CDCs UREs Vol 2

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1. What topology offers centralized management of a network?

Explanation

The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which acts as a central point for communication and management. This allows for easy monitoring, control, and troubleshooting of the network, as all connections are centralized. Additionally, adding or removing devices in a star topology is simple, as it only requires connecting or disconnecting them from the central hub.

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About This Quiz
CDCs UREs Vol 2 - Quiz

CDCs UREs Vol 2 quiz assesses knowledge on the Air Force's Mishap Prevention Program, including relevant safety regulations and practices. It focuses on protecting resources, personnel, and understanding... see morethe roles of safety offices and the use of specific forms and analyses. see less

2. What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

Explanation

When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to facilitate communication between different devices. If this central node point fails, it can result in large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that the devices connected to those isolated portions will not be able to communicate with each other or with devices in other parts of the network. This can lead to disruptions in communication and can negatively impact the overall functionality of the interconnected star networks.

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3. Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body responsible for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD). They have authority over every level of IT communication, from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. They ensure that the DOD's IT systems are secure, reliable, and interoperable, supporting the military's mission and operations.

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4. Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 91-202. This publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program.

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5. Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

Explanation

Spyware is computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It is a type of malicious software that secretly monitors and gathers sensitive data, such as login credentials, browsing history, and personal documents, from a user's computer or device. Unlike adware, which displays unwanted advertisements, spyware operates stealthily and aims to gather information without the user's knowledge. It is considered a major privacy and security threat as it can lead to identity theft, financial fraud, and other forms of cybercrime.

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6. Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling? 

Explanation

A media converter is a device that converts the electrical signal used in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to a different type of signal, such as fiber optic or coaxial. This allows for the transmission of data over different types of network mediums. A media converter is commonly used when connecting different types of network devices that use different cabling technologies. Therefore, a media converter is the correct answer for this question.

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7. Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?

Explanation

When a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system, a classified message incident occurs. This means that sensitive information is being transmitted to a system that is not authorized to handle or access that level of classified data. This can lead to a breach of security and potential unauthorized access to the classified information.

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8. The risk management process includes how many steps?

Explanation

The risk management process includes five steps. These steps are: 1) Identify the risks, 2) Analyze the risks, 3) Evaluate the risks, 4) Treat the risks, and 5) Monitor and review the risks. Each step plays a crucial role in effectively managing and mitigating risks within an organization.

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9. What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

Explanation

The maximum value of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) is 255. An octet is a group of 8 bits, which can represent values from 0 to 255 in binary. In IPv4, each octet represents one part of the IP address, and the maximum value of 255 allows for a wide range of possible addresses.

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10. What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an organizations mission critical information via its communications and ISs?

Explanation

Hostile information operations pose the greatest threat to an organization's mission critical information via its communications and information systems. Hostile information operations refer to deliberate and targeted actions carried out by adversaries to disrupt, deceive, or manipulate an organization's information systems and communications. These operations can include cyberattacks, espionage, social engineering, and other malicious activities aimed at compromising the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the organization's information. Unlike other threats mentioned, hostile information operations involve intentional and coordinated efforts by external entities to undermine an organization's information security and can have severe consequences if successful.

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11. What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?

Explanation

A TCP socket is a combination of a port number and an Internet Protocol (IP) address. It is used by a process to request network services and is passed as an argument between layers. This means that the socket identifies a specific application or process on each machine, allowing for communication and data transfer over a TCP connection.

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12. Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

Explanation

A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects local area networks (LAN) and metropolitan area networks (MAN) using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. This allows for the connection of multiple LANs and MANs over a large geographical area, such as across different cities or countries. WANs are typically used by organizations that have multiple locations and need to share resources and data between them.

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13. Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

Explanation

The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. OMB plays a crucial role in overseeing and coordinating federal agencies' budget, management, and regulatory policies. It ensures that agencies are making informed decisions regarding their IT investments and that these investments align with the overall goals and priorities of the government.

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14. What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards

Explanation

The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. PPE is only a last line of defense and should be used in conjunction with other control measures such as engineering controls, administrative controls, and elimination or substitution of hazards. PPE can be easily compromised or misused, and it does not address the root cause of the hazard. Therefore, it is important to prioritize other control methods over relying solely on PPE.

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15. What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model?

Explanation

The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model consists of seven layers, which are responsible for different functions in network communication. The Data Transport layer, also known as the Transport layer, is responsible for reliable and efficient delivery of data between devices. The Application layer is responsible for providing network services to applications and enables communication between different software applications. These two layers, Data Transport and Application, are part of the seven-layer OSI model.

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16. What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force Architectures?

Explanation

Federal level requirements mandate the development of Air Force Architectures. This means that the requirements for developing these architectures are set at the federal level, which implies that they are established by the federal government. This could include regulations, policies, or directives that outline the specific needs and goals for the Air Force Architectures. These requirements are likely to be comprehensive and cover various aspects such as technology, resources, and strategic objectives.

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17. What type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users' own end terminals?

Explanation

End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information is fully encoded from the sender's end terminal to the receiver's end terminal. This means that even if the data is intercepted during transmission, it remains encrypted and cannot be accessed by unauthorized parties. Other forms of encryption, such as Internet Protocol, Bulk, or Link encryption, may provide varying levels of protection, but they do not guarantee the same level of end-to-end security.

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18. What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

Explanation

The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and/or death. This program aims to prevent accidents, mishaps, and unsafe practices that could result in harm or negative consequences. By implementing safety measures and protocols, the program ensures the well-being and preservation of both physical and human resources within an organization.

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19. The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data link layer in the OSI model. The Data link layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between network nodes over a physical link. The LLC sublayer specifically handles the flow control and error checking functions, ensuring the integrity and efficient transmission of data.

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20. Which classified document marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and shall indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification

Explanation

The correct answer is "Classification authority." The classification authority marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and indicates the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification. This marking is crucial for ensuring that the document is properly classified and that the classification authority is clearly identified.

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21. Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management? 

Explanation

The Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN) provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management. It is specifically designed for the Department of Defense (DoD) and is used for secure voice communications. The DRSN ensures that sensitive and classified information is protected and allows for effective communication during critical situations. The other options, such as the Defense Switched Network (DSN), Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data, and Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) Internet Protocol (IP) Data, may have their own purposes but do not specifically cater to the requirements of command and control and crisis management.

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22. What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

Explanation

The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is a comprehensive document that includes administrative information, drawings, and maintenance records. The administrative record contains details about the installation, such as project timelines, personnel involved, and any relevant administrative procedures. The drawing record includes diagrams and schematics of the installed systems, providing a visual representation of the setup. The maintenance record documents any maintenance activities performed on the systems, including repairs, upgrades, and regular maintenance checks. Together, these three parts of the CSIR provide a complete record of the installation, its documentation, and its ongoing maintenance.

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23. What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?

Explanation

The cost to install and train technicians is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cables require specialized knowledge and skills to install and maintain, which can be costly. Compared to other types of cables, the initial installation and training costs for fiber optic cables are generally higher. However, once installed, fiber optic cables offer advantages such as low attenuation, high data transmission speeds, electromagnetic immunity, and enhanced security.

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24. What class is reserved for multicast addressing?

Explanation

Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing is a method of sending data packets to a group of devices simultaneously. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are used for multicast communication in IP networks. Multicast addresses are not assigned to individual devices but instead are used by groups of devices that are interested in receiving the multicast data.

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25. What range of numbers are those of well known port numbers?

Explanation

The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for specific services or applications that are commonly used and recognized by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA). They are typically associated with protocols like HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). Ports within this range are considered privileged ports and require administrative privileges to be opened by applications.

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26. How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is required or another supplemental control is sufficient?

Explanation

To determine if an intrusion detection system is required or if another supplemental control is sufficient, a risk assessment should be completed. This involves evaluating the potential risks and threats to the system, analyzing the likelihood and impact of those risks, and then determining the appropriate controls to mitigate them. By conducting a risk assessment, the organization can identify the specific security needs and make an informed decision on whether an intrusion detection system is necessary or if other measures can adequately address the risks.

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27. What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)? 

Explanation

The major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM) is that ROM is non-volatile, meaning that the data stored in ROM is retained even when the power is turned off. On the other hand, RAM is volatile, which means that the data stored in RAM is lost when the power is turned off.

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28. Which of the following services provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage o large geographic areas?

Explanation

The aerial layer service provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage over large geographic areas. This means that it utilizes aircraft and other airborne systems to establish and maintain communication links in areas where traditional ground-based infrastructure may be limited or unavailable.

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29. Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?

Explanation

The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data. This section includes detailed drawings and diagrams that show the placement and connections of equipment, cables, and other components. It serves as a visual representation of the system's architecture and helps in understanding the physical aspects of the installation.

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30. Which system of the Global Command and Control System-Air force (GCCS-AF) monitors status of resources and training systems ensuring that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available to the for mission completion?

Explanation

The correct answer is GSORTS, which stands for GCCS status of Resources and Training. This system is responsible for monitoring the status of resources and training systems within the Global Command and Control System-Air Force (GCCS-AF). It ensures that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available for mission completion. By providing real-time information on resources and training, GSORTS helps in effective planning and execution of missions.

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31. Describe a network bridge

Explanation

A network bridge is a data link layer network device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It allows for the segmentation of network traffic, improving performance and reducing collisions. By separating the network into multiple segments, a bridge can also help to isolate network issues and prevent them from affecting the entire network.

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32. Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?

Explanation

Changing the combination on a container storing classified materials is not necessary when the storage container has been cleared. Once the container has been cleared, it means that all the classified materials have been properly removed or accounted for, and there is no longer a need to change the combination. Changing the combination in this scenario would be unnecessary and could potentially cause confusion or complications in accessing the container in the future.

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33. What step is fourth in the firefighting procedure?

Explanation

The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using the appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to suppress and eliminate the fire. It is important to assess the situation and determine if it is safe to attempt extinguishing the fire before taking action.

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34. What action is the main purpose of system cache?

Explanation

The main purpose of system cache is to reduce the central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache stores frequently accessed data from the main memory, allowing the CPU to quickly retrieve it when needed. By reducing the CPU's access time to stored data, system cache helps improve overall system performance and efficiency.

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35. What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a host network?

Explanation

A gateway is a network device that provides connectivity between different networks, allowing a remote network to connect to a host network. It acts as an entrance or an exit point for data traffic between the two networks, enabling communication and data transfer. Unlike a switch, which connects devices within a network, or a modem, which connects a network to the internet, a gateway specifically facilitates connectivity between separate networks. Therefore, a gateway is the correct answer to the question.

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36. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of

Explanation

The correct answer is Labor because the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is responsible for enforcing workplace safety and health regulations in the United States. It ensures that employers provide a safe and healthy working environment for their employees. As a part of the United States Department of Labor, OSHA works to prevent workplace injuries, illnesses, and fatalities through the development and enforcement of standards, training, education, and assistance programs.

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37. Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

Explanation

Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps can cause cardiac arrest. This means that if a person is exposed to an electrical current of 50 milliamps, it can disrupt the normal electrical signals in the heart and potentially lead to a dangerous condition. It is important to be cautious around electrical sources and take necessary precautions to avoid such incidents.

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38. What microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?

Explanation

Access is a Microsoft application that allows users to create a desktop database. It provides a user-friendly interface for designing and managing databases, allowing users to create tables, forms, queries, and reports. With Access, users can easily organize and store large amounts of data, making it a valuable tool for businesses and individuals who need to manage and analyze data efficiently. Access also offers various features for data entry, data validation, and data manipulation, making it a versatile database management system.

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39. Which part of the Communications Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?

Explanation

The maintenance record is normally retained in the production work center of the Communications Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). This record contains important information about the maintenance activities performed on the communication systems, such as repairs, upgrades, and inspections. It helps track the history of maintenance actions and ensures that the systems are properly maintained and functioning effectively. Retaining the maintenance record in the production work center allows easy access to this information for future reference and troubleshooting purposes.

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40. What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?

Explanation

The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify the functions related to networking. These layers define the different aspects of network communication, such as addressing, routing, and data transmission. The Network layer specifically deals with the logical addressing and routing of data packets across different networks. It determines the best path for data to travel from the source to the destination, ensuring efficient and reliable communication between different network devices.

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41. Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

Explanation

Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits does not pose a risk of electric shock or short-circuiting. However, it is still important to exercise caution and follow safety guidelines to prevent accidents.

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42. How are fires classified?

Explanation

Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuel, such as wood, paper, or gasoline, can produce different types of fires with varying characteristics. By categorizing fires based on fuel type, it becomes easier to understand their behavior, determine the appropriate firefighting methods, and assess potential risks and hazards.

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43. Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors

Explanation

Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors. This is because helmet class C is designed for general use and does not have any specific electrical insulation properties. It is important to use a helmet with the appropriate class for the specific task or environment to ensure proper protection against electrical hazards.

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44. What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?

Explanation

The correct answer is Five GB/S. USB 3.0 SuperSpeed transfer mode has a maximum data transfer rate of five gigabits per second (GB/S). This means that it can transfer data at a speed of five gigabytes per second, which is significantly faster than the previous USB 2.0 standard. This increased speed allows for quicker file transfers and improved performance when using USB 3.0 compatible devices.

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45. Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

Explanation

Encryption is the best described method for hiding a message in a special code. Encryption is the process of converting plaintext into ciphertext using an algorithm and a key, making the message unreadable to anyone who does not have the key to decrypt it. This ensures that even if the message is intercepted, it cannot be understood without the proper decryption key.

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46. What microsoft application is a personal information manager?

Explanation

Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is commonly used as an email application but also includes features such as a calendar, task manager, contact manager, note-taking, and journal. Outlook allows users to manage their personal information and stay organized by providing a centralized platform for various functions related to personal information management.

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47. Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

Explanation

The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They have the expertise and knowledge to provide guidance and ensure that safety protocols and procedures are followed to maintain a safe working environment.

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48. What classification do flammable liquids receive?

Explanation

Flammable liquids receive the classification of Class B. Class B is specifically assigned to flammable liquids because these substances have a low flash point and can easily catch fire or explode when exposed to a flame or spark. This classification helps to identify and handle these liquids properly to prevent accidents and ensure safety.

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49. What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

Explanation

In a typical office setting, falls are the greatest hazard. This could be due to various factors such as slippery floors, cluttered walkways, or improper use of ladders or chairs. Falls can result in injuries ranging from minor cuts and bruises to more serious fractures or head injuries. It is important for employers to ensure a safe working environment by addressing potential hazards, providing proper training, and implementing safety measures such as non-slip flooring, clear walkways, and regular maintenance of office equipment.

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50. What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

Explanation

Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves identifying potential hazards and risks associated with the task, evaluating the likelihood and severity of those risks, and implementing appropriate control measures to mitigate them. A JSA helps ensure that employees are aware of the potential dangers involved in the task and are equipped with the necessary knowledge and precautions to perform it safely. By conducting a JSA, supervisors can effectively manage and minimize workplace hazards, promoting a safer work environment.

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51. According to Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

Explanation

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers. This indicates that office workers face a higher risk of getting injured due to falls in comparison to those who do not work in an office setting.

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52. What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratifies the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE)?

Explanation

In 1999, the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratified the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE). This means that in 1999, the IEEE officially approved and standardized the use of GbE, which is a high-speed networking technology capable of transmitting data at a rate of one gigabit per second.

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53. Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Attacker's lack of ability". This is because a computer system vulnerability refers to a flaw or weakness in the system that can be exploited by an attacker. The other options, such as the attacker's capability to exploit the flaw, the system's susceptibility to a flaw, and the attacker's access to the flaw, all pertain to factors that contribute to the existence and exploitation of a vulnerability. However, the attacker's lack of ability does not directly relate to a vulnerability in the computer system.

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54. What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?

Explanation

Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.

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55. What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?

Explanation

The correct answer is 457. The Air Force uses AF Form 457 to report a hazard. This form is used to document and report any potential hazards or unsafe conditions that may pose a risk to personnel, equipment, or operations. By reporting hazards using this form, the Air Force can take appropriate actions to mitigate risks and ensure the safety of its personnel and resources.

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56. What three sub-categories make up human factors?

Explanation

The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical, physiological, and organizational. Physical factors refer to the physical environment in which individuals work, including factors such as lighting, noise, and ergonomics. Physiological factors involve understanding how the human body functions and reacts to different stimuli, such as fatigue and stress. Organizational factors focus on the social and organizational aspects of work, including communication, teamwork, and leadership. These three sub-categories help to understand and optimize the interaction between humans and their work environment, ensuring safety, efficiency, and well-being.

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57. What is a peripheral device?

Explanation

A peripheral device is not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external. Peripheral devices are additional hardware components that are connected to a computer to enhance its functionality. Examples of peripheral devices include printers, scanners, keyboards, and mice. These devices are not essential for the basic functioning of a computer but provide additional features and capabilities. They can be either internal, such as a sound card or a network card, or external, such as a USB drive or a monitor.

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58. Which network provides a private tunnel through the internet?

Explanation

A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the internet. It allows users to securely access and transmit data over a public network by encrypting the connection. This ensures that the data remains private and protected from unauthorized access. VPNs are commonly used by individuals and organizations to establish secure connections and maintain privacy while accessing the internet or connecting to remote networks.

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59. Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Apply the process irregularly and continuously." This action contradicts the principles of risk management, which emphasize the need for consistency and regularity in assessing and addressing risks. Risk management involves identifying, evaluating, and responding to risks in a systematic and ongoing manner. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would undermine the effectiveness of risk management efforts, as it would lead to inconsistent and incomplete risk assessments and responses.

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60. Which system is a spaced-based high data rate communications link for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces?

Explanation

The Global Broadcast System (GBS) is a spaced-based high data rate communications link that is used to transmit information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces. This system allows for the flow of information to be sent quickly and efficiently to troops in the field, ensuring that they have the necessary information for their missions. The GBS is an important tool in modern warfare, providing a reliable and secure means of communication between command centers and deployed forces.

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61. Which action is a physiological factor?

Explanation

Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders is not a physiological factor. Physiological factors refer to physical or biological conditions that can affect a person's performance, such as fatigue, intoxication, or the effects of medication. Ignoring directions is a behavioral or psychological factor, as it involves a conscious decision to disregard instructions rather than being influenced by physical or biological factors.

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62. What system mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-land-and sea-based users?

Explanation

The Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS) is the correct answer because its mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-land-and sea-based users. This network uses high frequency radio waves to transmit signals over long distances, making it ideal for communication in remote or challenging environments. The HF-GCS ensures that users from different domains can effectively communicate and coordinate their operations, enhancing overall situational awareness and mission effectiveness.

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63. Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?

Explanation

A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image. It uses light sensors to capture the image or text and then converts it into a digital format that can be viewed or edited on a computer. Scanners are commonly used for tasks such as scanning documents, photos, or artwork, and are an essential tool for digitizing physical media.

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64. What major program does the global Combat Support System - Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air force personnel?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Portal. The Air Force Portal is a major program that provides a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel. It serves as a centralized platform where personnel can access various resources, tools, and services related to their duties and responsibilities. It offers a wide range of features such as email, document management, collaboration tools, training materials, and more. By utilizing the Air Force Portal, personnel can easily access the information they need, enhancing their efficiency and effectiveness in their roles.

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65. What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Explanation

The media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network gain access to the physical transmission medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies. The MAC sublayer is responsible for tasks like assigning unique addresses to devices, regulating the flow of data, and handling collisions that may occur when multiple devices try to access the medium simultaneously. By managing protocol access to the physical network medium, the MAC sublayer ensures efficient and reliable communication between devices on the network.

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66. Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?

Explanation

A local area network (LAN) is a network of computers and devices that are connected together and share a common communication line. In a LAN, the computers and devices are typically located within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or building. LANs allow for the sharing of resources, such as printers and servers, among the connected devices.

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67. Which Air Force (AF) form records the destruction of Top Secret classified material?

Explanation

AF Form 143 is the correct answer because it is the form that records the destruction of Top Secret classified material in the Air Force. This form is specifically designed for documenting the destruction process and ensuring accountability for the disposal of sensitive information. It is likely that this form includes fields for recording details such as the date, time, method of destruction, and the individuals involved in the process.

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68. Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?

Explanation

Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They are experts in assessing and managing environmental factors that can impact human health, such as air quality, water quality, and hazardous materials. They work closely with other departments and organizations to develop and implement strategies to minimize health risks and ensure the safety of personnel.

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69. What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

Explanation

The header checksum portion of the IP Datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them. The checksum is a value calculated from the header fields and included in the packet. When the packet is received, the recipient recalculates the checksum and compares it with the value in the packet. If they don't match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the packet is discarded to ensure data integrity.

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70. When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's 

Explanation

The word "topology" refers to the arrangement or structure of a network. When used alone, it commonly refers to the physical topology, which describes the physical layout of devices and cables in a network. This includes the placement of routers, switches, and other network equipment, as well as the physical connections between them. The physical topology is important for understanding how data flows through the network and how devices are interconnected.

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71. What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?

Explanation

The correct answer is 978. The Air Force (AF) uses AF Form 978 to report ground mishaps. This form is specifically designed for reporting accidents or incidents that occur on the ground, such as vehicle accidents or equipment damage. It allows the Air Force to track and investigate these incidents in order to prevent future mishaps and ensure the safety of personnel and equipment.

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72. Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

Explanation

When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they will change their classification to Class C. This is because the introduction of an electric current can cause the fuels to become conductive, which means they have the ability to carry an electric charge. Class C fuels are specifically designed to be conductive and are commonly used in electrical systems, such as in power plants or for fueling electric vehicles.

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73. What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

Explanation

Linear is another name for a bus topology. In a bus topology, all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear arrangement. This cable acts as a backbone, allowing data to be transmitted between devices. Each device on the network listens to the data passing on the bus and only accepts the data intended for it.

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74. What system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war?

Explanation

The Global HF system provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war. This system is designed to ensure effective communication and coordination between different entities within the US government, especially in critical situations. The other options mentioned, Mystic Star, Defense Communication System (DCS) entry, and System of Inter-American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA), are not specifically designed for this purpose and do not provide the same level of support and reliability.

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75. Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?

Explanation

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user.

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76. Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday?

Explanation

The Security Manager has the authority to grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday-Sunday. This role is responsible for overseeing and managing the security of classified information and ensuring that proper procedures are followed for the handling and transportation of such materials. They have the necessary knowledge and authority to assess the risks and make informed decisions regarding the shipment of classified materials during weekends.

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77. How many T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits do Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer?

Explanation

Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer 7 T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits.

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78. What system is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities?

Explanation

The National Military Command Center (NMCC) is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities. This means that the NMCC is the central command center that provides real-time situational awareness, coordination, and decision-making support to the highest levels of leadership in the Department of Defense. It plays a crucial role in ensuring effective communication and command and control during military operations and national security events.

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79. Which classified document markings identifies the highest level of classification?

Explanation

Banner lines are the classified document markings that identify the highest level of classification. Banner lines are typically placed at the top and bottom of each page of a classified document and contain information such as the classification level, special access program, and caveats. They are used to clearly indicate the sensitivity and level of protection required for the information contained in the document.

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80. What system includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority?

Explanation

The Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority. This network is responsible for providing secure and reliable communication and information sharing capabilities to the Department of Defense. It encompasses various networks and systems, ensuring that all necessary resources are available to enable effective military operations and decision-making.

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81. What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer provides services to the network layer and ensures that data is properly transmitted and received between devices on the same link. It handles tasks such as flow control, error control, and framing. By managing communications over a single link, the LLC sublayer ensures reliable and efficient data transfer within the network.

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82. Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?

Explanation

Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. This is because Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which provides 8 bits for host addresses. With 8 bits, there are 2^8 - 2 = 254 possible host addresses, as the first and last addresses are reserved for network and broadcast addresses respectively. Class A and Class B addresses have larger address spaces and therefore allow for more hosts per network. Class D addresses are used for multicast and do not have a fixed number of hosts per network.

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83. In general, how many operating system task categories are there?

Explanation

There are six operating system task categories in general.

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84. What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?

Explanation

The kernel is the correct answer because it is the core component of the UNIX system software that interacts directly with the hardware. It is responsible for managing system resources, controlling hardware devices, and providing essential services to other parts of the operating system and user programs. The kernel acts as a bridge between the hardware and the software, allowing the user to interact with the system and enabling the execution of user programs.

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85. Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?

Explanation

Wireless local area networks (WLANs) use Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol that allows devices to sense if the wireless medium is busy before transmitting data. If the medium is busy, the device waits for a random amount of time before attempting to transmit again. This helps to prevent collisions between multiple devices trying to transmit data simultaneously, ensuring efficient and reliable data transmission in WLANs.

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86. What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems to connect together?

Explanation

Exterior gateway protocol (EGP) is a network routing protocol that allows multiple autonomous systems to connect together. Unlike interior gateway protocols (IGPs) such as OSPF and EIGRP, which are used within a single autonomous system, EGP is specifically designed for interconnecting different autonomous systems. EGP enables the exchange of routing information between these systems, allowing them to communicate and route traffic across their networks.

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87. Which network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public internet?

Explanation

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public internet. It is specifically designed for non-classified information and allows DOD personnel to access the internet for routine, non-sensitive communications and data sharing.

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88. Which system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on a powerful server-based computer system that takes inputs from long range and short-range radars and displays it all on a scope? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Battle Control System-fixed (BCS-F). BCS-F is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program that is hosted on a powerful server-based computer system. It takes inputs from long range and short-range radars and displays the information on a scope. This system is used for tracking and correlating radar data in order to provide situational awareness and control in a battle control environment.

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89. What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

Explanation

When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is crucial as it alerts everyone in the building about the fire, allowing them to evacuate safely. By sounding the fire alarm, it helps to ensure that everyone is aware of the emergency and can take appropriate actions to exit the building quickly. Once the alarm is sounded, personnel can then proceed to evacuate the building, call the fire department, and attempt to extinguish the fire if it is safe to do so.

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90. How many impact classifications do hardhats have?

Explanation

Hardhats have two impact classifications. This implies that hardhats are designed to provide protection against two different levels of impact. It suggests that hardhats are capable of protecting the wearer from different types of potential hazards or accidents that may occur in the workplace or construction sites.

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91. What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?

Explanation

A sliding window in TCP is used to regulate the amount of information that can be transmitted over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. It allows the sender to control the flow of data by specifying the number of packets that can be sent before receiving an acknowledgement. This helps in preventing network congestion and ensures that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices with data.

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92. How many air defenses sectors is the Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) divided into?

Explanation

The Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) is divided into two air defense sectors. This division allows for better control and coordination of air defense operations. Each sector is responsible for a specific area and works together to ensure the safety and security of the airspace.

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93. Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information?

Explanation

The Information Assurance Officer is the correct person to seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information. They are responsible for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information systems and data, including the transportation of sensitive information. They have the knowledge and expertise to provide guidance and assistance in handling and transporting classified information securely. The Classified Information Program Manager may also have relevant information, but their primary role is to oversee the overall management of classified information programs. The Security Manager and Supervisor may have some knowledge on the topic, but their roles are not specifically focused on information assurance and security.

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94. How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?

Explanation

The Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is divided into four volumes. Each volume covers different aspects of the framework, including the overall guidance, the architecture data, the architecture views, and the architecture descriptions. These volumes provide a comprehensive and structured approach to developing and managing architectures within the Department of Defense.

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95. Which system is the Department of Defense's (DOD) command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler?

Explanation

The correct answer is Global Command and Control System (GCCS). This system is the Department of Defense's (DOD) command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler. It is a comprehensive, integrated, and interoperable C2 system that provides real-time situational awareness, planning, and execution capabilities for military operations. GCCS enables the DOD to coordinate and synchronize operations across all domains, including land, sea, air, space, and cyberspace, to achieve full spectrum dominance. It allows for the integration of information from various sources and facilitates decision-making at all levels of command.

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96. Which system is the Air Forces' primary intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis and dissemination system?

Explanation

The correct answer is Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS). DCGS is the primary intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis, and dissemination system used by the Air Forces. It is a network-centric system that allows for the integration of various intelligence sources and provides real-time situational awareness to support military operations. DCGS enables the Air Forces to gather and analyze intelligence data from multiple sources, including satellites, drones, and ground-based sensors, to provide timely and accurate information to decision-makers.

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97. What system provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions?

Explanation

The Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) is the correct answer because it provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions. SACCS is specifically designed for this purpose and is responsible for ensuring the secure and reliable transmission of critical information related to strategic operations. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the security and efficiency of the Air Force's command and control capabilities for strategic missions.

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98. What system is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space, divided by security demands, transmission requirements and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers?

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Network (DISN) is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space. It is divided based on security demands, transmission requirements, and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers. DISN is specifically designed to support the Department of Defense (DoD) and its various agencies and organizations. It enables secure and reliable communication and information sharing among military personnel, ensuring efficient and effective operations across the DoD.

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99. Computer security (COMPUSEC) vulnerabilities are broken into how many categories?

Explanation

Computer security vulnerabilities are broken into eight categories. These categories help to classify and understand the different types of vulnerabilities that can occur in computer systems. By categorizing vulnerabilities, it becomes easier to identify and address potential security risks. This classification system allows security professionals to develop effective strategies for protecting computer systems and networks from various types of threats.

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100. Which system is the primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action messages (EAM) generated by the Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?

Explanation

The Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) is the primary network used to transmit Emergency Action messages (EAM) generated by the Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field. SACCS is specifically designed for secure and reliable communication between the command center and the field commanders during emergency situations. The system ensures that critical information and commands are efficiently and accurately transmitted to the appropriate personnel, enabling effective coordination and response in times of crisis.

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When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a...
What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?
Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what...
What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
What system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network provides rapid,...
Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?
Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified materials...
How many T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits do...
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What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?
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How many impact classifications do hardhats have?
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How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture...
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