3D1X3 Rf Trans Z3dx5x Volume 2 CDC

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  • 1/100 Questions

    What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

    • Falls
    • Poor lighting
    • Horseplay
    • Poor ergonomics
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About This Quiz

This quiz focuses on the Mishap Prevention Program, safety responsibilities, and reporting procedures within the RF Transmissions context.

3D1X3 Rf Trans Z3dx5x Volume 2 CDC - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

    • Class A

    • Class B

    • Class C

    • Class D

    Correct Answer
    A. Class C
    Explanation
    When an electric current is introduced, fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to class C. This is because the introduction of an electric current can increase the flammability and volatility of the fuel, causing it to be reclassified into a higher risk category. Class C fuels are typically more hazardous and require additional precautions to handle and store safely.

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  • 3. 

    Which network provides a private tunnel through the internet?

    • LAN

    • WAN

    • VPN

    • MAN

    Correct Answer
    A. VPN
    Explanation
    A Virtual Private Network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the internet. It creates a secure connection between the user's device and a remote server, encrypting the data that is transmitted. This allows users to access the internet securely and privately, as the VPN masks their IP address and encrypts their online activities. By using a VPN, users can protect their sensitive information from being intercepted or accessed by unauthorized individuals.

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  • 4. 

    What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable

    • Cost to install and train technicians

    • Electomagnetic immunity

    • Low attenuation

    • Security

    Correct Answer
    A. Cost to install and train technicians
    Explanation
    The characteristic of "cost to install and train technicians" is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cables are known for their high installation and training costs compared to other types of cables. However, the other characteristics mentioned, such as electromagnetic immunity, low attenuation, and security, are all advantages of fiber optic cables.

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  • 5. 

    What microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?

    • Word

    • Access

    • Outlook

    • Powerpoint

    Correct Answer
    A. Access
    Explanation
    Access is a Microsoft application that allows users to create a desktop database. It provides a user-friendly interface and various tools for designing and managing databases. With Access, users can easily create tables, forms, queries, and reports to organize and analyze their data. It is widely used for creating small to medium-sized databases for personal or business purposes.

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  • 6. 

    Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

    • Malware

    • Spyware

    • Adware

    • Trojans

    Correct Answer
    A. Spyware
    Explanation
    Spyware is computer software that is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It can be installed on a user's computer without their knowledge and can track their online activities, capture sensitive information such as passwords and credit card details, and even control their computer remotely. Spyware often operates stealthily in the background, making it difficult for users to detect and remove. It is a serious privacy and security concern as it violates the user's consent and can lead to identity theft and other malicious activities.

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  • 7. 

    The Occupational safety and health administration (OSHA) is a part of the US department of

    • Commerce

    • The treasury

    • Defense

    • Labor

    Correct Answer
    A. Labor
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "labor" because the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States. It sets and enforces standards, provides training and education, and conducts inspections to promote workplace safety and protect workers' rights. The Department of Labor oversees OSHA and is responsible for enforcing labor laws and promoting the welfare of workers.

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  • 8. 

    Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users' own end terminals?

    • Internet protocol

    • End-to-end

    • Bulk

    • Link

    Correct Answer
    A. End-to-end
    Explanation
    End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information is fully encoded from the sender's end terminal to the receiver's end terminal. This means that the data remains encrypted throughout the entire network, making it extremely difficult for any unauthorized party to intercept or access the information. This type of encryption ensures that only the intended recipient can decrypt and access the data, providing a high level of security and privacy for users.

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  • 9. 

    How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is required or another supplemental control is sufficient?

    • General service administration makes that determination

    • Office of special investigation (OSI) makes that determination

    • Wing information office makes that determination

    • By completing a risk assessment

    Correct Answer
    A. By completing a risk assessment
    Explanation
    To determine if an intrusion detection system is required or if another supplemental control is sufficient, a risk assessment needs to be completed. This involves evaluating potential risks and vulnerabilities in the system and assessing the likelihood and impact of these risks. By conducting a risk assessment, one can identify the level of protection needed and determine if an intrusion detection system is necessary or if other controls can adequately mitigate the identified risks. The other options mentioned, such as the general service administration, office of special investigation, or wing information office, do not have the authority or expertise to make this determination.

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  • 10. 

    What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

    • Prevent the use of unsafe equipment

    • Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices

    • Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices

    • Protect resources and personnel from damage, lose, injury, and or death

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect resources and personnel from damage, lose, injury, and or death
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and/or death. This program aims to implement measures and practices that minimize the risk of accidents, incidents, and mishaps within an organization. By identifying and addressing potential hazards, promoting safety awareness, and implementing preventive measures, the program aims to ensure the well-being and safety of both personnel and resources.

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  • 11. 

    How are fires classified

    • Fuel type

    • Heat source

    • Temperature

    • Atmospheric conditions

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuel type
    Explanation
    Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuel, such as wood, paper, or flammable liquids, can produce different types of fires with varying characteristics. Understanding the fuel type helps in determining the appropriate methods for extinguishing the fire and predicting its behavior. Heat source, temperature, and atmospheric conditions can also influence the behavior of a fire, but the primary classification criterion is the fuel type.

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  • 12. 

    What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

    • Evacuate personnel from the building

    • Extinguish the fire if possible

    • Call the fire department

    • Sound the fire alarm

    Correct Answer
    A. Sound the fire alarm
    Explanation
    The first action to take when encountering a fire is to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building about the fire and prompts them to evacuate immediately. By sounding the fire alarm, you ensure that everyone is aware of the danger and can take necessary actions to save their lives. Evacuating personnel from the building, extinguishing the fire, and calling the fire department are important steps to follow, but sounding the fire alarm takes precedence as it initiates the evacuation process.

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  • 13. 

    Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio managements?

    • Office of administration

    • Office of communications

    • Office of public engagement

    • Office of management and budget

    Correct Answer
    A. Office of management and budget
    Explanation
    The office of management and budget annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management.

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  • 14. 

    Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts into a digital picture?

    • Printer

    • Scanner

    • Monitor

    • Camera lens

    Correct Answer
    A. Scanner
    Explanation
    A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it into a digital picture. It uses a light source to illuminate the object being scanned and then captures the reflected light using sensors. The captured information is then converted into a digital format that can be stored, edited, or printed. Unlike a printer, monitor, or camera lens, a scanner is specifically designed for the purpose of converting physical media into digital images.

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  • 15. 

    Which network is a network that links LAN and MAN by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

    • LAN

    • WAN

    • VPN

    • MAN

    Correct Answer
    A. WAN
    Explanation
    A WAN (Wide Area Network) is a network that connects LAN (Local Area Network) and MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) by utilizing long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. WANs are designed to cover large geographic areas and provide connectivity between different locations, allowing for the transmission of data over long distances. Unlike LANs and MANs, which are typically confined to a specific area or region, WANs enable communication on a broader scale.

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  • 16. 

    What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards

    • Isolating operations

    • Providing administrative controls

    • Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)

    • Substitution a less hazardous material or process

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)
    Explanation
    The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. PPE is only a last resort and should be used in conjunction with other control measures such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, and substitution of a less hazardous material or process. PPE is not as effective as eliminating or reducing the hazard at its source, and it relies on proper selection, use, and maintenance by individuals, which can be subject to human error.

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  • 17. 

    According to the centers for disease control and prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

    • 1 to 2

    • 2 to 2.5

    • 2 to 4.5

    • 2.5 to 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 to 2.5
    Explanation
    According to the CDC, office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers.

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  • 18. 

    Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

    • 50

    • 40

    • 20

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 50
    Explanation
    Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. This means that if a person is exposed to an electrical current of 50 milliamps, it can disrupt the normal functioning of the heart and lead to a life-threatening condition. It is important to note that even lower levels of current can still be dangerous and cause harm, but 50 milliamps is considered a critical threshold for cardiac arrest.

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  • 19. 

    Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

    • Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits

    • Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder

    • Using a ladder as a scaffold

    • Using a homemade ladder

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits
    Explanation
    Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, using a wooden ladder in such situations does not pose a significant risk of electrical shock or electrocution. However, it is still important to exercise caution and follow proper safety procedures when working near electrical circuits.

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  • 20. 

    What three parts make up communications and information systems installation record (CSIR)?

    • Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record
    Explanation
    The three parts that make up the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) are the administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes information such as project documentation, contracts, and correspondence. The drawing record consists of technical drawings and diagrams related to the installation. The maintenance record contains records of maintenance activities and repairs performed on the system. These three parts together provide a comprehensive documentation of the installation process, technical details, and ongoing maintenance of the communications and information systems.

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  • 21. 

    What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

    • Star

    • Ring

    • Loop

    • Linear

    Correct Answer
    A. Linear
    Explanation
    A linear topology is another name for a bus topology. In a bus topology, all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear arrangement. This cable acts as a shared communication medium, allowing data to be transmitted between devices. Each device on the network receives the data, but only the intended recipient processes it. This topology is commonly used in small networks and is cost-effective as it requires less cabling compared to other topologies.

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  • 22. 

    What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

    • There are no negative effects

    • A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communications

    • Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices

    • When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated

    Correct Answer
    A. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated
    Explanation
    When star networks are interconnected, a negative effect can occur if the central node point fails. This is because the central node is responsible for connecting all the devices in the network, and if it fails, large portions of the network become isolated. This means that communication between those isolated portions will be disrupted, leading to a loss of connectivity and potential data loss. Therefore, it is important to have backup systems or redundancy measures in place to prevent such failures from affecting the entire interconnected network.

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  • 23. 

    Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the DOD and every level of IT communications from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

    • Defense information systems agency (DISA)

    • Federal communications commission (FCC)

    • Department of homeland security (DHS)

    • Department of defense (DOD)

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense information systems agency (DISA)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and is responsible for managing and providing IT and communication support to the DOD information network. They have authority over every level of IT communications, from the DOD information network to the warfighter, under their scope of control.

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  • 24. 

    What portion of the IP datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

    • Version identification

    • Header checksum

    • Time to live

    • Flags

    Correct Answer
    A. Header checksum
    Explanation
    The header checksum is a portion of the IP datagram that allows IP to detect if the header has been corrupted during transmission. It is a mathematical calculation performed on the header contents, and the result is included in the datagram. When the recipient receives the datagram, it recalculates the checksum and compares it to the one included in the packet. If they don't match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted, and the datagram is discarded. Therefore, the header checksum helps ensure the integrity of the IP datagram.

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  • 25. 

    What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 superspeed (SS) transfer mode?

    • 2 GB/S

    • 4 GB/S

    • 5 GB/S

    • 10 GB/S

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 GB/S
    Explanation
    The maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 superspeed (SS) transfer mode is 5 GB/S. This means that data can be transferred at a speed of 5 gigabytes per second. USB 3.0 superspeed is an improved version of USB technology that allows for faster data transfer compared to previous versions. With a transfer rate of 5 GB/S, it enables quicker and more efficient transfer of large files and data.

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  • 26. 

    Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?

    • LAN

    • WAN

    • VPN

    • MAN

    Correct Answer
    A. LAN
    Explanation
    A LAN (Local Area Network) is a network of computers and devices that are connected together within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or building. In a LAN, the computers and devices are linked by a common communications line, allowing them to share resources like files, printers, and internet access. This type of network is typically managed by a single server or processor, which controls the flow of data and ensures efficient communication between the connected devices.

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  • 27. 

    Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?

    • When it is placed in service

    • When it is removed from service

    • When the storage container has been cleaned

    • When compromise of the combination is suspected

    Correct Answer
    A. When the storage container has been cleaned
    Explanation
    Cleaning the storage container is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials. Cleaning the container does not pose a risk to the security of the classified materials or compromise the combination. The combination should only be changed when there is a suspicion of compromise or when the container is being placed in or removed from service, as these events could potentially lead to unauthorized access to the classified materials.

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  • 28. 

    What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems to connect together?

    • Open shortest path first (OSPF)

    • Exterior gateway protocol (EGP)

    • Interior gateway protocol (IGP)

    • Enhanced interior gateway routing protocol (EIGRP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Exterior gateway protocol (EGP)
    Explanation
    Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) is a network routing protocol that allows multiple autonomous systems to connect together. It is specifically designed for interconnecting different autonomous systems and exchanging routing information between them. EGP enables the exchange of routing information and the determination of the best path for data packets to traverse between different autonomous systems, facilitating communication and connectivity across the network.

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  • 29. 

    Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?

    • AFI 91-200

    • AFI 91-202

    • AFMAN 91-200

    • AFMAN 91-202

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 91-202
    Explanation
    AFI 91-202 is the correct answer because it is the publication that implements the Mishap Prevention Program. The Mishap Prevention Program is a set of guidelines and procedures aimed at preventing accidents and mishaps within the Air Force. AFI 91-200 and AFMAN 91-200 are not the correct answers as they do not specifically address the Mishap Prevention Program.

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  • 30. 

    Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

    • Air staff

    • Civil engineering

    • Squadron commander

    • Installation safety officer

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation safety officer
    Explanation
    The installation safety officer is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They play a crucial role in ensuring that safety protocols and procedures are followed to prevent accidents and promote a safe working environment. Their expertise and guidance help in identifying potential hazards, implementing safety measures, and providing necessary training to personnel.

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  • 31. 

    Which action is a physiological factor?

    • Performing a task while fatigued

    • Performing a task while intoxicated

    • Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders

    • Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness

    Correct Answer
    A. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders
    Explanation
    Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders is not a physiological factor. Physiological factors refer to bodily processes and functions that can affect a person's ability to perform tasks, such as fatigue, intoxication, or the effects of medication. Ignoring directions is a behavioral or psychological factor, as it involves a person's decision or attitude rather than a physiological condition.

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  • 32. 

    Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

    • Accept no unnecessary risk

    • Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • Apply the process irregularly and coninuously

    • Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels

    Correct Answer
    A. Apply the process irregularly and coninuously
    Explanation
    Risk management involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks in a systematic and consistent manner. It is important to apply the risk management process regularly and continuously to ensure that all potential risks are addressed and managed effectively. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would not be a part of effective risk management as it may lead to overlooking or neglecting certain risks, which can have negative consequences for an organization.

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  • 33. 

    What characteristic is the major difference between RAM and ROM?

    • ROM is volatile, RAM is non-volatile

    • ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile

    • RAM has a slower access time versus ROM

    • ROM has a slower access time versus RAM

    Correct Answer
    A. ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile
    Explanation
    The major difference between RAM and ROM is their volatility. ROM (Read-Only Memory) is non-volatile, meaning that it retains its data even when power is lost. On the other hand, RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile, which means it requires a constant power supply to maintain its data.

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  • 34. 

    Which WLAN security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

    • SSID broadcasting

    • MAC filtering

    • Encryption

    • Tunneling

    Correct Answer
    A. Encryption
    Explanation
    Encryption is the best WLAN security method that can be described as hiding a message in a special code. Encryption involves the process of converting plaintext data into ciphertext using an encryption algorithm and a secret key. This ensures that only authorized individuals with the correct key can decipher and access the original message. By encrypting the data, it becomes unreadable to anyone who does not have the key, providing a secure method of transmitting information over a wireless network.

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  • 35. 

    What year did the IEEE ratifies the use of gigabit ethernet?

    • 1988

    • 1999

    • 2005

    • 2009

    Correct Answer
    A. 1999
    Explanation
    The IEEE ratified the use of gigabit ethernet in the year 1999. This means that in 1999, the IEEE officially approved and standardized the use of gigabit ethernet technology.

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  • 36. 

    What microsoft application is a personal information manager?

    • Word

    • Access

    • Outlook

    • Powerpoint

    Correct Answer
    A. Outlook
    Explanation
    Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is primarily used for managing emails, but it also includes features like a calendar, task manager, contact manager, note-taking, and journal. Outlook allows users to organize and prioritize their personal and professional information in one place, making it an effective personal information manager. Word, Access, and PowerPoint are not personal information managers, as they are primarily used for word processing, database management, and creating presentations respectively.

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  • 37. 

    What major program does the global combat support system- AF (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for AF personnel?

    • AF portal

    • IMDS

    • ADLS

    • E-Pubs

    Correct Answer
    A. AF portal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the AF portal. The AF portal is a major program provided by the global combat support system- AF (GCSS-AF) that serves as a single point of reference for services and information for AF personnel. It is an online platform that provides access to various resources such as email, calendars, news, and other important tools and applications that are essential for Air Force personnel to carry out their duties efficiently. The AF portal helps streamline communication and collaboration within the Air Force community and ensures easy access to critical information and services.

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  • 38. 

    How many impact classifications do hardhats have?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to protect against two levels of impact: low energy impacts and high energy impacts. The hardhat is constructed to absorb and distribute the force of the impact, reducing the risk of head injuries. Having two impact classifications allows the hardhat to provide adequate protection in various work environments and situations.

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  • 39. 

    What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?

    • Evacuate personnel from the building

    • Extinguish the fire if possible

    • Call the fire department

    • Sound the fire alarm

    Correct Answer
    A. Extinguish the fire if possible
    Explanation
    The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to attempt to put out the fire. It is important to prioritize the safety of personnel and evacuate them from the building before attempting to extinguish the fire. Calling the fire department and sounding the fire alarm are also crucial steps in the firefighting procedure, but they are not specifically mentioned as the fourth step.

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  • 40. 

    What is a transmission control protocol (TCP) socket?

    • Regular of how many information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement

    • Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine (in the application layer)

    • Combination of a port number and IP address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers

    • Preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data

    Correct Answer
    A. Combination of a port number and IP address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers
    Explanation
    A TCP socket is a combination of a port number and IP address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers. This allows the process to establish a connection with another process on a remote machine and exchange data over the network. The port number helps identify the specific process or service on the remote machine, while the IP address identifies the machine itself. By combining these two elements, the TCP socket enables communication between processes on different machines in a network.

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  • 41. 

    What action is the purpose of a sliding window in TCP?

    • Request network services and pass arguments between layers

    • Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine

    • Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data

    • Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement

    Correct Answer
    A. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement
    Explanation
    A sliding window in TCP is used to regulate the amount of information that can pass over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps in controlling the flow of data and preventing network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices with data.

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  • 42. 

    What value is the maximum of an octet in IPv4?

    • 239

    • 254

    • 255

    • 256

    Correct Answer
    A. 255
    Explanation
    An octet in IPv4 is represented by 8 bits, which can have a maximum value of 255. This is because the binary representation of 255 is 11111111, where all the bits are set to 1. Therefore, 255 is the highest value that can be represented by an octet in IPv4.

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  • 43. 

    What class is reserved for multicast addressing?

    • Class A Address

    • Class B Address

    • Class C Address

    • Class D Address

    Correct Answer
    A. Class D Address
    Explanation
    Class D Address is reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing allows a single packet to be sent to multiple destinations simultaneously. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are used for multicast group addresses. These addresses are not assigned to specific devices but rather to groups of devices that are interested in receiving the multicast traffic. Multicast addresses are commonly used for multimedia streaming, online gaming, and other applications that require efficient distribution of data to multiple recipients.

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  • 44. 

    What is a peripheral device?

    • A main internal component of a computer

    • Not a main internal component of a computer

    • A main component of a computer and can be either internal or external

    • Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external

    Correct Answer
    A. Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external
    Explanation
    A peripheral device is not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external. Peripheral devices are additional hardware components that can be connected to a computer to enhance its functionality. These devices include input devices like keyboards and mice, output devices like monitors and printers, as well as storage devices, networking devices, and other accessories. While they are essential for performing specific tasks, they are not considered main internal components of a computer like the CPU or motherboard.

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  • 45. 

    Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cableing?

    • Media converter

    • Modem

    • Switch

    • Router

    Correct Answer
    A. Media converter
    Explanation
    A media converter is a device that acts as a transceiver by converting electrical signals used in copper unshielded twisted pair network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling. This conversion allows for the transmission of data between different types of network cables. A modem, switch, and router do not perform this specific function of converting signals between copper and fiber optic cables.

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  • 46. 

    What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?

    • Shell

    • Kernel

    • User programs

    • Dynamic-link library

    Correct Answer
    A. Kernel
    Explanation
    The kernel is the correct answer because it is the core component of the UNIX system software that interacts directly with the hardware. It manages the system's resources, such as memory and CPU, and provides essential services to the user programs. The kernel acts as a bridge between the hardware and the user, handling low-level tasks and ensuring proper communication and coordination between the hardware and other software components.

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  • 47. 

    Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?

    • Attackers capability to exploit the flaw

    • System's susceptibility to a flaw

    • Attacker's access to the flaw

    • Attacker's lack of ability

    Correct Answer
    A. Attacker's lack of ability
    Explanation
    The given answer states that "attacker's lack of ability" is not a computer system vulnerability. This means that the vulnerability lies in the attacker's capability to exploit a flaw, the system's susceptibility to a flaw, or the attacker's access to the flaw. In other words, the answer suggests that the vulnerability lies in the attacker's skill or resources rather than any inherent flaw in the computer system itself.

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  • 48. 

    Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?

    • Secret IP data or SIPRNET

    • SBU IP data or NIPRNET

    • JWICS IP data

    • Top secret/secret compartmentalized information (TS/SCI) IP data

    Correct Answer
    A. SBU IP data or NIPRNET
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SBU IP data or NIPRNET. SBU stands for Sensitive But Unclassified, which refers to information that is not classified but still requires protection. NIPRNET (Non-classified Internet Protocol Router Network) is a network used by the U.S. Department of Defense to transmit unclassified information. Therefore, SBU IP data or NIPRNET is the network that supports unclassified email service to the user.

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  • 49. 

    Which system of the global command and control system-AF (GCCS-AF) monitors status of resources and training systems ensuring that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available to the for mission completion?

    • Common operational picture (COP)

    • Global command and control system (GCCS)

    • GCCS status of resources and training (GSORTS)

    • Deliberate crisis action planning and execution system (DCAPES)

    Correct Answer
    A. GCCS status of resources and training (GSORTS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is GSORTS because it is the system within GCCS-AF that monitors the status of resources and training systems. It ensures that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available for mission completion.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 14, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 14, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 02, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Napolchr000

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