3DX5X U.R.E. Vol. 2

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    The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of

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About This Quiz

The '3DX5X U. R. E. Vol. 2' quiz assesses knowledge crucial for managing safety in Air Force environments. It covers key regulations like AFI 91-202, roles of safety offices, and procedures for mishap prevention, aiming to enhance resource and personnel protection.

3DX5X U.R.E. Vol. 2 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

    • Falls

    • Poor lighting

    • Horseplay

    • Poor ergonomics

    Correct Answer
    A. Falls
    Explanation
    Falls are the greatest hazard in the typical office because they can occur due to various reasons such as slippery floors, tripping over objects, or falling from unstable furniture. Falls can result in serious injuries like fractures, sprains, or head trauma. Office spaces often have multiple potential fall hazards like stairs, uneven flooring, or cluttered walkways. Therefore, it is important to maintain a safe environment and implement preventive measures to reduce the risk of falls in the office.

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  • 3. 

    What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

    • There are no negative effects

    • A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication

    • Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices

    • When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated

    Correct Answer
    A. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated
    Explanation
    When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to manage communication between the different networks. If this central node point fails, it can result in large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that communication between those isolated portions and the rest of the network will be disrupted, leading to a negative effect on overall network connectivity and functionality.

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  • 4. 

    What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

    • Version Identification

    • Header Checksum

    • Time to Live

    • Flags

    Correct Answer
    A. Header Checksum
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Header Checksum. The Header Checksum is a field in the IP Datagram that allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers. It is a mathematical calculation performed on the header of the packet, and the result is placed in the Header Checksum field. When the packet arrives at its destination, the receiver recalculates the checksum and compares it to the value in the Header Checksum field. If the values do not match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the packet is discarded.

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  • 5. 

    Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?

    • Printer.

    • Scanner

    • Monitor

    • Camera lens

    Correct Answer
    A. Scanner
    Explanation
    A scanner is the correct answer because it is a device that uses optical technology to read an image, printed text, or an object and convert it into a digital image. Scanners work by capturing the reflected light from the image or object and converting it into a digital format that can be stored or manipulated on a computer. This makes it possible to create digital copies of physical documents or objects, which can then be edited, shared, or stored electronically.

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  • 6. 

    Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

    • Local area network (LAN).

    • Wide area network (WAN)

    • Virtual private network (VPN).

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Wide area network (WAN)
    Explanation
    A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects local area networks (LAN) and metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. This allows for the connection and communication between LANs and MANs that are geographically separated. WANs are typically used by organizations that have multiple locations or branches in different cities or countries, enabling them to share resources and information across their network.

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  • 7. 

    Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

    • Service set identifier (SSID) Broadcasting

    • Media access control (MAC) Filtering

    • Encryption

    • Tunneling

    Correct Answer
    A. Encryption
    Explanation
    Encryption is the best described method for hiding a message in a special code. Encryption is the process of converting plain text into cipher text using an algorithm and a key. The cipher text can only be decrypted back into plain text using the correct key. This method ensures that unauthorized users cannot understand the message even if they intercept it, providing a high level of security for wireless local area networks (WLANs).

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  • 8. 

    Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?

    • Local area network (LAN).

    • Wide area network (WAN)

    • Virtual private network (VPN).

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Virtual private network (VPN).
    Explanation
    A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. It allows users to securely access a private network over a public network, such as the Internet. VPNs encrypt the data transmitted between the user's device and the private network, ensuring that it remains private and protected from unauthorized access. This enables users to securely access resources on the private network, such as files, applications, or services, from anywhere in the world, as if they were directly connected to the network.

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  • 9. 

    Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling

    • Media converter

    • Modem

    • Switch

    • Router

    Correct Answer
    A. Media converter
    Explanation
    A media converter is a device that converts electrical signals used in copper UTP network cabling to light waves used in fiber optic cabling. It allows for the integration of different types of network media, such as copper and fiber, by converting the signals between them. This enables the transmission of data over longer distances and at higher speeds, making it an essential component in network communication.

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  • 10. 

    Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users’ own end terminals?

    • A. Internet Protocol

    • End-to-end

    • Bulk

    • Link

    Correct Answer
    A. End-to-end
    Explanation
    End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since it fully encodes the information all the way through the network to the users' own end terminals. This means that the data is encrypted at the source and remains encrypted until it reaches the intended recipient, ensuring that it cannot be intercepted or accessed by unauthorized parties during transit. This type of encryption ensures the highest level of security and privacy for sensitive information.

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  • 11. 

    What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware

    • Shell.

    • Kernel

    • User programs

    • Dynamic-link library

    Correct Answer
    A. Kernel
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Kernel. The kernel is the core component of the UNIX system software that interacts directly with the hardware. It manages the system resources, provides essential services, and acts as a bridge between the hardware and user programs. The kernel handles tasks such as memory management, process scheduling, device drivers, and file system management. It is responsible for translating user commands and requests into instructions that the hardware can understand and execute.

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  • 12. 

    Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

    • Malware

    • Spyware

    • Adware

    • Trojans

    Correct Answer
    A. Spyware
    Explanation
    Spyware is computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It is a type of malicious software that secretly monitors and gathers information about a user's online activities, such as browsing habits, passwords, and personal data. This information is then often used for malicious purposes, such as identity theft or unauthorized access to sensitive information. Unlike adware, which displays unwanted advertisements, spyware operates covertly and without the user's knowledge or consent.

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  • 13. 

    Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?

    • When it is placed in service

    • When it is removed from service

    • When the storage container has been cleaned

    • When compromise of the combination is suspected

    Correct Answer
    A. When the storage container has been cleaned
    Explanation
    Cleaning the storage container is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials. The combination should only be changed when there is a suspected compromise of the combination, such as if it has been leaked or if unauthorized individuals have gained access to it. Cleaning the container does not pose a risk to the security of the classified materials and therefore does not require a change in the combination.

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  • 14. 

    Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?

    • Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).

    • Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET)

    • Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data

    • Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user.

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  • 15. 

    How are fires classified?

    • Fuel type

    • Heat source

    • Temperature.

    • Atmospheric conditions

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuel type
    Explanation
    Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuels, such as wood, paper, gasoline, or electrical equipment, can lead to different fire behaviors and require different firefighting techniques. By understanding the fuel type, firefighters can better assess the risks and determine the most effective strategies to extinguish the fire.

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  • 16. 

    Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

    • Accept no unnecessary risk

    • Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • Apply the process irregularly and continuously

    • Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels

    Correct Answer
    A. Apply the process irregularly and continuously
    Explanation
    The action of applying the risk management process irregularly and continuously is not a part of risk management. Risk management involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks in a systematic and consistent manner. Applying the process irregularly would mean that some risks may be overlooked or not properly addressed, leading to potential negative consequences. Additionally, applying the process continuously ensures that risks are constantly monitored and managed to adapt to changing circumstances. Therefore, applying the process irregularly and continuously goes against the principles of effective risk management.

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  • 17. 

    What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

    • Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record
    Explanation
    The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) consists of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes all the necessary paperwork and documentation related to the installation, such as contracts, permits, and licenses. The drawing record contains the technical drawings and diagrams of the installed system. The maintenance record includes logs and reports of any maintenance activities performed on the system. These three parts together provide a comprehensive record of the installation process and ongoing maintenance of the communications and information systems.

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  • 18. 

    What topology offers centralized management of a network?

    • Bus

    • Star

    • Ring

    • Radial

    Correct Answer
    A. Star
    Explanation
    The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which acts as a central point of control. This allows for easier management and troubleshooting of the network, as any changes or issues can be addressed at the central hub. Additionally, the star topology provides better performance and scalability compared to other topologies like bus or ring, making it a preferred choice for networks that require centralized management.

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  • 19. 

    What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?

    • 0-1023

    • 1024-49151

    • 49152-65535

    • 65536-87000

    Correct Answer
    A. 0-1023
    Explanation
    The range of numbers 0-1023 represents the well-known port numbers. Well-known port numbers are reserved for specific services and protocols, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). These port numbers are standardized and widely recognized, making them easily identifiable and commonly used for various network applications.

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  • 20. 

    What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?

    • ROM is volatile, RAM in non-volatile

    • ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile

    • RAM has a slower access time versus ROM

    • ROM has a slower access time versus RAM

    Correct Answer
    A. ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile
    Explanation
    ROM is non-volatile, meaning that it retains its data even when power is lost, while RAM is volatile, meaning that it loses its data when power is lost. This is the major difference between the two types of memory.

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  • 21. 

    Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?

    • Local area network (LAN).

    • Wide area network (WAN).

    • Virtual private network (VPN).

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Local area network (LAN).
    Explanation
    A local area network (LAN) is a network of computers and devices that are connected within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or building. In a LAN, the computers and devices are connected through a common communications line, allowing them to share resources such as printers, files, and internet access. LANs are typically managed by a single processor or server, which controls the network and provides services to the connected devices. This makes a LAN an efficient and cost-effective solution for small-scale networking needs.

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  • 22. 

    What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

    • Prevent the use of unsafe equipment

    • Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices

    • Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices

    • Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and/or death. This program aims to prevent accidents or mishaps that could result in harm to individuals or property. By implementing safety measures and protocols, the program ensures the well-being and preservation of both resources and personnel.

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  • 23. 

    Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

    • Air Staff.

    • Civil Engineering

    • Squadron commander

    • Installation safety office

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation safety office
    Explanation
    The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They are specifically designated to handle safety concerns and provide guidance and support to ensure a safe working environment for everyone on the installation.

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  • 24. 

    According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

    • 1 to 2

    • 2 to 2.5

    • 2 to 4.5

    • 2.5 to 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 to 2.5
    Explanation
    According to the CDC, office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers. This suggests that the risk of falling and getting injured is significantly higher for office workers compared to those who do not work in an office setting.

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  • 25. 

    Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

    • Class A

    • Class B

    • Class C

    • Class D

    Correct Answer
    A. Class C
    Explanation
    When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they undergo a chemical reaction and change their classification to Class C. This change occurs because the introduction of an electric current can cause the fuel to ignite more easily or burn at a higher temperature, making it more hazardous and increasing its flammability. Class C fuels are typically characterized by their ability to conduct electricity and are commonly found in electrical equipment or power sources.

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  • 26. 

    When used alone, the word “topology” often refers to a network’s

    • Transport topology

    • Physical topology

    • Physical medium

    • Logical topology

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical topology
    Explanation
    The term "topology" can have different meanings depending on the context in which it is used. In the given question, when the word "topology" is used alone, it typically refers to the physical arrangement or layout of devices and cables in a network. This is known as the physical topology. It describes how the network is physically connected, such as whether it is a bus, star, ring, or mesh topology. The other options, such as transport topology, physical medium, and logical topology, are not the primary meanings of "topology" when used alone.

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  • 27. 

    What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

    • Star

    • Ring

    • Loop

    • Linear

    Correct Answer
    A. Linear
    Explanation
    A bus topology is a network setup in which all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear structure. Therefore, the term "Linear" is another name for a bus topology.

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  • 28. 

    What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?

    • Word

    • Access

    • Outlook

    • PowerPoint

    Correct Answer
    A. Access
    Explanation
    Access is a Microsoft application that allows users to create a desktop database. It provides tools for creating tables, forms, queries, and reports, making it easy for users to organize and manage their data efficiently. With Access, users can create custom databases tailored to their specific needs, whether it's for personal or professional use. It is widely used in businesses and organizations to store and retrieve large amounts of data in a structured manner.

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  • 29. 

    Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?

    • Attacker’s capability to exploit the flaw

    • System’s susceptibility to a flaw

    • Attacker’s access to the flaw

    • Attacker’s lack of ability

    Correct Answer
    A. Attacker’s lack of ability
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Attacker's lack of ability," is the correct answer because it does not pertain to a vulnerability in a computer system. The other options all refer to different aspects of vulnerabilities, such as the attacker's capability to exploit a flaw, the system's susceptibility to a flaw, and the attacker's access to a flaw. However, the attacker's lack of ability does not describe a vulnerability but rather the absence of a skill or capability on the part of the attacker.

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  • 30. 

    Which action is a physiological factor?

    • Performing a task while fatigued

    • Performing a task while intoxicated.

    • Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders

    • Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness

    Correct Answer
    A. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders
    Explanation
    Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders is not a physiological factor. Physiological factors refer to physical conditions or processes within the body that can affect performance, such as fatigue, intoxication, or the effects of medication. Ignoring directions is a behavioral or psychological factor, as it involves a conscious decision or choice made by an individual rather than a physiological condition.

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  • 31. 

    What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

    • Evacuate personnel from the building

    • Extinguish the fire if possible

    • Call the fire departmen

    • Sound the fire alarm

    Correct Answer
    A. Sound the fire alarm
    Explanation
    The first action to take when encountering a fire is to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building about the fire and allows them to evacuate safely. By sounding the alarm, people are made aware of the emergency and can take appropriate actions to evacuate the building and prevent any further harm or damage. Once the alarm is sounded, personnel can then proceed to evacuate the building, call the fire department, and attempt to extinguish the fire if it is safe to do so.

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  • 32. 

    What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?

    • Cost to install and train technicians

    • Electromagnetic immunity

    • Low attenuation

    • Security

    Correct Answer
    A. Cost to install and train technicians
    Explanation
    The cost to install and train technicians is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cables are known for their high installation and training costs compared to other types of cables. However, they offer advantages such as low attenuation (signal loss), electromagnetic immunity (resistance to interference), and enhanced security due to their ability to transmit data through light signals.

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  • 33. 

    What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?

    • Word

    • Access

    • Outlook

    • PowerPoint

    Correct Answer
    A. Outlook
    Explanation
    Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is primarily used as an email client, but it also includes features such as a calendar, task manager, contact manager, note-taking, and journal. Outlook allows users to organize and manage their personal information, making it an ideal application for personal information management. Word, Access, and PowerPoint are other Microsoft applications, but they do not have the same personal information management capabilities as Outlook.

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  • 34. 

    What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?

    • State level

    • Federal level

    • Congressional level

    • Department of Defense level

    Correct Answer
    A. Federal level
    Explanation
    The development of Air Force architectures is mandated at the federal level. This means that the requirements for these architectures are set and enforced by the federal government. This ensures that there is a standardized and consistent approach to developing Air Force architectures across the entire country. The federal level also allows for coordination and collaboration between different branches of the military and other federal agencies, ensuring that the architectures meet the needs and objectives of the entire nation.

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  • 35. 

    What is a peripheral device?

    • A main internal component of a computer

    • Not a main internal component of a computer

    • A main component of a computer and can be either internal or external

    • Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external

    Correct Answer
    A. Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external
    Explanation
    A peripheral device is not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external. Peripheral devices are additional devices that are connected to a computer to enhance its functionality or provide input/output capabilities. Examples of peripheral devices include printers, scanners, keyboards, mice, and external hard drives. These devices are not essential for the basic functioning of a computer but can greatly expand its capabilities. They can be connected to the computer either internally, such as expansion cards, or externally, such as USB devices.

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  • 36. 

    Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

    • Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • Federal Communications Commission (FCC).

    • Department of Homeland Security (DHS).

    • Department of Defense (DOD).

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body responsible for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. DISA is responsible for providing IT services, infrastructure, and capabilities to support the DOD's mission and ensure secure and reliable communication within the department.

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  • 37. 

    What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratifies the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE)?

    • 1988

    • 1999

    • 2005

    • 2009

    Correct Answer
    A. 1999
    Explanation
    In 1999, the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratified the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE). This means that in 1999, the IEEE officially approved and standardized the use of GbE as a networking technology.

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  • 38. 

    What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?

    • Air Force Portal

    • IMDS

    • Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS).

    • Electronic-publications (E-pub).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Portal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force Portal. The Air Force Portal is a major program that provides a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel. It is an online platform that allows Air Force members to access various resources, such as news, training materials, career information, and collaboration tools. The portal helps streamline communication and information sharing within the Air Force community, making it an essential program for personnel.

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  • 39. 

    What three sub-categories make up human factors?

    • Physiological, physical, stress

    • Physiological, Physical, social

    • Stress, organizational, physical

    • Physical, physiological, organizational

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical, physiological, organizational
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Physical, physiological, organizational. Human factors refer to the study of how humans interact with systems and environments. The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical, which involves the physical characteristics and capabilities of individuals; physiological, which focuses on the psychological and cognitive aspects of human performance; and organizational, which considers the impact of social and organizational factors on human behavior and decision-making.

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  • 40. 

    What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards

    • Isolating operations

    • Providing administrative controls

    • Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).

    • Substitution a less hazardous material or process

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).
    Explanation
    The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. While PPE can provide some level of protection, it is not as effective as other control measures such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. PPE should be used in conjunction with other control methods to ensure comprehensive hazard control.

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  • 41. 

    Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

    • Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits

    • Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder

    • Using a ladder as a scaffold

    • Using a homemade ladder

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits
    Explanation
    Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, there is no risk of electric shock or short circuit when using a wooden ladder around electrical circuits. However, it is important to ensure that the ladder is in good condition and properly maintained to prevent any accidents or injuries.

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  • 42. 

    Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

    • Office of Administration

    • Office of Communications

    • Office of Public Engagement

    • Office of Management and Budget

    Correct Answer
    A. Office of Management and Budget
    Explanation
    The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments. OMB is responsible for making well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. They assess the effectiveness and efficiency of IT investments requested by agencies and ensure that they align with the overall goals and objectives of the government. OMB plays a crucial role in overseeing and improving the management of IT investments across agencies.

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  • 43. 

    Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?

    • Administrative record

    • Maintenance record

    • Drawing record

    • Outage record

    Correct Answer
    A. Drawing record
    Explanation
    The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data. This section includes detailed drawings and diagrams that illustrate the placement and configuration of the systems, helping to ensure accurate installation and maintenance.

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  • 44. 

    What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?

    • Two gigabits per second (GB/S).

    • Four GB/S

    • Five GB/S

    • 10 GB/S

    Correct Answer
    A. Five GB/S
    Explanation
    USB 3.0 SuperSpeed transfer mode has a maximum data transfer rate of five gigabits per second (GB/S).

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  • 45. 

    Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?

    • Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–200

    • AFI 91–202

    • Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91–200

    • AFMAN 91–202

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 91–202
    Explanation
    AFI 91-202 implements the Mishap Prevention Program.

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  • 46. 

    Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

    • 50

    • 40

    • 20

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 50
    Explanation
    Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. Cardiac arrest occurs when the electrical activity of the heart becomes disrupted, leading to the heart stopping. At 50 milliamps, the electrical current can interfere with the heart's normal rhythm and potentially cause it to stop. Lower currents, such as 40, 20, or 10 milliamps, may still cause harm but are less likely to result in cardiac arrest.

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  • 47. 

    The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?

    • Transport

    • Data Link

    • Physical

    • Session

    Correct Answer
    A. Data Link
    Explanation
    The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. The Data Link layer is responsible for providing error-free transmission of data over the physical layer. The LLC sublayer specifically handles the flow control and error control mechanisms, ensuring reliable communication between the network devices.

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  • 48. 

    Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?

    • Local area network (LAN).

    • Wide area network (WAN).

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • Wireless local area network (WLAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Wireless local area network (WLAN).
    Explanation
    Wireless local area networks (WLANs) use Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol used in wireless networks to prevent multiple devices from transmitting data at the same time, which can cause collisions and data loss. With CSMA/CA, devices listen for other devices transmitting data and wait for a clear channel before sending their own data. This helps to ensure that data transmissions are successful and collisions are avoided in WLANs.

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  • 49. 

    What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems to connect together

    • Open shortest path first (OSPF).

    • Exterior gateway protocol (EGP).

    • Interior gateway protocol (IGP)

    • Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Exterior gateway protocol (EGP).
    Explanation
    Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) is a network routing protocol that allows multiple autonomous systems to connect together. It is specifically designed for interconnecting different autonomous systems and exchanging routing information between them. EGP enables the exchange of network reachability information and helps in determining the best path for data packets to travel across multiple autonomous systems. This protocol plays a crucial role in ensuring efficient and reliable communication between different networks, making it the correct choice for this question.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 28, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Dmkogot
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