CDCs UREs Vol 2

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CDCs UREs Vol 2 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?

    • A.

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-200

    • B.

      AFI 91-202

    • C.

      Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91-200

    • D.

      AFMAN 91-202

    Correct Answer
    B. AFI 91-202
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 91-202. This publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program.

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  • 2. 

    What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

    • A.

      Prevent the use of unsafe equipment

    • B.

      Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices

    • C.

      Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices

    • D.

      Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death

    Correct Answer
    D. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and/or death. This program aims to prevent accidents, mishaps, and unsafe practices that could result in harm or negative consequences. By implementing safety measures and protocols, the program ensures the well-being and preservation of both physical and human resources within an organization.

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  • 3. 

    The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of

    • A.

      Commerce

    • B.

      The Treasury

    • C.

      Defense

    • D.

      Labor

    Correct Answer
    D. Labor
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Labor because the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is responsible for enforcing workplace safety and health regulations in the United States. It ensures that employers provide a safe and healthy working environment for their employees. As a part of the United States Department of Labor, OSHA works to prevent workplace injuries, illnesses, and fatalities through the development and enforcement of standards, training, education, and assistance programs.

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  • 4. 

    Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

    • A.

      Air Staff

    • B.

      Civil Engineering 

    • C.

      Squadron commander

    • D.

      Installation safety office

    Correct Answer
    D. Installation safety office
    Explanation
    The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They have the expertise and knowledge to provide guidance and ensure that safety protocols and procedures are followed to maintain a safe working environment.

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  • 5. 

    What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

    • A.

      Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO)

    • B.

      Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA)

    • C.

      Review AF Form 55

    • D.

      Certify the employee

    Correct Answer
    B. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA)
    Explanation
    Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves identifying potential hazards and risks associated with the task, evaluating the likelihood and severity of those risks, and implementing appropriate control measures to mitigate them. A JSA helps ensure that employees are aware of the potential dangers involved in the task and are equipped with the necessary knowledge and precautions to perform it safely. By conducting a JSA, supervisors can effectively manage and minimize workplace hazards, promoting a safer work environment.

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  • 6. 

    What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?

    • A.

      475

    • B.

      480

    • C.

      978

    • D.

      980

    Correct Answer
    C. 978
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 978. The Air Force (AF) uses AF Form 978 to report ground mishaps. This form is specifically designed for reporting accidents or incidents that occur on the ground, such as vehicle accidents or equipment damage. It allows the Air Force to track and investigate these incidents in order to prevent future mishaps and ensure the safety of personnel and equipment.

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  • 7. 

    What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?

    • A.

      457

    • B.

      480

    • C.

      978

    • D.

      980

    Correct Answer
    A. 457
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 457. The Air Force uses AF Form 457 to report a hazard. This form is used to document and report any potential hazards or unsafe conditions that may pose a risk to personnel, equipment, or operations. By reporting hazards using this form, the Air Force can take appropriate actions to mitigate risks and ensure the safety of its personnel and resources.

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  • 8. 

    What three sub-categories make up human factors?

    • A.

      Physiological, physical, stress

    • B.

      Physiological, Physical, social

    • C.

      Stress, organizational, physical

    • D.

      Physical, physiological, organizational

    Correct Answer
    D. Physical, physiological, organizational
    Explanation
    The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical, physiological, and organizational. Physical factors refer to the physical environment in which individuals work, including factors such as lighting, noise, and ergonomics. Physiological factors involve understanding how the human body functions and reacts to different stimuli, such as fatigue and stress. Organizational factors focus on the social and organizational aspects of work, including communication, teamwork, and leadership. These three sub-categories help to understand and optimize the interaction between humans and their work environment, ensuring safety, efficiency, and well-being.

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  • 9. 

    Which action is a physiological factor?

    • A.

      Performing a task while fatigued

    • B.

      Performing a task while intoxicated

    • C.

      Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders

    • D.

      Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness

    Correct Answer
    C. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders
    Explanation
    Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders is not a physiological factor. Physiological factors refer to physical or biological conditions that can affect a person's performance, such as fatigue, intoxication, or the effects of medication. Ignoring directions is a behavioral or psychological factor, as it involves a conscious decision to disregard instructions rather than being influenced by physical or biological factors.

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  • 10. 

    Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?

    • A.

      Bioenvironmental Engineering

    • B.

      Installation Safety Office

    • C.

      Base civil engineer

    • D.

      Supervisors

    Correct Answer
    A. Bioenvironmental Engineering
    Explanation
    Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They are experts in assessing and managing environmental factors that can impact human health, such as air quality, water quality, and hazardous materials. They work closely with other departments and organizations to develop and implement strategies to minimize health risks and ensure the safety of personnel.

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  • 11. 

    What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards

    • A.

      Isolating operations 

    • B.

      Providing administrative controls 

    • C.

      Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)

    • D.

      Substitution a less hazardous material or process

    Correct Answer
    C. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)
    Explanation
    The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. PPE is only a last line of defense and should be used in conjunction with other control measures such as engineering controls, administrative controls, and elimination or substitution of hazards. PPE can be easily compromised or misused, and it does not address the root cause of the hazard. Therefore, it is important to prioritize other control methods over relying solely on PPE.

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  • 12. 

    How many impact classifications do hardhats have?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    B. Two
    Explanation
    Hardhats have two impact classifications. This implies that hardhats are designed to provide protection against two different levels of impact. It suggests that hardhats are capable of protecting the wearer from different types of potential hazards or accidents that may occur in the workplace or construction sites.

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  • 13. 

    Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      C

    • C.

      E

    • D.

      G

    Correct Answer
    B. C
    Explanation
    Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors. This is because helmet class C is designed for general use and does not have any specific electrical insulation properties. It is important to use a helmet with the appropriate class for the specific task or environment to ensure proper protection against electrical hazards.

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  • 14. 

    What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

    • A.

      Falls

    • B.

      Poor lighting

    • C.

      Horseplay

    • D.

      Poor ergonomics

    Correct Answer
    A. Falls
    Explanation
    In a typical office setting, falls are the greatest hazard. This could be due to various factors such as slippery floors, cluttered walkways, or improper use of ladders or chairs. Falls can result in injuries ranging from minor cuts and bruises to more serious fractures or head injuries. It is important for employers to ensure a safe working environment by addressing potential hazards, providing proper training, and implementing safety measures such as non-slip flooring, clear walkways, and regular maintenance of office equipment.

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  • 15. 

    According to Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

    • A.

      1 to 2

    • B.

      2 to 2.5

    • C.

      2 to 4.5

    • D.

      2.5 to 3

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 to 2.5
    Explanation
    According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers. This indicates that office workers face a higher risk of getting injured due to falls in comparison to those who do not work in an office setting.

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  • 16. 

    What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?

    • A.

      8

    • B.

      9

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      11

    Correct Answer
    C. 10
    Explanation
    Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.

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  • 17. 

    How are fires classified?

    • A.

      Fuel Type

    • B.

      Heat Source

    • C.

      Temperature

    • D.

      Atmospheric conditions

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuel Type
    Explanation
    Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuel, such as wood, paper, or gasoline, can produce different types of fires with varying characteristics. By categorizing fires based on fuel type, it becomes easier to understand their behavior, determine the appropriate firefighting methods, and assess potential risks and hazards.

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  • 18. 

    What classification do flammable liquids receive?

    • A.

      Class A

    • B.

      Class B

    • C.

      Class C

    • D.

      Class D

    Correct Answer
    B. Class B
    Explanation
    Flammable liquids receive the classification of Class B. Class B is specifically assigned to flammable liquids because these substances have a low flash point and can easily catch fire or explode when exposed to a flame or spark. This classification helps to identify and handle these liquids properly to prevent accidents and ensure safety.

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  • 19. 

    Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

    • A.

      Class A

    • B.

      Class B

    • C.

      Class C

    • D.

      Class D

    Correct Answer
    C. Class C
    Explanation
    When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they will change their classification to Class C. This is because the introduction of an electric current can cause the fuels to become conductive, which means they have the ability to carry an electric charge. Class C fuels are specifically designed to be conductive and are commonly used in electrical systems, such as in power plants or for fueling electric vehicles.

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  • 20. 

    What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

    • A.

      Evacuate personnel from the building

    • B.

      Extinguish the fire if possible 

    • C.

      Call the fire department

    • D.

      Sound the fire alarm

    Correct Answer
    D. Sound the fire alarm
    Explanation
    When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is crucial as it alerts everyone in the building about the fire, allowing them to evacuate safely. By sounding the fire alarm, it helps to ensure that everyone is aware of the emergency and can take appropriate actions to exit the building quickly. Once the alarm is sounded, personnel can then proceed to evacuate the building, call the fire department, and attempt to extinguish the fire if it is safe to do so.

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  • 21. 

    What step is fourth in the firefighting procedure?

    • A.

      Evacuate personnel from the building

    • B.

      Extinguish fire if possible

    • C.

      Call the fire department

    • D.

      Sound the fire alarm

    Correct Answer
    B. Extinguish fire if possible
    Explanation
    The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using the appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to suppress and eliminate the fire. It is important to assess the situation and determine if it is safe to attempt extinguishing the fire before taking action.

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  • 22. 

    Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

    • A.

      50

    • B.

      40

    • C.

      20

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    A. 50
    Explanation
    Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps can cause cardiac arrest. This means that if a person is exposed to an electrical current of 50 milliamps, it can disrupt the normal electrical signals in the heart and potentially lead to a dangerous condition. It is important to be cautious around electrical sources and take necessary precautions to avoid such incidents.

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  • 23. 

    Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

    • A.

      Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits 

    • B.

      Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder

    • C.

      Using a ladder as a scaffold

    • D.

      Using a homemade ladder

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits 
    Explanation
    Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits does not pose a risk of electric shock or short-circuiting. However, it is still important to exercise caution and follow safety guidelines to prevent accidents.

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  • 24. 

    Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • C.

      Apply the process irregularly and continuously 

    • D.

      Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels

    Correct Answer
    C. Apply the process irregularly and continuously 
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Apply the process irregularly and continuously." This action contradicts the principles of risk management, which emphasize the need for consistency and regularity in assessing and addressing risks. Risk management involves identifying, evaluating, and responding to risks in a systematic and ongoing manner. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would undermine the effectiveness of risk management efforts, as it would lead to inconsistent and incomplete risk assessments and responses.

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  • 25. 

    The risk management process includes how many steps?

    • A.

      Four

    • B.

      Five

    • C.

      Six

    • D.

      Seven

    Correct Answer
    B. Five
    Explanation
    The risk management process includes five steps. These steps are: 1) Identify the risks, 2) Analyze the risks, 3) Evaluate the risks, 4) Treat the risks, and 5) Monitor and review the risks. Each step plays a crucial role in effectively managing and mitigating risks within an organization.

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  • 26. 

    How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    D. Four
    Explanation
    The Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is divided into four volumes. Each volume covers different aspects of the framework, including the overall guidance, the architecture data, the architecture views, and the architecture descriptions. These volumes provide a comprehensive and structured approach to developing and managing architectures within the Department of Defense.

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  • 27. 

    Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

    • A.

      Office of Administration

    • B.

      Office of Communications

    • C.

      Office of Public Engagement

    • D.

      Office of Management and Budget

    Correct Answer
    D. Office of Management and Budget
    Explanation
    The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. OMB plays a crucial role in overseeing and coordinating federal agencies' budget, management, and regulatory policies. It ensures that agencies are making informed decisions regarding their IT investments and that these investments align with the overall goals and priorities of the government.

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  • 28. 

    What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force Architectures?

    • A.

      State level

    • B.

      Federal level

    • C.

      Congressional level

    • D.

      Department of Defense level

    Correct Answer
    B. Federal level
    Explanation
    Federal level requirements mandate the development of Air Force Architectures. This means that the requirements for developing these architectures are set at the federal level, which implies that they are established by the federal government. This could include regulations, policies, or directives that outline the specific needs and goals for the Air Force Architectures. These requirements are likely to be comprehensive and cover various aspects such as technology, resources, and strategic objectives.

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  • 29. 

    What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

    • A.

      Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record

    • B.

      Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record

    • C.

      Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record

    • D.

      Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record

    Correct Answer
    C. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record
    Explanation
    The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is a comprehensive document that includes administrative information, drawings, and maintenance records. The administrative record contains details about the installation, such as project timelines, personnel involved, and any relevant administrative procedures. The drawing record includes diagrams and schematics of the installed systems, providing a visual representation of the setup. The maintenance record documents any maintenance activities performed on the systems, including repairs, upgrades, and regular maintenance checks. Together, these three parts of the CSIR provide a complete record of the installation, its documentation, and its ongoing maintenance.

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  • 30. 

    Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?

    • A.

      Administrative record

    • B.

      Maintenance record

    • C.

      Drawing record

    • D.

      Outage record

    Correct Answer
    C. Drawing record
    Explanation
    The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data. This section includes detailed drawings and diagrams that show the placement and connections of equipment, cables, and other components. It serves as a visual representation of the system's architecture and helps in understanding the physical aspects of the installation.

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  • 31. 

    Which part of the Communications Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?

    • A.

      Administrative record

    • B.

      Maintenance record

    • C.

      Drawing record

    • D.

      Outage record

    Correct Answer
    B. Maintenance record
    Explanation
    The maintenance record is normally retained in the production work center of the Communications Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). This record contains important information about the maintenance activities performed on the communication systems, such as repairs, upgrades, and inspections. It helps track the history of maintenance actions and ensures that the systems are properly maintained and functioning effectively. Retaining the maintenance record in the production work center allows easy access to this information for future reference and troubleshooting purposes.

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  • 32. 

    What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?

    • A.

      Programming 

    • B.

      Transport

    • C.

      Network

    • D.

      Data

    Correct Answer
    C. Network
    Explanation
    The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify the functions related to networking. These layers define the different aspects of network communication, such as addressing, routing, and data transmission. The Network layer specifically deals with the logical addressing and routing of data packets across different networks. It determines the best path for data to travel from the source to the destination, ensuring efficient and reliable communication between different network devices.

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  • 33. 

    What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model?

    • A.

      Data Transport and Application

    • B.

      Session and Data Transport

    • C.

      Network and Presentation

    • D.

      Application and Session

    Correct Answer
    A. Data Transport and Application
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model consists of seven layers, which are responsible for different functions in network communication. The Data Transport layer, also known as the Transport layer, is responsible for reliable and efficient delivery of data between devices. The Application layer is responsible for providing network services to applications and enables communication between different software applications. These two layers, Data Transport and Application, are part of the seven-layer OSI model.

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  • 34. 

    The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?

    • A.

      Transport

    • B.

      Data link

    • C.

      Physical

    • D.

      Session

    Correct Answer
    B. Data link
    Explanation
    The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data link layer in the OSI model. The Data link layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between network nodes over a physical link. The LLC sublayer specifically handles the flow control and error checking functions, ensuring the integrity and efficient transmission of data.

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  • 35. 

    What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

    • A.

      Communications between devices over multiple links of a network

    • B.

      Communications between devices over a single link of a network

    • C.

      Protocol access to the physical network medium 

    • D.

      Protocol access to the links of a network

    Correct Answer
    B. Communications between devices over a single link of a network
    Explanation
    The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer provides services to the network layer and ensures that data is properly transmitted and received between devices on the same link. It handles tasks such as flow control, error control, and framing. By managing communications over a single link, the LLC sublayer ensures reliable and efficient data transfer within the network.

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  • 36. 

    What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

    • A.

      Communications between devices over a single link of a network

    • B.

      Communications between devices over multiple links of a network

    • C.

      Protocol access to the physical network medium

    • D.

      Protocol access to the links of a network

    Correct Answer
    C. Protocol access to the physical network medium
    Explanation
    The media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network gain access to the physical transmission medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies. The MAC sublayer is responsible for tasks like assigning unique addresses to devices, regulating the flow of data, and handling collisions that may occur when multiple devices try to access the medium simultaneously. By managing protocol access to the physical network medium, the MAC sublayer ensures efficient and reliable communication between devices on the network.

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  • 37. 

    When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's 

    • A.

      Transport topology

    • B.

      Physical topology

    • C.

      Physical medium

    • D.

      Logical topology

    Correct Answer
    B. Physical topology
    Explanation
    The word "topology" refers to the arrangement or structure of a network. When used alone, it commonly refers to the physical topology, which describes the physical layout of devices and cables in a network. This includes the placement of routers, switches, and other network equipment, as well as the physical connections between them. The physical topology is important for understanding how data flows through the network and how devices are interconnected.

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  • 38. 

    What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

    • A.

      Star

    • B.

      Ring

    • C.

      Loop

    • D.

      Linear

    Correct Answer
    D. Linear
    Explanation
    Linear is another name for a bus topology. In a bus topology, all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear arrangement. This cable acts as a backbone, allowing data to be transmitted between devices. Each device on the network listens to the data passing on the bus and only accepts the data intended for it.

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  • 39. 

    What topology offers centralized management of a network?

    • A.

      Bus

    • B.

      Star 

    • C.

      Ring 

    • D.

      Radical

    Correct Answer
    B. Star 
    Explanation
    The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which acts as a central point for communication and management. This allows for easy monitoring, control, and troubleshooting of the network, as all connections are centralized. Additionally, adding or removing devices in a star topology is simple, as it only requires connecting or disconnecting them from the central hub.

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  • 40. 

    What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

    • A.

      There are no negative effects

    • B.

      A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication

    • C.

      Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices

    • D.

      When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated

    Correct Answer
    D. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated
    Explanation
    When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to facilitate communication between different devices. If this central node point fails, it can result in large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that the devices connected to those isolated portions will not be able to communicate with each other or with devices in other parts of the network. This can lead to disruptions in communication and can negatively impact the overall functionality of the interconnected star networks.

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  • 41. 

    Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control? 

    • A.

      Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)

    • B.

      Federal Communications Commission (FCC)

    • C.

      Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

    • D.

      Department of Defense (DOD)

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body responsible for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD). They have authority over every level of IT communication, from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. They ensure that the DOD's IT systems are secure, reliable, and interoperable, supporting the military's mission and operations.

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  • 42. 

    What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?

    • A.

      Regular of how much information passes over a TCP connection before the recieving host must send an acknowledgement

    • B.

      Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine (in the application layer)

    • C.

      Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process o request network services and passes as an argument between layers

    • D.

      Preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data

    Correct Answer
    C. Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process o request network services and passes as an argument between layers
    Explanation
    A TCP socket is a combination of a port number and an Internet Protocol (IP) address. It is used by a process to request network services and is passed as an argument between layers. This means that the socket identifies a specific application or process on each machine, allowing for communication and data transfer over a TCP connection.

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  • 43. 

    What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?

    • A.

      Request network services and pass arguments between layers

    • B.

      Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine

    • C.

      Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data

    • D.

      Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement

    Correct Answer
    D. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement
    Explanation
    A sliding window in TCP is used to regulate the amount of information that can be transmitted over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. It allows the sender to control the flow of data by specifying the number of packets that can be sent before receiving an acknowledgement. This helps in preventing network congestion and ensures that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices with data.

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  • 44. 

    What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

    • A.

      Version Identification

    • B.

      Header checksum

    • C.

      Time to Live

    • D.

      Flags

    Correct Answer
    B. Header checksum
    Explanation
    The header checksum portion of the IP Datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them. The checksum is a value calculated from the header fields and included in the packet. When the packet is received, the recipient recalculates the checksum and compares it with the value in the packet. If they don't match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the packet is discarded to ensure data integrity.

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  • 45. 

    What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

    • A.

      239

    • B.

      254

    • C.

      255

    • D.

      256

    Correct Answer
    C. 255
    Explanation
    The maximum value of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) is 255. An octet is a group of 8 bits, which can represent values from 0 to 255 in binary. In IPv4, each octet represents one part of the IP address, and the maximum value of 255 allows for a wide range of possible addresses.

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  • 46. 

    Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?

    • A.

      Class A addresses

    • B.

      Class B addresses

    • C.

      Class C addresses

    • D.

      Class D addresses

    Correct Answer
    C. Class C addresses
    Explanation
    Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. This is because Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which provides 8 bits for host addresses. With 8 bits, there are 2^8 - 2 = 254 possible host addresses, as the first and last addresses are reserved for network and broadcast addresses respectively. Class A and Class B addresses have larger address spaces and therefore allow for more hosts per network. Class D addresses are used for multicast and do not have a fixed number of hosts per network.

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  • 47. 

    What class is reserved for multicast addressing?

    • A.

      Class A address

    • B.

      Class B address

    • C.

      Class C address

    • D.

      Class D address

    Correct Answer
    D. Class D address
    Explanation
    Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing is a method of sending data packets to a group of devices simultaneously. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are used for multicast communication in IP networks. Multicast addresses are not assigned to individual devices but instead are used by groups of devices that are interested in receiving the multicast data.

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  • 48. 

    What range of numbers are those of well known port numbers?

    • A.

      0-1023

    • B.

      1024-49151

    • C.

      49152-65535

    • D.

      65536-87000

    Correct Answer
    A. 0-1023
    Explanation
    The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for specific services or applications that are commonly used and recognized by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA). They are typically associated with protocols like HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). Ports within this range are considered privileged ports and require administrative privileges to be opened by applications.

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  • 49. 

    What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)? 

    • A.

      ROM is volatile, RAM is non-volatile

    • B.

      ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile

    • C.

      RAM has a slower access time versus ROM

    • D.

      ROM has a slower access time versus RAM

    Correct Answer
    B. ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile
    Explanation
    The major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM) is that ROM is non-volatile, meaning that the data stored in ROM is retained even when the power is turned off. On the other hand, RAM is volatile, which means that the data stored in RAM is lost when the power is turned off.

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  • 50. 

    What action is the main purpose of system cache?

    • A.

      Speed up system read Only Memory (ROM) 

    • B.

      Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data 

    • C.

      Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data 

    • D.

      Reduce random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data

    Correct Answer
    C. Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data 
    Explanation
    The main purpose of system cache is to reduce the central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache stores frequently accessed data from the main memory, allowing the CPU to quickly retrieve it when needed. By reducing the CPU's access time to stored data, system cache helps improve overall system performance and efficiency.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 18, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 02, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Ilianadavila10
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