About This Quiz

This quiz covers key aspects of the Air Force Safety Management System, including its pillars, safety disciplines, and risk management processes.

Quiz Preview

2.

Which four pillars does the Air Force Safety Management System use?
- Policy; Risk Management (RM); Assurance; Promotion and Education
- Policy and Leadership; RM; Assurance; Promotion and Education
- Policy and Leadership; RM; Assurance and Education
- Policy and Leadership; RM; Promotion and Education
Correct Answer

A. Policy and Leadership; RM; Assurance; Promotion and Education

Explanation

The Air Force Safety Management System uses four pillars: Policy and Leadership, Risk Management (RM), Assurance, and Promotion and Education. These pillars work together to ensure a comprehensive approach to safety within the Air Force. Policy and Leadership set the foundation and provide guidance for safety practices. Risk Management identifies and mitigates potential hazards. Assurance ensures compliance with safety regulations and standards. Promotion and Education raise awareness and provide training to promote a culture of safety within the Air Force.

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3.

What Safety Disciplines are covered by the Air Force Safety Management System?
- Aviation, occupational, weapons, systems and space safety.
- Aviation, ground, weapons, systems, and space safety.
- Aviation, occupational, weapons, and systems safety.
- Aviation, occupational, weapons, and space safety.
Correct Answer

A. Aviation, occupational, weapons, systems and space safety.

Explanation

The Air Force Safety Management System covers a range of safety disciplines including aviation safety, occupational safety, weapons safety, systems safety, and space safety. These disciplines encompass different aspects of safety within the Air Force, ensuring that safety measures are in place for aviation operations, occupational hazards, weapons handling, system malfunctions, and space-related activities. By addressing these various disciplines, the Air Force can effectively manage and mitigate risks in different areas of its operations, promoting overall safety and well-being.

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4.

Which process of risk management is helpful in choosing an appropriate course of action when an unplanned event occurs during execution of a planned operation?
- Tactical.
- Strategic.
- Real-time.
- Deliberate.
Correct Answer

A. Real-time.

Explanation

Real-time risk management is helpful in choosing an appropriate course of action when an unplanned event occurs during the execution of a planned operation. This process involves continuously monitoring and assessing the situation in real-time, allowing for quick decision-making and adaptation to unexpected circumstances. Tactical risk management focuses on short-term actions and immediate responses, while strategic risk management involves long-term planning and mitigation strategies. Deliberate risk management refers to the intentional assessment and planning for potential risks.

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5.

How many steps are in the risk management process?
- 4.
- 5.
- 8.
- 10.
Correct Answer

A. 5.

Explanation

The correct answer is 5 because the risk management process typically consists of five steps: identification, assessment, mitigation, monitoring, and review. These steps are essential for identifying and analyzing potential risks, developing strategies to minimize or eliminate them, monitoring the effectiveness of risk management measures, and reviewing the entire process to make improvements if necessary.

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6.

Which safety assurance measure’s goal is to improve the wing’s safety program by decreasing frequency and/or severity of mishaps?
- Evaluation and reporting.
- Leadership review.
- Monitoring.
- Reporting.
Correct Answer

A. Leadership review.

Explanation

The goal of a leadership review is to improve the wing's safety program by decreasing the frequency and/or severity of mishaps. This measure involves a thorough review of the leadership's involvement and commitment to safety, as well as their ability to effectively implement safety policies and procedures. By identifying any gaps or deficiencies in leadership's approach to safety, improvements can be made to enhance the overall safety program of the wing.

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7.

Which of the following is not an element of an Informed Culture?
- Just culture.
- Flexible culture.
- Focused culture.
- Reporting culture.
Correct Answer

A. Focused culture.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Focused culture" because an informed culture typically values open communication, learning from mistakes, and transparency. A focused culture, on the other hand, may prioritize productivity and efficiency over these principles, potentially hindering information sharing and collaboration.

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8.

To ensure Air Force personnel comply with directive publications, what statement is provided in the publication?
- COMPLIANCE WITH THIS ORDER IS MANDATORY.
- COMPLIANCE WITH THIS PUBLICATION IS MANDATORY.
- COMPLIANCE WITH THIS INSTRUCTION IS MANDATORY.
- COMPLIANCE WITH THIS MEMORANDUM IS MANDATORY.
Correct Answer

A. COMPLIANCE WITH THIS PUBLICATION IS MANDATORY.

Explanation

The correct answer is "COMPLIANCE WITH THIS PUBLICATION IS MANDATORY." This statement is provided in the publication to emphasize the requirement for Air Force personnel to adhere to the directives outlined in the publication. It highlights the importance of following the guidelines and instructions specified in the publication to ensure compliance with the Air Force's policies and procedures.

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9.

Which non-directive publication is informational and recommends procedures or suggests how to implement Air Force guidance?
- Handbooks.
- Directories.
- Pamphlets.
- Catalogs.
Correct Answer

A. Pamphlets.

Explanation

Pamphlets are non-directive publications that provide information and recommendations on how to implement Air Force guidance. They offer procedures and suggestions for various topics within the Air Force. Handbooks, directories, and catalogs may contain information, but they do not specifically recommend procedures or suggest how to implement guidance like pamphlets do. Therefore, pamphlets are the correct answer in this case.

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10.

Which of the following is a horizontal standard?
- Agriculture.
- Construction.
- General Industry.
- Shipyard Industry.
Correct Answer

A. General Industry.

Explanation

A horizontal standard is a standard that applies across different industries or sectors. It provides guidelines and regulations that are applicable to various fields. In this case, Agriculture, Construction, and Shipyard Industry are specific industries, while General Industry is a broader category that encompasses multiple industries. Therefore, General Industry is the correct answer as it represents a horizontal standard that applies to various sectors.

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11.

Which organization develops national consensus standards designed to eliminate death, injury, property, and economic loss due to fire, electrical, and related hazards?
- National Fire Protection Agency (NFPA).
- American National Safety Institute (ANSI).
- National Fire Protection Association (NFPA).
- American National Standards Institute (ANSI).
Correct Answer

A. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA).

Explanation

The correct answer is the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA). This organization develops national consensus standards to address fire, electrical, and related hazards. Their standards aim to prevent death, injury, property damage, and economic loss caused by these hazards. The NFPA plays a crucial role in promoting fire safety and ensuring that appropriate measures are in place to mitigate risks and protect individuals and property from fire-related incidents.

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12.

Which organization oversees the creation, promulgation and use of thousands of norms and guidelines that directly impact businesses in nearly every sector?
- American National Standards Institute (ANSI).
- National Fire Protection Association (NFPA).
- American National Safety Institute (ANSI).
- National Fire Protection Agency (NFPA).
Correct Answer

A. American National Standards Institute (ANSI).

Explanation

The American National Standards Institute (ANSI) is the correct answer because it is an organization that oversees the creation, promulgation, and use of thousands of norms and guidelines that directly impact businesses in nearly every sector. ANSI is responsible for developing and maintaining voluntary consensus standards for a wide range of industries, including manufacturing, construction, energy, and technology. These standards help ensure safety, quality, and efficiency in various business practices and processes.

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13.

Which of the following is a level of command that does not typically include a chief of safety (COS)?
- Squadron.
- Major Command.
- Direct Reporting Unit.
- Field Operating Agency.
Correct Answer

A. Squadron.

Explanation

A squadron is a level of command that typically does not include a chief of safety (COS). In military or aviation organizations, a COS is responsible for overseeing safety programs and ensuring compliance with safety regulations. However, at the squadron level, which is a smaller operational unit within a larger command structure, there may not be a dedicated COS. The responsibility for safety may be delegated to other positions within the squadron or handled by higher-level commands.

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14.

Within how many days of assignment as chief of safety must active duty members complete the Chief of Safety Course?
- 30.
- 60.
- 90.
- 120.
Correct Answer

A. 90.

Explanation

Active duty members must complete the Chief of Safety Course within 90 days of being assigned as the chief of safety. This course is essential for them to acquire the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively perform their duties and responsibilities in ensuring safety within their organization. Completing the course within this timeframe allows them to quickly apply their learnings and contribute to maintaining a safe environment.

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15.

The maximum number of days the chief of safety (COS) may extend out follow-up of hazards or deficiencies is
- 120.
- 90.
- 60.
- 30.
Correct Answer

A. 90.

Explanation

The correct answer is 90. This means that the chief of safety (COS) can extend the follow-up of hazards or deficiencies for a maximum of 90 days. This time frame allows the COS to thoroughly investigate and address any identified hazards or deficiencies, ensuring that appropriate actions are taken to mitigate risks and promote safety. Extending the follow-up period beyond 90 days may increase the likelihood of potential accidents or incidents occurring due to unresolved hazards or deficiencies.

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16.

Newly assigned Occupational Safety Managers (OSM) conduct a safety program self-assessment within 90 days of taking a position to
- Identify the status of mishap reports and organization’s trends.
- Identify the status of open recommendations and organization’s hazards.
- Determine the status of the safety program and organization’s safety culture.
- Determine the status of personnel readiness and organization’s safety culture.
Correct Answer

A. Determine the status of the safety program and organization’s safety culture.

Explanation

Newly assigned Occupational Safety Managers (OSM) conduct a safety program self-assessment within 90 days of taking a position to determine the status of the safety program and organization's safety culture. This assessment helps the OSM identify any gaps or deficiencies in the safety program and understand the overall safety culture within the organization. By assessing the safety program, the OSM can identify areas that need improvement and develop strategies to enhance the organization's safety culture. This ensures that the organization is proactive in addressing safety issues and creating a safe working environment for its employees.

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17.

Occupational Safety Managers (OSM) update the Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) Unit Type Code Reporting Tool (ART) with the current deployment status of all
- Unassigned military personnel.
- Unassigned civilian personnel.
- Assigned military personnel.
- Assigned civilian personnel.
Correct Answer

A. Assigned military personnel.

Explanation

Occupational Safety Managers (OSM) are responsible for ensuring the safety of military personnel in their assigned units. They update the Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) Unit Type Code Reporting Tool (ART) with the current deployment status of all assigned military personnel. This is important for tracking the whereabouts and availability of military personnel during deployments and ensuring that they are accounted for and properly supported. It allows the OSM to effectively manage and address any safety concerns or issues that may arise during deployments.

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18.

What are safety personnel responsible for coordinating on or updating to approve use of new hazardous materials?
- Authorized Users List.
- Hazardous Material List.
- Civil Engineer work requests.
- Installation Hazardous Materials Management Program.
Correct Answer

A. Authorized Users List.

Explanation

Safety personnel are responsible for coordinating and updating the Authorized Users List to approve the use of new hazardous materials. This list ensures that only authorized individuals have access to and knowledge of the hazardous materials, ensuring proper handling and minimizing potential risks. The Hazardous Material List may contain information about the hazardous materials themselves, but it does not specifically address the coordination and approval process. Civil Engineer work requests and the Installation Hazardous Materials Management Program may involve hazardous materials, but they do not specifically pertain to the responsibility of safety personnel in coordinating and approving their use.

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19.

What course do occupational safety personnel deliver that teaches how to identify hazards and manage risk?
- Newcomer Orientation.
- Supervisor Orientation.
- Newcomer Safety Training.
- Supervisor Safety Training.
Correct Answer

A. Supervisor Safety Training.

Explanation

Supervisor Safety Training is the correct answer because this course is specifically designed for occupational safety personnel to learn how to identify hazards and manage risk. It focuses on providing supervisors with the necessary knowledge and skills to ensure the safety of workers under their supervision. This training equips them with the ability to recognize potential hazards, implement preventive measures, and effectively manage risks in the workplace.

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20.

To limit the attractiveness to wildlife, the grass in aircraft movement areas must not be more than
- 14 inches.
- 18 inches.
- 22 inches.
- 26 inches.
Correct Answer

A. 14 inches.

Explanation

To limit the attractiveness to wildlife, it is important to keep the grass in aircraft movement areas short. A shorter grass length reduces the likelihood of wildlife being attracted to the area, as longer grass can provide cover and food sources for animals. Therefore, the grass should not be more than 14 inches in order to minimize the attractiveness to wildlife.

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21.

Which is not one of the four weapons safety program functions?
- Missile safety.
- Nuclear surety.
- Systems safety.
- Explosives safety.
Correct Answer

A. Systems safety.

Explanation

The question asks for the function that is not part of the four weapons safety program functions. The options provided are Missile safety, Nuclear surety, Systems safety, and Explosives safety. From these options, Systems safety is the correct answer because it is not one of the four weapons safety program functions.

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22.

Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for explosives site plans?
- Safety office.
- Fire department.
- Civil engineering.
- The owning organization of the sited building.
Correct Answer

A. Safety office.

Explanation

The office of primary responsibility (OPR) for explosives site plans is the Safety office. This office is responsible for ensuring the safety and security of the site and its occupants. They are specifically trained and equipped to handle and manage explosive materials and their proper storage and handling. The Safety office works closely with other departments such as the fire department and civil engineering to ensure compliance with safety regulations and to mitigate any potential risks associated with explosives. The owning organization of the site building may also have some responsibilities, but the primary responsibility lies with the Safety office.

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23.

Who approves local written procedures as the authorization for operations involving licensed explosives?
- Chief of safety (COS).
- Supervisor of the operation.
- Unit or squadron commander.
- Weapons safety manager (WSM).
Correct Answer

A. Unit or squadron commander.

Explanation

The unit or squadron commander is responsible for approving local written procedures as the authorization for operations involving licensed explosives. They have the authority and knowledge to ensure that all necessary safety measures and protocols are in place before authorizing any operations involving explosives. The chief of safety, supervisor of the operation, and weapons safety manager may have input and provide guidance, but the final approval lies with the unit or squadron commander.

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24.

Who does the weapons safety manager (WSM) assist in determining the explosives clear zones required on appropriate base maps?
- Supervisors.
- Commanders.
- Base fire chief.
- Civil engineer.
Correct Answer

A. Civil engineer.

Explanation

The weapons safety manager (WSM) assists the civil engineer in determining the explosives clear zones required on appropriate base maps. The civil engineer is responsible for planning and designing the infrastructure of the base, including the location and layout of explosive storage areas. The WSM works closely with the civil engineer to ensure that the clear zones around these areas are properly identified and maintained for safety purposes.

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25.

Which action is a written authorization that allows a specific departure from a mandatory requirement for other than quantity-distance (QD) criteria?
- Waiver.
- Immunity.
- Deviation.
- Exemption.
Correct Answer

A. Deviation.

Explanation

A deviation is a written authorization that allows a specific departure from a mandatory requirement for other than quantity-distance (QD) criteria. It grants permission to deviate from the standard or required procedure in certain circumstances. This could be due to unique circumstances or special considerations that justify the departure from the normal requirement. A deviation provides flexibility while still maintaining safety and compliance with regulations.

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26.

The timeframe for air Reserve Component (ARC) primary and alternate unit safety representatives (USR) to complete initial training is within how many unit training assemblies of appointment?
- 1.
- 2.
- 3.
- 4.
Correct Answer

A. 2.

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 because it states that the timeframe for ARC primary and alternate USRs to complete initial training is within 2 unit training assemblies of appointment. This means that once appointed as a USR, they are expected to complete their initial training within two unit training assemblies.

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27.

The job safety training outline (JSTO) consists of how many mandatory items?
- 12.
- 14.
- 16.
- 18.
Correct Answer

A. 14.

Explanation

The correct answer is 14. The job safety training outline (JSTO) consists of 14 mandatory items. These items are essential for ensuring the safety of employees and providing them with the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their jobs safely. The JSTO covers various topics such as hazard identification, emergency procedures, personal protective equipment, and safe work practices. By including these mandatory items in the training outline, employers can effectively educate their workforce on important safety measures and reduce the risk of accidents and injuries in the workplace.

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28.

Who must be notified when a civilian is involved in a mishap?
- Civilian Personnel Office.
- Military Personnel Office.
- Military Manpower Office.
- Civilian Manpower Office.
Correct Answer

A. Civilian Personnel Office.

Explanation

When a civilian is involved in a mishap, the appropriate office to notify would be the Civilian Personnel Office. This office is responsible for managing and overseeing the personnel matters related to civilian employees. They would need to be informed about the mishap in order to initiate any necessary actions such as providing support to the affected civilian, conducting an investigation, or implementing any required changes or improvements to prevent similar incidents in the future.

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29.

Which is a risk management tool for supervisors and personnel to use when planning travel?
- Travel Risk Planning Safety (TRiPS).
- Travel Risk Planning System (TRiPS).
- Travel Right Planning System (TRiPS).
- Travel Road Planning System (TRiPS).
Correct Answer

A. Travel Risk Planning System (TRiPS).

Explanation

The correct answer is Travel Risk Planning System (TRiPS). This tool is specifically designed for supervisors and personnel to use when planning travel. It helps in identifying and assessing potential risks associated with the travel, such as health and safety hazards, security concerns, and transportation issues. By using TRiPS, supervisors and personnel can effectively plan and mitigate these risks, ensuring a safer and more secure travel experience.

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30.

Who approves all safety manpower requests or changes before they are submitted to the local management engineering team?
- Chief of Safety.
- Safety Manager.
- MAJCOM Safety.
- Wing Commander.
Correct Answer

A. MAJCOM Safety.

Explanation

The correct answer is MAJCOM Safety. MAJCOM stands for Major Command, which is a level of command within the United States Air Force. The MAJCOM Safety office is responsible for overseeing safety policies and procedures within the command. They review and approve all safety manpower requests or changes before they are submitted to the local management engineering team, ensuring that safety measures are properly implemented and followed. The Chief of Safety, Safety Manager, and Wing Commander may have roles related to safety, but the ultimate approval authority lies with the MAJCOM Safety office.

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31.

Which section of the Air Force Manpower Standard 106A describes a wing safety office’s duties during normal peacetime operations?
- Responsibilities.
- Core composition.
- Mission statement.
- Process oriented description.
Correct Answer

A. Process oriented description.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Process oriented description." In the Air Force Manpower Standard 106A, the section that describes a wing safety office's duties during normal peacetime operations would be the process oriented description. This section would outline the specific processes and procedures that the safety office is responsible for implementing and overseeing in order to ensure the safety and well-being of personnel and operations within the wing.

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32.

Which of the following is not an authorized civilian safety specialty code?
- GS–0018, Occupational Safety and Health Manager.
- GS–0018, Occupational Safety Apprentice.
- GS- 0017, Weapons Safety Specialist.
- GS–0019, Safety Technician.
Correct Answer

A. GS–0018, Occupational Safety Apprentice.

Explanation

The correct answer is GS–0018, Occupational Safety Apprentice. This is not an authorized civilian safety specialty code because an apprentice is a beginner or trainee in a particular field, and they would not typically have the authority or expertise to be considered a specialized safety professional. The other options, such as Occupational Safety and Health Manager, Weapons Safety Specialist, and Safety Technician, are all legitimate civilian safety specialty codes.

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33.

A financial blueprint for a specific period of time is called a
- Budget.
- Financial plan.
- Budget statement.
- Financial statement of work.
Correct Answer

A. Financial plan.

Explanation

A financial plan refers to a comprehensive strategy that outlines an individual or organization's financial goals and objectives for a specific period of time. It includes a detailed analysis of income, expenses, savings, investments, and debt management. A financial plan helps in creating a roadmap to achieve financial stability and meet long-term financial objectives. It provides a framework for making informed financial decisions and ensures that resources are allocated effectively and efficiently. Therefore, a financial plan is the most appropriate term to describe a financial blueprint for a specific period of time.

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34.

Which step in the budget process consists of validating training that is required to meet mission demands?
- Conducting training needs assessment.
- Conducting training adjustments.
- Conducting training evaluations.
- Conducting training planning.
Correct Answer

A. Conducting training needs assessment.

Explanation

Conducting training needs assessment is the step in the budget process that consists of validating training required to meet mission demands. This involves evaluating the training needs of the organization and determining which training programs are necessary to ensure that employees have the skills and knowledge to fulfill their roles effectively. By conducting a needs assessment, the organization can identify any gaps in training and allocate resources accordingly to address those needs. This step helps ensure that the budget is allocated appropriately for training purposes and aligns with the organization's mission and goals.

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35.

Which form documents the support a supplier provides a receiver, and the reimbursement the receiver pays for that support?
- DD Form 1104, Support Agreement.
- DD Form 1124, Support Agreement.
- DD Form 1144, Support Agreement.
- DD Form 1164, Support Agreement.
Correct Answer

A. DD Form 1144, Support Agreement.

Explanation

DD Form 1144 is the correct answer because it is the form that documents the support a supplier provides a receiver and the reimbursement the receiver pays for that support. The form serves as an agreement between the supplier and the receiver, outlining the details of the support being provided and the associated costs.

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36.

Ultimately, the support agreement is a negotiated contract based on the
- Receiver’s mission.
- Supplier’s mission.
- Receiver’s needs and the supplier’s ability to meet those needs.
- Prevailing importance of the respective combat missions at the time of review.
Correct Answer

A. Receiver’s needs and the supplier’s ability to meet those needs.

Explanation

The correct answer is "receiver's needs and the supplier's ability to meet those needs." This is because the support agreement is a negotiated contract that takes into consideration the specific needs of the receiver and whether the supplier is capable of meeting those needs. The agreement is not based on the missions of either party or the importance of combat missions at the time of review.

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37.

A supplier may not end or reduce support without giving the receiver written notice within
- 60 calendar days.
- 90 calendar days.
- 120 calendar days.
- 180 calendar days.
Correct Answer

A. 180 calendar days.

Explanation

A supplier may not end or reduce support without giving the receiver written notice within 180 calendar days. This means that the supplier must provide written notification to the receiver at least 180 days in advance before ending or reducing support. This allows the receiver to make necessary arrangements or find alternative solutions within the given time frame.

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38.

Which safety discipline is responsible for developing the mishap response plan?
- Flight Safety.
- Weapons Safety.
- Occupational Safety.
- All safety disciplines.
Correct Answer

A. All safety disciplines.

Explanation

All safety disciplines are responsible for developing the mishap response plan. This is because a mishap can occur in any area or aspect of an organization, whether it is related to flight safety, weapons safety, or occupational safety. Therefore, all safety disciplines need to contribute to the development of a comprehensive and effective mishap response plan to ensure that any mishap is handled appropriately and efficiently.

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39.

Which of the following is not an installation level council?
- Occupational and Environmental Health Working Group (OEHWG).
- Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health Council (ESOHC).
- Occupational Safety Corporate Committee (OSCC).
- Traffic Safety Coordination Group (TSCG).
Correct Answer

A. Occupational Safety Corporate Committee (OSCC).

Explanation

The question asks for the option that is not an installation level council. The first three options, Occupational and Environmental Health Working Group (OEHWG), Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health Council (ESOHC), and Traffic Safety Coordination Group (TSCG), all refer to different councils related to occupational and environmental health and safety. However, the option Occupational Safety Corporate Committee (OSCC) does not fit this pattern and is therefore not an installation level council.

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40.

Who chairs the Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health Council (ESOHC)?
- Chief of Safety.
- Vice commander.
- Occupational Safety Manager.
- Wing commander or commander’s designee.
Correct Answer

A. Wing commander or commander’s designee.

Explanation

The wing commander or commander's designee chairs the Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health Council (ESOHC). This individual is responsible for overseeing and coordinating efforts related to environmental protection, safety, and occupational health within the organization. They play a crucial role in ensuring that policies and procedures are in place to promote a safe and healthy work environment for all personnel.

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41.

Which organization is chartered by the Secretary of Labor and authorized under federal regulation?
- National Safety Council (NSC).
- Field Federal Safety and Health Council (FFSHC).
- Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health Council (ESOHC).
- Occupational and Environmental Health Working Group (OEHWG).
Correct Answer

A. Field Federal Safety and Health Council (FFSHC).

Explanation

The organization that is chartered by the Secretary of Labor and authorized under federal regulation is the Field Federal Safety and Health Council (FFSHC). This organization is responsible for promoting and ensuring workplace safety and health in various federal agencies. They work to develop and implement safety and health policies, programs, and initiatives to protect federal employees.

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42.

Who regulates the movement of traffic and personnel on an Air Force installation?
- Installation commander.
- Chief of security forces.
- Installation safety officer.
- Installation traffic engineer.
Correct Answer

A. Installation commander.

Explanation

The installation commander is responsible for regulating the movement of traffic and personnel on an Air Force installation. As the highest-ranking officer in charge of the installation, the commander has the authority to establish and enforce traffic regulations, ensure the safety and security of personnel, and maintain order and discipline on the base. They work closely with other personnel such as the chief of security forces, installation safety officer, and installation traffic engineer to develop and implement policies and procedures that govern the movement of traffic and personnel on the installation.

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43.

What document describes the safest and most efficient way to use primary and secondary roads on an installation?
- Traffic engineering study.
- Base traffic circulation plan.
- USAF Traffic Safety Program guidebook.
- Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices.
Correct Answer

A. Base traffic circulation plan.

Explanation

The base traffic circulation plan is the document that describes the safest and most efficient way to use primary and secondary roads on an installation. This plan outlines the specific routes and regulations for traffic flow within the base, taking into consideration factors such as safety, efficiency, and the specific needs of the installation. It provides guidance on how to navigate the roads in a way that minimizes the risk of accidents and maximizes the overall efficiency of traffic movement. The other options mentioned, such as a traffic engineering study, the USAF Traffic Safety Program guidebook, and the Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices, may provide valuable information on traffic safety and regulations, but they do not specifically address the question of the safest and most efficient use of primary and secondary roads on an installation.

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44.

A traffic engineering study would be useful when.
- The commander wants to know what percentage of Airmen are wearing seat belts.
- A hazard report identifies an intersection with a high number of accidents.
- A special event will increase the volume of traffic on base.
- A large number of students fail traffic safety courses.
Correct Answer

A. A hazard report identifies an intersection with a high number of accidents.

Explanation

A traffic engineering study would be useful when a hazard report identifies an intersection with a high number of accidents. This study would help analyze the traffic patterns, road conditions, and other factors contributing to the accidents at that intersection. By conducting this study, traffic engineers can identify potential solutions such as implementing traffic signals, adding signage, or making changes to the road layout to improve safety and reduce the number of accidents at that particular intersection.

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45.

Who may authorize the routine use of government vehicle others (GVO) in traffic, industrial, or pedestrian environments?
- Wing Safety.
- Unit Commander.
- Vehicle Operations.
- Installation Commander.
Correct Answer

A. Installation Commander.

Explanation

The Installation Commander is the highest-ranking authority within a military installation and has the power to authorize the routine use of government vehicles in various environments. This includes traffic, industrial, or pedestrian areas. The Installation Commander is responsible for ensuring the safety and proper use of government vehicles within their jurisdiction.

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46.

To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, who establishes and enforces duty-hour limits for operators of government-owned motor vehicles?
- Wing Safety.
- Security Forces.
- Unit Commander.
- Installation Commander.
Correct Answer

A. Unit Commander.

Explanation

The Unit Commander is responsible for establishing and enforcing duty-hour limits for operators of government-owned motor vehicles in order to reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue. They have the authority to set guidelines and regulations to ensure the safety of operators and prevent accidents due to fatigue-related issues. The Unit Commander plays a crucial role in maintaining the safety and well-being of the operators and the overall efficiency of government-owned motor vehicle operations.

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47.

Which of the following is not an exception allowing motor vehicles operators to use hand-held electronic devices?
- When the vehicle is pulled on the roadway.
- When using a single ear bud or hands-free device.
- When using a Land Mobile Radio as a listening device.
- When receiving or placing calls in the performance of mission-critical duties.
Correct Answer

A. When the vehicle is pulled on the roadway.

Explanation

The correct answer is "When the vehicle is pulled on the roadway." This option states that using hand-held electronic devices is not allowed when the vehicle is pulled on the roadway. This means that even when the vehicle is stationary or parked on the side of the road, operators are still not allowed to use hand-held electronic devices. The other options provide exceptions for using hand-held electronic devices, such as when using a single ear bud or hands-free device, when using a Land Mobile Radio as a listening device, or when receiving or placing calls in the performance of mission-critical duties.

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48.

Who evaluates and determines the need for a cellular phone free school zone?
- Wing Safety.
- School District.
- Security Forces.
- Traffic Safety Coordination Group.
Correct Answer

A. Traffic Safety Coordination Group.

Explanation

The Traffic Safety Coordination Group is responsible for evaluating and determining the need for a cellular phone free school zone. They are in charge of coordinating traffic safety measures and making decisions regarding the implementation of policies and regulations related to traffic safety in school zones.

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49.

Bicycles will be equipped with
- Front-facing, side and a rear-facing reflector.
- Front-facing, pedal and a rear-facing reflector.
- Front-facing, pedal, side, and a rear-facing reflector.
- Front-facing, handle-bar, side and a rear-facing reflector.
Correct Answer

A. Front-facing, pedal, side, and a rear-facing reflector.

Explanation

Bicycles are required to have reflectors to increase visibility and safety. The front-facing reflector helps to make the bicycle visible from the front, while the rear-facing reflector does the same from the back. The side reflector helps to increase visibility from the sides. Additionally, the pedal reflector is important as it moves with the pedals, making it easier for other road users to see the bicycle. Therefore, the correct answer is front-facing, pedal, side, and a rear-facing reflector.

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Quiz Edited by
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Nov 28, 2018

Quiz Created by
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1s051 Vol 1 CDC

The National Security Act of 1947 created the Department of Defense and the

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Bicycles will be equipped with