3DX5X Vol 2 UREs

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?

    • Local area network (LAN).
    • Wide area network (WAN).
    • Virtual private network (VPN).
    • Metropolitan area network (MAN).
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3DX5X Vol 2 UREs - Quiz
About This Quiz

The '3DX5X Vol 2 UREs' quiz assesses knowledge on the Mishap Prevention Program, including its implementation, purpose, and associated safety responsibilities within the Air Force. It covers key regulations such as AFI 91-202 and involves understanding OSHA's role, enhancing readiness through safety.

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  • 2. 

    What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

    • Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.

    • Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.

    • Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.

    • Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and/or death. This program aims to implement measures and practices that minimize the occurrence of accidents, mishaps, and unsafe situations. By doing so, it ensures the well-being and safety of both the organization's assets and its personnel.

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  • 3. 

    The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of 

    • Commerce.

    • The Treasury.

    • Defense.

    • Labor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Labor.
    Explanation
    The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions in the United States. It sets and enforces standards, provides training and education, and conducts inspections to ensure compliance. As a part of its mandate, OSHA falls under the United States Department of Labor, which is responsible for promoting the welfare and rights of workers.

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  • 4. 

    What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

    • Star.

    • Ring.

    • Loop.

    • Linear.

    Correct Answer
    A. Linear.
    Explanation
    A bus topology is a network configuration in which all devices are connected to a single cable called a bus. In this topology, data is transmitted in a linear manner, with each device receiving the data and passing it along to the next device. Therefore, the term "linear" is another name for a bus topology.

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  • 5. 

    What topology offers centralized management of a network?

    • Bus.

    • Star.

    • Ring.

    • Radial.

    Correct Answer
    A. Star.
    Explanation
    The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central device called a hub or a switch. This central device acts as a control point for the network, allowing for easy management and troubleshooting. Any changes or updates can be made at the central hub, making it a convenient and efficient topology for network administration.

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  • 6. 

    What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?

    • Cost to install and train technicians.

    • Electromagnetic immunity.

    • Low attenuation.

    • Security.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cost to install and train technicians.
    Explanation
    The characteristic of "Cost to install and train technicians" is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. This means that fiber optic cables are not cost-effective when it comes to installation and training technicians. However, the other characteristics listed, such as electromagnetic immunity, low attenuation, and security, are advantages of fiber optic cables.

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  • 7. 

    Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?  

    • Air Staff.

    • Civil Engineering.

    • Squadron commander.

    • Installation safety office.

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation safety office.
    Explanation
    The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They provide guidance and support to ensure that safety protocols and procedures are followed to maintain a safe working environment.

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  • 8. 

    What hazard is the greatest in the typical office? 

    • Falls.

    • Poor lighting.

    • Horseplay.

    • Poor ergonomics.

    Correct Answer
    A. Falls.
    Explanation
    Falls are the greatest hazard in the typical office because they can occur due to various reasons such as slippery floors, uneven surfaces, or tripping over objects. Falls can result in serious injuries like fractures or head trauma, making it a significant risk in the office environment. Poor lighting, horseplay, and poor ergonomics can also contribute to falls, but falls themselves pose the highest danger.

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  • 9. 

    What action should you take first when you encounter a fire? 

    • Evacuate personnel from the building.

    • Extinguish the fire if possible.

    • Call the fire department.

    • Sound the fire alarm.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sound the fire alarm.
    Explanation
    The first action to take when encountering a fire is to sound the fire alarm. This is crucial as it alerts everyone in the building to the presence of a fire and allows them to begin evacuating immediately. Evacuating personnel from the building should be the next step after sounding the alarm, followed by calling the fire department for professional assistance. Extinguishing the fire is not recommended as the priority should be on ensuring the safety of individuals and leaving the firefighting to professionals.

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  • 10. 

    What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them? 

    • Version Identification.

    • Header Checksum.

    • Time to Live.

    • Flags.

    Correct Answer
    A. Header Checksum.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Header Checksum. The Header Checksum is a field in the IP Datagram that allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them. This field contains a calculated value based on the contents of the header, and it is used to verify the integrity of the header during transmission. If the calculated checksum does not match the received checksum, it indicates that the header has been corrupted, and the datagram is discarded to prevent further processing with incorrect information.

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  • 11. 

    What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers? 

    • 0–1023.

    • 1024–49151.

    • 49152–65535.

    • 65536–87000.

    Correct Answer
    A. 0–1023.
    Explanation
    The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for specific services and protocols, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). They are commonly used by popular applications and are well-known in the networking community.

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  • 12. 

    Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image? 

    • Printer.

    • Scanner.

    • Monitor.

    • Camera lens.

    Correct Answer
    A. Scanner.
    Explanation
    A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image. It uses a light source to illuminate the document or object and then captures the reflected light using sensors. The captured information is then converted into a digital format that can be saved or manipulated on a computer. A printer, monitor, and camera lens do not perform this specific function of converting physical images into digital ones.

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  • 13. 

    Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area? 

    • Local area network (LAN).

    • Wide area network (WAN).

    • Virtual private network (VPN).

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Local area network (LAN).
    Explanation
    A local area network (LAN) is a network of computers and devices that are connected to each other within a small geographic area, such as a building or campus. In a LAN, the computers and devices share a common communications line, often in the form of Ethernet cables or Wi-Fi, allowing them to communicate and share resources, such as printers, files, and internet access. LANs are typically managed by a single processor or server, which helps coordinate and control the network activities.

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  • 14. 

    Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code? 

    • Service set identifier (SSID) Broadcasting.

    • Media access control (MAC) Filtering.

    • Encryption.

    • Tunneling.

    Correct Answer
    A. Encryption.
    Explanation
    Encryption is the best described method for hiding a message in a special code. Encryption involves converting the original message into a secret code that can only be read by authorized parties who possess the decryption key. This ensures that even if the message is intercepted, it remains unreadable and secure. SSID Broadcasting and MAC Filtering are methods used to control access to a WLAN, but they do not involve hiding messages in a special code. Tunneling is a method used to encapsulate one network protocol within another, but it does not specifically involve hiding messages in a special code.

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  • 15. 

    Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users’ own end terminals? 

    • Internet Protocol.

    • End-to-end.

    • Bulk.

    • Link.

    Correct Answer
    A. End-to-end.
    Explanation
    End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection as it ensures that the information is fully encoded from the source to the destination. This means that even if the data is intercepted during transmission, it cannot be deciphered without the encryption keys at the endpoints. Other types of encryption, such as Internet Protocol, Bulk, or Link encryption, may provide some level of protection but they do not guarantee the same level of security as end-to-end encryption.

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  • 16. 

    Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent? 

    • Malware.

    • Spyware.

    • Adware.

    • Trojans.

    Correct Answer
    A. Spyware.
    Explanation
    Spyware is a type of computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It is often installed on a user's computer without their knowledge and can track their internet activity, capture keystrokes, and gather sensitive information such as passwords and credit card details. Unlike adware, which displays unwanted advertisements, or Trojans, which masquerade as legitimate software, spyware is solely focused on gathering personal information. Therefore, spyware is the correct answer to the question.

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  • 17. 

    Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user? 

    • Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).

    • Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).

    • Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.

    • Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user.

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  • 18. 

    How are fires classified?

    • Fuel type.

    • Heat source.

    • Temperature.

    • Atmospheric conditions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuel type.
    Explanation
    Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuel, such as wood, gas, or oil, can result in different types of fires with varying characteristics and behaviors. Understanding the fuel type is crucial in determining the appropriate firefighting methods and strategies to effectively control and extinguish the fire.

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  • 19. 

    Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced? 

    • Class A.

    • Class B.

    • Class C.

    • Class D.

    Correct Answer
    A. Class C.
    Explanation
    When an electric current is introduced, fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to Class C. This is because the introduction of an electric current can cause the fuel to become conductive and increase the risk of electrical fires. Class C fires involve energized electrical equipment, so the classification changes to reflect this increased hazard.

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  • 20. 

    What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?  

    • Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record.

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record.

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The CSIR is a comprehensive documentation system that includes administrative records, such as project management and coordination information, drawing records that provide visual representations of the installation, and maintenance records that document any repairs or updates made to the system. These three parts together ensure that all necessary information about the installation is recorded and easily accessible.

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  • 21. 

    Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control? 

    • Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • Federal Communications Commission (FCC).

    • Department of Homeland Security (DHS).

    • Department of Defense (DOD).

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body responsible for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. They provide IT and communication support to the DOD and ensure the security and reliability of the DOD's information systems.

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  • 22. 

    Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling. 

    • Media converter.

    • Modem.

    • Switch.

    • Router.

    Correct Answer
    A. Media converter.
    Explanation
    A media converter is a device that converts the electrical signal used in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling. It is used to extend the reach of a network by connecting different types of media, such as copper and fiber optic cables. A modem is used to connect to the internet, a switch is used to connect multiple devices within a network, and a router is used to connect multiple networks together. Therefore, the correct answer is media converter.

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  • 23. 

    Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials? 

    • When it is placed in service.

    • When it is removed from service.

    • When the storage container has been cleaned.

    • When compromise of the combination is suspected.

    Correct Answer
    A. When the storage container has been cleaned.
    Explanation
    Changing the combination on a container storing classified materials is necessary when there is a suspected compromise of the combination, as this could potentially lead to unauthorized access. Placing the container in service or removing it from service does not directly affect the security of the combination. However, cleaning the storage container does not pose a security risk or compromise the combination, so changing the combination is not necessary in this case.

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  • 24. 

    What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel? 

    • Air Force Portal.

    • IMDS.

    • Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS).

    • Electronic-publications (E-pub).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Portal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force Portal. The Air Force Portal is a major program that provides a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel. It is a secure website that offers a wide range of resources, including news, career information, training materials, and access to various applications and systems. It serves as a central hub for Air Force personnel to access important information and tools needed for their duties and responsibilities.

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  • 25. 

    What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. 

    • Isolating operations.

    • Providing administrative controls.

    • Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).

    • Substitution a less hazardous material or process.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).
    Explanation
    The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. While PPE can provide some level of protection, it is not as effective as other methods such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. PPE should be used in conjunction with these other control measures to ensure the highest level of safety.

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  • 26. 

    According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers? 

    • 1 to 2.

    • 2 to 2.5.

    • 2 to 4.5.

    • 2.5 to 3.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 to 2.5.
  • 27. 

    Which ladder practice is not prohibited? 

    • Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.

    • Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder.

    • Using a ladder as a scaffold.

    • Using a homemade ladder.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.
    Explanation
    The use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material and does not conduct electricity. Therefore, using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits does not pose a risk of electric shock. However, the other options are prohibited for safety reasons. Carrying material while ascending or descending a ladder can cause imbalance and increase the risk of falling. Using a ladder as a scaffold is not recommended as it may not provide the necessary stability and support. Using a homemade ladder is also not advisable as it may not meet safety standards and could be structurally unsound.

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  • 28. 

    Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)? 

    • Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • Apply the process irregularly and continuously.

    • Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    A. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.
    Explanation
    The action of applying the risk management process irregularly and continuously is not a part of risk management. Risk management involves systematically identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks in order to minimize their impact on an organization. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would be inconsistent and ineffective in managing risks. Instead, risk management should be integrated into operations and planning at all levels, with risk decisions being made at the appropriate level and unnecessary risks being avoided.

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  • 29. 

    Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management? 

    • Office of Administration.

    • Office of Communications.

    • Office of Public Engagement.

    • Office of Management and Budget.

    Correct Answer
    A. Office of Management and Budget.
    Explanation
    The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. OMB plays a crucial role in overseeing and coordinating federal agencies' budget, management, and regulatory objectives. It ensures that agencies are making informed decisions regarding their IT investments and that these investments align with the government's overall goals and objectives.

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  • 30. 

    What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected? 

    • There are no negative effects.

    • A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication.

    • Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices.

    • When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.

    Correct Answer
    A. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.
    Explanation
    When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to manage the communication between devices. If this central node point fails, it can result in large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that the devices connected to those isolated portions will not be able to communicate with each other or with devices in other parts of the network. This can lead to significant disruptions in communication and can negatively impact the overall functionality of the interconnected star networks.

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  • 31. 

    Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company? 

    • Local area network (LAN).

    • Wide area network (WAN).

    • Virtual private network (VPN).

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Wide area network (WAN).
    Explanation
    A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects local area networks (LAN) and metropolitan area networks (MAN) using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. WANs are typically used to connect geographically dispersed locations, such as different offices or branches of a company, over a large area. They provide a wider coverage compared to LANs and MANs, allowing for communication and data transfer over longer distances.

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  • 32. 

    What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware? 

    • Shell.

    • Kernel.

    • User programs.

    • Dynamic-link library.

    Correct Answer
    A. Kernel.
    Explanation
    The kernel is the UNIX system software that interacts most closely with the hardware. It is the core component of the operating system that manages the system resources, such as memory, processes, and input/output devices. The kernel provides an interface between the hardware and the user programs, allowing the programs to access and utilize the hardware resources efficiently. The shell, user programs, and dynamic-link library are all important components of the UNIX system, but they rely on the kernel to communicate with the hardware.

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  • 33. 

    What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database? 

    • Word.

    • Access.

    • Outlook.

    • PowerPoint.

    Correct Answer
    A. Access.
    Explanation
    Access is the correct answer because it is a Microsoft application specifically designed for creating and managing desktop databases. Word is a word processing program, Outlook is an email and personal information manager, and PowerPoint is a presentation software. None of these applications have the primary functionality of creating a desktop database like Access does.

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  • 34. 

    Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?

    • Attacker’s capability to exploit the flaw.

    • System’s susceptibility to a flaw.

    • Attacker’s access to the flaw.

    • Attacker’s lack of ability.

    Correct Answer
    A. Attacker’s lack of ability.
    Explanation
    The given question asks about a computer system vulnerability that is not present in a computer system. The correct answer is "Attacker's lack of ability." This means that the vulnerability does not exist because the attacker does not have the necessary skills or capabilities to exploit a flaw in the system. In other words, the absence of the attacker's ability prevents the vulnerability from being present in the computer system.

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  • 35. 

    Which action is a physiological factor?

    • Performing a task while fatigued.

    • Performing a task while intoxicated.

    • Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.

    • Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.
  • 36. 

    What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?  

    • Evacuate personnel from the building.

    • Extinguish the fire if possible.

    • Call the fire department.

    • Sound the fire alarm.

    Correct Answer
    A. Extinguish the fire if possible.
    Explanation
    The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to suppress and eliminate the fire. It is important to assess the situation and determine if it is safe and feasible to attempt extinguishing the fire before proceeding with this step.

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  • 37. 

    What is a peripheral device? 

    • A main internal component of a computer.

    • Not a main internal component of a computer.

    • A main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.

    • Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.

    Correct Answer
    A. Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.
    Explanation
    A peripheral device is not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external. This means that it is not one of the main internal components of a computer, but rather an additional device that can be connected to a computer to enhance its functionality. Peripheral devices include items such as printers, scanners, keyboards, and mice, which are not essential for the computer to function but can be used to input or output data. These devices can be either internal, such as a internal card reader, or external, such as a USB printer.

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  • 38. 

    Which network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet? 

    • Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).

    • Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).

    • Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.

    • Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet. It is specifically designed for unclassified information and is separate from the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET), which is used for classified information. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data and Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data are not relevant to this question.

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  • 39. 

    When used alone, the word “topology” often refers to a network’s  

    • Transport topology.

    • Physical topology.

    • Physical medium.

    • Logical topology.

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical topology.
    Explanation
    The word "topology" refers to the arrangement or structure of a network. When used alone, it usually refers to the physical topology, which describes the physical layout of the network components and their connections. This includes the placement of devices such as routers, switches, and cables. The physical topology determines how the network is physically organized and how data flows between devices. It is different from the logical topology, which focuses on how data is transmitted and how devices communicate with each other.

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  • 40. 

    Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?

    • Local area network (LAN).

    • Wide area network (WAN).

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    • Wireless local area network (WLAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Wireless local area network (WLAN).
    Explanation
    Wireless local area network (WLAN) uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol used in WLANs to ensure that multiple devices do not transmit data at the same time, which could result in collisions and data loss. This protocol allows devices to sense the medium for ongoing transmissions and wait for a clear channel before transmitting data, thus avoiding collisions and improving overall network efficiency.

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  • 41. 

    How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is required or another supplemental control is sufficient? 

    • General Service Administration (GSA) makes that determination.

    • Office of Special Investigation (OSI) makes that determination.

    • Wing information office makes that determination.

    • By competing a risk assessment.

    Correct Answer
    A. By competing a risk assessment.
    Explanation
    To determine if an intrusion detection system is required or if another supplemental control is sufficient, a risk assessment needs to be completed. This involves evaluating the potential risks and threats to the system, as well as the potential impact of those risks. By conducting a risk assessment, an organization can identify the specific security needs and determine if an intrusion detection system is necessary or if another control measure would be adequate to mitigate the identified risks. The General Service Administration (GSA), Office of Special Investigation (OSI), and Wing information office do not have the authority or expertise to make this determination.

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  • 42. 

    What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

    • Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO).

    • Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).

    • Review AF Form 55.

    • Certify the employee.

    Correct Answer
    A. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).
    Explanation
    Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves assessing the potential hazards associated with the task, identifying safety measures and precautions, and ensuring that employees are trained and equipped to safely carry out the task. By conducting a JSA, supervisors can mitigate risks and ensure the safety of employees while performing the task.

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  • 43. 

    The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?

    • Transport.

    • Data Link.

    • Physical.

    • Session.

    Correct Answer
    A. Data Link.
    Explanation
    The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. This layer is responsible for managing the flow of data between two adjacent nodes in a network, ensuring error-free transmission and providing services such as framing, error detection, and flow control. The LLC sublayer is specifically responsible for managing the logical link between these nodes, including establishing and terminating connections, error recovery, and flow control at the logical level.

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  • 44. 

    What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)? 

    • Request network services and pass arguments between layers.

    • Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine.

    • Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.

    • Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.

    Correct Answer
    A. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
    Explanation
    The purpose of a sliding window in TCP is to regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps in controlling the flow of data and ensures that the sender does not overwhelm the receiver with too much data. The sliding window mechanism allows for efficient and reliable data transmission by adjusting the window size based on network conditions and the receiver's ability to process data.

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  • 45. 

    What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratifies the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE)? 

    • 1988.

    • 1999.

    • 2005.

    • 2009.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1999.
    Explanation
    In 1999, the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratified the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE). This means that in 1999, the IEEE officially approved and standardized the use of GbE, which is a high-speed networking technology capable of transmitting data at a rate of one gigabit per second.

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  • 46. 

    What Microsoft application is a personal information manager? 

    • Word.

    • Access.

    • Outlook.

    • PowerPoint.

    Correct Answer
    A. Outlook.
    Explanation
    Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is primarily used for email, but also includes features such as a calendar, task manager, contact manager, note-taking, and journal. Outlook helps users organize and manage their personal information effectively, making it the correct answer for the given question.

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  • 47. 

    What three sub-categories make up human factors? 

    • Physiological, physical, stress.

    • Physiological, Physical, social.

    • Stress, organizational, physical.

    • Physical, physiological, organizational.

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical, physiological, organizational.
    Explanation
    The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical, physiological, and organizational. Physical factors refer to the design and layout of the environment, equipment, and tools. Physiological factors involve understanding the capabilities and limitations of the human body, such as ergonomics and biomechanics. Organizational factors consider the social and psychological aspects of work, including communication, teamwork, and leadership. This comprehensive approach ensures that human factors are considered in designing systems and processes to optimize human performance and well-being.

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  • 48. 

    Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards? 

    • Bioenvironmental Engineering.

    • Installation safety office.

    • Base civil engineer.

    • Supervisors.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bioenvironmental Engineering.
    Explanation
    Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. This department specializes in assessing and managing environmental and occupational health risks in order to protect the health and well-being of individuals in a given environment. They conduct thorough evaluations, identify potential hazards, and provide expert guidance on implementing appropriate controls to minimize health risks. Their expertise and knowledge make them the most suitable entity to recommend controls in order to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards.

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  • 49. 

    Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest? 

    • 50.

    • 40.

    • 20.

    • 10.

    Correct Answer
    A. 50.
    Explanation
    Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps can cause cardiac arrest. This is because at this level of current, the electrical signals in the heart can be disrupted, leading to an abnormal rhythm and potentially stopping the heart altogether. It is important to note that even lower currents can still be dangerous and cause harm to the heart, so caution should always be exercised when dealing with electrical currents.

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  • Mar 20, 2023
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  • Mar 29, 2017
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