Z3dx5x Vol 1 & 2 Ure's

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  • 1/177 Questions

    The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of 

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Safety Management Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz, titled 'Z3DX5X Vol 1 & 2 URE's', evaluates knowledge on the Air Force's Mishap Prevention Program, including safety regulations and procedures. It focuses on protecting resources, understanding OSHA's role, and reporting protocols, essential for maintaining safety and compliance in military operations.

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  • 2. 

    Whose responsibility to advice commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

    • Air Staff

    • Civil Engineering

    • Squadron Commander

    • Installation safety office

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation safety office
    Explanation
    The Installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They play a crucial role in ensuring that safety protocols and procedures are followed to maintain a safe working environment.

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  • 3. 

    Which action is a physiological factor?

    • Performing a task while fatigued.

    • Performing a task while intoxicated.

    • Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.

    • Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.
    Explanation
    Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders is a physiological factor because it involves the decision-making process and cognitive functioning of an individual. It can be influenced by factors such as stress, fatigue, or intoxication, which can affect a person's ability to follow instructions and make rational decisions.

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  • 4. 

    What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.

    • Isolating operations

    • Providing administrative controls

    • Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)

    • Substitution a less hazardous material or process.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)
    Explanation
    The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. PPE is a last resort and should only be used when other control measures, such as eliminating or substituting the hazard, are not feasible. PPE is not as effective as other methods because it relies on the individual to properly use and maintain the equipment, and there is always a risk of failure or misuse. It is important to prioritize other control measures over PPE to ensure the highest level of protection.

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  • 5. 

    Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?

    • A

    • C

    • E

    • G

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors. Helmet classes A and G provide protection against low-voltage electrical conductors, while helmet class E provides protection against high-voltage electrical conductors. Therefore, helmet class C is the correct answer as it does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors.

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  • 6. 

    What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

    • Falls

    • Poor lighting

    • Horseplay

    • Poor ergonomics

    Correct Answer
    A. Falls
    Explanation
    Falls are the greatest hazard in the typical office because they can result in serious injuries. People can trip over loose wires, uneven flooring, or cluttered areas, leading to falls. Additionally, falls from chairs or ladders are also common in offices. These accidents can cause fractures, sprains, or even head injuries. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain a clean and organized workspace to minimize the risk of falls in an office environment.

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  • 7. 

    According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

    • 1 to 2

    • 2 to 2.5

    • 2 to 4.5

    • 2.5 to 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 to 2.5
    Explanation
    Office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers, according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). This suggests that the risk of fall-related injuries is significantly higher for office workers, highlighting the importance of implementing safety measures and precautions in office environments to prevent such incidents.

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  • 8. 

    Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

    • Class A

    • Class B

    • Class C

    • Class D

    Correct Answer
    A. Class C
    Explanation
    When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they undergo a chemical reaction that changes their classification to Class C. This change is due to the increased heat and energy produced by the electric current, which alters the properties and behavior of the fuel. Class C fuels are typically flammable liquids, such as gasoline, that can ignite easily and sustain a fire.

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  • 9. 

    What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

    • Evacuate personnel from the building

    • Extinguish the fire if possible

    • Call the fire department

    • Sound the alarm

    Correct Answer
    A. Sound the alarm
    Explanation
    When encountering a fire, the first action to take is to sound the alarm. This is crucial because it alerts everyone in the building about the fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. By sounding the alarm, you are ensuring that everyone is aware of the emergency situation and can take appropriate action. Once the alarm is sounded, personnel can then proceed to evacuate the building, call the fire department, and attempt to extinguish the fire if it is safe to do so. However, sounding the alarm is the priority to ensure the safety of all individuals present.

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  • 10. 

    What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?

    • Evacuate personnel from the building

    • Extinguish the fire if possible

    • Call the fire department

    • Sound the fire alarm

    Correct Answer
    A. Extinguish the fire if possible
    Explanation
    The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to suppress and eliminate the fire. It is important to try to extinguish the fire as soon as possible to prevent it from spreading further and causing more damage. However, it is crucial to prioritize safety and evacuate personnel from the building before attempting to extinguish the fire.

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  • 11. 

    Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

    • Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • Apply the process irregularly and continuously.

    • Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    A. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.
    Explanation
    The action "Apply the process irregularly and continuously" is not a part of risk management (RM) because risk management should be a consistent and systematic process. It involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks on a regular basis, rather than applying the process irregularly or sporadically. By integrating RM into operations and planning at all levels, making risk decisions at the appropriate level, and accepting no unnecessary risk, organizations can effectively manage and mitigate potential risks.

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  • 12. 

    Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

    • Office of Administration

    • Office of Communications

    • Office of Public Engagement

    • Office of Management and Budget

    Correct Answer
    A. Office of Management and Budget
    Explanation
    The Office of Management and Budget annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management.

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  • 13. 

    What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?

    • State Level

    • Federal Level

    • Congressional Level

    • Department of Defense Level

    Correct Answer
    A. Federal Level
    Explanation
    Air Force architectures are mandated to be developed at the Federal Level. This means that the development of these architectures is required by the federal government, specifically at the national level. The federal government has the authority to set policies and regulations for the Air Force, and the development of architectures is one of the requirements to ensure effective planning and coordination at a national level. This ensures that the Air Force operates in alignment with federal goals and objectives, and facilitates communication and collaboration with other federal agencies.

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  • 14. 

    What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

    • Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record.

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record.

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.
    Explanation
    The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) consists of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes all the necessary paperwork and documentation related to the installation process. The drawing record contains the diagrams and blueprints of the installed systems. The maintenance record keeps track of all the maintenance activities and repairs performed on the systems.

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  • 15. 

    What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

    • Star

    • Ring

    • Loop

    • Linear

    Correct Answer
    A. Linear
    Explanation
    A bus topology is a network configuration where all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear structure. Therefore, the term "Linear" is another name for a bus topology.

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  • 16. 

    What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

    • There are no negative effects.

    • A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication.

    • Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices.

    • When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.

    Correct Answer
    A. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.
    Explanation
    When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to manage and distribute communication. If this central node point fails, it can lead to large portions of the network becoming isolated, resulting in a negative effect. This means that communication between different parts of the network will be disrupted, causing a loss of connectivity and potentially impacting the overall functioning of the interconnected star networks.

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  • 17. 

    When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's

    • Transport topology

    • Physical topology

    • Physical medium

    • Logical topology

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical topology
    Explanation
    The word "topology" refers to the arrangement and interconnections of the nodes in a network. When used alone, it commonly refers to the physical topology, which describes the physical layout of the network, including the physical connections between nodes and the way they are arranged. This is different from the transport topology, which refers to the logical paths that data takes through the network, the physical medium, which refers to the actual cables or wireless signals used for communication, and the logical topology, which refers to the way nodes appear to be connected to each other, regardless of the physical layout.

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  • 18. 

    What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

    • Version Identification

    • Header Checksum

    • Time to Live

    • Flags

    Correct Answer
    A. Header Checksum
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Header Checksum. The Header Checksum is a field in the IP Datagram that allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers. It is used to verify the integrity of the header by performing a mathematical calculation on the header contents and comparing it to the value stored in the Header Checksum field. If the calculated value does not match the stored value, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission and the datagram is discarded.

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  • 19. 

    What class is reserved for multicast addressing?

    • Class A address

    • Class B address

    • Class C address

    • Class D address

    Correct Answer
    A. Class D address
    Explanation
    Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing is a method of sending data packets to a group of devices simultaneously. In contrast to unicast addressing (one-to-one communication) and broadcast addressing (one-to-all communication), multicast addressing allows efficient distribution of data to a specific group of devices that have expressed interest in receiving the data. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are specifically designated for multicast communication.

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  • 20. 

    What range of numbers are those of well known port numbers?

    • 0-1023

    • 1024-49151

    • 49152-65535

    • 655356-87000

    Correct Answer
    A. 0-1023
    Explanation
    The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are assigned to commonly used services and protocols, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). They are considered well-known because they are standardized and widely recognized.

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  • 21. 

    What action is the main purpose of system cache?

    • Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM)

    • Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data.

    • Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data

    • Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data
    Explanation
    The main purpose of system cache is to reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache stores frequently accessed data from the main memory, allowing the CPU to quickly retrieve it without having to access the slower main memory. By reducing the CPU's access time to stored data, system cache helps improve overall system performance and efficiency.

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  • 22. 

    What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?

    • Two GB/S

    • Four GB/S

    • Five GB/S

    • 10 GB/S

    Correct Answer
    A. Five GB/S
    Explanation
    The maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode is Five GB/S. This means that data can be transferred at a speed of five gigabytes per second.

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  • 23. 

    What is a peripheral device?

    • A main internal component of a computer.

    • Not a main internal component of a computer.

    • A main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.

    • Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.

    Correct Answer
    A. Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.
    Explanation
    A peripheral device refers to any device that is not a main internal component of a computer and can be either internal or external. This means that peripheral devices are additional components that can be connected to a computer to enhance its functionality or provide additional features. Examples of peripheral devices include printers, scanners, keyboards, mice, and external hard drives. These devices are not essential for a computer to function, but they can greatly enhance the user's experience and provide additional capabilities.

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  • 24. 

    Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?

    • Printer

    • Scanner

    • Monitor

    • Camera Lens

    Correct Answer
    A. Scanner
    Explanation
    A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image. It uses a combination of sensors and light to capture the information from the source and then converts it into a digital format that can be stored, manipulated, and displayed on a computer or other digital devices. This makes it easier to share, edit, and reproduce the scanned content. Unlike a printer, monitor, or camera lens, a scanner is specifically designed for the purpose of converting physical images or text into digital form.

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  • 25. 

    Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or sever within a small geographic area?

    • Local Area Network (LAN)

    • Wide Area Network (WAN)

    • Virtual Private Network (VPN)

    • Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Local Area Network (LAN)
    Explanation
    A Local Area Network (LAN) is a network of computers and devices that are connected to each other within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or building. They share a common communications line and often share the resources of a single processor or server. LANs are typically used for connecting devices and sharing resources within a limited area, providing fast and reliable communication between devices.

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  • 26. 

    Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

    • Local Area Network (LAN)

    • Wide Area Network (WAN)

    • Virtual Private Network (VPN)

    • Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Wide Area Network (WAN)
    Explanation
    A Wide Area Network (WAN) is a network that connects multiple local area networks (LANs) and Metropolitan area networks (MANs) over long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. It allows for the interconnection of geographically dispersed networks and enables data and resource sharing between different locations. Unlike LANs and MANs, which are limited to a specific area, WANs cover a larger geographical area and provide connectivity between different cities or even countries. Therefore, WAN is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 27. 

    Which networks uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?

    • Local Area Network (LAN)

    • Wide Area Network (WAN)

    • Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

    • Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)
    Explanation
    Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs) use Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol that allows devices to sense the carrier (the medium being used for transmission) before transmitting data. If the carrier is busy, the device waits for a random amount of time before attempting to transmit again. This helps to avoid collisions between multiple devices trying to transmit data simultaneously, ensuring efficient and reliable data transmission in WLANs.

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  • 28. 

    Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?

    • Local area network (LAN)

    • Wide area network (WAN)

    • Virtual private network (VPN)

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Virtual private network (VPN)
    Explanation
    A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. It allows users to securely connect to a private network over a public network, such as the Internet. This ensures that the data transmitted between the user's device and the private network is encrypted and protected from unauthorized access. VPNs are commonly used by businesses and individuals to establish secure connections and access resources remotely.

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  • 29. 

    Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling.

    • Media converter

    • Modem

    • Switch

    • Router

    Correct Answer
    A. Media converter
    Explanation
    A media converter is a device that acts as a transceiver, converting electrical signals used in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling into light waves used for fiber optic cabling. This allows for the seamless integration of different types of network infrastructure, making it possible to connect copper-based devices to fiber optic networks. A media converter is essential in scenarios where there is a need to extend the reach of copper networks or when transitioning from copper to fiber optic networks.

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  • 30. 

    What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems to connect together?

    • Open shortest path first (OSPF).

    • Exterior gateway protocol (EGP).

    • Interior gateway protocol (IGP).

    • Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Exterior gateway protocol (EGP).
    Explanation
    Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) is a network routing protocol that allows multiple autonomous systems to connect together. EGP is specifically designed to exchange routing information between different autonomous systems, facilitating communication and connectivity between them. Unlike Interior Gateway Protocols (IGPs) such as OSPF and EIGRP, which are used within a single autonomous system, EGP operates at the exterior or inter-domain level, enabling routing across multiple autonomous systems. Therefore, EGP is the correct answer to the question.

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  • 31. 

    What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a host network?

    • Switch

    • Modem

    • Gateway

    • Converter

    Correct Answer
    A. Gateway
    Explanation
    A gateway is a network device that provides connectivity between two different networks. It acts as an entry or exit point for data packets to travel between the remote network and the host network. It translates protocols, manages data flow, and ensures that data is properly routed between the networks. Therefore, a gateway is the correct answer as it enables remote networks to establish connectivity with a host network.

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  • 32. 

    What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?

    • Cost to install and train technicians.

    • Electromagnetic Immunity

    • Low attenuation

    • Security

    Correct Answer
    A. Cost to install and train technicians.
    Explanation
    The characteristic of "Cost to install and train technicians" is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cable is known for its advantages such as low attenuation, high data transfer rates, and immunity to electromagnetic interference. However, the installation and training of technicians for fiber optic cable can be expensive compared to other types of cables.

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  • 33. 

    What Microsoft application is a personal information manger?

    • Word

    • Access

    • Outlook

    • PowerPoint

    Correct Answer
    A. Outlook
    Explanation
    Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is widely used for managing email, contacts, calendars, and tasks. With its user-friendly interface and various features, Outlook allows users to efficiently organize and prioritize their personal and professional information. It also integrates well with other Microsoft applications, making it a popular choice among individuals and businesses for managing their personal information effectively.

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  • 34. 

    Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?

    • Attacker's capability to exploit the flaw

    • System's susceptibility to a flaw

    • Attacker's access to the flaw

    • Attacker's lack of ability

    Correct Answer
    A. Attacker's lack of ability
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Attacker's lack of ability," is the correct answer because it refers to the attacker's inability to exploit a flaw in a computer system. The other options, such as the attacker's capability to exploit the flaw, the system's susceptibility to a flaw, and the attacker's access to the flaw, all pertain to vulnerabilities that can exist in a computer system. However, the attacker's lack of ability does not represent a vulnerability in the system itself.

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  • 35. 

    Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

    • Malware

    • Spyware

    • Adware

    • Trojans

    Correct Answer
    A. Spyware
    Explanation
    Spyware is computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It is a type of malicious software that can be installed on a user's computer without their knowledge or permission. Once installed, spyware can track a user's online activities, collect sensitive information such as passwords and credit card details, and send this data to unauthorized third parties. Spyware can pose a significant threat to privacy and security, as it can be used for identity theft, fraud, and other malicious purposes.

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  • 36. 

    Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?

    • When it is placed in service.

    • When it is removed from service.

    • When the storage container has been cleaned.

    • When compromise of the combination is suspected.

    Correct Answer
    A. When the storage container has been cleaned.
    Explanation
    Changing the combination on a container storing classified materials is necessary when there is a suspected compromise of the combination, when the container is placed in service, or when it is removed from service. However, cleaning the storage container is not a valid reason to change the combination as it does not pose a risk to the security of the classified materials.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following services provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas?

    • Transport

    • Application

    • Aerial layer

    • Satellite Communication (SATCOM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Aerial layer
    Explanation
    The aerial layer service provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas. This means that it utilizes both human-operated and unmanned systems to ensure that there is constant communication coverage over a wide area. This can be particularly useful in situations where traditional communication methods may not be sufficient or reliable.

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  • 38. 

    Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?

    • Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET)

    • Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET)

    • Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data

    • Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user.

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  • 39. 

    What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force Personnel?

    • Air Force Portal

    • IMDS

    • Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS)

    • Electronic-publications (E-Pub)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Portal
    Explanation
    The Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides the Air Force Portal as a major program that serves as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force Personnel. The Air Force Portal is a web-based platform that offers a wide range of resources, tools, and applications to support the Air Force community. It allows personnel to access various services, such as email, training materials, career development resources, and other important information necessary for their duties and responsibilities. The Air Force Portal is designed to streamline communication and enhance efficiency within the Air Force.

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  • 40. 

    What system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war?

    • Mystic Star

    • Global HF System

    • Defense Communication System (DCS) entry

    • System of Inter-American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Global HF System
    Explanation
    The Global HF System is the correct answer because it provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between various entities of the United States government, including the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships. This system is designed to function during peacetime, contingency situations, and war, making it an essential tool for communication in various scenarios. The other options, Mystic Star, Defense Communication System (DCS) entry, and System of Inter-American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA), do not have the same level of relevance or capability in providing the required communication support.

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  • 41. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sigh, wide band and ground based satellite devices.

    • Spectrum Operations

    • Ground Radar Systems

    • Cable and Antenna Systems

    • Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    A. Radio Frequency Transmission
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This specialty involves the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. This means that individuals in this role are responsible for ensuring that these devices are functioning properly and are able to transmit and receive signals effectively. They may also be involved in setting up and maintaining communication networks using RF technology.

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  • 42. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

    • Spectrum Operations

    • Ground Radar Systems

    • Cable and Antenna Systems

    • Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    A. Cable and Antenna Systems
    Explanation
    Cable and Antenna Systems are responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations. This means they are in charge of setting up and maintaining the cables and antennas that are essential for the functioning of the network infrastructure. They ensure that the wiring is properly installed and maintained to support communication and connectivity for both fixed operations and operations in the field.

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  • 43. 

    Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

    • Technical Evaluation

    • Personnel Evaluation

    • Managerial Evaluation

    • Standard Evaluation

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard Evaluation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Standard Evaluation because it is not typically considered as an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program. Technical Evaluation assesses the technical aspects of a product or process, Personnel Evaluation assesses the performance of individuals, and Managerial Evaluation assesses the effectiveness of management practices. However, Standard Evaluation refers to the process of evaluating adherence to established standards or guidelines, which is not typically considered as a separate assessment type in QA programs.

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  • 44. 

    What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

    • Management Inspection (MI)

    • Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)

    • Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI)

    • Commander's Inspection Program (CCIP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)
    Explanation
    The Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness. This means that the UEI assesses not only the unit's compliance with regulations and readiness for mission, but also evaluates the overall effectiveness of the unit in achieving its objectives and goals. The UEI provides a comprehensive evaluation of the unit's performance and effectiveness in meeting its mission requirements.

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  • 45. 

    What automated information system manages the entire life cycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

    • Remedy

    • Training Business Area

    • Telephone Management System

    • Integrated Maintenance Data System

    Correct Answer
    A. Remedy
    Explanation
    Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire life cycle of IT assets from procurement through retirement. It is specifically designed to track and manage IT assets, including hardware, software, and licenses, ensuring efficient management and control. Remedy helps organizations streamline their IT asset management processes, track inventory, monitor software licenses, and facilitate the retirement or disposal of assets when they reach the end of their useful life.

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  • 46. 

    What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

    • Title 10

    • Title 18

    • Title 32

    • Title 50

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title outlines the organization, responsibilities, and authorities of the DOD and its branches, providing the legal framework for the military's operations and structure.

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  • 47. 

    The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

    • Title 3

    • Title 8

    • Title 10

    • Title 18

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Title 10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 is the main body of law that governs the armed forces of the United States, including the military justice system. It outlines the legal framework and procedures for military personnel, including regulations for discipline, court-martial proceedings, and the rights and responsibilities of service members. The UCMJ is an essential component of military law and is enforced to maintain discipline and order within the military.

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  • 48. 

    When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

    • Title 10

    • Title 32

    • Title 50

    • Title 52

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, but in order to execute those missions, they must be in Title 10 status.

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  • 49. 

    An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

    • Misuse of position

    • Covered relationships

    • Non-public information

    • Personal conflict of interest

    Correct Answer
    A. Covered relationships
    Explanation
    A covered relationship refers to an employee or employer relationship where there is a potential for impartiality or favoritism. This situation is considered unethical because it compromises the fairness and objectivity that should be present in professional settings. It implies that personal relationships or connections are influencing decisions or actions, which can lead to unfair advantages or disadvantages for certain individuals. Therefore, covered relationships can create a conflict of interest and undermine the integrity of the work environment.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 08, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Kwilson27

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