Z3dx5x Self Test Questions Vol. 2

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  • 1/166 Questions

    201. What is the name of the Air Forces safety program?

    • Mishap Prevention Program
    • Safety Prevention Program
    • Mishap Elimination Program
    • Mishap Reduction Program
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About This Quiz

Z3dx5x Self Test Questions Vol. 2 assesses knowledge on the Air Force's safety management protocols, including the Mishap Prevention Program and compliance with OSHA and AFI standards. It is designed for personnel to understand their responsibilities in maintaining safety in military environments.

Z3dx5x Self Test Questions Vol. 2 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    201. What AFI implements the installation safety offices Mishap Prevention Program?

    • AFI 91-202

    • AFI 91-022

    • AFI 91-220

    • AFI 91-020

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 91-202
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 91-202. This AFI implements the installation safety offices Mishap Prevention Program.

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  • 3. 

    201. What agency dictates what must be accomplished in the workplace, but not necessarily, how it will be accomplished?

    • OSHA

    • SOHA

    • ASHO

    • SAHO

    Correct Answer
    A. OSHA
    Explanation
    OSHA, which stands for Occupational Safety and Health Administration, is the agency that dictates what must be accomplished in the workplace. They set standards and regulations to ensure the safety and health of workers. However, they do not necessarily dictate how these goals should be achieved, leaving it up to the employers to determine the specific methods and strategies to meet OSHA requirements.

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  • 4. 

    201. Who is responsible for the safety of their facilities and personnel, including the correction of all hazards and deficiencies in their work places?

    • The Commander

    • The Supervisor

    • The Flight Chief

    • The First Shirt

    Correct Answer
    A. The Commander
    Explanation
    The Commander is responsible for the safety of their facilities and personnel, including the correction of all hazards and deficiencies in their work places. This means that they have the authority and accountability to ensure that all necessary measures are taken to maintain a safe working environment and address any issues that may pose a risk to the well-being of their personnel and the proper functioning of their facilities. They are ultimately in charge of implementing safety protocols, conducting inspections, and taking corrective actions as needed to ensure the safety of their organization.

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  • 5. 

    201. What AF series publications make up AFOSH standards?

    • AF-91

    • AF-81

    • AF-71

    • AF-101

    Correct Answer
    A. AF-91
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF-91. AFOSH stands for Air Force Occupational Safety and Health, and AF-91 is the series of publications that make up the AFOSH standards. These standards provide guidelines and regulations for ensuring the safety and health of Air Force personnel in the workplace. The other options (AF-81, AF-71, and AF-101) are not part of the AFOSH series and do not pertain to the occupational safety and health standards in the Air Force.

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  • 6. 

    201. What office/individual is responsible for managing proactive on and off duty safety programs?

    • Installation Safety Office

    • The Commander

    • BE

    • The Supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation Safety Office
    Explanation
    The Installation Safety Office is responsible for managing proactive on and off duty safety programs. They oversee and implement safety measures to ensure the well-being of individuals both during work hours and outside of work. This office is dedicated to promoting a safe and secure environment for everyone on the installation. The Commander, BE, and the Supervisor may have their own roles and responsibilities, but the specific responsibility for managing safety programs falls under the purview of the Installation Safety Office.

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  • 7. 

    201. What office/individual manages the occupational and environmental health surveillance program according to AF guidance? 

    • BE

    • The Commander

    • Installation Office Safety

    • The Supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. BE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The Commander." The Commander is responsible for managing the occupational and environmental health surveillance program according to AF guidance. This includes ensuring that the program is implemented effectively and that appropriate measures are taken to monitor and address occupational and environmental health concerns within the organization. The Commander plays a crucial role in promoting a safe and healthy work environment for all personnel.

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  • 8. 

    201. Who is required to complete the AF Risk Management Fundamentals course?

    • USR

    • Supervisor

    • Commander

    • UTM

    Correct Answer
    A. USR
    Explanation
    The AF Risk Management Fundamentals course is required to be completed by USR (Unit Safety Representative). This course is designed to provide the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively manage risks in the Air Force. It is important for USRs to have a thorough understanding of risk management principles in order to ensure the safety of personnel and assets within their unit.

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  • 9. 

    201. What office/individual is responsible for developing JSTO's?

    • The Supervisor

    • The Commander

    • BE

    • Installation Safety Office

    Correct Answer
    A. The Supervisor
    Explanation
    The supervisor is responsible for developing JSTO's. This means that it is the supervisor's duty to create and implement JSTO's (Job Safety and Task Observations) in the workplace. JSTO's are important for ensuring safety and preventing accidents or injuries while performing tasks. The supervisor plays a crucial role in identifying potential hazards, assessing risks, and developing appropriate safety measures through JSTO's.

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  • 10. 

    202. How many US workers were killed on the job in 2014?

    • > 4,600

    • < 4,600

    • > 46,000

    • < 460

    Correct Answer
    A. > 4,600
    Explanation
    In 2014, the number of US workers killed on the job was greater than 4,600. This indicates that the actual number of worker fatalities exceeded 4,600, possibly implying a higher level of workplace hazards and safety concerns.

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  • 11. 

    202. What are the three sub-categories of human factors?

    • Physiological, Physical, Organizational

    • Physiological, Physical, Personal

    • Physiological, Physical, Creativity

    • Physiological, Physical, Emotional

    Correct Answer
    A. Physiological, Physical, Organizational
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Physiological, Physical, Organizational. Human factors refer to the study of how humans interact with systems, products, and environments. Physiological factors involve understanding how the human body functions and responds to different stimuli. Physical factors focus on the physical characteristics and capabilities of individuals. Organizational factors consider the impact of the social and organizational context on human performance. These three sub-categories cover different aspects of human behavior and help in designing systems and products that are safe, efficient, and user-friendly.

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  • 12. 

    202. Who is responsible to mitigate human factors?

    • Everyone

    • Supervisor

    • Commander

    • You

    Correct Answer
    A. Everyone
    Explanation
    Mitigating human factors is the responsibility of everyone involved. Human factors refer to the psychological, social, and organizational aspects that can affect performance and safety. It is important for all individuals, regardless of their role or position, to actively contribute to identifying and addressing these factors to ensure a safe and productive environment. By acknowledging that everyone has a role to play in mitigating human factors, the answer emphasizes the collective responsibility and involvement required from all individuals.

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  • 13. 

    203. Within the office space what is the most common hazard?

    • Falls

    • Fire

    • Drowning

    • Zombies

    Correct Answer
    A. Falls
    Explanation
    The most common hazard within the office space is falls. This is because there can be various factors that contribute to falls such as wet floors, loose cables, cluttered walkways, or uneven surfaces. Falls can result in injuries such as sprains, fractures, or head trauma. It is important to maintain a safe and organized office environment to prevent such accidents from occurring.

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  • 14. 

    203. Who is responsible to ensure that all employees have access to a safe, respectful, and harassment free place to work?

    • The Commander

    • The Supervisor

    • Everyone

    • Wing Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. The Commander
    Explanation
    The Commander is responsible for ensuring that all employees have access to a safe, respectful, and harassment-free place to work. As the leader of the organization or unit, the Commander holds the ultimate responsibility for creating and maintaining a positive work environment. They are responsible for setting the tone, establishing policies and procedures, and enforcing them to ensure the well-being and safety of all employees. By taking charge of this responsibility, the Commander shows their commitment to creating a workplace where everyone feels valued and respected.

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  • 15. 

    203. What AFI provides detailed guidance of office safety?

    • AFI 91-203

    • AFI 91-302

    • AFI 91-230

    • AFI 91-320

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 91-203
    Explanation
    AFI 91-203 provides detailed guidance on office safety. This document outlines the specific procedures and protocols that should be followed to ensure a safe working environment in office settings. It covers topics such as ergonomic practices, fire safety, electrical safety, and emergency response procedures. By following the guidelines outlined in AFI 91-203, organizations can create a safe and healthy workplace for their employees.

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  • 16. 

    203. Who is responsible for developing and maintaining a training and certification system to ensure employee training on fire prevention and protection responsibilities?

    • Facility Manager and Supervisor

    • Facility Manager and Flight Chief

    • Supervisor and Flight Chief

    • Flight Chief and Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Facility Manager and Supervisor
    Explanation
    The Facility Manager and Supervisor are responsible for developing and maintaining a training and certification system to ensure employee training on fire prevention and protection responsibilities. This means that they are in charge of creating and managing a program that provides training to employees on how to prevent and protect against fires. They are also responsible for ensuring that employees receive the necessary certifications to demonstrate their competence in fire prevention and protection. This ensures that all employees are properly trained and equipped to handle fire-related situations in the facility.

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  • 17. 

    203. What three items are needed to complete the fire triangle?

    • Fuel, Heat, Air

    • Fire, Earth, Water

    • Fuel, Heat, Water

    • Fuel, Heat, Wind

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuel, Heat, Air
    Explanation
    The fire triangle is a model that explains the three elements necessary for a fire to occur. Fuel refers to any material that can burn, such as wood, paper, or gasoline. Heat is the energy required to start and sustain the fire, usually provided by a spark or flame. Air, specifically oxygen, is essential for combustion to take place. Without any of these three elements, a fire cannot exist.

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  • 18. 

    203. List the classes of fires.

    • ABCDK

    • ABCDE

    • ABCDF

    • ABCDX

    Correct Answer
    A. ABCDK
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ABCDK. The classes of fires are categorized as follows: Class A (ordinary combustibles such as wood, paper, and cloth), Class B (flammable liquids and gases), Class C (electrical fires), Class D (flammable metals), and Class K (cooking oils and fats).

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  • 19. 

    203. What does PASS acronym stand for?

    • Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

    • Procure, Area, Salt, Swiftly

    • Place, Agent, Steve, Somewhere

    • Pudding, Ain't, Super, Saliva

    Correct Answer
    A. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep". This acronym is commonly used in fire safety and refers to the steps to be followed when using a fire extinguisher. "Pull" refers to pulling the pin to unlock the extinguisher, "Aim" means aiming the nozzle at the base of the fire, "Squeeze" refers to squeezing the handle to release the extinguishing agent, and "Sweep" means sweeping the nozzle from side to side to cover the entire fire area.

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  • 20. 

    203. What determines the severity of electric shock?

    • Amount and duration of current flow

    • Distance from and current location

    • What you are wearing and if you are near water

    • Your age and weight

    Correct Answer
    A. Amount and duration of current flow
    Explanation
    The severity of an electric shock is determined by the amount and duration of current flow. The higher the amount of current and the longer it flows through the body, the more severe the shock will be. This is because the current can cause damage to tissues and organs, leading to various injuries such as burns, muscle contractions, and even cardiac arrest. Therefore, it is important to be cautious and avoid prolonged exposure to electric currents to prevent severe electric shocks.

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  • 21. 

    203. What is the primary hazard associated with ladders?

    • Falls

    • Slips

    • Trips

    • Rolls

    Correct Answer
    A. Falls
    Explanation
    The primary hazard associated with ladders is falls. Ladders can be unstable or improperly used, leading to individuals losing their balance and falling from heights. Falls from ladders can result in serious injuries or even fatalities. It is important to use ladders correctly, ensure they are stable and secure, and follow safety guidelines to prevent falls and mitigate this hazard.

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  • 22. 

    203. What AFI identifies activities where the wear of finger rings is prohibited?

    • AFI 91-203

    • AFI 91-302

    • AFI 91-230

    • AFI 91-320

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 91-203
    Explanation
    AFI 91-203 is the correct answer because it specifically identifies activities where the wear of finger rings is prohibited. AFI 91-302, AFI 91-230, and AFI 91-320 may contain other regulations or guidelines, but they do not specifically address the prohibition of wearing finger rings.

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  • 23. 

    204. How many principles govern all actions associated with the management of risk?

    • Four

    • Three

    • Two

    • Five

    Correct Answer
    A. Four
    Explanation
    There are four principles that govern all actions associated with the management of risk. These principles provide a framework for effectively identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks. By following these principles, organizations can ensure that they have a systematic and structured approach to managing risks, which ultimately helps in making informed decisions and achieving their objectives.

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  • 24. 

    205. Is a Payroll system a part of the NSS?

    • No

    • Yes

    • Sometimes

    • Maybe

    Correct Answer
    A. No
    Explanation
    A Payroll system is not a part of the NSS because the NSS (National Security System) primarily focuses on ensuring the security and defense of a nation's infrastructure and information systems. Payroll systems, on the other hand, are specifically designed to manage and process employee salaries, taxes, and other financial aspects of an organization. While both systems may involve the use of technology and data management, they serve different purposes and have distinct functionalities. Therefore, a Payroll system is not considered a part of the NSS.

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  • 25. 

    205. The DODAF specification contain how many volumes?

    • Four

    • Two

    • Six

    • Eight

    Correct Answer
    A. Four
    Explanation
    The DODAF specification consists of four volumes. Each volume focuses on a different aspect of the specification, including the overall architecture, systems and services, data and information, and the technical standards and guidelines. These volumes provide a comprehensive framework for developing and documenting architectures within the Department of Defense.

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  • 26. 

    205. What architecture framework is designated as the framework for DOD architecture development?

    • DODAF

    • UCMJ

    • AETC

    • DODD

    Correct Answer
    A. DODAF
    Explanation
    DODAF stands for Department of Defense Architecture Framework. It is the designated framework for architecture development in the Department of Defense (DOD). DODAF provides a standardized approach for organizing and representing architecture information, enabling consistent and effective communication among stakeholders. It helps in aligning DOD's architecture efforts, facilitating interoperability, and supporting decision-making processes. UCMJ, AETC, and DODD are not architecture frameworks and are not specifically designated for DOD architecture development.

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  • 27. 

    206. What was the name of the system that was employed before the CIPS?

    • CSIR

    • CSER

    • SCIR

    • SCER

    Correct Answer
    A. CSIR
  • 28. 

    206. What is the approved automated information system for planning, installing, and managing the AF cyberspace infrastructure?

    • CIPS

    • SIPC

    • CEPS

    • SEPC

    Correct Answer
    A. CIPS
    Explanation
    CIPS is the approved automated information system for planning, installing, and managing the AF cyberspace infrastructure.

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  • 29. 

    206. Documents generated in CIPS are historical documentation, how long will the records remain associated with the equipment?

    • Equipments Life Cycle

    • Equipments Life Circle

    • Equipment Life Records

    • Equipment Life Documents

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipments Life Cycle
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Equipments Life Cycle". In CIPS, documents generated are considered historical documentation. These records will remain associated with the equipment throughout its life cycle. This means that the records will be maintained from the time the equipment is acquired or installed until it is retired or disposed of. The equipment life cycle includes various stages such as procurement, operation, maintenance, and retirement. Keeping records associated with the equipment throughout its life cycle helps in tracking its history, performance, and any necessary maintenance or repairs.

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  • 30. 

    206. What three parts make up the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record?

    • Administrative Record, Drawing Record, Maintenance Record

    • Administrative Record, Record Management, Maintenance Record

    • Administrative Record, Planning Record, Maintenance Record

    • Administrative Record, Installation Record, Maintenance Record

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative Record, Drawing Record, Maintenance Record
    Explanation
    The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record consists of three parts: Administrative Record, Drawing Record, and Maintenance Record. The Administrative Record includes all the administrative details related to the installation, such as project documentation, contracts, and approvals. The Drawing Record contains all the drawings and diagrams related to the installation, including floor plans and network diagrams. The Maintenance Record includes information about the ongoing maintenance and repairs carried out on the system. These three parts together provide a comprehensive record of the installation and its subsequent maintenance.

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  • 31. 

    206. What are legacy records that provide a history and audit trail for AF systems?

    • Administrative Records

    • Drawing Records

    • Maintenance Records

    • Planning Records

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative Records
    Explanation
    Administrative Records are legacy records that provide a history and audit trail for AF systems. These records typically include information related to the administration and management of the systems, such as user access logs, system configuration changes, and documentation of system policies and procedures. They are important for tracking system activities, ensuring accountability, and supporting auditing and compliance requirements.

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  • 32. 

    206. What records depict physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?

    • Drawing Record

    • Administrative Record

    • Maintenance Record

    • Planning Record

    Correct Answer
    A. Drawing Record
    Explanation
    Drawing records depict the physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data. These records typically include detailed drawings, diagrams, and schematics that show the arrangement and connections of various components and equipment. They are essential for planning, designing, and maintaining the systems, as they provide a visual representation of how everything is structured and interconnected. Drawing records are crucial for ensuring the proper functioning and efficient management of communications and information systems.

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  • 33. 

    207. In what year was the OSI model published and by whom?

    • 1984 ISO

    • 1986 ISO

    • 1994 ISO

    • 1996 ISO

    Correct Answer
    A. 1984 ISO
    Explanation
    In 1984, the OSI model was published by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO). This model, which stands for Open Systems Interconnection, is a conceptual framework that standardizes the functions of a communication system into seven layers. It was developed to facilitate communication between different computer systems and ensure interoperability. ISO, as a global standard-setting body, played a crucial role in the development and publication of this model.

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  • 34. 

    207. What two unique categories make up the seven layers of the OSI reference model?

    • Application and Data Transport

    • Network and Session

    • Application and Session

    • Network and Data Transport

    Correct Answer
    A. Application and Data Transport
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Application and Data Transport. The OSI reference model consists of seven layers, each responsible for specific functions in the communication process. The Application layer is responsible for providing services to the end-user applications, while the Data Transport layer is responsible for the reliable transmission of data across the network. These two layers, Application and Data Transport, are unique categories that make up the seven layers of the OSI reference model.

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  • 35. 

    207. What layer generally only implements in software?

    • Application Layer

    • Network Layer

    • Data Layer

    • Session Layer

    Correct Answer
    A. Application Layer
    Explanation
    The Application Layer is the layer of the OSI model that generally only implements in software. This layer is responsible for providing network services to end-user applications. It interacts directly with the user and enables communication between different applications. The Network Layer, Data Layer, and Session Layer may involve both software and hardware components in their implementation. However, the Application Layer specifically focuses on software-based implementation.

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  • 36. 

    207. Which layer of the OSI model is closest to the end user and interacts directly with the software application?

    • Application Layer

    • Session Layer

    • Data Layer

    • Network Layer

    Correct Answer
    A. Application Layer
    Explanation
    The Application Layer is the correct answer because it is the layer of the OSI model that is closest to the end user and interacts directly with the software application. This layer provides services to the user such as email, file transfer, and web browsing. It is responsible for translating the user's requests into a format that the underlying layers can understand and vice versa. The Application Layer also handles tasks such as authentication, encryption, and data compression.

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  • 37. 

    207. What are two key types of application-layer implementations?

    • TCP/IP and OSI applications

    • Network and Software applications

    • Transport and Session applications

    • Physical and Logical applications

    Correct Answer
    A. TCP/IP and OSI applications
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TCP/IP and OSI applications. TCP/IP and OSI are two different models used for understanding and implementing network protocols. TCP/IP is a widely used protocol suite that is the foundation of the internet, while OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) is a conceptual model that divides network communication into seven layers. Both TCP/IP and OSI provide a framework for designing and implementing application-layer protocols.

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  • 38. 

    207. Which layer establishes virtual circuits?

    • Transport

    • Data

    • Network

    • Physical

    Correct Answer
    A. Transport
    Explanation
    The transport layer is responsible for establishing virtual circuits. This layer ensures reliable and ordered delivery of data between the source and destination. It breaks down large data into smaller segments and reassembles them at the receiving end. By establishing virtual circuits, the transport layer provides a connection-oriented service, where a logical path is created between the communicating devices, ensuring that data packets are delivered in the correct order and without errors.

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  • 39. 

    207. Which layer of the OSI model provides logical addressing as opposed to physical addressing?

    • Network

    • Physical

    • Data

    • Session

    Correct Answer
    A. Network
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Network. The Network layer of the OSI model is responsible for logical addressing, which involves assigning unique addresses to devices on a network. This layer determines the most efficient route for data packets to travel from the source to the destination using logical addresses, regardless of the physical addresses of the devices. It also handles the fragmentation and reassembly of data packets if necessary.

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  • 40. 

    207. Who subdivided the Data Link Layer into two sub-layers, what are the sub-layers called?

    • IEEE, LLC and MAC

    • IEEE, LLC and TAC

    • IEEE, LLC and NIC

    • IEEE, LLC and PCM

    Correct Answer
    A. IEEE, LLC and MAC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is IEEE, LLC and MAC. The IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers) is responsible for standardizing network protocols, including the Data Link Layer. The Data Link Layer is then further divided into two sub-layers: LLC (Logical Link Control) and MAC (Media Access Control). The LLC sub-layer handles flow control and error checking, while the MAC sub-layer handles addressing and access to the physical media.

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  • 41. 

    207. Which specification allows for unique identification at the data link layer?

    • MAC sublayer

    • DATA sublayer

    • LOGIC sublayer

    • ROM sublayer

    Correct Answer
    A. MAC sublayer
    Explanation
    The MAC (Media Access Control) sublayer allows for unique identification at the data link layer. This sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical medium and assigning unique MAC addresses to network devices. By using MAC addresses, devices can be identified and communicate with each other on a local network. The MAC sublayer ensures that data is transmitted and received correctly between devices, preventing collisions and ensuring efficient data transmission.

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  • 42. 

    208. What do we call a device that sits at the intersection of two or more transmission paths and switches traffic among those paths?

    • A node

    • A switch

    • A path

    • A gateway

    Correct Answer
    A. A node
    Explanation
    A node is a device that sits at the intersection of two or more transmission paths and switches traffic among those paths. It acts as a central point for data transmission and routing, allowing communication between different devices or networks. A node can be a computer, router, or any other network device that facilitates the exchange of data between multiple paths.

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  • 43. 

    208. What is the branch of mathematics that examines the characteristics of geometric shapes?

    • Topology

    • Logical Topology

    • A Node

    • A Gateway

    Correct Answer
    A. Topology
    Explanation
    Topology is the branch of mathematics that examines the characteristics of geometric shapes. It focuses on the properties of space that are preserved under continuous transformations, such as stretching, bending, and twisting. Topology studies concepts such as continuity, connectedness, compactness, and convergence, and it is used in various fields such as physics, computer science, and engineering.

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  • 44. 

    208. If the topology cannot be seen or touched what type is it?

    • Logical Topology

    • Physical Topology

    • Topology

    • Illogical Topology

    Correct Answer
    A. Logical Topology
    Explanation
    Logical topology refers to the way in which data is transmitted in a network, regardless of the physical layout or arrangement of devices. It focuses on the logical connections and pathways that exist between devices, such as the use of protocols and addressing schemes. Since logical topology is concerned with the abstract representation of a network, it cannot be seen or touched physically. Therefore, the correct answer is Logical Topology.

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  • 45. 

    208. What are the two most common physical topologies?

    • Bus and Star

    • Mesh and Bus

    • Mesh and Star

    • Ring and Mesh

    Correct Answer
    A. Bus and Star
    Explanation
    Bus and Star are the two most common physical topologies used in computer networks. In a bus topology, all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear structure. Data is transmitted in both directions along the cable, and all devices receive the transmitted data. In a star topology, each device is connected to a central hub or switch, creating a star-like structure. Data is transmitted from one device to another through the central hub. These topologies are widely used due to their simplicity, scalability, and ease of troubleshooting.

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  • 46. 

    208. What is another name for a bus topology?

    • Linear

    • Super Bus

    • Mega Bus

    • Liner

    Correct Answer
    A. Linear
    Explanation
    Another name for a bus topology is linear because in a bus topology, all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear structure. This cable acts as a backbone, and data is transmitted from one device to another in a linear fashion.

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  • 47. 

    208. What IEEE standard applies to bus networks?

    • 802.3

    • 803.2

    • 302.8

    • 203.8

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 802.3. IEEE standard 802.3 specifically applies to bus networks. This standard defines the physical and data link layer specifications for Ethernet networks, including bus topologies. It outlines the requirements for the physical medium, signaling, and frame formats used in bus networks. Therefore, 802.3 is the appropriate IEEE standard for bus networks.

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  • 48. 

    208. Which topology has cable segments connected to a centralized component?

    • Star

    • Ring

    • Mesh

    • Linear

    Correct Answer
    A. Star
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Star. In a star topology, cable segments are connected to a centralized component called a hub or a switch. All devices in the network are connected to this central hub, which acts as a communication point. This allows for easy management and troubleshooting as any issues with one device or cable segment do not affect the rest of the network.

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  • 49. 

    208. Which topology is the most common physical topology in Ethernet LANs?

    • Star

    • Bus

    • Linear

    • Mesh

    Correct Answer
    A. Star
    Explanation
    The most common physical topology in Ethernet LANs is the star topology. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, forming a star-like structure. This allows for easy scalability and troubleshooting, as each device can be individually connected or disconnected without affecting the rest of the network. Additionally, the central hub or switch acts as a central point of control, making it easier to manage and monitor the network.

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  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 24, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Xtrallence

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