Z3dx5x Vol 1 & 2 Ure's

A peripheral device refers to any device that is not a main internal component of a computer and can be either internal or external. This means that peripheral devices are additional components that can be connected to a computer to enhance its functionality or provide additional features. Examples of peripheral devices include printers, scanners, keyboards, mice, and external hard drives. These devices are not essential for a computer to function, but they can greatly enhance the user's experience and provide additional capabilities.

A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image. It uses a combination of sensors and light to capture the information from the source and then converts it into a digital format that can be stored, manipulated, and displayed on a computer or other digital devices. This makes it easier to share, edit, and reproduce the scanned content. Unlike a printer, monitor, or camera lens, a scanner is specifically designed for the purpose of converting physical images or text into digital form.

A Local Area Network (LAN) is a network of computers and devices that are connected to each other within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or building. They share a common communications line and often share the resources of a single processor or server. LANs are typically used for connecting devices and sharing resources within a limited area, providing fast and reliable communication between devices.

A Wide Area Network (WAN) is a network that connects multiple local area networks (LANs) and Metropolitan area networks (MANs) over long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. It allows for the interconnection of geographically dispersed networks and enables data and resource sharing between different locations. Unlike LANs and MANs, which are limited to a specific area, WANs cover a larger geographical area and provide connectivity between different cities or even countries. Therefore, WAN is the correct answer in this context.

Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs) use Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol that allows devices to sense the carrier (the medium being used for transmission) before transmitting data. If the carrier is busy, the device waits for a random amount of time before attempting to transmit again. This helps to avoid collisions between multiple devices trying to transmit data simultaneously, ensuring efficient and reliable data transmission in WLANs.

A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. It allows users to securely connect to a private network over a public network, such as the Internet. This ensures that the data transmitted between the user's device and the private network is encrypted and protected from unauthorized access. VPNs are commonly used by businesses and individuals to establish secure connections and access resources remotely.

A media converter is a device that acts as a transceiver, converting electrical signals used in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling into light waves used for fiber optic cabling. This allows for the seamless integration of different types of network infrastructure, making it possible to connect copper-based devices to fiber optic networks. A media converter is essential in scenarios where there is a need to extend the reach of copper networks or when transitioning from copper to fiber optic networks.

Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) is a network routing protocol that allows multiple autonomous systems to connect together. EGP is specifically designed to exchange routing information between different autonomous systems, facilitating communication and connectivity between them. Unlike Interior Gateway Protocols (IGPs) such as OSPF and EIGRP, which are used within a single autonomous system, EGP operates at the exterior or inter-domain level, enabling routing across multiple autonomous systems. Therefore, EGP is the correct answer to the question.

A gateway is a network device that provides connectivity between two different networks. It acts as an entry or exit point for data packets to travel between the remote network and the host network. It translates protocols, manages data flow, and ensures that data is properly routed between the networks. Therefore, a gateway is the correct answer as it enables remote networks to establish connectivity with a host network.

The characteristic of "Cost to install and train technicians" is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cable is known for its advantages such as low attenuation, high data transfer rates, and immunity to electromagnetic interference. However, the installation and training of technicians for fiber optic cable can be expensive compared to other types of cables.

Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is widely used for managing email, contacts, calendars, and tasks. With its user-friendly interface and various features, Outlook allows users to efficiently organize and prioritize their personal and professional information. It also integrates well with other Microsoft applications, making it a popular choice among individuals and businesses for managing their personal information effectively.

Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders is a physiological factor because it involves the decision-making process and cognitive functioning of an individual. It can be influenced by factors such as stress, fatigue, or intoxication, which can affect a person's ability to follow instructions and make rational decisions.

The given answer, "Attacker's lack of ability," is the correct answer because it refers to the attacker's inability to exploit a flaw in a computer system. The other options, such as the attacker's capability to exploit the flaw, the system's susceptibility to a flaw, and the attacker's access to the flaw, all pertain to vulnerabilities that can exist in a computer system. However, the attacker's lack of ability does not represent a vulnerability in the system itself.

Spyware is computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It is a type of malicious software that can be installed on a user's computer without their knowledge or permission. Once installed, spyware can track a user's online activities, collect sensitive information such as passwords and credit card details, and send this data to unauthorized third parties. Spyware can pose a significant threat to privacy and security, as it can be used for identity theft, fraud, and other malicious purposes.

Changing the combination on a container storing classified materials is necessary when there is a suspected compromise of the combination, when the container is placed in service, or when it is removed from service. However, cleaning the storage container is not a valid reason to change the combination as it does not pose a risk to the security of the classified materials.

The correct answer is "Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures." This answer does not describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00-5-1. The other options - resources required to manage and use TOs, infrastructure to manage and use TOs, and training to manage and use TOs - all relate to the information outlined in TO 00-5-1.

The Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F) is divided into two air defense sectors. This division allows for efficient management and control of air defense operations. Each sector is responsible for a specific geographic area and is equipped with the necessary resources and personnel to monitor and respond to potential threats in their designated sector. This division ensures effective coordination and communication between the sectors, enhancing the overall air defense capabilities of the system.

The On-the-Job Training (OJT) program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty. This program allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while working in their specific field, gaining hands-on experience and practical knowledge. OJT is a valuable training method that allows individuals to learn directly from experienced professionals and apply their knowledge in real-world situations. It is an effective way to enhance job performance and prepare personnel for their specific duties and responsibilities.

Quality Assurance is the correct answer because it is stated in the question that it is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program. The other options, Quality Assessments, Quality System, and Trend Analysis, are all essential elements in a QA program.

The National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations outlines the US Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain. This policy specifically focuses on the military's actions and operations in cyberspace, rather than broader national security or cybersecurity initiatives. It provides guidance and direction for the military's efforts to protect and defend US interests in the cyber domain, ensuring that the US maintains an advantage over potential adversaries in this critical domain.

A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a close personal relationship with someone, such as a family member or household member, which could potentially create a conflict of interest or bias in their professional responsibilities. In this case, the given answer suggests that having close personal relationships with household members or relatives can lead to ethical concerns due to the potential for favoritism, nepotism, or compromised decision-making.

Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing to directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to proactive measures taken to detect and respond to threats in real-time, such as deploying intrusion detection systems and conducting regular vulnerability assessments. Reactive defense, on the other hand, involves responding to an ongoing attack or intrusion, such as isolating compromised systems and removing malicious software. These two defenses work together to actively monitor and respond to cyber threats, ensuring the security of the network.

Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuel, such as wood, paper, or gasoline, can result in different types of fires with varying characteristics. By understanding the fuel type, firefighters and emergency responders can better assess the behavior and potential hazards of a fire, allowing them to develop appropriate strategies and tactics for extinguishing it.

Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits does not pose a risk of electric shock or short-circuiting. However, the other options are prohibited for safety reasons. Carrying material while ascending or descending a ladder can cause imbalance and increase the risk of falling. Using a ladder as a scaffold is dangerous because it is not designed to support the weight and movement required for scaffold work. Homemade ladders may not meet safety standards and can be unstable or poorly constructed.

DODD 8570.01 establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness. This directive outlines the requirement for ongoing IA training and awareness for all users of DOD information systems to ensure the security and protection of sensitive information.

The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model consists of seven layers, which are divided into two categories: lower layers and upper layers. The lower layers include the Physical, Data Link, and Network layers, which are responsible for the actual transmission and routing of data. The upper layers include the Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application layers, which focus on the end-user application and data manipulation. Therefore, the Data Transport and Application layers represent the two categories of the seven-layer OSI reference model.

The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which allows for easy monitoring and control of the network. This centralization simplifies network management tasks such as troubleshooting, adding or removing devices, and implementing security measures. Additionally, the star topology provides better performance and reliability as each device has its own dedicated connection to the central hub.

Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves identifying potential hazards associated with the task, evaluating the risks, and developing appropriate safety measures and procedures to mitigate those risks. By conducting a JSA, supervisors ensure that employees are aware of the potential hazards and are trained to perform the task safely. This helps to prevent accidents, injuries, and damage to equipment or property.

In 1999, the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratified the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE). This means that in that year, the IEEE officially approved and standardized the use of GbE, which is a high-speed networking technology capable of transmitting data at a rate of one gigabit per second.

End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection as it ensures that the information is fully encoded throughout the entire network, from the sender's end terminal to the recipient's end terminal. This means that even if the data is intercepted or accessed at any point in the network, it cannot be deciphered or tampered with without the proper encryption keys. This type of encryption is considered the most secure because it protects the confidentiality and integrity of the data from end to end.

Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for identifying health threats and hazards in a given environment. They have the expertise to assess the risks associated with these threats and recommend appropriate controls to mitigate them. This includes measures to protect the health and safety of individuals in the environment. The other options listed, such as the Installation Safety Office, Base Civil Engineer, and Supervisors, may have roles in implementing these controls, but it is Bioenvironmental Engineering that provides the recommendations based on their specialized knowledge and expertise.

Banner Lines are classified document markings that identify the highest level of classification. They typically appear at the top and bottom of each page and contain information such as the classification level, the document control number, and the agency or organization that originated the document. Banner Lines provide a clear indication of the document's sensitivity and ensure that it is handled and protected accordingly.

To determine if an intrusion detection system is required or if another supplemental control is sufficient, a risk assessment needs to be conducted. This involves evaluating the potential risks and vulnerabilities of the system or network. By assessing the likelihood and impact of potential threats, it becomes possible to determine the level of protection needed. This process helps in identifying whether an intrusion detection system is necessary or if other controls can adequately mitigate the risks. The decision is not made by the GSA, OSI, or the wing information office, but rather through a comprehensive risk assessment.

The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect both resources and personnel from any potential harm. This includes preventing damage, loss, injury, and even death. The program aims to establish measures and protocols that can minimize risks and ensure the safety of individuals and the preservation of resources. By implementing this program, organizations can create a safer environment and reduce the likelihood of accidents or mishaps occurring.

Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission. This means that these two major commands and numbered Air Force were given the responsibility to carry out operations and activities related to cyberspace within the Air Force. The realignment likely involved the transfer of resources, personnel, and authority to these commands in order to enhance the Air Force's capabilities in cyberspace operations.

The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By centralizing the NCCs and creating a single Enterprise Service Desk, organizations can streamline their operations, enhance communication and coordination, and optimize resource allocation. This consolidation allows for better management of network services and support, leading to faster response times, reduced downtime, and improved overall efficiency in resolving issues and providing services to end-users.

The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify different functions in the communication process. The Network layer, which is the correct answer, is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets across different networks. It ensures that packets are delivered to the correct destination by using logical addressing and establishing connections. The other options mentioned, such as Programming, Transport, and Data, are not specific functions of the OSI model.

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body for information technology communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and has authority over every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. DISA is responsible for providing and managing the IT infrastructure, cybersecurity, and communication services for the DOD. They ensure that the DOD's information systems are secure, reliable, and interoperable, enabling effective communication and information sharing among the DOD components and with external partners.

The maximum value of an octet in Internet Protocol version (IPv4) is 255. In IPv4, an octet is a unit of data consisting of 8 bits. Each octet can represent a decimal value ranging from 0 to 255. Therefore, 255 is the highest value that can be represented by an octet in IPv4.

Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. In the classful addressing system, Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which means that the first three octets are used to identify the network, and the last octet is used to identify the hosts within that network. Since the last octet has 8 bits, it can represent 2^8 - 2 = 254 unique host addresses (subtracting 2 for the network address and the broadcast address). Therefore, Class C addresses are suitable for smaller networks that require fewer hosts.

ROM is non-volatile, meaning that it retains its data even when the power is turned off. On the other hand, RAM is volatile, which means that it loses its data when the power is turned off. This is the major difference between the two types of memory.

AF Form 143 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force form specifically designed to record the destruction of Top Secret classified material. This form ensures that proper procedures are followed and documented when destroying sensitive information, maintaining security and accountability within the Air Force.

If you need information on transporting Top Secret classified information, you should seek out the Information Assurance Officer. This individual is responsible for ensuring the security and protection of classified information, including its transportation. They have expertise in information security and can provide guidance and assistance in handling and transporting sensitive materials. The Classified Information Program Manager, Security Manager, and Supervisor may also have some knowledge in this area, but the Information Assurance Officer is specifically trained and knowledgeable in handling classified information.

The correct answer is the Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). ECIA develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards.

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet. It is specifically designed for unclassified information and allows for secure communication within the DOD.

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals within the career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and opportunities for professional development. The AFCFM works closely with unit training managers (UTMs), base functional managers (BFMs), and major command functional managers (MFMs) to ensure that career field policies and procedures are implemented effectively.

Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to provide protection against two different levels of impact. This could be in the form of falling objects or other hazards that could cause injury to the head. By having two impact classifications, hardhats can offer a higher level of safety and ensure that workers are adequately protected in different work environments.

The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) provides a physical layout of the communications and information systems. It includes engineering data that is necessary for the installation and maintenance of these systems. This section typically contains diagrams, blueprints, and other visual representations that depict the placement and configuration of the equipment and infrastructure. It is an essential resource for technicians and engineers involved in the installation and maintenance of the communications and information systems.

The Security Manager has the authority to grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday. This individual is responsible for overseeing the security protocols and procedures within an organization, including the handling and transportation of classified materials. They have the necessary knowledge and expertise to assess the risks and ensure that proper security measures are in place before granting permission for shipment.

The correct answer is "Duty position task." According to AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program, the duty position task is assigned by the supervisor. This task refers to the specific responsibilities and duties associated with a particular job position within the Air Force.

Occupational surveys are used to gather information about specific job roles and the skills and knowledge required for those roles. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC) that provides training and development opportunities for individuals in those occupations. The CDC helps individuals enhance their skills and knowledge, and further their career progression in their respective fields.

Trend Analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the process sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps in identifying patterns, trends, and potential issues in the quality assurance process, allowing for proactive measures to be taken to improve the overall quality. It is an essential element in quality assurance as it provides insights and data-driven decision-making for continuous improvement.

The Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to identify vulnerabilities and assess the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. It provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk level, allowing them to prioritize and address the most critical vulnerabilities. The other options mentioned are not directly related to vulnerability assessment and do not provide the same level of comprehensive assessment and risk analysis.

In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which enabled support to all locations within a single ticketing system. This means that instead of having multiple ticketing systems for different locations, they consolidated everything into one system, making it more efficient and streamlined.

AFI 33-322 is the correct answer because it defines an "official government record." This AFI provides guidance and instructions on the management and maintenance of official records within the Air Force. It outlines the criteria for determining what constitutes an official government record, how to create and maintain records, and the responsibilities of individuals involved in the record-keeping process. By referring to AFI 33-322, Air Force personnel can ensure that they are following the proper procedures for managing official records and maintaining their integrity and accessibility.

Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. This level of current is considered to be potentially lethal and can disrupt the normal electrical signals in the heart, leading to a dangerous arrhythmia. It is important to note that individual susceptibility to electric shock can vary, and factors such as the duration of exposure and the pathway of the current can also influence the severity of the effects.

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. The Data Link layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between nodes on a network, and the LLC sublayer specifically handles flow control and error checking.

Encryption is the best described method of hiding a message in a special code. Encryption is the process of converting plaintext into ciphertext to protect data confidentiality. It uses algorithms and keys to transform data into an unreadable format, making it difficult for unauthorized users to access or understand the information. By encrypting messages, sensitive data transmitted over a wireless local area network (WLAN) can be secured from potential eavesdroppers or hackers.

The correct answer is Physical, physiological, organizational. Human factors refer to the study of how humans interact with systems and environments. The physical aspect focuses on the physical characteristics and capabilities of individuals, such as their strength and dexterity. The physiological aspect considers the cognitive and sensory capabilities of humans, including perception, attention, and memory. Lastly, the organizational aspect examines how factors such as work design, communication, and teamwork influence human performance.

Access is the correct answer because it is a software program developed by Microsoft that enables users to create and manage desktop databases. It provides a user-friendly interface for designing tables, forms, queries, and reports, making it easy for users to organize and manipulate their data effectively. With Access, users can create custom databases to store and retrieve information, making it a valuable tool for businesses and individuals who need to manage large amounts of data efficiently.

When a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system, a classified message incident can occur. This means that sensitive information is being transmitted to a system that is not authorized to access or handle that level of classified data. This can lead to a breach of security and potential unauthorized access to the classified information. It is important to ensure that proper protocols and safeguards are in place to prevent such incidents from occurring.

During career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW), the Major command functional manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative. The MFM is responsible for overseeing the utilization and training within the career field at the major command level. They provide guidance and support to ensure that training and utilization practices align with the goals and objectives of the MAJCOM. Therefore, the MFM is the appropriate choice for serving as the MAJCOM voting representative during U&TW.

The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This document provides the necessary guidance and direction for the military's strategic planning efforts in the realm of cybersecurity. It outlines the goals, priorities, and strategies that need to be implemented to ensure the security and protection of cyberspace. By following this guidance, the military can effectively plan and execute their actions to counter cyber threats and safeguard national security.

The Air Force uses the Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) methodology for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR). This methodology involves organizing and deploying forces in a rotational cycle to ensure a continuous and sustainable presence in various regions around the world. By using the AEF, the Air Force is able to provide the necessary capabilities and support to combatant commanders in a timely and efficient manner.

Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. Article 92 addresses the failure to obey orders or regulations, and in this case, military personnel who do not adhere to the guidelines outlined in AFMAN 33-153 would be considered in violation of this article.

Chapter 10 in the Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.

The Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS) is responsible for assigning numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups.

The correct answer is GSORTS. GSORTS is the system of the Global Command and Control System-Air Force (GCCS-AF) that monitors the status of resources and training systems. It ensures that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available for mission completion.

Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD) prescribe the mission, area of responsibility, organization, and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units. These directives provide specific guidance and instructions for the execution of tasks and responsibilities within the Air Force. They outline the overall objectives and strategies that these organizations must follow to fulfill their mission and ensure effective coordination and cooperation among different units. AFMDs play a crucial role in establishing the framework and structure of the Air Force's operations and ensure unity of effort across various commands and units.

The document that spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace is the National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace. This document outlines the strategic goals, objectives, and actions that the United States government will take to protect its critical infrastructure and information systems from cyber threats. It provides a roadmap for coordinating efforts across various government agencies, private sector organizations, and international partners to enhance cybersecurity and safeguard national security interests.

The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to enable users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment. This means that EIM aims to provide tools and resources that allow users to effectively and efficiently utilize the information available within the organization. By exploiting information, users can make informed decisions, identify opportunities, and drive innovation, ultimately leading to improved performance and success of the organization's mission.

Chartering directives are a type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) that establish the official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships, and authority of Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies. These directives provide a framework for the operations and governance of these entities within the Department of Defense, outlining their purpose, scope, and organizational structure.

The Chief of Office Records has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of records within the office, including designating custodians who will be responsible for the proper handling and storage of records. They have the knowledge and expertise to determine the most suitable individuals for this role, ensuring that records are properly managed and maintained in accordance with organizational policies and regulations.

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating logical connections between devices. It handles flow control, error control, and sequencing of frames on a single link. The LLC sublayer ensures that data is transferred reliably and efficiently between devices on the same network link.

A Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) Socket is a combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address. It is used by a process to request network services and is passed as an argument between layers. This means that when a process wants to communicate over a network, it uses a TCP socket to specify the destination IP address and port number. This allows the process to establish a connection and request the desired network services.

A sliding window in TCP is used to regulate the flow of information between the transmitting and receiving devices. It determines how much data can be sent over the TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps in preventing network congestion by ensuring that the transmitting devices do not overwhelm the receiving devices with data.

The correct answer is Base functional manager (BFM). This title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO). The BFM is responsible for managing the functional aspects of a specific base or installation. They oversee the planning, organizing, and execution of cyber operations within their assigned area. They work closely with other functional managers and leadership to ensure the effective and efficient operation of cyberspace systems and networks.

The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive and effective plan for the education and training of individuals in a specific career field. This plan will outline the necessary skills, knowledge, and competencies that individuals need to develop in order to succeed in their careers. By establishing a CFETP, the workshop ensures that there is a clear and structured path for career development and training within the field.

There are three workflow capabilities available on a SharePoint Server.

The maintenance record is typically retained in the production work center of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). This record contains important information about the maintenance activities performed on the communication and information systems, including any repairs, upgrades, or replacements. It helps in tracking the history of maintenance work and ensures that the systems are properly maintained and functioning effectively.

Flammable liquids receive the classification of Class B. This classification is used to categorize substances that can easily catch fire and ignite, such as gasoline, alcohol, and oil. Class B liquids have a flash point below 100 degrees Fahrenheit and can be extinguished using fire extinguishers specifically designed for flammable liquid fires.

Air Force Instructions (AFI) are directive publications that provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws. These instructions serve as a comprehensive source of information and instructions for Air Force personnel to carry out their duties and responsibilities effectively and in compliance with established policies and regulations. They outline specific procedures, guidelines, and requirements that must be followed to ensure the successful implementation of policies and laws within the Air Force.

Any user may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data. This means that as long as a user has the necessary training and authorization, they have the ability to make updates to the technical order. It does not specify any specific role or position that is required to make these updates, allowing any user with the proper qualifications to do so.

Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer 7 T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits.

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. DISA is an agency within the Department of Defense that provides information technology and communications support to the military. They are responsible for ensuring the security and reliability of the GIG, which is the interconnected network of information systems used by the military. DISA works to identify and address vulnerabilities in the GIG infrastructure, prioritize the remediation of these vulnerabilities, and ensure the overall resilience of the network.

The correct answer is Joint Force Commander (JFC). The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands and Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commander (JFC). This means that the COMAFFOR is responsible for commanding and coordinating Air Force forces within a joint force, which may include forces from multiple branches of the military. The JFC is the overall commander of a joint force, responsible for planning and executing military operations across multiple domains, including air and space. Therefore, the COMAFFOR's role is to support and provide command to the JFC in air and space operations.

Non-directive Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that can be modified to fit the circumstances. Unlike directives, which provide specific instructions that must be followed, non-directive publications offer more flexibility and allow for adaptation based on individual situations. These publications provide information and suggestions that can be tailored to meet the needs of different units or personnel, promoting a more adaptable and customizable approach to decision-making and problem-solving within the Air Force.

The correct answer is Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS). This system's mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users. HF-GCS utilizes high-frequency radio waves to enable long-range communication, making it suitable for global operations. This system ensures that users in different locations can communicate effectively and securely, which is crucial for coordination and decision-making in various military and civilian applications.

The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM). This means that both the AFCFM and the TPM work together to determine the schedule for the STRT.

The correct answer is AFI 91-202. AFI stands for Air Force Instruction, which is a publication that provides guidance and instructions for specific procedures and programs within the Air Force. AFI 91-202 specifically implements the Mishap Prevention Program, which is a program aimed at preventing accidents and mishaps within the Air Force. Therefore, AFI 91-202 is the publication that implements the Mishap Prevention Program.

The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN). This system is responsible for controlling and securing the Air Force's intranet, ensuring that only authorized personnel can access and use the network. It acts as a defense system against cyber threats and helps to maintain the security and integrity of the Air Force's information network.

Hostile information operations pose the greatest threat to an organization's mission critical information via its communications and information systems. These operations involve deliberate and malicious actions by external entities, such as hackers or cybercriminals, who aim to disrupt or gain unauthorized access to sensitive data. Unlike malware, denial of service attacks, or inadvertent employee activity, hostile information operations specifically target an organization's information systems and communications infrastructure with the intent of causing harm or espionage. Therefore, it is crucial for organizations to have robust security measures in place to protect against such threats.

The Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to provide a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions. SACCS ensures the secure transmission of critical information and facilitates effective command and control operations for strategic missions. The other options, Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS), Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS), and Global Combat Support System (GCSS), do not have the same focus on secure communications for strategic aircraft and missile functions.

Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of the Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity. This means that the ESU focuses on streamlining and optimizing the services provided to the warfighters, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and support without the need for extensive training. By doing so, the ESU aims to enhance the operational capabilities and readiness of the warfighters while minimizing the time and effort required for training.

The duties of a Base records manager include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training. This role is responsible for ensuring that records are properly organized and maintained, assisting others with accessing and retrieving records, managing the physical and digital storage of records, and providing training to staff on proper record-keeping procedures. They play a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and accessibility of records within the base or organization.

The National Military Command Center (NMCC) is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities. It serves as the primary command and control center for the Department of Defense (DoD), providing situational awareness, decision-making support, and coordination of military operations. The NMCC ensures effective communication and coordination among top-level military and civilian leaders during times of crisis or conflict.

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). This means that the AFCFM has the power to exempt individuals from these training requirements if deemed necessary. The unit training manager (UTM), base functional manager (BFM), and major command functional manager (MFM) may have some authority in training and career development decisions, but the AFCFM has the ultimate authority in waiving CFETP requirements.