3D1X3 Rf Trans Z3dx5x Volume 2 CDC
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?
- A.
AFI 91-200
- B.
AFI 91-202
- C.
AFMAN 91-200
- D.
AFMAN 91-202
Correct Answer
B. AFI 91-202Explanation
AFI 91-202 is the correct answer because it is the publication that implements the Mishap Prevention Program. The Mishap Prevention Program is a set of guidelines and procedures aimed at preventing accidents and mishaps within the Air Force. AFI 91-200 and AFMAN 91-200 are not the correct answers as they do not specifically address the Mishap Prevention Program.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
- A.
Prevent the use of unsafe equipment
- B.
Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices
- C.
Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices
- D.
Protect resources and personnel from damage, lose, injury, and or death
Correct Answer
D. Protect resources and personnel from damage, lose, injury, and or deathExplanation
The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and/or death. This program aims to implement measures and practices that minimize the risk of accidents, incidents, and mishaps within an organization. By identifying and addressing potential hazards, promoting safety awareness, and implementing preventive measures, the program aims to ensure the well-being and safety of both personnel and resources.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The Occupational safety and health administration (OSHA) is a part of the US department of
- A.
Commerce
- B.
The treasury
- C.
Defense
- D.
Labor
Correct Answer
D. LaborExplanation
The correct answer is "labor" because the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States. It sets and enforces standards, provides training and education, and conducts inspections to promote workplace safety and protect workers' rights. The Department of Labor oversees OSHA and is responsible for enforcing labor laws and promoting the welfare of workers.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?
- A.
Air staff
- B.
Civil engineering
- C.
Squadron commander
- D.
Installation safety officer
Correct Answer
D. Installation safety officerExplanation
The installation safety officer is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They play a crucial role in ensuring that safety protocols and procedures are followed to prevent accidents and promote a safe working environment. Their expertise and guidance help in identifying potential hazards, implementing safety measures, and providing necessary training to personnel.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?
- A.
Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO)
- B.
Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA)
- C.
Review AF form 55
- D.
Certify the employee
Correct Answer
B. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA)Explanation
Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves a systematic examination of the task to identify potential hazards and determine the necessary precautions to ensure the safety of employees. By conducting a JSA, supervisors can effectively assess the risks associated with the task and develop appropriate safety measures to mitigate them.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What AF form is used to report ground mishaps?
- A.
475
- B.
480
- C.
978
- D.
980
Correct Answer
C. 978Explanation
The correct answer is 978 because AF Form 978 is used to report ground mishaps. This form is specifically designed to document accidents, incidents, and mishaps that occur on the ground, such as vehicle accidents, equipment malfunctions, and injuries. It is important to accurately report these incidents to ensure that proper investigation, analysis, and corrective actions can be taken to prevent similar mishaps in the future.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What Af form is used to report a hazard?
- A.
475
- B.
480
- C.
978
- D.
980
Correct Answer
A. 475Explanation
The correct answer is 475. This form is used to report a hazard.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What three sub-categories make up human factors?
- A.
Physiological, physical, stress
- B.
Physiological, physical, social
- C.
Stress, organizational, physical
- D.
Physical, physiological, organizational
Correct Answer
D. Physical, physiological, organizationalExplanation
The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical, physiological, and organizational. Physical factors include the design of equipment and tools, as well as the layout of the workspace. Physiological factors involve understanding how the human body functions and how it interacts with the environment. Organizational factors consider the impact of management, work schedules, and communication on human performance. This holistic approach to human factors ensures that all aspects of the individual, their physical abilities, and the organization are taken into account for optimizing performance and safety.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which action is a physiological factor?
- A.
Performing a task while fatigued
- B.
Performing a task while intoxicated
- C.
Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders
- D.
Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness
Correct Answer
C. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leadersExplanation
Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders is not a physiological factor. Physiological factors refer to bodily processes and functions that can affect a person's ability to perform tasks, such as fatigue, intoxication, or the effects of medication. Ignoring directions is a behavioral or psychological factor, as it involves a person's decision or attitude rather than a physiological condition.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?
- A.
Bio-environmental engineering
- B.
Installation safety office
- C.
Base civil engineer
- D.
Supervisors
Correct Answer
A. Bio-environmental engineeringExplanation
Bio-environmental engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge in identifying potential health hazards and implementing measures to minimize or eliminate those risks. This includes conducting risk assessments, developing control measures, and providing guidance to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals in the environment. The bio-environmental engineering team works closely with other departments and personnel, such as the installation safety office and base civil engineer, to ensure a comprehensive approach to health risk mitigation. Supervisors also play a role in implementing these controls within their respective areas of responsibility.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards
- A.
Isolating operations
- B.
Providing administrative controls
- C.
Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)
- D.
Substitution a less hazardous material or process
Correct Answer
C. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)Explanation
The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. PPE is only a last resort and should be used in conjunction with other control measures such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, and substitution of a less hazardous material or process. PPE is not as effective as eliminating or reducing the hazard at its source, and it relies on proper selection, use, and maintenance by individuals, which can be subject to human error.Rate this question:
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- 12.
How many impact classifications do hardhats have?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to protect against two levels of impact: low energy impacts and high energy impacts. The hardhat is constructed to absorb and distribute the force of the impact, reducing the risk of head injuries. Having two impact classifications allows the hardhat to provide adequate protection in various work environments and situations.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?
- A.
A
- B.
C
- C.
E
- D.
G
Correct Answer
B. CExplanation
Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
- A.
Falls
- B.
Poor lighting
- C.
Horseplay
- D.
Poor ergonomics
Correct Answer
A. FallsExplanation
The greatest hazard in a typical office is falls. This can occur due to various reasons such as slippery floors, tripping over objects, or improper use of ladders or stairs. Falls can result in serious injuries, including fractures or head trauma. It is important for employers to ensure a safe working environment by implementing measures such as keeping walkways clear, providing proper lighting, and conducting regular maintenance to prevent falls.Rate this question:
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- 15.
According to the centers for disease control and prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?
- A.
1 to 2
- B.
2 to 2.5
- C.
2 to 4.5
- D.
2.5 to 3
Correct Answer
B. 2 to 2.5Explanation
According to the CDC, office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What chapter in AFI 91-203, Air force consolidated occupational safety instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?
- A.
8
- B.
9
- C.
10
- D.
11
Correct Answer
C. 10Explanation
Chapter 10 in AFI 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.Rate this question:
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- 17.
How are fires classified
- A.
Fuel type
- B.
Heat source
- C.
Temperature
- D.
Atmospheric conditions
Correct Answer
A. Fuel typeExplanation
Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuel, such as wood, paper, or flammable liquids, can produce different types of fires with varying characteristics. Understanding the fuel type helps in determining the appropriate methods for extinguishing the fire and predicting its behavior. Heat source, temperature, and atmospheric conditions can also influence the behavior of a fire, but the primary classification criterion is the fuel type.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What classification do flammable liquids receive?
- A.
Class A
- B.
Class B
- C.
Class C
- D.
Class D
Correct Answer
B. Class BExplanation
Flammable liquids receive classification class B. This classification is given to liquids that have a flash point below 100 degrees Fahrenheit. Flammable liquids in this class include gasoline, alcohol, and some solvents. They can easily catch fire and should be handled with caution to prevent accidents and fires.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?
- A.
Class A
- B.
Class B
- C.
Class C
- D.
Class D
Correct Answer
C. Class CExplanation
When an electric current is introduced, fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to class C. This is because the introduction of an electric current can increase the flammability and volatility of the fuel, causing it to be reclassified into a higher risk category. Class C fuels are typically more hazardous and require additional precautions to handle and store safely.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
- A.
Evacuate personnel from the building
- B.
Extinguish the fire if possible
- C.
Call the fire department
- D.
Sound the fire alarm
Correct Answer
D. Sound the fire alarmExplanation
The first action to take when encountering a fire is to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building about the fire and prompts them to evacuate immediately. By sounding the fire alarm, you ensure that everyone is aware of the danger and can take necessary actions to save their lives. Evacuating personnel from the building, extinguishing the fire, and calling the fire department are important steps to follow, but sounding the fire alarm takes precedence as it initiates the evacuation process.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?
- A.
Evacuate personnel from the building
- B.
Extinguish the fire if possible
- C.
Call the fire department
- D.
Sound the fire alarm
Correct Answer
B. Extinguish the fire if possibleExplanation
The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to attempt to put out the fire. It is important to prioritize the safety of personnel and evacuate them from the building before attempting to extinguish the fire. Calling the fire department and sounding the fire alarm are also crucial steps in the firefighting procedure, but they are not specifically mentioned as the fourth step.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?
- A.
50
- B.
40
- C.
20
- D.
10
Correct Answer
A. 50Explanation
Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. This means that if a person is exposed to an electrical current of 50 milliamps, it can disrupt the normal functioning of the heart and lead to a life-threatening condition. It is important to note that even lower levels of current can still be dangerous and cause harm, but 50 milliamps is considered a critical threshold for cardiac arrest.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which ladder practice is not prohibited?
- A.
Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits
- B.
Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder
- C.
Using a ladder as a scaffold
- D.
Using a homemade ladder
Correct Answer
A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuitsExplanation
Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, using a wooden ladder in such situations does not pose a significant risk of electrical shock or electrocution. However, it is still important to exercise caution and follow proper safety procedures when working near electrical circuits.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?
- A.
Accept no unnecessary risk
- B.
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level
- C.
Apply the process irregularly and coninuously
- D.
Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels
Correct Answer
C. Apply the process irregularly and coninuouslyExplanation
Risk management involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks in a systematic and consistent manner. It is important to apply the risk management process regularly and continuously to ensure that all potential risks are addressed and managed effectively. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would not be a part of effective risk management as it may lead to overlooking or neglecting certain risks, which can have negative consequences for an organization.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The risk management process includes how many steps?
- A.
4
- B.
5
- C.
6
- D.
7
Correct Answer
B. 5Explanation
The risk management process includes five steps. These steps are: identification of risks, assessment of risks, development of risk response strategies, implementation of risk response strategies, and monitoring and review of risks. Each step is crucial in effectively managing risks and ensuring the success of a project or organization.Rate this question:
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- 26.
How many volumes make up the DOD Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
D. 4Explanation
The DOD Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is made up of four volumes. Each volume provides guidance and standards for different aspects of the DODAF, including the overall framework, the architecture data, the architecture products, and the architecture usage. These volumes work together to ensure that the DODAF is comprehensive and effective in supporting the development and management of architectures within the Department of Defense.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio managements?
- A.
Office of administration
- B.
Office of communications
- C.
Office of public engagement
- D.
Office of management and budget
Correct Answer
D. Office of management and budgetExplanation
The office of management and budget annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What requirements mandate to develop of AF architectures?
- A.
State level
- B.
Federal level
- C.
Congressional level
- D.
DOD level
Correct Answer
B. Federal levelExplanation
AF architectures are developed based on requirements mandated at the federal level. This means that the development of these architectures is driven by the needs and regulations set by the federal government. These requirements could include factors such as national security, interoperability with other federal agencies, compliance with federal policies and standards, and alignment with federal strategic objectives. By adhering to federal-level requirements, AF architectures ensure that they are in line with the overall goals and priorities of the federal government.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What three parts make up communications and information systems installation record (CSIR)?
- A.
Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record
- B.
Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record
- C.
Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record
- D.
Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record
Correct Answer
C. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance recordExplanation
The three parts that make up the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) are the administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes information such as project documentation, contracts, and correspondence. The drawing record consists of technical drawings and diagrams related to the installation. The maintenance record contains records of maintenance activities and repairs performed on the system. These three parts together provide a comprehensive documentation of the installation process, technical details, and ongoing maintenance of the communications and information systems.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which part of the communications and information systems installation record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information system and provide engineering data?
- A.
Administrative record
- B.
Maintenance record
- C.
Drawing record
- D.
Outage record
Correct Answer
C. Drawing recordExplanation
The drawing record in the communications and information systems installation record (CSIR) depicts the physical layout of the communications and information system and provides engineering data. This record includes detailed drawings and diagrams that show the placement and configuration of the system components. It is an essential part of the CSIR as it helps in understanding the physical infrastructure and aids in troubleshooting and maintenance activities.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which part of the communications and information systems installation record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?
- A.
Administrative record
- B.
Maintenance record
- C.
Drawing record
- D.
Outage record
Correct Answer
B. Maintenance recordExplanation
The maintenance record is normally retained in the production work center of the communications and information systems installation record (CSIR). This record includes information about the maintenance activities performed on the systems, such as repairs, inspections, and upgrades. It is essential to have this record available in the work center to track the maintenance history of the systems and ensure their proper functioning. This record helps in identifying any recurring issues, scheduling future maintenance tasks, and maintaining the overall reliability of the systems.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What functions do the seven layers of Open systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?
- A.
Programming
- B.
Transport
- C.
Network
- D.
Data
Correct Answer
C. NetworkExplanation
The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify different functions in a network. The network layer, which is the correct answer, is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks. It determines the best path for data transmission and ensures that packets are delivered to their intended destination. The other options mentioned, such as programming, transport, and data, do not accurately represent the functions specified by the OSI reference model.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer OSI reference model?
- A.
Data transport and application
- B.
Session and data transport
- C.
Network and presentation
- D.
Application and session
Correct Answer
A. Data transport and applicationExplanation
The two categories of the seven-layer OSI reference model are the data transport layer and the application layer. The data transport layer is responsible for the reliable transmission of data between network devices, while the application layer provides services to end users, such as file transfer, email, and web browsing. These two layers work together to ensure efficient and secure communication between network devices and enable users to access various applications and services.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which OSI model layer?
- A.
Transport
- B.
Data link
- C.
Physical
- D.
Session
Correct Answer
B. Data linkExplanation
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the data link layer in the OSI model. This layer is responsible for managing the communication between network devices, ensuring reliable and error-free transmission of data. The LLC sublayer handles flow control, error detection, and error correction, making it an integral part of the data link layer's functionality.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link manager?
- A.
Communications between devices over multiple links of a network
- B.
Communications between devices over a single link of a network
- C.
Protocol access to the physical network medium
- D.
Protocol access to the links of a network
Correct Answer
B. Communications between devices over a single link of a networkExplanation
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link manager is responsible for managing communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer handles tasks such as flow control, error control, and framing of data packets. It ensures reliable and efficient transmission of data between devices connected by a single link.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What does the MAC sublayer of the data link layer manage?
- A.
Communications between devices over a single link of a network
- B.
Communications between devices over multiple links of a network
- C.
Protocol access to the physical network medium
- D.
Protocol access to the links of a network
Correct Answer
C. Protocol access to the physical network mediumExplanation
The MAC sublayer of the data link layer manages protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices access and use the physical network medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies, to transmit data. It ensures that multiple devices on the same network can share the medium efficiently and avoid collisions. The MAC sublayer also handles tasks like addressing, error detection, and flow control to ensure reliable communication between devices.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's
- A.
Transport topology
- B.
Physical topology
- C.
Physical medium
- D.
Logical topology
Correct Answer
B. Physical topologyExplanation
The word "topology" refers to the arrangement or structure of a network. When used alone, "topology" often refers to the network's physical topology, which describes the physical layout of the network components such as computers, cables, and devices. This includes the placement of devices, the connections between them, and how they are physically arranged in the network. It does not refer to the transport topology, physical medium, or logical topology, which are different aspects of a network's configuration.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
- A.
Star
- B.
Ring
- C.
Loop
- D.
Linear
Correct Answer
D. LinearExplanation
A linear topology is another name for a bus topology. In a bus topology, all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear arrangement. This cable acts as a shared communication medium, allowing data to be transmitted between devices. Each device on the network receives the data, but only the intended recipient processes it. This topology is commonly used in small networks and is cost-effective as it requires less cabling compared to other topologies.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What topology offers centralized management of a network?
- A.
Bus
- B.
Star
- C.
Ring
- D.
Radial
Correct Answer
B. StarExplanation
The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which acts as a central point for managing and controlling the network. This allows for easier monitoring, troubleshooting, and administration of the network, as all connections and communication flow through the central hub. Additionally, the star topology provides better fault tolerance, as a failure in one device does not affect the entire network.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?
- A.
There are no negative effects
- B.
A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communications
- C.
Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices
- D.
When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated
Correct Answer
D. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolatedExplanation
When star networks are interconnected, a negative effect can occur if the central node point fails. This is because the central node is responsible for connecting all the devices in the network, and if it fails, large portions of the network become isolated. This means that communication between those isolated portions will be disrupted, leading to a loss of connectivity and potential data loss. Therefore, it is important to have backup systems or redundancy measures in place to prevent such failures from affecting the entire interconnected network.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the DOD and every level of IT communications from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?
- A.
Defense information systems agency (DISA)
- B.
Federal communications commission (FCC)
- C.
Department of homeland security (DHS)
- D.
Department of defense (DOD)
Correct Answer
A. Defense information systems agency (DISA)Explanation
The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and is responsible for managing and providing IT and communication support to the DOD information network. They have authority over every level of IT communications, from the DOD information network to the warfighter, under their scope of control.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is a transmission control protocol (TCP) socket?
- A.
Regular of how many information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement
- B.
Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine (in the application layer)
- C.
Combination of a port number and IP address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers
- D.
Preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data
Correct Answer
C. Combination of a port number and IP address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layersExplanation
A TCP socket is a combination of a port number and IP address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers. This allows the process to establish a connection with another process on a remote machine and exchange data over the network. The port number helps identify the specific process or service on the remote machine, while the IP address identifies the machine itself. By combining these two elements, the TCP socket enables communication between processes on different machines in a network.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What action is the purpose of a sliding window in TCP?
- A.
Request network services and pass arguments between layers
- B.
Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine
- C.
Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data
- D.
Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement
Correct Answer
D. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgementExplanation
A sliding window in TCP is used to regulate the amount of information that can pass over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps in controlling the flow of data and preventing network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices with data.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What portion of the IP datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?
- A.
Version identification
- B.
Header checksum
- C.
Time to live
- D.
Flags
Correct Answer
B. Header checksumExplanation
The header checksum is a portion of the IP datagram that allows IP to detect if the header has been corrupted during transmission. It is a mathematical calculation performed on the header contents, and the result is included in the datagram. When the recipient receives the datagram, it recalculates the checksum and compares it to the one included in the packet. If they don't match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted, and the datagram is discarded. Therefore, the header checksum helps ensure the integrity of the IP datagram.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What value is the maximum of an octet in IPv4?
- A.
239
- B.
254
- C.
255
- D.
256
Correct Answer
C. 255Explanation
An octet in IPv4 is represented by 8 bits, which can have a maximum value of 255. This is because the binary representation of 255 is 11111111, where all the bits are set to 1. Therefore, 255 is the highest value that can be represented by an octet in IPv4.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?
- A.
Class A Address
- B.
Class B Address
- C.
Class C Address
- D.
Class D Address
Correct Answer
C. Class C AddressExplanation
Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. In Class C addressing, the first three octets are used to identify the network, while the last octet is used to identify the host. Since the last octet can have a maximum value of 255 (including the network and broadcast addresses), the total number of available hosts is 256. However, the network and broadcast addresses are reserved, leaving 254 usable hosts per network. Class A and Class B addresses have larger network portions, allowing for more networks but fewer hosts per network. Class D addresses are used for multicast and do not have a specific limit on the number of hosts.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What class is reserved for multicast addressing?
- A.
Class A Address
- B.
Class B Address
- C.
Class C Address
- D.
Class D Address
Correct Answer
D. Class D AddressExplanation
Class D Address is reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing allows a single packet to be sent to multiple destinations simultaneously. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are used for multicast group addresses. These addresses are not assigned to specific devices but rather to groups of devices that are interested in receiving the multicast traffic. Multicast addresses are commonly used for multimedia streaming, online gaming, and other applications that require efficient distribution of data to multiple recipients.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?
- A.
0-1023
- B.
1024-49151
- C.
49152-65535
- D.
65536-87000
Correct Answer
A. 0-1023Explanation
The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are assigned to commonly used protocols and services such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). They are reserved for specific purposes and are typically associated with standard protocols used in networking.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What characteristic is the major difference between RAM and ROM?
- A.
ROM is volatile, RAM is non-volatile
- B.
ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile
- C.
RAM has a slower access time versus ROM
- D.
ROM has a slower access time versus RAM
Correct Answer
B. ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatileExplanation
The major difference between RAM and ROM is their volatility. ROM (Read-Only Memory) is non-volatile, meaning that it retains its data even when power is lost. On the other hand, RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile, which means it requires a constant power supply to maintain its data.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What action is the main purpose of system cache?
- A.
Speed up system ROM
- B.
Reduce HDD access time to stored data
- C.
Reduce CPU access time to stored data
- D.
Reduce RAM access time to stored data
Correct Answer
C. Reduce CPU access time to stored dataExplanation
The main purpose of system cache is to reduce CPU access time to stored data. System cache stores frequently accessed data from RAM in a faster cache memory, allowing the CPU to retrieve the data quickly without having to access the slower RAM. This helps to improve overall system performance and efficiency by reducing the time it takes for the CPU to access data.Rate this question:
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