3DX5X U.R.E. Vol. 2

1. What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

Version Identification

Header Checksum

Time to Live

Flags

The correct answer is the Header Checksum. The Header Checksum is a field in the IP Datagram that allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers. It is a mathematical calculation performed on the header of the packet, and the result is placed in the Header Checksum field. When the packet arrives at its destination, the receiver recalculates the checksum and compares it to the value in the Header Checksum field. If the values do not match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the packet is discarded.

Explanation

The correct answer is the Header Checksum. The Header Checksum is a field in the IP Datagram that allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers. It is a mathematical calculation performed on the header of the packet, and the result is placed in the Header Checksum field. When the packet arrives at its destination, the receiver recalculates the checksum and compares it to the value in the Header Checksum field. If the values do not match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the packet is discarded.

2. Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

Service set identifier (SSID) Broadcasting

Media access control (MAC) Filtering

Encryption

Tunneling

Encryption is the best described method for hiding a message in a special code. Encryption is the process of converting plain text into cipher text using an algorithm and a key. The cipher text can only be decrypted back into plain text using the correct key. This method ensures that unauthorized users cannot understand the message even if they intercept it, providing a high level of security for wireless local area networks (WLANs).

Explanation

Encryption is the best described method for hiding a message in a special code. Encryption is the process of converting plain text into cipher text using an algorithm and a key. The cipher text can only be decrypted back into plain text using the correct key. This method ensures that unauthorized users cannot understand the message even if they intercept it, providing a high level of security for wireless local area networks (WLANs).

3. Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?

Local area network (LAN).

Wide area network (WAN)

Virtual private network (VPN).

Metropolitan area network (MAN).

A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. It allows users to securely access a private network over a public network, such as the Internet. VPNs encrypt the data transmitted between the user's device and the private network, ensuring that it remains private and protected from unauthorized access. This enables users to securely access resources on the private network, such as files, applications, or services, from anywhere in the world, as if they were directly connected to the network.

Explanation

A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. It allows users to securely access a private network over a public network, such as the Internet. VPNs encrypt the data transmitted between the user's device and the private network, ensuring that it remains private and protected from unauthorized access. This enables users to securely access resources on the private network, such as files, applications, or services, from anywhere in the world, as if they were directly connected to the network.

4. What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

Falls

Poor lighting

Horseplay

Poor ergonomics

Falls are the greatest hazard in the typical office because they can occur due to various reasons such as slippery floors, tripping over objects, or falling from unstable furniture. Falls can result in serious injuries like fractures, sprains, or head trauma. Office spaces often have multiple potential fall hazards like stairs, uneven flooring, or cluttered walkways. Therefore, it is important to maintain a safe environment and implement preventive measures to reduce the risk of falls in the office.

Explanation

Falls are the greatest hazard in the typical office because they can occur due to various reasons such as slippery floors, tripping over objects, or falling from unstable furniture. Falls can result in serious injuries like fractures, sprains, or head trauma. Office spaces often have multiple potential fall hazards like stairs, uneven flooring, or cluttered walkways. Therefore, it is important to maintain a safe environment and implement preventive measures to reduce the risk of falls in the office.

5. Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling

Media converter

Modem

Switch

Router

A media converter is a device that converts electrical signals used in copper UTP network cabling to light waves used in fiber optic cabling. It allows for the integration of different types of network media, such as copper and fiber, by converting the signals between them. This enables the transmission of data over longer distances and at higher speeds, making it an essential component in network communication.

Explanation

A media converter is a device that converts electrical signals used in copper UTP network cabling to light waves used in fiber optic cabling. It allows for the integration of different types of network media, such as copper and fiber, by converting the signals between them. This enables the transmission of data over longer distances and at higher speeds, making it an essential component in network communication.

6. Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users' own end terminals?

A. Internet Protocol

End-to-end

Bulk

Link

End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since it fully encodes the information all the way through the network to the users' own end terminals. This means that the data is encrypted at the source and remains encrypted until it reaches the intended recipient, ensuring that it cannot be intercepted or accessed by unauthorized parties during transit. This type of encryption ensures the highest level of security and privacy for sensitive information.

Explanation

End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since it fully encodes the information all the way through the network to the users' own end terminals. This means that the data is encrypted at the source and remains encrypted until it reaches the intended recipient, ensuring that it cannot be intercepted or accessed by unauthorized parties during transit. This type of encryption ensures the highest level of security and privacy for sensitive information.

7. Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?

When it is placed in service

When it is removed from service

When the storage container has been cleaned

When compromise of the combination is suspected

Cleaning the storage container is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials. The combination should only be changed when there is a suspected compromise of the combination, such as if it has been leaked or if unauthorized individuals have gained access to it. Cleaning the container does not pose a risk to the security of the classified materials and therefore does not require a change in the combination.

Explanation

Cleaning the storage container is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials. The combination should only be changed when there is a suspected compromise of the combination, such as if it has been leaked or if unauthorized individuals have gained access to it. Cleaning the container does not pose a risk to the security of the classified materials and therefore does not require a change in the combination.

8. What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware

Shell.

Kernel

User programs

Dynamic-link library

The correct answer is Kernel. The kernel is the core component of the UNIX system software that interacts directly with the hardware. It manages the system resources, provides essential services, and acts as a bridge between the hardware and user programs. The kernel handles tasks such as memory management, process scheduling, device drivers, and file system management. It is responsible for translating user commands and requests into instructions that the hardware can understand and execute.

Explanation

The correct answer is Kernel. The kernel is the core component of the UNIX system software that interacts directly with the hardware. It manages the system resources, provides essential services, and acts as a bridge between the hardware and user programs. The kernel handles tasks such as memory management, process scheduling, device drivers, and file system management. It is responsible for translating user commands and requests into instructions that the hardware can understand and execute.

9. Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?

Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).

Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET)

Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data

Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user.

Explanation

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user.

10. Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

Malware

Spyware

Adware

Trojans

Spyware is computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It is a type of malicious software that secretly monitors and gathers information about a user's online activities, such as browsing habits, passwords, and personal data. This information is then often used for malicious purposes, such as identity theft or unauthorized access to sensitive information. Unlike adware, which displays unwanted advertisements, spyware operates covertly and without the user's knowledge or consent.

Explanation

Spyware is computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It is a type of malicious software that secretly monitors and gathers information about a user's online activities, such as browsing habits, passwords, and personal data. This information is then often used for malicious purposes, such as identity theft or unauthorized access to sensitive information. Unlike adware, which displays unwanted advertisements, spyware operates covertly and without the user's knowledge or consent.

11. Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?

Printer.

Scanner

Monitor

Camera lens

A scanner is the correct answer because it is a device that uses optical technology to read an image, printed text, or an object and convert it into a digital image. Scanners work by capturing the reflected light from the image or object and converting it into a digital format that can be stored or manipulated on a computer. This makes it possible to create digital copies of physical documents or objects, which can then be edited, shared, or stored electronically.

Explanation

A scanner is the correct answer because it is a device that uses optical technology to read an image, printed text, or an object and convert it into a digital image. Scanners work by capturing the reflected light from the image or object and converting it into a digital format that can be stored or manipulated on a computer. This makes it possible to create digital copies of physical documents or objects, which can then be edited, shared, or stored electronically.

12. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of

Commerce

The Treasury

Defense

Labor

The correct answer is Labor because the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States. It sets and enforces standards, provides training and education, and conducts inspections to ensure compliance with workplace safety regulations. Being a part of the Department of Labor, OSHA works to protect workers' rights and promote their well-being in the workplace.

Explanation

The correct answer is Labor because the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States. It sets and enforces standards, provides training and education, and conducts inspections to ensure compliance with workplace safety regulations. Being a part of the Department of Labor, OSHA works to protect workers' rights and promote their well-being in the workplace.

13. What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

There are no negative effects

A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication

Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices

When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated

When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to manage communication between the different networks. If this central node point fails, it can result in large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that communication between those isolated portions and the rest of the network will be disrupted, leading to a negative effect on overall network connectivity and functionality.

Explanation

When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to manage communication between the different networks. If this central node point fails, it can result in large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that communication between those isolated portions and the rest of the network will be disrupted, leading to a negative effect on overall network connectivity and functionality.

14. Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

Local area network (LAN).

Wide area network (WAN)

Virtual private network (VPN).

Metropolitan area network (MAN).

A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects local area networks (LAN) and metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. This allows for the connection and communication between LANs and MANs that are geographically separated. WANs are typically used by organizations that have multiple locations or branches in different cities or countries, enabling them to share resources and information across their network.

Explanation

A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects local area networks (LAN) and metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. This allows for the connection and communication between LANs and MANs that are geographically separated. WANs are typically used by organizations that have multiple locations or branches in different cities or countries, enabling them to share resources and information across their network.

15. Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

Accept no unnecessary risk

Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

Apply the process irregularly and continuously

Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels

The action of applying the risk management process irregularly and continuously is not a part of risk management. Risk management involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks in a systematic and consistent manner. Applying the process irregularly would mean that some risks may be overlooked or not properly addressed, leading to potential negative consequences. Additionally, applying the process continuously ensures that risks are constantly monitored and managed to adapt to changing circumstances. Therefore, applying the process irregularly and continuously goes against the principles of effective risk management.

Explanation

The action of applying the risk management process irregularly and continuously is not a part of risk management. Risk management involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks in a systematic and consistent manner. Applying the process irregularly would mean that some risks may be overlooked or not properly addressed, leading to potential negative consequences. Additionally, applying the process continuously ensures that risks are constantly monitored and managed to adapt to changing circumstances. Therefore, applying the process irregularly and continuously goes against the principles of effective risk management.

16. What topology offers centralized management of a network?

Bus

Star

Ring

Radial

The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which acts as a central point of control. This allows for easier management and troubleshooting of the network, as any changes or issues can be addressed at the central hub. Additionally, the star topology provides better performance and scalability compared to other topologies like bus or ring, making it a preferred choice for networks that require centralized management.

Explanation

The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which acts as a central point of control. This allows for easier management and troubleshooting of the network, as any changes or issues can be addressed at the central hub. Additionally, the star topology provides better performance and scalability compared to other topologies like bus or ring, making it a preferred choice for networks that require centralized management.

17. What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?

0-1023

1024-49151

49152-65535

65536-87000

The range of numbers 0-1023 represents the well-known port numbers. Well-known port numbers are reserved for specific services and protocols, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). These port numbers are standardized and widely recognized, making them easily identifiable and commonly used for various network applications.

Explanation

The range of numbers 0-1023 represents the well-known port numbers. Well-known port numbers are reserved for specific services and protocols, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). These port numbers are standardized and widely recognized, making them easily identifiable and commonly used for various network applications.

18. What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record

Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.

Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record

Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record

The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) consists of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes all the necessary paperwork and documentation related to the installation, such as contracts, permits, and licenses. The drawing record contains the technical drawings and diagrams of the installed system. The maintenance record includes logs and reports of any maintenance activities performed on the system. These three parts together provide a comprehensive record of the installation process and ongoing maintenance of the communications and information systems.

Explanation

The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) consists of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes all the necessary paperwork and documentation related to the installation, such as contracts, permits, and licenses. The drawing record contains the technical drawings and diagrams of the installed system. The maintenance record includes logs and reports of any maintenance activities performed on the system. These three parts together provide a comprehensive record of the installation process and ongoing maintenance of the communications and information systems.

19. How are fires classified?

Fuel type

Heat source

Temperature.

Atmospheric conditions

Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuels, such as wood, paper, gasoline, or electrical equipment, can lead to different fire behaviors and require different firefighting techniques. By understanding the fuel type, firefighters can better assess the risks and determine the most effective strategies to extinguish the fire.

Explanation

Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuels, such as wood, paper, gasoline, or electrical equipment, can lead to different fire behaviors and require different firefighting techniques. By understanding the fuel type, firefighters can better assess the risks and determine the most effective strategies to extinguish the fire.

20. Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?

Local area network (LAN).

Wide area network (WAN).

Virtual private network (VPN).

Metropolitan area network (MAN).

A local area network (LAN) is a network of computers and devices that are connected within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or building. In a LAN, the computers and devices are connected through a common communications line, allowing them to share resources such as printers, files, and internet access. LANs are typically managed by a single processor or server, which controls the network and provides services to the connected devices. This makes a LAN an efficient and cost-effective solution for small-scale networking needs.

Explanation

A local area network (LAN) is a network of computers and devices that are connected within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or building. In a LAN, the computers and devices are connected through a common communications line, allowing them to share resources such as printers, files, and internet access. LANs are typically managed by a single processor or server, which controls the network and provides services to the connected devices. This makes a LAN an efficient and cost-effective solution for small-scale networking needs.

21. What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?

ROM is volatile, RAM in non-volatile

ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile

RAM has a slower access time versus ROM

ROM has a slower access time versus RAM

ROM is non-volatile, meaning that it retains its data even when power is lost, while RAM is volatile, meaning that it loses its data when power is lost. This is the major difference between the two types of memory.

Explanation

ROM is non-volatile, meaning that it retains its data even when power is lost, while RAM is volatile, meaning that it loses its data when power is lost. This is the major difference between the two types of memory.

22. What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

Star

Ring

Loop

Linear

A bus topology is a network setup in which all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear structure. Therefore, the term "Linear" is another name for a bus topology.

Explanation

A bus topology is a network setup in which all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear structure. Therefore, the term "Linear" is another name for a bus topology.

23. What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?

Word

Access

Outlook

PowerPoint

Access is a Microsoft application that allows users to create a desktop database. It provides tools for creating tables, forms, queries, and reports, making it easy for users to organize and manage their data efficiently. With Access, users can create custom databases tailored to their specific needs, whether it's for personal or professional use. It is widely used in businesses and organizations to store and retrieve large amounts of data in a structured manner.

Explanation

Access is a Microsoft application that allows users to create a desktop database. It provides tools for creating tables, forms, queries, and reports, making it easy for users to organize and manage their data efficiently. With Access, users can create custom databases tailored to their specific needs, whether it's for personal or professional use. It is widely used in businesses and organizations to store and retrieve large amounts of data in a structured manner.

24. Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?

Attacker’s capability to exploit the flaw

System’s susceptibility to a flaw

Attacker’s access to the flaw

Attacker’s lack of ability

The given answer, "Attacker's lack of ability," is the correct answer because it does not pertain to a vulnerability in a computer system. The other options all refer to different aspects of vulnerabilities, such as the attacker's capability to exploit a flaw, the system's susceptibility to a flaw, and the attacker's access to a flaw. However, the attacker's lack of ability does not describe a vulnerability but rather the absence of a skill or capability on the part of the attacker.

Explanation

The given answer, "Attacker's lack of ability," is the correct answer because it does not pertain to a vulnerability in a computer system. The other options all refer to different aspects of vulnerabilities, such as the attacker's capability to exploit a flaw, the system's susceptibility to a flaw, and the attacker's access to a flaw. However, the attacker's lack of ability does not describe a vulnerability but rather the absence of a skill or capability on the part of the attacker.

25. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

1 to 2

2 to 2.5

2 to 4.5

2.5 to 3

According to the CDC, office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers. This suggests that the risk of falling and getting injured is significantly higher for office workers compared to those who do not work in an office setting.

Explanation

According to the CDC, office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers. This suggests that the risk of falling and getting injured is significantly higher for office workers compared to those who do not work in an office setting.

26. What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

Prevent the use of unsafe equipment

Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices

Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices

Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death

The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and/or death. This program aims to prevent accidents or mishaps that could result in harm to individuals or property. By implementing safety measures and protocols, the program ensures the well-being and preservation of both resources and personnel.

Explanation

The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and/or death. This program aims to prevent accidents or mishaps that could result in harm to individuals or property. By implementing safety measures and protocols, the program ensures the well-being and preservation of both resources and personnel.

27. Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

Air Staff.

Civil Engineering

Squadron commander

Installation safety office

The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They are specifically designated to handle safety concerns and provide guidance and support to ensure a safe working environment for everyone on the installation.

Explanation

The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They are specifically designated to handle safety concerns and provide guidance and support to ensure a safe working environment for everyone on the installation.

28. Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

Class A

Class B

Class C

Class D

When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they undergo a chemical reaction and change their classification to Class C. This change occurs because the introduction of an electric current can cause the fuel to ignite more easily or burn at a higher temperature, making it more hazardous and increasing its flammability. Class C fuels are typically characterized by their ability to conduct electricity and are commonly found in electrical equipment or power sources.

Explanation

When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they undergo a chemical reaction and change their classification to Class C. This change occurs because the introduction of an electric current can cause the fuel to ignite more easily or burn at a higher temperature, making it more hazardous and increasing its flammability. Class C fuels are typically characterized by their ability to conduct electricity and are commonly found in electrical equipment or power sources.

29. When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's

Transport topology

Physical topology

Physical medium

Logical topology

The term "topology" can have different meanings depending on the context in which it is used. In the given question, when the word "topology" is used alone, it typically refers to the physical arrangement or layout of devices and cables in a network. This is known as the physical topology. It describes how the network is physically connected, such as whether it is a bus, star, ring, or mesh topology. The other options, such as transport topology, physical medium, and logical topology, are not the primary meanings of "topology" when used alone.

Explanation

The term "topology" can have different meanings depending on the context in which it is used. In the given question, when the word "topology" is used alone, it typically refers to the physical arrangement or layout of devices and cables in a network. This is known as the physical topology. It describes how the network is physically connected, such as whether it is a bus, star, ring, or mesh topology. The other options, such as transport topology, physical medium, and logical topology, are not the primary meanings of "topology" when used alone.

30. What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

Evacuate personnel from the building

Extinguish the fire if possible

Call the fire departmen

Sound the fire alarm

The first action to take when encountering a fire is to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building about the fire and allows them to evacuate safely. By sounding the alarm, people are made aware of the emergency and can take appropriate actions to evacuate the building and prevent any further harm or damage. Once the alarm is sounded, personnel can then proceed to evacuate the building, call the fire department, and attempt to extinguish the fire if it is safe to do so.

Explanation

The first action to take when encountering a fire is to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building about the fire and allows them to evacuate safely. By sounding the alarm, people are made aware of the emergency and can take appropriate actions to evacuate the building and prevent any further harm or damage. Once the alarm is sounded, personnel can then proceed to evacuate the building, call the fire department, and attempt to extinguish the fire if it is safe to do so.

31. What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?

Cost to install and train technicians

Electromagnetic immunity

Low attenuation

Security

The cost to install and train technicians is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cables are known for their high installation and training costs compared to other types of cables. However, they offer advantages such as low attenuation (signal loss), electromagnetic immunity (resistance to interference), and enhanced security due to their ability to transmit data through light signals.

Explanation

The cost to install and train technicians is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cables are known for their high installation and training costs compared to other types of cables. However, they offer advantages such as low attenuation (signal loss), electromagnetic immunity (resistance to interference), and enhanced security due to their ability to transmit data through light signals.

32. What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?

Word

Access

Outlook

PowerPoint

Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is primarily used as an email client, but it also includes features such as a calendar, task manager, contact manager, note-taking, and journal. Outlook allows users to organize and manage their personal information, making it an ideal application for personal information management. Word, Access, and PowerPoint are other Microsoft applications, but they do not have the same personal information management capabilities as Outlook.

Explanation

Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is primarily used as an email client, but it also includes features such as a calendar, task manager, contact manager, note-taking, and journal. Outlook allows users to organize and manage their personal information, making it an ideal application for personal information management. Word, Access, and PowerPoint are other Microsoft applications, but they do not have the same personal information management capabilities as Outlook.

33. Which action is a physiological factor?

Performing a task while fatigued

Performing a task while intoxicated.

Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders

Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness

Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders is not a physiological factor. Physiological factors refer to physical conditions or processes within the body that can affect performance, such as fatigue, intoxication, or the effects of medication. Ignoring directions is a behavioral or psychological factor, as it involves a conscious decision or choice made by an individual rather than a physiological condition.

Explanation

Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders is not a physiological factor. Physiological factors refer to physical conditions or processes within the body that can affect performance, such as fatigue, intoxication, or the effects of medication. Ignoring directions is a behavioral or psychological factor, as it involves a conscious decision or choice made by an individual rather than a physiological condition.

34. What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?

State level

Federal level

Congressional level

Department of Defense level

The development of Air Force architectures is mandated at the federal level. This means that the requirements for these architectures are set and enforced by the federal government. This ensures that there is a standardized and consistent approach to developing Air Force architectures across the entire country. The federal level also allows for coordination and collaboration between different branches of the military and other federal agencies, ensuring that the architectures meet the needs and objectives of the entire nation.

Explanation

The development of Air Force architectures is mandated at the federal level. This means that the requirements for these architectures are set and enforced by the federal government. This ensures that there is a standardized and consistent approach to developing Air Force architectures across the entire country. The federal level also allows for coordination and collaboration between different branches of the military and other federal agencies, ensuring that the architectures meet the needs and objectives of the entire nation.

35. What is a peripheral device?

A main internal component of a computer

Not a main internal component of a computer

A main component of a computer and can be either internal or external

Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external

A peripheral device is not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external. Peripheral devices are additional devices that are connected to a computer to enhance its functionality or provide input/output capabilities. Examples of peripheral devices include printers, scanners, keyboards, mice, and external hard drives. These devices are not essential for the basic functioning of a computer but can greatly expand its capabilities. They can be connected to the computer either internally, such as expansion cards, or externally, such as USB devices.

Explanation

A peripheral device is not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external. Peripheral devices are additional devices that are connected to a computer to enhance its functionality or provide input/output capabilities. Examples of peripheral devices include printers, scanners, keyboards, mice, and external hard drives. These devices are not essential for the basic functioning of a computer but can greatly expand its capabilities. They can be connected to the computer either internally, such as expansion cards, or externally, such as USB devices.

36. What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratifies the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE)?

1988

1999

2005

2009

In 1999, the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratified the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE). This means that in 1999, the IEEE officially approved and standardized the use of GbE as a networking technology.

Explanation

In 1999, the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratified the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE). This means that in 1999, the IEEE officially approved and standardized the use of GbE as a networking technology.

37. Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

Federal Communications Commission (FCC).

Department of Homeland Security (DHS).

Department of Defense (DOD).

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body responsible for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. DISA is responsible for providing IT services, infrastructure, and capabilities to support the DOD's mission and ensure secure and reliable communication within the department.

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body responsible for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. DISA is responsible for providing IT services, infrastructure, and capabilities to support the DOD's mission and ensure secure and reliable communication within the department.

38. What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?

Air Force Portal

IMDS

Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS).

Electronic-publications (E-pub).

The correct answer is Air Force Portal. The Air Force Portal is a major program that provides a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel. It is an online platform that allows Air Force members to access various resources, such as news, training materials, career information, and collaboration tools. The portal helps streamline communication and information sharing within the Air Force community, making it an essential program for personnel.

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Portal. The Air Force Portal is a major program that provides a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel. It is an online platform that allows Air Force members to access various resources, such as news, training materials, career information, and collaboration tools. The portal helps streamline communication and information sharing within the Air Force community, making it an essential program for personnel.

39. Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits

Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder

Using a ladder as a scaffold

Using a homemade ladder

Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, there is no risk of electric shock or short circuit when using a wooden ladder around electrical circuits. However, it is important to ensure that the ladder is in good condition and properly maintained to prevent any accidents or injuries.

Explanation

Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, there is no risk of electric shock or short circuit when using a wooden ladder around electrical circuits. However, it is important to ensure that the ladder is in good condition and properly maintained to prevent any accidents or injuries.

40. Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

Office of Administration

Office of Communications

Office of Public Engagement

Office of Management and Budget

The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments. OMB is responsible for making well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. They assess the effectiveness and efficiency of IT investments requested by agencies and ensure that they align with the overall goals and objectives of the government. OMB plays a crucial role in overseeing and improving the management of IT investments across agencies.

Explanation

The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments. OMB is responsible for making well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. They assess the effectiveness and efficiency of IT investments requested by agencies and ensure that they align with the overall goals and objectives of the government. OMB plays a crucial role in overseeing and improving the management of IT investments across agencies.

41. Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?

Administrative record

Maintenance record

Drawing record

Outage record

The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data. This section includes detailed drawings and diagrams that illustrate the placement and configuration of the systems, helping to ensure accurate installation and maintenance.

Explanation

The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data. This section includes detailed drawings and diagrams that illustrate the placement and configuration of the systems, helping to ensure accurate installation and maintenance.

42. What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?

Two gigabits per second (GB/S).

Four GB/S

Five GB/S

10 GB/S

USB 3.0 SuperSpeed transfer mode has a maximum data transfer rate of five gigabits per second (GB/S).

Explanation

USB 3.0 SuperSpeed transfer mode has a maximum data transfer rate of five gigabits per second (GB/S).

43. What three sub-categories make up human factors?

Physiological, physical, stress

Physiological, Physical, social

Stress, organizational, physical

Physical, physiological, organizational

The correct answer is Physical, physiological, organizational. Human factors refer to the study of how humans interact with systems and environments. The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical, which involves the physical characteristics and capabilities of individuals; physiological, which focuses on the psychological and cognitive aspects of human performance; and organizational, which considers the impact of social and organizational factors on human behavior and decision-making.

Explanation

The correct answer is Physical, physiological, organizational. Human factors refer to the study of how humans interact with systems and environments. The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical, which involves the physical characteristics and capabilities of individuals; physiological, which focuses on the psychological and cognitive aspects of human performance; and organizational, which considers the impact of social and organizational factors on human behavior and decision-making.

44. What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards

Isolating operations

Providing administrative controls

Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).

Substitution a less hazardous material or process

The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. While PPE can provide some level of protection, it is not as effective as other control measures such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. PPE should be used in conjunction with other control methods to ensure comprehensive hazard control.

Explanation

The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. While PPE can provide some level of protection, it is not as effective as other control measures such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. PPE should be used in conjunction with other control methods to ensure comprehensive hazard control.

45. Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?

Local area network (LAN).

Wide area network (WAN).

Metropolitan area network (MAN)

Wireless local area network (WLAN).

Wireless local area networks (WLANs) use Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol used in wireless networks to prevent multiple devices from transmitting data at the same time, which can cause collisions and data loss. With CSMA/CA, devices listen for other devices transmitting data and wait for a clear channel before sending their own data. This helps to ensure that data transmissions are successful and collisions are avoided in WLANs.

Explanation

Wireless local area networks (WLANs) use Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol used in wireless networks to prevent multiple devices from transmitting data at the same time, which can cause collisions and data loss. With CSMA/CA, devices listen for other devices transmitting data and wait for a clear channel before sending their own data. This helps to ensure that data transmissions are successful and collisions are avoided in WLANs.

46. What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems to connect together

Open shortest path first (OSPF).

Exterior gateway protocol (EGP).

Interior gateway protocol (IGP)

Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP).

Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) is a network routing protocol that allows multiple autonomous systems to connect together. It is specifically designed for interconnecting different autonomous systems and exchanging routing information between them. EGP enables the exchange of network reachability information and helps in determining the best path for data packets to travel across multiple autonomous systems. This protocol plays a crucial role in ensuring efficient and reliable communication between different networks, making it the correct choice for this question.

Explanation

Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) is a network routing protocol that allows multiple autonomous systems to connect together. It is specifically designed for interconnecting different autonomous systems and exchanging routing information between them. EGP enables the exchange of network reachability information and helps in determining the best path for data packets to travel across multiple autonomous systems. This protocol plays a crucial role in ensuring efficient and reliable communication between different networks, making it the correct choice for this question.

47. Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

50

40

20

10

Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. Cardiac arrest occurs when the electrical activity of the heart becomes disrupted, leading to the heart stopping. At 50 milliamps, the electrical current can interfere with the heart's normal rhythm and potentially cause it to stop. Lower currents, such as 40, 20, or 10 milliamps, may still cause harm but are less likely to result in cardiac arrest.

Explanation

Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. Cardiac arrest occurs when the electrical activity of the heart becomes disrupted, leading to the heart stopping. At 50 milliamps, the electrical current can interfere with the heart's normal rhythm and potentially cause it to stop. Lower currents, such as 40, 20, or 10 milliamps, may still cause harm but are less likely to result in cardiac arrest.

48. The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?

Transport

Data Link

Physical

Session

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. The Data Link layer is responsible for providing error-free transmission of data over the physical layer. The LLC sublayer specifically handles the flow control and error control mechanisms, ensuring reliable communication between the network devices.

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. The Data Link layer is responsible for providing error-free transmission of data over the physical layer. The LLC sublayer specifically handles the flow control and error control mechanisms, ensuring reliable communication between the network devices.

49. Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?

Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–200

AFI 91–202

Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91–200

AFMAN 91–202

AFI 91-202 implements the Mishap Prevention Program.

Explanation

AFI 91-202 implements the Mishap Prevention Program.

50. What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?

Evacuate personnel from the building

Extinguish the fire if possible.

Call the fire department

Sound the fire alarm

The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step is crucial as it involves taking immediate action to suppress and eliminate the fire before it spreads further and causes more damage. It is important to prioritize the safety of individuals and property by attempting to extinguish the fire using appropriate firefighting techniques and equipment.

Explanation

The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step is crucial as it involves taking immediate action to suppress and eliminate the fire before it spreads further and causes more damage. It is important to prioritize the safety of individuals and property by attempting to extinguish the fire using appropriate firefighting techniques and equipment.

51. What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?

Programming

Transport.

Network

Data

The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify the functions related to network communication. These layers define the protocols and processes involved in establishing and maintaining network connections, routing data packets, and managing network resources. The Network layer, specifically, is responsible for addressing and routing data across different networks, ensuring that data reaches its intended destination efficiently and reliably.

Explanation

The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify the functions related to network communication. These layers define the protocols and processes involved in establishing and maintaining network connections, routing data packets, and managing network resources. The Network layer, specifically, is responsible for addressing and routing data across different networks, ensuring that data reaches its intended destination efficiently and reliably.

52. Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?

Bioenvironmental Engineering

Installation safety office

Base civil engineer

Supervisors

Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess and analyze the potential risks and hazards in the environment and provide recommendations on how to minimize or eliminate them. This includes implementing safety measures, conducting inspections, and monitoring the health and safety conditions to ensure a safe and healthy working environment for individuals.

Explanation

Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess and analyze the potential risks and hazards in the environment and provide recommendations on how to minimize or eliminate them. This includes implementing safety measures, conducting inspections, and monitoring the health and safety conditions to ensure a safe and healthy working environment for individuals.

53. What system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network provides rapid, reliable, non- dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war?

Mystic Star

Global HF system.

Defense Communication System (DCS) entry.

System of Inter-American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA).

The correct answer is Global HF system. This system provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war.

Explanation

The correct answer is Global HF system. This system provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war.

54. What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a host network?

Switch

Modem

Gateway

Router

A gateway is a network device that provides connectivity between different networks. In this case, it allows a remote network to connect and communicate with a host network. It acts as an entry point or an interface between the two networks, facilitating the flow of data and ensuring proper routing. A gateway can be a physical device or a software-based solution.

Explanation

A gateway is a network device that provides connectivity between different networks. In this case, it allows a remote network to connect and communicate with a host network. It acts as an entry point or an interface between the two networks, facilitating the flow of data and ensuring proper routing. A gateway can be a physical device or a software-based solution.

55. How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is required or another supplemental control is sufficient?

General Service Administration (GSA) makes that determination

Office of Special Investigation (OSI) makes that determination.

Wing information office makes that determination

By competing a risk assessment

To determine if an intrusion detection system is required or if another supplemental control is sufficient, a risk assessment should be completed. This assessment involves evaluating the potential risks and vulnerabilities of the system or network. By analyzing the likelihood and potential impact of various threats, the assessment helps in identifying the appropriate level of security measures needed. This process allows for a comprehensive understanding of the risks involved and helps in making an informed decision on whether an intrusion detection system is necessary or if alternative controls can adequately mitigate the identified risks.

Explanation

To determine if an intrusion detection system is required or if another supplemental control is sufficient, a risk assessment should be completed. This assessment involves evaluating the potential risks and vulnerabilities of the system or network. By analyzing the likelihood and potential impact of various threats, the assessment helps in identifying the appropriate level of security measures needed. This process allows for a comprehensive understanding of the risks involved and helps in making an informed decision on whether an intrusion detection system is necessary or if alternative controls can adequately mitigate the identified risks.

56. What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

239

254

255

256

In Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4), an octet is a group of 8 bits. Each bit can have a value of either 0 or 1, resulting in a total of 256 possible combinations. However, the maximum value for an octet in IPv4 is 255, as the counting starts from 0. Therefore, 255 is the correct answer.

Explanation

In Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4), an octet is a group of 8 bits. Each bit can have a value of either 0 or 1, resulting in a total of 256 possible combinations. However, the maximum value for an octet in IPv4 is 255, as the counting starts from 0. Therefore, 255 is the correct answer.

57. Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management?

Defense Switched Network (DSN)

Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN).

Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.

Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) Internet Protocol (IP) Data.

The Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to provide high-quality and secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management purposes. It is a dedicated network used by the Department of Defense and other government agencies to facilitate secure and reliable communication during critical operations and emergencies. The DRSN ensures that sensitive and classified information can be transmitted securely, making it the ideal network for C2 and crisis management activities.

Explanation

The Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to provide high-quality and secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management purposes. It is a dedicated network used by the Department of Defense and other government agencies to facilitate secure and reliable communication during critical operations and emergencies. The DRSN ensures that sensitive and classified information can be transmitted securely, making it the ideal network for C2 and crisis management activities.

58. What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?

Regular of how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement

Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine (in the application layer).

Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers

Preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data

A TCP socket is a combination of a port number and an IP address. It is used by a process to request network services and is passed as an argument between layers. This allows the process to establish a connection with another process on a different machine and communicate over the network. The port number helps identify the specific application or process on each machine, while the IP address identifies the destination machine. Together, they form a unique identifier for the socket, enabling communication between processes on different machines.

Explanation

A TCP socket is a combination of a port number and an IP address. It is used by a process to request network services and is passed as an argument between layers. This allows the process to establish a connection with another process on a different machine and communicate over the network. The port number helps identify the specific application or process on each machine, while the IP address identifies the destination machine. Together, they form a unique identifier for the socket, enabling communication between processes on different machines.

59. What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?

8

9

10

11

Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.

Explanation

Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.

60. What class is reserved for multicast addressing?

Class A address

Class B address

Class C address

Class D address

Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. In IPv4, multicast addresses are used to send data packets to a group of hosts instead of a single host. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255, with the first 4 bits of the address set to 1110. Multicast addresses allow efficient distribution of data to multiple recipients, making them suitable for applications such as video streaming, online gaming, and multicast messaging.

Explanation

Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. In IPv4, multicast addresses are used to send data packets to a group of hosts instead of a single host. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255, with the first 4 bits of the address set to 1110. Multicast addresses allow efficient distribution of data to multiple recipients, making them suitable for applications such as video streaming, online gaming, and multicast messaging.

61. Which of the following services provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas?

Transport

Application

Aerial layer

Satellite communication (SATCOM).

The aerial layer is the correct answer because it refers to the use of manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas. This means that the aerial layer provides additional communications capacity by utilizing various aircraft and drones to ensure uninterrupted communication in vast regions.

Explanation

The aerial layer is the correct answer because it refers to the use of manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas. This means that the aerial layer provides additional communications capacity by utilizing various aircraft and drones to ensure uninterrupted communication in vast regions.

62. Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?

Administrative record

Maintenance record

Drawing record

Outage record

The maintenance record is normally retained in the production work center of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). This record contains important information regarding the maintenance activities performed on the systems and equipment in the work center. It includes details such as the date of maintenance, the type of maintenance performed, any issues or repairs made, and the personnel involved. Retaining the maintenance record allows the work center to track and document the maintenance history of the systems, which is crucial for ensuring their proper functioning and troubleshooting any future problems.

Explanation

The maintenance record is normally retained in the production work center of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). This record contains important information regarding the maintenance activities performed on the systems and equipment in the work center. It includes details such as the date of maintenance, the type of maintenance performed, any issues or repairs made, and the personnel involved. Retaining the maintenance record allows the work center to track and document the maintenance history of the systems, which is crucial for ensuring their proper functioning and troubleshooting any future problems.

63. Which network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet?

Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).

Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET)

Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data

Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet. It is specifically designed for unclassified but sensitive information, allowing DOD personnel to securely communicate and access resources on the Internet while maintaining the necessary security measures to protect sensitive data.

Explanation

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet. It is specifically designed for unclassified but sensitive information, allowing DOD personnel to securely communicate and access resources on the Internet while maintaining the necessary security measures to protect sensitive data.

64. Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?

Class A address

Class B address

Class C address

Class D address

Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. This is because Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which means that there are 8 bits available for host addresses. With 8 bits, there are 2^8 - 2 = 254 possible host addresses in each Class C network. Class A and Class B addresses have larger default subnet masks, allowing for more hosts per network, while Class D addresses are used for multicast addresses and do not have a fixed number of hosts per network.

Explanation

Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. This is because Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which means that there are 8 bits available for host addresses. With 8 bits, there are 2^8 - 2 = 254 possible host addresses in each Class C network. Class A and Class B addresses have larger default subnet masks, allowing for more hosts per network, while Class D addresses are used for multicast addresses and do not have a fixed number of hosts per network.

65. Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?

Classified message incident

Eavesdropping

Data Spillage

Backdoor

When a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system, a classified message incident occurs. This means that sensitive information is being shared with a system that is not authorized to access or handle such data. This can lead to a breach of security and confidentiality, potentially exposing classified information to unauthorized individuals or entities. It is important to have proper protocols and safeguards in place to prevent and address such incidents.

Explanation

When a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system, a classified message incident occurs. This means that sensitive information is being shared with a system that is not authorized to access or handle such data. This can lead to a breach of security and confidentiality, potentially exposing classified information to unauthorized individuals or entities. It is important to have proper protocols and safeguards in place to prevent and address such incidents.

66. What action is the main purpose of system cache?

Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM).

Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data

Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data

Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data

The main purpose of the system cache is to reduce the central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. The system cache stores frequently accessed data from the main memory, allowing the CPU to retrieve it quickly without having to access the slower main memory. This helps to improve the overall performance of the system by reducing the time it takes for the CPU to access data, resulting in faster processing speeds.

Explanation

The main purpose of the system cache is to reduce the central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. The system cache stores frequently accessed data from the main memory, allowing the CPU to retrieve it quickly without having to access the slower main memory. This helps to improve the overall performance of the system by reducing the time it takes for the CPU to access data, resulting in faster processing speeds.

67. What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?

457

480

978

980

The correct answer is 457. The question asks for the Air Force (AF) form that is used to report a hazard. The AF form 457 is specifically designed for this purpose and is used to document and report any hazards or potential safety risks within the Air Force. This form allows for the identification and communication of hazards to ensure they are properly addressed and mitigated to maintain a safe working environment.

Explanation

The correct answer is 457. The question asks for the Air Force (AF) form that is used to report a hazard. The AF form 457 is specifically designed for this purpose and is used to document and report any hazards or potential safety risks within the Air Force. This form allows for the identification and communication of hazards to ensure they are properly addressed and mitigated to maintain a safe working environment.

68. Describe a network bridge

Data Link layer network device or software set that logically sseeppaarrates a single neettwwoorrkk into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks

Network layer device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiplesegments or collision domains in Ethernet networks

Data Link layer device that provide central connection to network devices

Network layer device that provide central connection to network devices

A network bridge is a data link layer network device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It helps in dividing a network into smaller parts to improve performance and reduce collisions. By separating the network into segments, the bridge can filter and forward network traffic efficiently, enhancing the overall network performance.

Explanation

A network bridge is a data link layer network device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It helps in dividing a network into smaller parts to improve performance and reduce collisions. By separating the network into segments, the bridge can filter and forward network traffic efficiently, enhancing the overall network performance.

69. Which Air Force (AF) form records the destruction of Top Secret classified material?

AF Form 88.

AF Form 143

AF Form 144

AF Form 1776

AF Form 143 is the correct answer because it is the form that records the destruction of Top Secret classified material in the Air Force. This form is specifically designed for documenting the process of destroying sensitive information to ensure accountability and proper handling of classified materials.

Explanation

AF Form 143 is the correct answer because it is the form that records the destruction of Top Secret classified material in the Air Force. This form is specifically designed for documenting the process of destroying sensitive information to ensure accountability and proper handling of classified materials.

70. Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday?

Classified Information Program Manager

Information Assurance Officer

Security Manager

Supervisor

The Security Manager has the authority to grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday. This individual is responsible for overseeing and enforcing security protocols within an organization, including the handling and transportation of classified materials. They have the necessary knowledge and expertise to evaluate the risks and ensure that proper procedures are followed when shipping such materials. The Classified Information Program Manager, Information Assurance Officer, and Supervisor may have their own roles and responsibilities related to security, but the Security Manager is specifically tasked with granting permission for shipping classified materials.

Explanation

The Security Manager has the authority to grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday. This individual is responsible for overseeing and enforcing security protocols within an organization, including the handling and transportation of classified materials. They have the necessary knowledge and expertise to evaluate the risks and ensure that proper procedures are followed when shipping such materials. The Classified Information Program Manager, Information Assurance Officer, and Supervisor may have their own roles and responsibilities related to security, but the Security Manager is specifically tasked with granting permission for shipping classified materials.

71. What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an organization's mission critical information via its communications and ISs?

Malware

Denial of service attacks

Inadvertent employee activity

Hostile information operations

Hostile information operations refer to deliberate and targeted attacks on an organization's information systems and communications. These operations are often carried out by skilled and motivated adversaries who aim to disrupt or compromise an organization's mission-critical information. Unlike other threats such as malware or denial of service attacks, hostile information operations involve intentional and strategic actions that can have severe consequences for an organization's operations and security. Therefore, hostile information operations pose the greatest threat to an organization's mission-critical information.

Explanation

Hostile information operations refer to deliberate and targeted attacks on an organization's information systems and communications. These operations are often carried out by skilled and motivated adversaries who aim to disrupt or compromise an organization's mission-critical information. Unlike other threats such as malware or denial of service attacks, hostile information operations involve intentional and strategic actions that can have severe consequences for an organization's operations and security. Therefore, hostile information operations pose the greatest threat to an organization's mission-critical information.

72. What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO).

Conduct a job safety aanalysis (JSA).

Review AF Form 55

Certify the employee

Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves identifying potential hazards associated with the task, evaluating the risks, and determining appropriate control measures to mitigate those risks. The JSA helps ensure that the task is performed safely by identifying and addressing any potential safety concerns or hazards that may arise during its execution.

Explanation

Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves identifying potential hazards associated with the task, evaluating the risks, and determining appropriate control measures to mitigate those risks. The JSA helps ensure that the task is performed safely by identifying and addressing any potential safety concerns or hazards that may arise during its execution.

73. How many impact classifications do hardhats have?

One

Two

Three

Four

Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to protect against two different levels of impact: low impact and high impact. The low impact classification is suitable for situations where there is a minimal risk of falling objects or bumps to the head, while the high impact classification is intended for more hazardous environments where there is a higher risk of heavy falling objects or significant impact.

Explanation

Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to protect against two different levels of impact: low impact and high impact. The low impact classification is suitable for situations where there is a minimal risk of falling objects or bumps to the head, while the high impact classification is intended for more hazardous environments where there is a higher risk of heavy falling objects or significant impact.

74. The risk management process includes how many steps?

FOUR

FIVE

SIX

SEVEN

The risk management process includes five steps. These steps are identification of risks, assessment of risks, mitigation of risks, monitoring and controlling of risks, and communication and reporting of risks. Each step plays a crucial role in effectively managing and minimizing risks within an organization or project.

Explanation

The risk management process includes five steps. These steps are identification of risks, assessment of risks, mitigation of risks, monitoring and controlling of risks, and communication and reporting of risks. Each step plays a crucial role in effectively managing and minimizing risks within an organization or project.

75. What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model

Data Transport and Application

Session and Data Transport

Network and Presentation

Application and Session

The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The OSI reference model consists of seven layers, which are divided into two categories: the upper layers and the lower layers. The upper layers include the Application, Presentation, and Session layers, which are responsible for tasks such as data formatting, encryption, and managing communication sessions. The lower layers include the Transport, Network, Data Link, and Physical layers, which handle tasks such as data segmentation, routing, error detection, and physical transmission of data. Therefore, the Data Transport and Application layers belong to the respective categories of the OSI model.

Explanation

The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The OSI reference model consists of seven layers, which are divided into two categories: the upper layers and the lower layers. The upper layers include the Application, Presentation, and Session layers, which are responsible for tasks such as data formatting, encryption, and managing communication sessions. The lower layers include the Transport, Network, Data Link, and Physical layers, which handle tasks such as data segmentation, routing, error detection, and physical transmission of data. Therefore, the Data Transport and Application layers belong to the respective categories of the OSI model.

76. Which system of the Global Command and Control System-Air Force (GCCS-AF) monitors status of resources and training systems ensuring that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available to the for mission completion?

Common Operational Picture (COP).

Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

GCCS Status of Resources and Training (GSORTS)

Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution System (DCAPES).

The correct answer is GSORTS because it is specifically mentioned that it monitors the status of resources and training systems, ensuring that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available for mission completion. This indicates that GSORTS is responsible for providing the necessary information about resources and training systems to support decision making.

Explanation

The correct answer is GSORTS because it is specifically mentioned that it monitors the status of resources and training systems, ensuring that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available for mission completion. This indicates that GSORTS is responsible for providing the necessary information about resources and training systems to support decision making.

77. Which classified document markings identifies the highest level of classification?

Banner Lines

Portion Marks

Component and office

Classification authority

Banner Lines are the classified document markings that identify the highest level of classification. They are typically placed at the top and bottom of each page and contain information such as the classification level, the agency or department that classified the document, and any special handling instructions. Banner Lines are important for quickly identifying the sensitivity and level of protection required for the document, ensuring that it is handled and stored appropriately to maintain its confidentiality and integrity.

Explanation

Banner Lines are the classified document markings that identify the highest level of classification. They are typically placed at the top and bottom of each page and contain information such as the classification level, the agency or department that classified the document, and any special handling instructions. Banner Lines are important for quickly identifying the sensitivity and level of protection required for the document, ensuring that it is handled and stored appropriately to maintain its confidentiality and integrity.

78. What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?

Request network services and pass arguments between layers

Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine

Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data

Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an aacknowledgement

A sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is used to regulate the amount of information that can pass over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps in controlling the flow of data and prevents network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices with data.

Explanation

A sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is used to regulate the amount of information that can pass over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps in controlling the flow of data and prevents network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices with data.

79. What classification do flammable liquids receive?

Class A

Class B

Class C

Class D

Flammable liquids are classified as Class B. Class B refers to liquids that have a flash point below 100 degrees Fahrenheit (37.8 degrees Celsius) and can easily catch fire or explode when exposed to a flame or spark. These liquids include gasoline, ethanol, and certain solvents. Class B fires are typically extinguished using foam, carbon dioxide, or dry chemical extinguishers.

Explanation

Flammable liquids are classified as Class B. Class B refers to liquids that have a flash point below 100 degrees Fahrenheit (37.8 degrees Celsius) and can easily catch fire or explode when exposed to a flame or spark. These liquids include gasoline, ethanol, and certain solvents. Class B fires are typically extinguished using foam, carbon dioxide, or dry chemical extinguishers.

80. Computer security (COMPUSEC) vulnerabilities are broken down into how many categories?

4

6

8

10

Computer security vulnerabilities are categorized into eight different categories. These categories help in identifying and addressing different types of vulnerabilities that can be exploited by attackers. By understanding these categories, security professionals can develop appropriate measures to protect computer systems and networks.

Explanation

Computer security vulnerabilities are categorized into eight different categories. These categories help in identifying and addressing different types of vulnerabilities that can be exploited by attackers. By understanding these categories, security professionals can develop appropriate measures to protect computer systems and networks.

81. What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Communications between devices over multiple links of a network

Communications between devices over a single link of a network

Protocol access to the physical network medium

Protocol access to the links of a network

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for providing error control, flow control, and sequencing of frames on a single link. It ensures reliable transmission of data between devices on the same network link, handling any issues that may arise during the transmission process.

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for providing error control, flow control, and sequencing of frames on a single link. It ensures reliable transmission of data between devices on the same network link, handling any issues that may arise during the transmission process.

82. Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?

A

C

E

G

Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors. This is because helmet class C is a basic hard hat that does not have any electrical protection features. It is designed to protect against impact and penetration hazards but does not provide insulation against electrical shocks or contact with live electrical conductors. Therefore, it is not suitable for use in environments where there is a risk of electrical hazards.

Explanation

Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors. This is because helmet class C is a basic hard hat that does not have any electrical protection features. It is designed to protect against impact and penetration hazards but does not provide insulation against electrical shocks or contact with live electrical conductors. Therefore, it is not suitable for use in environments where there is a risk of electrical hazards.

83. Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information?

Classified Information Program Manager

Information Assurance Officer

Security Manager

Supervisor

The Information Assurance Officer is the appropriate person to seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information. This is because the Information Assurance Officer is responsible for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information and information systems. They have the knowledge and expertise to provide guidance and advice on the proper procedures and protocols for transporting sensitive and classified information securely.

Explanation

The Information Assurance Officer is the appropriate person to seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information. This is because the Information Assurance Officer is responsible for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information and information systems. They have the knowledge and expertise to provide guidance and advice on the proper procedures and protocols for transporting sensitive and classified information securely.

84. What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Communications between devices over a single link of a network

Communications between devices over multiple links of a network

Protocol access to the physical network medium

Protocol access to the links of a network

The media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages the protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network gain access to the physical medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies, in order to transmit data. The MAC sublayer ensures that only one device can transmit at a time to avoid collisions and manages the protocols for addressing and error detection on the physical medium.

Explanation

The media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages the protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network gain access to the physical medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies, in order to transmit data. The MAC sublayer ensures that only one device can transmit at a time to avoid collisions and manages the protocols for addressing and error detection on the physical medium.

85. What system mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users?

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

Global High Frequency Network (HFF-GCS).

Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

The Global High Frequency Network (HFF-GCS) is the correct answer because its mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users. This system utilizes high frequency radio waves to transmit and receive signals over long distances, making it an ideal choice for global communication. The other options, such as SACCS, DCGS, and GCSS, do not specifically focus on providing two-way communications between air, land, and sea users.

Explanation

The Global High Frequency Network (HFF-GCS) is the correct answer because its mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users. This system utilizes high frequency radio waves to transmit and receive signals over long distances, making it an ideal choice for global communication. The other options, such as SACCS, DCGS, and GCSS, do not specifically focus on providing two-way communications between air, land, and sea users.

86. What system is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities?

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS)

National Military Command Center (NMCC).

Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).

The National Military Command Center (NMCC) is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities. This means that the NMCC is the central command center that provides the necessary information and coordination for these key decision-makers to carry out their duties effectively. The NMCC serves as a vital communication hub, ensuring that important information and orders are relayed accurately and efficiently to the highest levels of command.

Explanation

The National Military Command Center (NMCC) is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities. This means that the NMCC is the central command center that provides the necessary information and coordination for these key decision-makers to carry out their duties effectively. The NMCC serves as a vital communication hub, ensuring that important information and orders are relayed accurately and efficiently to the highest levels of command.

87. Which classified document marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and shall indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification.

Banner Lines

Portion Marks

Component and office

Classification authority

The correct answer is "Classification authority." The classification authority marking is used on classified United States documents to indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification. This marking helps identify who has the authority to classify the document and provides information about how long the document should remain classified.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Classification authority." The classification authority marking is used on classified United States documents to indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification. This marking helps identify who has the authority to classify the document and provides information about how long the document should remain classified.

88. What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?

457

480

978

980

Air Force (AF) form 978 is used to report ground mishaps. This form is specifically designed for reporting accidents, incidents, and other ground-related mishaps that occur within the Air Force. It helps in documenting and investigating these incidents, ensuring that proper procedures are followed and necessary actions are taken to prevent future occurrences.

Explanation

Air Force (AF) form 978 is used to report ground mishaps. This form is specifically designed for reporting accidents, incidents, and other ground-related mishaps that occur within the Air Force. It helps in documenting and investigating these incidents, ensuring that proper procedures are followed and necessary actions are taken to prevent future occurrences.

89. What system includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority?

Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN).

Defense Information Systems Network (DISN).

Air Force Information Network (AFIN).

Defense Intelligence Network (DIN).

The Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority. It is a comprehensive system that ensures secure and reliable communication and information sharing within the Department of Defense.

Explanation

The Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority. It is a comprehensive system that ensures secure and reliable communication and information sharing within the Department of Defense.

90. Which system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on a powerful server- based computer system that takes inputs from long range and short-range radars and displays it all on a scope?

Battle Control System-FFixed (BCS-F)

Global Combat Support System (GCSS)

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

91. Which system is a space-based high data rate communications link for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces?

Global Broadcast System (GBS).

Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

The Global Broadcast System (GBS) is a space-based high data rate communications link that is specifically designed for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces. It provides a reliable and secure platform for transmitting critical information to military personnel in the field, allowing for effective communication and coordination between different units and locations. The other options, Global Combat Support System (GCSS), Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS), and Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS), are not specifically designed for high data rate communications or for the flow of information to deployed forces.

Explanation

The Global Broadcast System (GBS) is a space-based high data rate communications link that is specifically designed for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces. It provides a reliable and secure platform for transmitting critical information to military personnel in the field, allowing for effective communication and coordination between different units and locations. The other options, Global Combat Support System (GCSS), Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS), and Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS), are not specifically designed for high data rate communications or for the flow of information to deployed forces.

92. How many T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits do Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer?

24

15

10

7

Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer 7 T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits.

Explanation

Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer 7 T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits.

93. In general, how many operating system task categories are there?

Four

Five

Six

Seven

There are six operating system task categories in general. These categories include process management, memory management, file system management, device management, network management, and user interface management. Each category is responsible for a specific aspect of the operating system's functioning, such as managing running processes, allocating and managing memory, handling file operations, managing devices and their drivers, handling network connections, and providing a user-friendly interface for interaction.

Explanation

There are six operating system task categories in general. These categories include process management, memory management, file system management, device management, network management, and user interface management. Each category is responsible for a specific aspect of the operating system's functioning, such as managing running processes, allocating and managing memory, handling file operations, managing devices and their drivers, handling network connections, and providing a user-friendly interface for interaction.

94. How many air defenses sectors is the Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) divided into?

Six

Five

Four

Two

The Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) is divided into two air defense sectors.

Explanation

The Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) is divided into two air defense sectors.

95. What system is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space, divided by security demands, transmission requirements and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers?

Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN)

Defense Information Systems Network (DISN).

Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

Air Force Information Network (AFIN)

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Network (DISN). This system is a telecommunications network that allows for the exchange of information in a global space. It is divided based on security demands, transmission requirements, and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers. DISN is a crucial network for the Department of Defense and provides interoperability and connectivity for military operations.

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Network (DISN). This system is a telecommunications network that allows for the exchange of information in a global space. It is divided based on security demands, transmission requirements, and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers. DISN is a crucial network for the Department of Defense and provides interoperability and connectivity for military operations.

96. What system provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions?

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).

Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

The Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) is the correct answer because it specifically provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions. The other options, Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS), Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS), and Global Combat Support System (GCSS), do not have the same focus or purpose as SACCS in terms of providing secure communications for strategic aircraft and missile functions.

Explanation

The Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) is the correct answer because it specifically provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions. The other options, Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS), Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS), and Global Combat Support System (GCSS), do not have the same focus or purpose as SACCS in terms of providing secure communications for strategic aircraft and missile functions.

97. Which system is the Department of Defense's (DOD) command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler?

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS)

Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

Global Combat Support System (GCSS)

The correct answer is the Global Command and Control System (GCCS). This system is the Department of Defense's command and control system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler. It is designed to provide situational awareness, decision support, and information sharing capabilities across all levels of military operations. The GCCS integrates various systems and networks to enable effective command and control, ensuring that the Department of Defense maintains dominance in all domains of warfare.

Explanation

The correct answer is the Global Command and Control System (GCCS). This system is the Department of Defense's command and control system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler. It is designed to provide situational awareness, decision support, and information sharing capabilities across all levels of military operations. The GCCS integrates various systems and networks to enable effective command and control, ensuring that the Department of Defense maintains dominance in all domains of warfare.

98. Which system is the primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).

Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

The correct answer is Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS). SACCS is the primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field. It is a system that provides secure and reliable communication for the transmission of critical information and commands during emergency situations. SACCS ensures that the messages reach the intended recipients quickly and efficiently, enabling effective coordination and response in times of crisis.

Explanation

The correct answer is Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS). SACCS is the primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field. It is a system that provides secure and reliable communication for the transmission of critical information and commands during emergency situations. SACCS ensures that the messages reach the intended recipients quickly and efficiently, enabling effective coordination and response in times of crisis.

99. How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?

ONE

TWO

THREE

FOUR

The Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is made up of four volumes. Each volume provides guidance and standards for different aspects of the framework, including the overall architecture, the data and information exchange, the systems and services, and the implementation and migration. These four volumes work together to provide a comprehensive framework for architecture development and management within the Department of Defense.

Explanation

The Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is made up of four volumes. Each volume provides guidance and standards for different aspects of the framework, including the overall architecture, the data and information exchange, the systems and services, and the implementation and migration. These four volumes work together to provide a comprehensive framework for architecture development and management within the Department of Defense.

100. Which system is the Air Forces' primary intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis and dissemination system?

Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

The correct answer is Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS). DCGS is the Air Forces' primary intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis, and dissemination system. It is a network-centric system that enables the integration of various sensors, platforms, and data sources to provide comprehensive situational awareness and intelligence support to commanders and decision-makers. DCGS allows for the fusion and analysis of multiple types of intelligence data, including signals intelligence, imagery intelligence, and human intelligence, to generate actionable intelligence products and support mission planning and execution.

Explanation

The correct answer is Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS). DCGS is the Air Forces' primary intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis, and dissemination system. It is a network-centric system that enables the integration of various sensors, platforms, and data sources to provide comprehensive situational awareness and intelligence support to commanders and decision-makers. DCGS allows for the fusion and analysis of multiple types of intelligence data, including signals intelligence, imagery intelligence, and human intelligence, to generate actionable intelligence products and support mission planning and execution.