3DX5X Vol 2 UREs
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?
- A.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–200.
- B.
AFI 91–202.
- C.
Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91–200.
- D.
AFMAN 91–202.
Correct Answer
B. AFI 91–202. -
- 2.
What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
- A.
Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.
- B.
Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.
- C.
Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.
- D.
Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.
Correct Answer
D. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.Explanation
The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and/or death. This program aims to implement measures and practices that minimize the occurrence of accidents, mishaps, and unsafe situations. By doing so, it ensures the well-being and safety of both the organization's assets and its personnel.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of
- A.
Commerce.
- B.
The Treasury.
- C.
Defense.
- D.
Labor.
Correct Answer
D. Labor.Explanation
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions in the United States. It sets and enforces standards, provides training and education, and conducts inspections to ensure compliance. As a part of its mandate, OSHA falls under the United States Department of Labor, which is responsible for promoting the welfare and rights of workers.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?
- A.
Air Staff.
- B.
Civil Engineering.
- C.
Squadron commander.
- D.
Installation safety office.
Correct Answer
D. Installation safety office.Explanation
The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They provide guidance and support to ensure that safety protocols and procedures are followed to maintain a safe working environment.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?
- A.
Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO).
- B.
Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).
- C.
Review AF Form 55.
- D.
Certify the employee.
Correct Answer
B. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).Explanation
Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves assessing the potential hazards associated with the task, identifying safety measures and precautions, and ensuring that employees are trained and equipped to safely carry out the task. By conducting a JSA, supervisors can mitigate risks and ensure the safety of employees while performing the task.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?
- A.
475.
- B.
480.
- C.
978.
- D.
980.
Correct Answer
C. 978.Explanation
The correct answer is 978. The Air Force uses form 978 to report ground mishaps.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?
- A.
475.
- B.
480.
- C.
978.
- D.
980.
Correct Answer
A. 475.Explanation
The correct answer is 475. This form is used by the Air Force to report hazards. It is likely that this form includes specific fields or sections where individuals can provide details about the hazard they are reporting. By using a standardized form, the Air Force can ensure that all necessary information is collected and that the appropriate actions can be taken to address the hazard.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What three sub-categories make up human factors?
- A.
Physiological, physical, stress.
- B.
Physiological, Physical, social.
- C.
Stress, organizational, physical.
- D.
Physical, physiological, organizational.
Correct Answer
D. Physical, physiological, organizational.Explanation
The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical, physiological, and organizational. Physical factors refer to the design and layout of the environment, equipment, and tools. Physiological factors involve understanding the capabilities and limitations of the human body, such as ergonomics and biomechanics. Organizational factors consider the social and psychological aspects of work, including communication, teamwork, and leadership. This comprehensive approach ensures that human factors are considered in designing systems and processes to optimize human performance and well-being.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which action is a physiological factor?
- A.
Performing a task while fatigued.
- B.
Performing a task while intoxicated.
- C.
Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.
- D.
Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness.
Correct Answer
C. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders. -
- 10.
Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?
- A.
Bioenvironmental Engineering.
- B.
Installation safety office.
- C.
Base civil engineer.
- D.
Supervisors.
Correct Answer
A. Bioenvironmental Engineering.Explanation
Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. This department specializes in assessing and managing environmental and occupational health risks in order to protect the health and well-being of individuals in a given environment. They conduct thorough evaluations, identify potential hazards, and provide expert guidance on implementing appropriate controls to minimize health risks. Their expertise and knowledge make them the most suitable entity to recommend controls in order to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.
- A.
Isolating operations.
- B.
Providing administrative controls.
- C.
Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).
- D.
Substitution a less hazardous material or process.
Correct Answer
C. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).Explanation
The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. While PPE can provide some level of protection, it is not as effective as other methods such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. PPE should be used in conjunction with these other control measures to ensure the highest level of safety.Rate this question:
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- 12.
How many impact classifications do hardhats have?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
Correct Answer
B. Two.Explanation
Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to provide protection against two types of impacts: vertical impacts, such as falling objects, and lateral impacts, such as being struck by a moving object. The classification system helps to ensure that hardhats meet specific safety standards and provide adequate protection for workers in various industries.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?
- A.
A.
- B.
C.
- C.
E.
- D.
G.
Correct Answer
B. C.Explanation
Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
- A.
Falls.
- B.
Poor lighting.
- C.
Horseplay.
- D.
Poor ergonomics.
Correct Answer
A. Falls.Explanation
Falls are the greatest hazard in the typical office because they can occur due to various reasons such as slippery floors, uneven surfaces, or tripping over objects. Falls can result in serious injuries like fractures or head trauma, making it a significant risk in the office environment. Poor lighting, horseplay, and poor ergonomics can also contribute to falls, but falls themselves pose the highest danger.Rate this question:
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- 15.
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?
- A.
1 to 2.
- B.
2 to 2.5.
- C.
2 to 4.5.
- D.
2.5 to 3.
Correct Answer
B. 2 to 2.5. -
- 16.
What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?
- A.
8.
- B.
9.
- C.
10.
- D.
11.
Correct Answer
C. 10.Explanation
Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.Rate this question:
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- 17.
How are fires classified?
- A.
Fuel type.
- B.
Heat source.
- C.
Temperature.
- D.
Atmospheric conditions.
Correct Answer
A. Fuel type.Explanation
Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuel, such as wood, gas, or oil, can result in different types of fires with varying characteristics and behaviors. Understanding the fuel type is crucial in determining the appropriate firefighting methods and strategies to effectively control and extinguish the fire.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What classification do flammable liquids receive?
- A.
Class A.
- B.
Class B.
- C.
Class C.
- D.
Class D.
Correct Answer
B. Class B.Explanation
Flammable liquids are classified as Class B. Class B refers to substances that are flammable and combustible, such as gasoline, oil, and alcohol. These liquids have a low flash point and can easily catch fire when exposed to a spark, flame, or heat source. Class B fires are typically extinguished using foam or dry chemical fire extinguishers. Class A refers to ordinary combustibles, Class C refers to electrical fires, and Class D refers to combustible metals.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?
- A.
Class A.
- B.
Class B.
- C.
Class C.
- D.
Class D.
Correct Answer
C. Class C.Explanation
When an electric current is introduced, fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to Class C. This is because the introduction of an electric current can cause the fuel to become conductive and increase the risk of electrical fires. Class C fires involve energized electrical equipment, so the classification changes to reflect this increased hazard.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
- A.
Evacuate personnel from the building.
- B.
Extinguish the fire if possible.
- C.
Call the fire department.
- D.
Sound the fire alarm.
Correct Answer
D. Sound the fire alarm.Explanation
The first action to take when encountering a fire is to sound the fire alarm. This is crucial as it alerts everyone in the building to the presence of a fire and allows them to begin evacuating immediately. Evacuating personnel from the building should be the next step after sounding the alarm, followed by calling the fire department for professional assistance. Extinguishing the fire is not recommended as the priority should be on ensuring the safety of individuals and leaving the firefighting to professionals.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?
- A.
Evacuate personnel from the building.
- B.
Extinguish the fire if possible.
- C.
Call the fire department.
- D.
Sound the fire alarm.
Correct Answer
B. Extinguish the fire if possible.Explanation
The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to suppress and eliminate the fire. It is important to assess the situation and determine if it is safe and feasible to attempt extinguishing the fire before proceeding with this step.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?
- A.
50.
- B.
40.
- C.
20.
- D.
10.
Correct Answer
A. 50.Explanation
Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps can cause cardiac arrest. This is because at this level of current, the electrical signals in the heart can be disrupted, leading to an abnormal rhythm and potentially stopping the heart altogether. It is important to note that even lower currents can still be dangerous and cause harm to the heart, so caution should always be exercised when dealing with electrical currents.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which ladder practice is not prohibited?
- A.
Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.
- B.
Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder.
- C.
Using a ladder as a scaffold.
- D.
Using a homemade ladder.
Correct Answer
A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.Explanation
The use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material and does not conduct electricity. Therefore, using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits does not pose a risk of electric shock. However, the other options are prohibited for safety reasons. Carrying material while ascending or descending a ladder can cause imbalance and increase the risk of falling. Using a ladder as a scaffold is not recommended as it may not provide the necessary stability and support. Using a homemade ladder is also not advisable as it may not meet safety standards and could be structurally unsound.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?
- A.
Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B.
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C.
Apply the process irregularly and continuously.
- D.
Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer
C. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.Explanation
The action of applying the risk management process irregularly and continuously is not a part of risk management. Risk management involves systematically identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks in order to minimize their impact on an organization. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would be inconsistent and ineffective in managing risks. Instead, risk management should be integrated into operations and planning at all levels, with risk decisions being made at the appropriate level and unnecessary risks being avoided.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The risk management process includes how many steps?
- A.
Four.
- B.
Five.
- C.
Six.
- D.
Seven.
Correct Answer
B. Five.Explanation
The correct answer is Five. The risk management process typically includes five steps: risk identification, risk assessment, risk response planning, risk monitoring and control, and risk communication. These steps help organizations identify potential risks, evaluate their potential impact, develop strategies to mitigate or respond to them, continuously monitor and control risks, and communicate the risks and mitigation efforts to stakeholders.Rate this question:
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- 26.
How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
Correct Answer
D. Four.Explanation
The Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is comprised of four volumes. Each volume focuses on different aspects of the framework, including the overall architecture, systems, data, and technical standards. These volumes provide a comprehensive guide for the development and management of architectures within the Department of Defense.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?
- A.
Office of Administration.
- B.
Office of Communications.
- C.
Office of Public Engagement.
- D.
Office of Management and Budget.
Correct Answer
D. Office of Management and Budget.Explanation
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. OMB plays a crucial role in overseeing and coordinating federal agencies' budget, management, and regulatory objectives. It ensures that agencies are making informed decisions regarding their IT investments and that these investments align with the government's overall goals and objectives.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?
- A.
State level.
- B.
Federal level.
- C.
Congressional level.
- D.
Department of Defense level.
Correct Answer
B. Federal level.Explanation
The correct answer is Federal level. This is because the development of Air Force architectures is mandated by requirements at the federal level. These requirements are set by the federal government, which has jurisdiction over the Air Force. State level requirements may not be sufficient to cover the broader needs and goals of the Air Force. Similarly, congressional and Department of Defense levels may have their own specific requirements, but the federal level encompasses all of these and sets the overall direction for the Air Force architectures.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?
- A.
Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record.
- B.
Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.
- C.
Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.
- D.
Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record.
Correct Answer
C. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.Explanation
The correct answer is Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The CSIR is a comprehensive documentation system that includes administrative records, such as project management and coordination information, drawing records that provide visual representations of the installation, and maintenance records that document any repairs or updates made to the system. These three parts together ensure that all necessary information about the installation is recorded and easily accessible.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?
- A.
Administrative record.
- B.
Maintenance record.
- C.
Drawing record.
- D.
Outage record.
Correct Answer
C. Drawing record.Explanation
The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is responsible for depicting the physical layout of communications and information systems and providing engineering data. This section includes detailed drawings, diagrams, and plans that illustrate the placement and configuration of the systems. It is an essential part of the CSIR as it helps in understanding the physical infrastructure and aids in maintenance, troubleshooting, and future installations.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?
- A.
Administrative record.
- B.
Maintenance record.
- C.
Drawing record.
- D.
Outage record.
Correct Answer
B. Maintenance record.Explanation
The maintenance record is normally retained in the production work center of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). This record contains important information about the maintenance activities performed on the communication and information systems, including any repairs, replacements, or upgrades. It helps track the history of maintenance and ensures that the systems are functioning properly.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?
- A.
Programming.
- B.
Transport.
- C.
Network.
- D.
Data.
Correct Answer
C. Network.Explanation
The seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify various functions related to network communication. These functions include programming, transport, network, and data. However, out of the given options, the layer that specifically deals with the functions mentioned is the Network layer. This layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets across different networks, establishing logical connections between devices, and managing network congestion.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.
- A.
Data Transport and Application.
- B.
Session and Data Transport.
- C.
Network and Presentation.
- D.
Application and Session.
Correct Answer
A. Data Transport and Application.Explanation
The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model consists of seven layers: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application. The two categories mentioned in the question are Data Transport and Application. Data Transport refers to the Transport layer, which is responsible for the reliable delivery of data between network devices. Application refers to the Application layer, which provides services for end-user applications such as email, web browsing, and file transfer.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?
- A.
Transport.
- B.
Data Link.
- C.
Physical.
- D.
Session.
Correct Answer
B. Data Link.Explanation
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. This layer is responsible for managing the flow of data between two adjacent nodes in a network, ensuring error-free transmission and providing services such as framing, error detection, and flow control. The LLC sublayer is specifically responsible for managing the logical link between these nodes, including establishing and terminating connections, error recovery, and flow control at the logical level.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?
- A.
Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.
- B.
Communications between devices over a single link of a network.
- C.
Protocol access to the physical network medium.
- D.
Protocol access to the links of a network.
Correct Answer
B. Communications between devices over a single link of a network.Explanation
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for ensuring reliable delivery of data frames, error detection and correction, flow control, and addressing. It provides a link between the Network Layer and the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer, allowing different network protocols to share the same physical medium.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?
- A.
Communications between devices over a single link of a network.
- B.
Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.
- C.
Protocol access to the physical network medium.
- D.
Protocol access to the links of a network.
Correct Answer
C. Protocol access to the physical network medium.Explanation
The media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network share and access the physical transmission medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies. The MAC sublayer ensures that devices take turns transmitting data and prevents collisions between multiple devices trying to transmit simultaneously. It also handles tasks like addressing and error detection.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When used alone, the word “topology” often refers to a network’s
- A.
Transport topology.
- B.
Physical topology.
- C.
Physical medium.
- D.
Logical topology.
Correct Answer
B. Physical topology.Explanation
The word "topology" refers to the arrangement or structure of a network. When used alone, it usually refers to the physical topology, which describes the physical layout of the network components and their connections. This includes the placement of devices such as routers, switches, and cables. The physical topology determines how the network is physically organized and how data flows between devices. It is different from the logical topology, which focuses on how data is transmitted and how devices communicate with each other.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
- A.
Star.
- B.
Ring.
- C.
Loop.
- D.
Linear.
Correct Answer
D. Linear.Explanation
A bus topology is a network configuration in which all devices are connected to a single cable called a bus. In this topology, data is transmitted in a linear manner, with each device receiving the data and passing it along to the next device. Therefore, the term "linear" is another name for a bus topology.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What topology offers centralized management of a network?
- A.
Bus.
- B.
Star.
- C.
Ring.
- D.
Radial.
Correct Answer
B. Star.Explanation
The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central device called a hub or a switch. This central device acts as a control point for the network, allowing for easy management and troubleshooting. Any changes or updates can be made at the central hub, making it a convenient and efficient topology for network administration.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?
- A.
There are no negative effects.
- B.
A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication.
- C.
Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices.
- D.
When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.
Correct Answer
D. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.Explanation
When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to manage the communication between devices. If this central node point fails, it can result in large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that the devices connected to those isolated portions will not be able to communicate with each other or with devices in other parts of the network. This can lead to significant disruptions in communication and can negatively impact the overall functionality of the interconnected star networks.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?
- A.
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
- B.
Federal Communications Commission (FCC).
- C.
Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
- D.
Department of Defense (DOD).
Correct Answer
A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).Explanation
The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body responsible for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. They provide IT and communication support to the DOD and ensure the security and reliability of the DOD's information systems.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?
- A.
Regular of how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
- B.
Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine (in the application layer).
- C.
Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.
- D.
Preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.
Correct Answer
C. Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.Explanation
A TCP socket is a combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers. This means that when a process wants to communicate over a network, it uses a TCP socket to specify the destination IP address and port number. The socket acts as a unique identifier for the connection, allowing the data to be properly routed and delivered to the intended recipient.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?
- A.
Request network services and pass arguments between layers.
- B.
Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine.
- C.
Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.
- D.
Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
Correct Answer
D. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.Explanation
The purpose of a sliding window in TCP is to regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps in controlling the flow of data and ensures that the sender does not overwhelm the receiver with too much data. The sliding window mechanism allows for efficient and reliable data transmission by adjusting the window size based on network conditions and the receiver's ability to process data.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?
- A.
Version Identification.
- B.
Header Checksum.
- C.
Time to Live.
- D.
Flags.
Correct Answer
B. Header Checksum.Explanation
The correct answer is Header Checksum. The Header Checksum is a field in the IP Datagram that allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them. This field contains a calculated value based on the contents of the header, and it is used to verify the integrity of the header during transmission. If the calculated checksum does not match the received checksum, it indicates that the header has been corrupted, and the datagram is discarded to prevent further processing with incorrect information.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?
- A.
239.
- B.
254.
- C.
255.
- D.
256.
Correct Answer
C. 255.Explanation
The maximum value of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) is 255. In IPv4, an IP address consists of four octets, each ranging from 0 to 255. Therefore, 255 is the highest value that can be assigned to an octet in IPv4.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?
- A.
Class A address.
- B.
Class B address.
- C.
Class C address.
- D.
Class D address.
Correct Answer
C. Class C address.Explanation
Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which means that the first three octets are used to identify the network and the last octet is used to identify the host. With 8 bits available for the host portion, there are 2^8 - 2 = 254 possible host addresses. Class A and Class B addresses have larger network portions, which limits the number of available host addresses. Class D addresses are used for multicast and do not have a specific number of hosts per network.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What class is reserved for multicast addressing?
- A.
Class A address.
- B.
Class B address.
- C.
Class C address.
- D.
Class D address.
Correct Answer
D. Class D address.Explanation
Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing is a technique used in computer networks where a single packet is sent to a group of destination computers simultaneously. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are used for multicast communication, allowing efficient distribution of data to multiple recipients.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?
- A.
0–1023.
- B.
1024–49151.
- C.
49152–65535.
- D.
65536–87000.
Correct Answer
A. 0–1023.Explanation
The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for specific services and protocols, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). They are commonly used by popular applications and are well-known in the networking community.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?
- A.
ROM is volatile, RAM in non-volatile.
- B.
ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile.
- C.
RAM has a slower access time versus ROM.
- D.
ROM has a slower access time versus RAM.
Correct Answer
B. ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile.Explanation
ROM stands for Read Only Memory, which means that the data stored in ROM cannot be modified or erased. It retains its information even when the power is turned off, making it non-volatile. On the other hand, RAM stands for Random Access Memory, which is volatile. This means that the data stored in RAM is temporary and is lost when the power is turned off. The major difference between ROM and RAM is that ROM is non-volatile, while RAM is volatile.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What action is the main purpose of system cache?
- A.
Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM).
- B.
Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data.
- C.
Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.
- D.
Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data.
Correct Answer
C. Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.Explanation
The main purpose of system cache is to reduce the central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache is a small, fast memory component that stores frequently accessed data and instructions from the main memory. By keeping this data closer to the CPU, it reduces the time it takes for the CPU to retrieve the data, improving overall system performance.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 29, 2017Quiz Created by
Shadowreality5
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