3D1X3 Rf Trans Z3dx5x Volume 2 CDC

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1. What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable

Explanation

The characteristic of "cost to install and train technicians" is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cables are known for their high installation and training costs compared to other types of cables. However, the other characteristics mentioned, such as electromagnetic immunity, low attenuation, and security, are all advantages of fiber optic cables.

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3D1X3 Rf Trans Z3dx5x Volume 2 CDC - Quiz

This quiz focuses on the Mishap Prevention Program, safety responsibilities, and reporting procedures within the RF Transmissions context.

2. What microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?

Explanation

Access is a Microsoft application that allows users to create a desktop database. It provides a user-friendly interface and various tools for designing and managing databases. With Access, users can easily create tables, forms, queries, and reports to organize and analyze their data. It is widely used for creating small to medium-sized databases for personal or business purposes.

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3. Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

Explanation

Spyware is computer software that is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It can be installed on a user's computer without their knowledge and can track their online activities, capture sensitive information such as passwords and credit card details, and even control their computer remotely. Spyware often operates stealthily in the background, making it difficult for users to detect and remove. It is a serious privacy and security concern as it violates the user's consent and can lead to identity theft and other malicious activities.

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4. What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

Explanation

The greatest hazard in a typical office is falls. This can occur due to various reasons such as slippery floors, tripping over objects, or improper use of ladders or stairs. Falls can result in serious injuries, including fractures or head trauma. It is important for employers to ensure a safe working environment by implementing measures such as keeping walkways clear, providing proper lighting, and conducting regular maintenance to prevent falls.

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5. Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

Explanation

When an electric current is introduced, fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to class C. This is because the introduction of an electric current can increase the flammability and volatility of the fuel, causing it to be reclassified into a higher risk category. Class C fuels are typically more hazardous and require additional precautions to handle and store safely.

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6. Which network provides a private tunnel through the internet?

Explanation

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the internet. It creates a secure connection between the user's device and a remote server, encrypting the data that is transmitted. This allows users to access the internet securely and privately, as the VPN masks their IP address and encrypts their online activities. By using a VPN, users can protect their sensitive information from being intercepted or accessed by unauthorized individuals.

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7. Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users' own end terminals?

Explanation

End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information is fully encoded from the sender's end terminal to the receiver's end terminal. This means that the data remains encrypted throughout the entire network, making it extremely difficult for any unauthorized party to intercept or access the information. This type of encryption ensures that only the intended recipient can decrypt and access the data, providing a high level of security and privacy for users.

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8. How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is required or another supplemental control is sufficient?

Explanation

To determine if an intrusion detection system is required or if another supplemental control is sufficient, a risk assessment needs to be completed. This involves evaluating potential risks and vulnerabilities in the system and assessing the likelihood and impact of these risks. By conducting a risk assessment, one can identify the level of protection needed and determine if an intrusion detection system is necessary or if other controls can adequately mitigate the identified risks. The other options mentioned, such as the general service administration, office of special investigation, or wing information office, do not have the authority or expertise to make this determination.

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9. The Occupational safety and health administration (OSHA) is a part of the US department of

Explanation

The correct answer is "labor" because the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States. It sets and enforces standards, provides training and education, and conducts inspections to promote workplace safety and protect workers' rights. The Department of Labor oversees OSHA and is responsible for enforcing labor laws and promoting the welfare of workers.

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10. What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

Explanation

The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and/or death. This program aims to implement measures and practices that minimize the risk of accidents, incidents, and mishaps within an organization. By identifying and addressing potential hazards, promoting safety awareness, and implementing preventive measures, the program aims to ensure the well-being and safety of both personnel and resources.

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11. How are fires classified

Explanation

Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuel, such as wood, paper, or flammable liquids, can produce different types of fires with varying characteristics. Understanding the fuel type helps in determining the appropriate methods for extinguishing the fire and predicting its behavior. Heat source, temperature, and atmospheric conditions can also influence the behavior of a fire, but the primary classification criterion is the fuel type.

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12. What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

Explanation

The first action to take when encountering a fire is to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building about the fire and prompts them to evacuate immediately. By sounding the fire alarm, you ensure that everyone is aware of the danger and can take necessary actions to save their lives. Evacuating personnel from the building, extinguishing the fire, and calling the fire department are important steps to follow, but sounding the fire alarm takes precedence as it initiates the evacuation process.

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13. Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts into a digital picture?

Explanation

A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it into a digital picture. It uses a light source to illuminate the object being scanned and then captures the reflected light using sensors. The captured information is then converted into a digital format that can be stored, edited, or printed. Unlike a printer, monitor, or camera lens, a scanner is specifically designed for the purpose of converting physical media into digital images.

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14. Which network is a network that links LAN and MAN by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

Explanation

A WAN (Wide Area Network) is a network that connects LAN (Local Area Network) and MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) by utilizing long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. WANs are designed to cover large geographic areas and provide connectivity between different locations, allowing for the transmission of data over long distances. Unlike LANs and MANs, which are typically confined to a specific area or region, WANs enable communication on a broader scale.

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15. Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio managements?

Explanation

The office of management and budget annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management.

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16. What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

Explanation

A linear topology is another name for a bus topology. In a bus topology, all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear arrangement. This cable acts as a shared communication medium, allowing data to be transmitted between devices. Each device on the network receives the data, but only the intended recipient processes it. This topology is commonly used in small networks and is cost-effective as it requires less cabling compared to other topologies.

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17. What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

Explanation

When star networks are interconnected, a negative effect can occur if the central node point fails. This is because the central node is responsible for connecting all the devices in the network, and if it fails, large portions of the network become isolated. This means that communication between those isolated portions will be disrupted, leading to a loss of connectivity and potential data loss. Therefore, it is important to have backup systems or redundancy measures in place to prevent such failures from affecting the entire interconnected network.

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18. Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?

Explanation

Cleaning the storage container is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials. Cleaning the container does not pose a risk to the security of the classified materials or compromise the combination. The combination should only be changed when there is a suspicion of compromise or when the container is being placed in or removed from service, as these events could potentially lead to unauthorized access to the classified materials.

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19. Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the DOD and every level of IT communications from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and is responsible for managing and providing IT and communication support to the DOD information network. They have authority over every level of IT communications, from the DOD information network to the warfighter, under their scope of control.

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20. What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards

Explanation

The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. PPE is only a last resort and should be used in conjunction with other control measures such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, and substitution of a less hazardous material or process. PPE is not as effective as eliminating or reducing the hazard at its source, and it relies on proper selection, use, and maintenance by individuals, which can be subject to human error.

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21. According to the centers for disease control and prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

Explanation

According to the CDC, office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers.

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22. Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

Explanation

Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. This means that if a person is exposed to an electrical current of 50 milliamps, it can disrupt the normal functioning of the heart and lead to a life-threatening condition. It is important to note that even lower levels of current can still be dangerous and cause harm, but 50 milliamps is considered a critical threshold for cardiac arrest.

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23. Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

Explanation

Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, using a wooden ladder in such situations does not pose a significant risk of electrical shock or electrocution. However, it is still important to exercise caution and follow proper safety procedures when working near electrical circuits.

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24. What portion of the IP datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

Explanation

The header checksum is a portion of the IP datagram that allows IP to detect if the header has been corrupted during transmission. It is a mathematical calculation performed on the header contents, and the result is included in the datagram. When the recipient receives the datagram, it recalculates the checksum and compares it to the one included in the packet. If they don't match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted, and the datagram is discarded. Therefore, the header checksum helps ensure the integrity of the IP datagram.

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25. What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 superspeed (SS) transfer mode?

Explanation

The maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 superspeed (SS) transfer mode is 5 GB/S. This means that data can be transferred at a speed of 5 gigabytes per second. USB 3.0 superspeed is an improved version of USB technology that allows for faster data transfer compared to previous versions. With a transfer rate of 5 GB/S, it enables quicker and more efficient transfer of large files and data.

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26. Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?

Explanation

A LAN (Local Area Network) is a network of computers and devices that are connected together within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or building. In a LAN, the computers and devices are linked by a common communications line, allowing them to share resources like files, printers, and internet access. This type of network is typically managed by a single server or processor, which controls the flow of data and ensures efficient communication between the connected devices.

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27. What three parts make up communications and information systems installation record (CSIR)?

Explanation

The three parts that make up the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) are the administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes information such as project documentation, contracts, and correspondence. The drawing record consists of technical drawings and diagrams related to the installation. The maintenance record contains records of maintenance activities and repairs performed on the system. These three parts together provide a comprehensive documentation of the installation process, technical details, and ongoing maintenance of the communications and information systems.

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28. What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems to connect together?

Explanation

Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) is a network routing protocol that allows multiple autonomous systems to connect together. It is specifically designed for interconnecting different autonomous systems and exchanging routing information between them. EGP enables the exchange of routing information and the determination of the best path for data packets to traverse between different autonomous systems, facilitating communication and connectivity across the network.

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29. What microsoft application is a personal information manager?

Explanation

Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is primarily used for managing emails, but it also includes features like a calendar, task manager, contact manager, note-taking, and journal. Outlook allows users to organize and prioritize their personal and professional information in one place, making it an effective personal information manager. Word, Access, and PowerPoint are not personal information managers, as they are primarily used for word processing, database management, and creating presentations respectively.

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30. Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?

Explanation

AFI 91-202 is the correct answer because it is the publication that implements the Mishap Prevention Program. The Mishap Prevention Program is a set of guidelines and procedures aimed at preventing accidents and mishaps within the Air Force. AFI 91-200 and AFMAN 91-200 are not the correct answers as they do not specifically address the Mishap Prevention Program.

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31. Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

Explanation

The installation safety officer is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They play a crucial role in ensuring that safety protocols and procedures are followed to prevent accidents and promote a safe working environment. Their expertise and guidance help in identifying potential hazards, implementing safety measures, and providing necessary training to personnel.

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32. Which action is a physiological factor?

Explanation

Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders is not a physiological factor. Physiological factors refer to bodily processes and functions that can affect a person's ability to perform tasks, such as fatigue, intoxication, or the effects of medication. Ignoring directions is a behavioral or psychological factor, as it involves a person's decision or attitude rather than a physiological condition.

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33. What major program does the global combat support system- AF (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for AF personnel?

Explanation

The correct answer is the AF portal. The AF portal is a major program provided by the global combat support system- AF (GCSS-AF) that serves as a single point of reference for services and information for AF personnel. It is an online platform that provides access to various resources such as email, calendars, news, and other important tools and applications that are essential for Air Force personnel to carry out their duties efficiently. The AF portal helps streamline communication and collaboration within the Air Force community and ensures easy access to critical information and services.

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34. Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

Explanation

Risk management involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks in a systematic and consistent manner. It is important to apply the risk management process regularly and continuously to ensure that all potential risks are addressed and managed effectively. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would not be a part of effective risk management as it may lead to overlooking or neglecting certain risks, which can have negative consequences for an organization.

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35. What characteristic is the major difference between RAM and ROM?

Explanation

The major difference between RAM and ROM is their volatility. ROM (Read-Only Memory) is non-volatile, meaning that it retains its data even when power is lost. On the other hand, RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile, which means it requires a constant power supply to maintain its data.

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36. Which WLAN security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

Explanation

Encryption is the best WLAN security method that can be described as hiding a message in a special code. Encryption involves the process of converting plaintext data into ciphertext using an encryption algorithm and a secret key. This ensures that only authorized individuals with the correct key can decipher and access the original message. By encrypting the data, it becomes unreadable to anyone who does not have the key, providing a secure method of transmitting information over a wireless network.

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37. What year did the IEEE ratifies the use of gigabit ethernet?

Explanation

The IEEE ratified the use of gigabit ethernet in the year 1999. This means that in 1999, the IEEE officially approved and standardized the use of gigabit ethernet technology.

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38. What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?

Explanation

The kernel is the correct answer because it is the core component of the UNIX system software that interacts directly with the hardware. It manages the system's resources, such as memory and CPU, and provides essential services to the user programs. The kernel acts as a bridge between the hardware and the user, handling low-level tasks and ensuring proper communication and coordination between the hardware and other software components.

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39. Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?

Explanation

The given answer states that "attacker's lack of ability" is not a computer system vulnerability. This means that the vulnerability lies in the attacker's capability to exploit a flaw, the system's susceptibility to a flaw, or the attacker's access to the flaw. In other words, the answer suggests that the vulnerability lies in the attacker's skill or resources rather than any inherent flaw in the computer system itself.

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40. How many impact classifications do hardhats have?

Explanation

Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to protect against two levels of impact: low energy impacts and high energy impacts. The hardhat is constructed to absorb and distribute the force of the impact, reducing the risk of head injuries. Having two impact classifications allows the hardhat to provide adequate protection in various work environments and situations.

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41. What is a transmission control protocol (TCP) socket?

Explanation

A TCP socket is a combination of a port number and IP address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers. This allows the process to establish a connection with another process on a remote machine and exchange data over the network. The port number helps identify the specific process or service on the remote machine, while the IP address identifies the machine itself. By combining these two elements, the TCP socket enables communication between processes on different machines in a network.

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42. Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?

Explanation

The correct answer is SBU IP data or NIPRNET. SBU stands for Sensitive But Unclassified, which refers to information that is not classified but still requires protection. NIPRNET (Non-classified Internet Protocol Router Network) is a network used by the U.S. Department of Defense to transmit unclassified information. Therefore, SBU IP data or NIPRNET is the network that supports unclassified email service to the user.

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43. Which system of the global command and control system-AF (GCCS-AF) monitors status of resources and training systems ensuring that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available to the for mission completion?

Explanation

The correct answer is GSORTS because it is the system within GCCS-AF that monitors the status of resources and training systems. It ensures that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available for mission completion.

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44. What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?

Explanation

The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to attempt to put out the fire. It is important to prioritize the safety of personnel and evacuate them from the building before attempting to extinguish the fire. Calling the fire department and sounding the fire alarm are also crucial steps in the firefighting procedure, but they are not specifically mentioned as the fourth step.

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45. What action is the purpose of a sliding window in TCP?

Explanation

A sliding window in TCP is used to regulate the amount of information that can pass over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps in controlling the flow of data and preventing network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices with data.

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46. What value is the maximum of an octet in IPv4?

Explanation

An octet in IPv4 is represented by 8 bits, which can have a maximum value of 255. This is because the binary representation of 255 is 11111111, where all the bits are set to 1. Therefore, 255 is the highest value that can be represented by an octet in IPv4.

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47. What class is reserved for multicast addressing?

Explanation

Class D Address is reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing allows a single packet to be sent to multiple destinations simultaneously. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are used for multicast group addresses. These addresses are not assigned to specific devices but rather to groups of devices that are interested in receiving the multicast traffic. Multicast addresses are commonly used for multimedia streaming, online gaming, and other applications that require efficient distribution of data to multiple recipients.

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48. What is a peripheral device?

Explanation

A peripheral device is not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external. Peripheral devices are additional hardware components that can be connected to a computer to enhance its functionality. These devices include input devices like keyboards and mice, output devices like monitors and printers, as well as storage devices, networking devices, and other accessories. While they are essential for performing specific tasks, they are not considered main internal components of a computer like the CPU or motherboard.

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49. Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cableing?

Explanation

A media converter is a device that acts as a transceiver by converting electrical signals used in copper unshielded twisted pair network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling. This conversion allows for the transmission of data between different types of network cables. A modem, switch, and router do not perform this specific function of converting signals between copper and fiber optic cables.

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50. When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's

Explanation

The word "topology" refers to the arrangement or structure of a network. When used alone, "topology" often refers to the network's physical topology, which describes the physical layout of the network components such as computers, cables, and devices. This includes the placement of devices, the connections between them, and how they are physically arranged in the network. It does not refer to the transport topology, physical medium, or logical topology, which are different aspects of a network's configuration.

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51. Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?

Explanation

Bio-environmental engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge in identifying potential health hazards and implementing measures to minimize or eliminate those risks. This includes conducting risk assessments, developing control measures, and providing guidance to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals in the environment. The bio-environmental engineering team works closely with other departments and personnel, such as the installation safety office and base civil engineer, to ensure a comprehensive approach to health risk mitigation. Supervisors also play a role in implementing these controls within their respective areas of responsibility.

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52. What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?

Explanation

The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are assigned to commonly used protocols and services such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). They are reserved for specific purposes and are typically associated with standard protocols used in networking.

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53. What system of the global HF network provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the national command authority, DOD, aircraft, and ships of the US government during peacetime, contingency situations and war?

Explanation

The global HF system provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the national command authority, DOD, aircraft, and ships of the US government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war. This system is specifically designed to ensure effective communication in various scenarios and is crucial for maintaining coordination and command during critical situations. It allows for efficient communication across different entities within the US government, ensuring smooth operations and decision-making processes.

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54. Which part of the communications and information systems installation record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?

Explanation

The maintenance record is normally retained in the production work center of the communications and information systems installation record (CSIR). This record includes information about the maintenance activities performed on the systems, such as repairs, inspections, and upgrades. It is essential to have this record available in the work center to track the maintenance history of the systems and ensure their proper functioning. This record helps in identifying any recurring issues, scheduling future maintenance tasks, and maintaining the overall reliability of the systems.

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55. What topology offers centralized management of a network?

Explanation

The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which acts as a central point for managing and controlling the network. This allows for easier monitoring, troubleshooting, and administration of the network, as all connections and communication flow through the central hub. Additionally, the star topology provides better fault tolerance, as a failure in one device does not affect the entire network.

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56. What three sub-categories make up human factors?

Explanation

The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical, physiological, and organizational. Physical factors include the design of equipment and tools, as well as the layout of the workspace. Physiological factors involve understanding how the human body functions and how it interacts with the environment. Organizational factors consider the impact of management, work schedules, and communication on human performance. This holistic approach to human factors ensures that all aspects of the individual, their physical abilities, and the organization are taken into account for optimizing performance and safety.

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57. The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which OSI model layer?

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the data link layer in the OSI model. This layer is responsible for managing the communication between network devices, ensuring reliable and error-free transmission of data. The LLC sublayer handles flow control, error detection, and error correction, making it an integral part of the data link layer's functionality.

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58. Which classified document markings identifies the highest level of classification?

Explanation

Banner lines are classified document markings that identify the highest level of classification. They are typically placed at the top and bottom of each page and indicate the level of sensitivity and security clearance required to access the document. Banner lines often include information such as the classification level (e.g., Top Secret, Secret, Confidential), special access instructions, and handling caveats. These markings help ensure that the document is properly protected and accessed only by authorized personnel.

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59. Which network uses carrier sense multiple access/collision avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?

Explanation

WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network) uses carrier sense multiple access/collision avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol used in wireless networks to prevent multiple devices from transmitting data at the same time, which could lead to collisions and data loss. It works by having devices listen for a clear channel before transmitting, and if the channel is busy, they wait for a random amount of time before attempting to transmit again. This helps to ensure efficient and reliable data transmission in WLANs.

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60. Which network provides DOD customers with centralized and protect access to the public intranet?

Explanation

The correct answer is SBU IP data or NIPRNET. SBU IP data or NIPRNET is the network that provides DOD (Department of Defense) customers with centralized and protected access to the public intranet. This network is specifically designed for sensitive but unclassified (SBU) information and is widely used by military personnel and authorized contractors. It allows for secure communication and collaboration while ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data being transmitted.

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61. What system is the priority component of the department of defense information network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the joint chiefs of staff in the exercise of their responsibilities?

Explanation

The national military command center (NMCC) is the priority component of the department of defense information network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the joint chiefs of staff in the exercise of their responsibilities. The NMCC serves as the primary command and control center for the military and provides real-time situational awareness, communication, and coordination during military operations. It is responsible for monitoring and coordinating the actions of all military forces and ensuring effective command and control of the DODIN.

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62. How many T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits do Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer?

Explanation

Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer 7 T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits.

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63. What action is the main purpose of system cache?

Explanation

The main purpose of system cache is to reduce CPU access time to stored data. System cache stores frequently accessed data from RAM in a faster cache memory, allowing the CPU to retrieve the data quickly without having to access the slower RAM. This helps to improve overall system performance and efficiency by reducing the time it takes for the CPU to access data.

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64. What system mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air, land, and sea-based users?

Explanation

The global high frequency network (HF-GCS) is the correct answer because its mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air, land, and sea-based users. This network utilizes high frequency radio waves to transmit and receive messages, allowing for long-range communication even in remote areas where other communication systems may be limited or unavailable. By connecting users across different domains and locations, the HF-GCS plays a crucial role in ensuring effective and efficient communication for various military operations and missions.

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65. How many volumes make up the DOD Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?

Explanation

The DOD Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is made up of four volumes. Each volume provides guidance and standards for different aspects of the DODAF, including the overall framework, the architecture data, the architecture products, and the architecture usage. These volumes work together to ensure that the DODAF is comprehensive and effective in supporting the development and management of architectures within the Department of Defense.

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66. Which AF form records the destruction of Top Secret classified material?

Explanation

AF form 143 is the correct answer because it is the form that records the destruction of Top Secret classified material. This form is specifically designed for documenting the destruction process and ensuring that all necessary steps are followed to properly dispose of classified information. It is important to use the correct form to maintain accountability and security when handling sensitive materials.

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67. Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting top secret information?

Explanation

The information assurance officer is the correct person to seek out if you need information on transporting top secret information. This person is responsible for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information and is knowledgeable about the protocols and procedures for handling classified information. They are trained in assessing and mitigating risks associated with information security and can provide guidance on the secure transportation of sensitive data.

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68. What classification do flammable liquids receive?

Explanation

Flammable liquids receive classification class B. This classification is given to liquids that have a flash point below 100 degrees Fahrenheit. Flammable liquids in this class include gasoline, alcohol, and some solvents. They can easily catch fire and should be handled with caution to prevent accidents and fires.

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69. Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday-Sunday?

Explanation

The security manager has the authority to grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday-Sunday. As the individual responsible for overseeing security protocols and ensuring the protection of classified information, the security manager is entrusted with making decisions regarding the transportation of such materials. This includes determining when it is appropriate to ship them, even on weekends.

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70. Which of the following services provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas?

Explanation

The aerial layer service provides additional communications capacity by utilizing both manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages. This allows for continuous communications coverage over large geographic areas.

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71. Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?

Explanation

Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. In Class C addressing, the first three octets are used to identify the network, while the last octet is used to identify the host. Since the last octet can have a maximum value of 255 (including the network and broadcast addresses), the total number of available hosts is 256. However, the network and broadcast addresses are reserved, leaving 254 usable hosts per network. Class A and Class B addresses have larger network portions, allowing for more networks but fewer hosts per network. Class D addresses are used for multicast and do not have a specific limit on the number of hosts.

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72. Which part of the communications and information systems installation record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information system and provide engineering data?

Explanation

The drawing record in the communications and information systems installation record (CSIR) depicts the physical layout of the communications and information system and provides engineering data. This record includes detailed drawings and diagrams that show the placement and configuration of the system components. It is an essential part of the CSIR as it helps in understanding the physical infrastructure and aids in troubleshooting and maintenance activities.

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73. What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a host network?

Explanation

A gateway is a network device that provides connectivity between two different networks. It acts as an entry point to a remote network, allowing devices from that network to communicate with devices on the host network. This is typically achieved by translating protocols, managing data traffic, and facilitating the transfer of information between the two networks. A gateway is essential for enabling communication and data transfer between networks that have different architectures or protocols.

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74. What system provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the AF strategic aircraft and missile functions?

Explanation

The strategic automated command and control system (SACCS) is the correct answer because it provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the AF strategic aircraft and missile functions. SACCS is specifically designed to ensure the secure and reliable transmission of critical information for strategic operations, making it the most suitable system for this purpose.

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75. What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an organization's mission critical information via its communications and ISs?

Explanation

Hostile information operations refer to deliberate and malicious activities carried out by individuals or groups with the intention of causing harm to an organization's mission critical information. These operations can include cyber attacks, hacking, espionage, or spreading false information. Unlike other threats mentioned, hostile information operations are specifically designed to target an organization's communications and information systems, making them the greatest threat in terms of potential damage and impact on the organization's mission critical information.

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76. What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

Explanation

Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves a systematic examination of the task to identify potential hazards and determine the necessary precautions to ensure the safety of employees. By conducting a JSA, supervisors can effectively assess the risks associated with the task and develop appropriate safety measures to mitigate them.

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77. What requirements mandate to develop of AF architectures?

Explanation

AF architectures are developed based on requirements mandated at the federal level. This means that the development of these architectures is driven by the needs and regulations set by the federal government. These requirements could include factors such as national security, interoperability with other federal agencies, compliance with federal policies and standards, and alignment with federal strategic objectives. By adhering to federal-level requirements, AF architectures ensure that they are in line with the overall goals and priorities of the federal government.

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78. What functions do the seven layers of Open systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?

Explanation

The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify different functions in a network. The network layer, which is the correct answer, is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks. It determines the best path for data transmission and ensures that packets are delivered to their intended destination. The other options mentioned, such as programming, transport, and data, do not accurately represent the functions specified by the OSI reference model.

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79. Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?

Explanation

When a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system, a classified message incident may occur. This refers to a situation where classified information is unintentionally or mistakenly sent to individuals or systems that do not have the proper clearance or authorization to access that level of classified data. This can result in a breach of security and confidentiality, potentially compromising sensitive information.

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80. Which classified document marking appears on the face of each classified untied states document and shall indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification?

Explanation

The correct answer is "classification authority." This is the marking that appears on the face of each classified United States document and indicates the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification. It is an essential component of classified documents as it provides information about who made the classification decision and how long the document should remain classified.

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81. Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?

Explanation

Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors.

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82. Which system is a radar tracker/correlator software program hosted on a power server-based computer system that takes inputs from long range and short-range radars and displays it all on a scope?

Explanation

The correct answer is the battle control system-fixed (BCS-F). This system is a radar tracker/correlator software program hosted on a power server-based computer system. It takes inputs from long range and short-range radars and displays the information on a scope. The BCS-F is specifically designed for battle control and provides real-time situational awareness to military personnel. It helps in tracking and correlating radar data to enhance decision-making and coordination in combat operations.

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83. What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer OSI reference model?

Explanation

The two categories of the seven-layer OSI reference model are the data transport layer and the application layer. The data transport layer is responsible for the reliable transmission of data between network devices, while the application layer provides services to end users, such as file transfer, email, and web browsing. These two layers work together to ensure efficient and secure communication between network devices and enable users to access various applications and services.

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84. What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link manager?

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link manager is responsible for managing communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer handles tasks such as flow control, error control, and framing of data packets. It ensures reliable and efficient transmission of data between devices connected by a single link.

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85. What chapter in AFI 91-203, Air force consolidated occupational safety instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?

Explanation

Chapter 10 in AFI 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.

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86. Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command control (C2) and crisis management?

Explanation

DRSN stands for Defense Red Switched Network, which is a secure telecommunications network specifically designed for command control (C2) and crisis management. It provides high-quality and secure communication services to military and government agencies, allowing them to effectively communicate and coordinate during critical situations. DRSN ensures the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of communications, making it the ideal network for C2 and crisis management operations.

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87. Describe a network bridge

Explanation

A network bridge is a data link layer network device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It helps in organizing and managing network traffic by dividing it into smaller segments, reducing collisions and improving overall network performance. By separating the network into segments, a bridge also enhances security by limiting the propagation of network issues to specific segments rather than affecting the entire network.

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88. What does the MAC sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Explanation

The MAC sublayer of the data link layer manages protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices access and use the physical network medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies, to transmit data. It ensures that multiple devices on the same network can share the medium efficiently and avoid collisions. The MAC sublayer also handles tasks like addressing, error detection, and flow control to ensure reliable communication between devices.

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89. How many air defenses sectors is the battle control system- fixed (BSC-F) divided into?

Explanation

The battle control system-fixed (BSC-F) is divided into two air defense sectors.

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90. In general, how many operating system tasks categories are there?

Explanation

There are generally six categories of operating system tasks. These categories include process management, memory management, file system management, device management, network management, and user interface management. Each category is responsible for specific tasks within the operating system, such as managing running processes, allocating and managing memory, handling file operations, managing devices and drivers, handling network communication, and providing a user-friendly interface for users to interact with the system.

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91. What Af form is used to report a hazard?

Explanation

The correct answer is 475. This form is used to report a hazard.

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92. The risk management process includes how many steps?

Explanation

The risk management process includes five steps. These steps are: identification of risks, assessment of risks, development of risk response strategies, implementation of risk response strategies, and monitoring and review of risks. Each step is crucial in effectively managing risks and ensuring the success of a project or organization.

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93. COMPUSEC vulnerabilities are broken down into how many categories?

Explanation

COMPUSEC vulnerabilities are categorized into 8 different categories.

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94. What AF form is used to report ground mishaps?

Explanation

The correct answer is 978 because AF Form 978 is used to report ground mishaps. This form is specifically designed to document accidents, incidents, and mishaps that occur on the ground, such as vehicle accidents, equipment malfunctions, and injuries. It is important to accurately report these incidents to ensure that proper investigation, analysis, and corrective actions can be taken to prevent similar mishaps in the future.

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95. Which system is the DOD command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler?

Explanation

The correct answer is the global command and control system (GCCS). This system is considered the DOD command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler. It is a network-centric system that provides real-time situational awareness, information sharing, and decision-making capabilities to military commanders and staff at all levels. The GCCS integrates and synchronizes information from various sources, allowing for effective command and control of military operations. It enables the DOD to achieve full spectrum dominance by providing the ability to monitor, analyze, and respond to threats across all domains of warfare.

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96. Which system is a space-based high data rate communications link for the flow of information from the US or rear echelon locations to deployed forces?

Explanation

The correct answer is the global broadcast system (GBS). This system is a space-based high data rate communications link that allows for the flow of information from the US or rear echelon locations to deployed forces. It provides a reliable and secure means of transmitting critical information in real-time, enabling effective communication and coordination between different military units. The GBS plays a crucial role in ensuring that deployed forces have access to the necessary information and intelligence to carry out their missions effectively.

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97. What system is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space, divided by security demands, transmission requirements and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers?

Explanation

DISN stands for Defense Information System Network, which is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space, divided by security demands, transmission requirements, and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers. DISN is specifically designed to support the communication needs of the Department of Defense (DOD) and its various agencies. It ensures secure and reliable communication capabilities for military operations and supports the transmission of classified and unclassified information.

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98. What system includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority?

Explanation

The correct answer is DODIN. DODIN stands for Department of Defense Information Network, which is a system that includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority. It is a comprehensive network that enables the secure and reliable exchange of information within the Department of Defense.

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99. Which system is the AF primary intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis and dissemination system?

Explanation

The correct answer is the distributed common ground station (DCGS). The DCGS is the primary intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis, and dissemination system for the Air Force. It is a network-centric system that allows for the integration and sharing of intelligence data from various sources, such as satellites, drones, and other sensors. The DCGS enables the Air Force to gather and analyze information in real-time, providing critical intelligence support for mission planning and decision-making.

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100. Which system is the primary network used to transmit the emergency action messages (EAM) generated by the national military command center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?

Explanation

The primary network used to transmit emergency action messages (EAM) generated by the national military command center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field is the strategic automated command and control system (SACCS). This system is specifically designed for command and control functions and is responsible for transmitting critical messages and instructions during emergency situations. The other options, distributed common ground station (DCGS), global high frequency network (HF-GCS), and global combat support system (GCSS), are not directly involved in the transmission of emergency action messages.

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