Vita - Volume 2 Ure Section 1
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?
- A.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–200.
- B.
AFI 91–202.
- C.
Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91–200.
- D.
AFMAN 91–202.
Correct Answer
B. AFI 91–202.Explanation
The correct answer is AFI 91–202. This publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
- A.
Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.
- B.
Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.
- C.
Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.
- D.
Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.
Correct Answer
D. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.Explanation
The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect both resources and personnel from potential harm. This includes preventing damage, loss, injury, and death. The program aims to establish measures and practices that minimize the risk of accidents and mishaps, ensuring the safety and well-being of individuals and the preservation of valuable resources.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of
- A.
Commerce.
- B.
The Treasury.
- C.
Defense.
- D.
Labor
Correct Answer
D. LaborExplanation
The correct answer is Labor because the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency that is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States. It is a part of the United States Department of Labor, which is responsible for promoting and protecting the welfare of job seekers, wage earners, and retirees. OSHA sets and enforces standards, provides training and education, and conducts inspections to ensure compliance with workplace safety and health regulations.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?
- A.
Air Staff.
- B.
Civil Engineering.
- C.
Squadron commander.
- D.
Installation safety office.
Correct Answer
D. Installation safety office.Explanation
The correct answer is the Installation safety office. The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They play a crucial role in ensuring the safety and well-being of personnel by providing guidance, conducting inspections, and promoting a culture of safety throughout the installation.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?
- A.
Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO).
- B.
Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).
- C.
Review AF Form 55.
- D.
Certify the employee.
Correct Answer
B. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).Explanation
Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves carefully examining the task to identify potential hazards and determine the necessary safety precautions and procedures. By conducting a JSA, supervisors can ensure that employees are aware of the potential risks associated with the task and are equipped with the knowledge and training to mitigate those risks. This helps to promote a safe working environment and prevent accidents or injuries.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?
- A.
475
- B.
480.
- C.
978.
- D.
980.
Correct Answer
C. 978.Explanation
The correct answer is 978. The Air Force uses form 978 to report ground mishaps. This form is specifically designed for documenting and reporting accidents or incidents that occur on the ground, such as vehicle collisions, equipment damage, or injuries. It is important to have a standardized form like 978 to ensure that all necessary information is collected and reported accurately, allowing for proper investigation and analysis of the mishap.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?
- A.
475 or 457 (not sure)
- B.
480.
- C.
978.
- D.
980.
Correct Answer
A. 475 or 457 (not sure)Explanation
The correct answer is 457. The Air Force uses form 457 to report a hazard.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What three sub-categories make up human factors?
- A.
Physiological, physical, stress.
- B.
Physiological, Physical, social.
- C.
Stress, organizational, physical.
- D.
Physical, physiological, organizational
Correct Answer
D. Physical, physiological, organizationalExplanation
The correct answer is Physical, physiological, organizational. Human factors refer to the study of how humans interact with systems and environments. The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical factors, which involve the physical aspects of the environment and equipment; physiological factors, which involve the psychological and cognitive aspects of human behavior; and organizational factors, which involve the social and organizational aspects of the work system. These three sub-categories encompass various aspects of human performance and behavior that are important in designing systems and environments that are safe, efficient, and effective for human use.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which action is a physiological factor?
- A.
Performing a task while fatigued
- B.
Performing a task while intoxicated
- C.
Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders
- D.
Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness
Correct Answer
C. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leadersExplanation
Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders is not a physiological factor. It is a behavioral factor as it involves a conscious decision to disregard instructions. Physiological factors, on the other hand, are related to the body's physical state or functioning. Examples of physiological factors could include performing a task while fatigued, performing a task while intoxicated, or performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?
- A.
Bioenvironmental Engineering
- B.
Installation safety office
- C.
Base civil engineer
- D.
Supervisors
Correct Answer
A. Bioenvironmental EngineeringExplanation
Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the potential risks and develop appropriate measures to protect the health and safety of individuals within a given environment. Their recommendations may include implementing engineering controls, administrative controls, or personal protective equipment to minimize exposure to hazards and ensure a safe working or living environment.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.
- A.
Isolating operations
- B.
Providing administrative controls
- C.
Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).
- D.
Substitution a less hazardous material or process
Correct Answer
C. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).Explanation
The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it solely relies on the individual to protect themselves. PPE includes items such as helmets, gloves, goggles, and masks, which can be effective in reducing exposure to hazards. However, it should not be the primary method of hazard control as it does not eliminate the hazard itself. Instead, it only provides a barrier between the hazard and the individual. Other methods such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, and substitution of less hazardous materials or processes are more effective in eliminating or reducing hazards at their source.Rate this question:
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- 12.
How many impact classifications do hardhats have?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
Correct Answer
B. Two.Explanation
Hardhats have two impact classifications because they are designed to protect against two different types of impacts: top impacts and lateral impacts. The top impact classification refers to impacts that occur directly on the top of the hardhat, while the lateral impact classification refers to impacts that occur from the sides. By having two impact classifications, hardhats provide comprehensive protection for the wearer in different scenarios.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?
- A.
A
- B.
C
- C.
E
- D.
G
Correct Answer
B. CExplanation
Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
- A.
Falls.
- B.
Poor lighting
- C.
Horseplay.
- D.
Poor ergonomics
Correct Answer
A. Falls.Explanation
In a typical office, falls are the greatest hazard. This can occur due to various reasons such as slippery floors, cluttered walkways, or improper use of equipment. Falls can lead to injuries such as sprains, fractures, or head trauma. It is important to maintain a safe and clean working environment to prevent such accidents.Rate this question:
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- 15.
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?
- A.
1 to 2
- B.
2 to 2.5
- C.
2 to 4.5
- D.
2.5 to 3
Correct Answer
B. 2 to 2.5Explanation
Office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers, according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). This suggests that the risk of falling and being injured is significantly higher for office workers, potentially due to factors such as working in environments with slippery floors, poor lighting, or cluttered spaces. It highlights the importance of implementing safety measures and promoting awareness among office workers to prevent falls and reduce the likelihood of disabling injuries.Rate this question:
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- 16.
16. (203) What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?
- A.
8
- B.
9
- C.
10
- D.
11
Correct Answer
C. 10Explanation
Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.Rate this question:
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- 17.
How are fires classified?
- A.
Fuel type
- B.
Heat source
- C.
Temperature
- D.
Atmospheric conditions
Correct Answer
A. Fuel typeExplanation
Fires are classified based on the type of fuel that is burning. Different types of fuel, such as wood, paper, or gasoline, produce different types of fires with varying characteristics. By classifying fires based on fuel type, it becomes easier to understand their behavior and determine the most effective methods for extinguishing them.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What classification do flammable liquids receive?
- A.
Class A.
- B.
Class B
- C.
Class C
- D.
Class D.
Correct Answer
B. Class BExplanation
Flammable liquids receive classification under Class B. Class B classification is specifically designated for flammable liquids, which are substances that have a flash point below 100 degrees Fahrenheit. These liquids can ignite easily and pose a fire hazard. Class B classification helps to identify and handle these substances safely, ensuring appropriate precautions are taken to prevent accidents and fires.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?
- A.
Class A
- B.
Class B.
- C.
Class C.
- D.
Class D.
Correct Answer
C. Class C.Explanation
When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they undergo a chemical reaction and transform into fuels that are classified as Class C. This change in classification occurs due to the alteration in the chemical properties of the fuels caused by the electric current.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
- A.
Evacuate personnel from the building
- B.
Extinguish the fire if possible
- C.
Call the fire department
- D.
Sound the fire alarm
Correct Answer
D. Sound the fire alarmExplanation
When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building about the fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. By sounding the alarm, it helps to ensure that everyone is aware of the emergency and can take appropriate action. Once the alarm is sounded, personnel can then proceed with evacuating the building, calling the fire department, and attempting to extinguish the fire if it is safe to do so.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?
- A.
Evacuate personnel from the building
- B.
Extinguish the fire if possible
- C.
Call the fire department
- D.
Sound the fire alarm
Correct Answer
B. Extinguish the fire if possibleExplanation
The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using the appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to suppress and eliminate the fire. It is important to prioritize the safety of personnel and ensure that they are evacuated from the building before attempting to extinguish the fire. Calling the fire department and sounding the fire alarm are also crucial steps in the firefighting procedure, but they occur before attempting to extinguish the fire.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?
- A.
50
- B.
40
- C.
20
- D.
10
Correct Answer
A. 50Explanation
Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. This level of current is considered dangerous and can disrupt the normal electrical signals in the heart, leading to a potentially life-threatening condition. It is important to avoid exposure to high levels of electrical current to prevent such risks.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which ladder practice is not prohibited?
- A.
Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits
- B.
Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder
- C.
Using a ladder as a scaffold.
- D.
Using a homemade ladder
Correct Answer
A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuitsExplanation
Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits does not pose a significant risk of electric shock or electrocution. However, it is still important to exercise caution and ensure that the ladder is stable and secure to prevent any accidents.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?
- A.
Accept no unnecessary risk
- B.
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level
- C.
Apply the process irregularly and continuously.
- D.
Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels
Correct Answer
C. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.Explanation
The correct answer is "Apply the process irregularly and continuously." This action is not a part of risk management because risk management involves consistently and regularly applying the risk management process to identify, assess, and mitigate risks. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would undermine the effectiveness of risk management as it requires a systematic and ongoing approach to effectively manage risks.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The risk management process includes how many steps?
- A.
Four
- B.
Five
- C.
Six
- D.
Seven
Correct Answer
B. FiveExplanation
The risk management process includes five steps. These steps are: risk identification, risk assessment, risk mitigation, risk monitoring, and risk communication. In the risk identification step, potential risks are identified and documented. Risk assessment involves analyzing the identified risks to determine their likelihood and impact. Risk mitigation focuses on developing strategies to minimize or eliminate the identified risks. Risk monitoring involves continuously monitoring the risks and their effectiveness of mitigation measures. Lastly, risk communication involves sharing information about the risks and their management with stakeholders.Rate this question:
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- 26.
How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
D. FourExplanation
The Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is composed of four volumes. Each volume provides specific guidance and information related to different aspects of the framework. These volumes include the DODAF Volume 1: Introduction and Overview, DODAF Volume 2: Architectural Data and Models, DODAF Volume 3: Architecture Descriptions, and DODAF Volume 4: Architecture Data Management. These volumes collectively form the complete DODAF specification, which is used to develop and manage architectures within the Department of Defense.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?
- A.
Office of Administration
- B.
Office of Communications
- C.
Office of Public Engagement
- D.
Office of Management and Budget
Correct Answer
D. Office of Management and BudgetExplanation
The Office of Management and Budget annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?
- A.
State level
- B.
Federal level
- C.
Congressional level
- D.
Department of Defense level
Correct Answer
B. Federal levelExplanation
Federal level requirements mandate the development of Air Force architectures. This means that the requirements for developing these architectures are set at the federal level, indicating that they are established by the federal government. These requirements could include various factors such as budgetary considerations, national security priorities, and coordination with other federal agencies. Developing Air Force architectures in accordance with federal level requirements ensures that they align with the overall strategic goals and objectives of the federal government.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?
- A.
Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record
- B.
Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.
- C.
Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record
- D.
Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record
Correct Answer
C. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance recordExplanation
The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is a comprehensive document that includes three main parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record contains all the necessary paperwork and documentation related to the installation, such as permits, licenses, and contracts. The drawing record includes detailed diagrams and plans of the installation, providing a visual representation of the system. Lastly, the maintenance record keeps track of all the maintenance activities performed on the system, including repairs, upgrades, and inspections. These three parts together ensure that all the necessary information and documentation regarding the installation and maintenance of the communications and information systems are properly recorded and maintained.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?
- A.
Administrative record
- B.
Maintenance record
- C.
Drawing record
- D.
Outage record
Correct Answer
C. Drawing recordExplanation
The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data. This section typically includes diagrams, blueprints, and other visual representations that show the placement and configuration of the systems. It is an important resource for understanding the physical infrastructure of the communication and information systems.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?
- A.
Administrative record
- B.
Maintenance record.
- C.
Drawing record
- D.
Outage record
Correct Answer
B. Maintenance record.Explanation
The maintenance record is typically retained in the production work center of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). This record contains important information about the maintenance activities performed on the communication and information systems, including any repairs, upgrades, or replacements. It allows the work center to track the history of maintenance and ensure that the systems are properly maintained and functioning effectively. The administrative record may contain administrative information, the drawing record may contain technical drawings, and the outage record may contain information about any system outages or disruptions.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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