3DX5X U.R.E. Vol. 2

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3DX5X U.R.E. Vol. 2 - Quiz

Volume 2 URE practice


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?

    • A.

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–200

    • B.

      AFI 91–202

    • C.

      Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91–200

    • D.

      AFMAN 91–202

    Correct Answer
    B. AFI 91–202
    Explanation
    AFI 91-202 implements the Mishap Prevention Program.

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  • 2. 

    What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

    • A.

      Prevent the use of unsafe equipment

    • B.

      Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices

    • C.

      Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices

    • D.

      Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death

    Correct Answer
    D. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and/or death. This program aims to prevent accidents or mishaps that could result in harm to individuals or property. By implementing safety measures and protocols, the program ensures the well-being and preservation of both resources and personnel.

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  • 3. 

    The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of

    • A.

      Commerce

    • B.

      The Treasury

    • C.

      Defense

    • D.

      Labor

    Correct Answer
    D. Labor
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Labor because the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States. It sets and enforces standards, provides training and education, and conducts inspections to ensure compliance with workplace safety regulations. Being a part of the Department of Labor, OSHA works to protect workers' rights and promote their well-being in the workplace.

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  • 4. 

    Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

    • A.

      Air Staff.

    • B.

      Civil Engineering

    • C.

      Squadron commander

    • D.

      Installation safety office

    Correct Answer
    D. Installation safety office
    Explanation
    The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They are specifically designated to handle safety concerns and provide guidance and support to ensure a safe working environment for everyone on the installation.

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  • 5. 

    What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

    • A.

      Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO).

    • B.

      Conduct a job safety aanalysis (JSA).

    • C.

      Review AF Form 55

    • D.

      Certify the employee

    Correct Answer
    B. Conduct a job safety aanalysis (JSA).
    Explanation
    Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves identifying potential hazards associated with the task, evaluating the risks, and determining appropriate control measures to mitigate those risks. The JSA helps ensure that the task is performed safely by identifying and addressing any potential safety concerns or hazards that may arise during its execution.

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  • 6. 

    What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?

    • A.

      457

    • B.

      480

    • C.

      978

    • D.

      980

    Correct Answer
    C. 978
    Explanation
    Air Force (AF) form 978 is used to report ground mishaps. This form is specifically designed for reporting accidents, incidents, and other ground-related mishaps that occur within the Air Force. It helps in documenting and investigating these incidents, ensuring that proper procedures are followed and necessary actions are taken to prevent future occurrences.

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  • 7. 

    What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?

    • A.

      457

    • B.

      480

    • C.

      978

    • D.

      980

    Correct Answer
    A. 457
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 457. The question asks for the Air Force (AF) form that is used to report a hazard. The AF form 457 is specifically designed for this purpose and is used to document and report any hazards or potential safety risks within the Air Force. This form allows for the identification and communication of hazards to ensure they are properly addressed and mitigated to maintain a safe working environment.

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  • 8. 

    What three sub-categories make up human factors?

    • A.

      Physiological, physical, stress

    • B.

      Physiological, Physical, social

    • C.

      Stress, organizational, physical

    • D.

      Physical, physiological, organizational

    Correct Answer
    D. Physical, physiological, organizational
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Physical, physiological, organizational. Human factors refer to the study of how humans interact with systems and environments. The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical, which involves the physical characteristics and capabilities of individuals; physiological, which focuses on the psychological and cognitive aspects of human performance; and organizational, which considers the impact of social and organizational factors on human behavior and decision-making.

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  • 9. 

    Which action is a physiological factor?

    • A.

      Performing a task while fatigued

    • B.

      Performing a task while intoxicated.

    • C.

      Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders

    • D.

      Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness

    Correct Answer
    C. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders
    Explanation
    Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders is not a physiological factor. Physiological factors refer to physical conditions or processes within the body that can affect performance, such as fatigue, intoxication, or the effects of medication. Ignoring directions is a behavioral or psychological factor, as it involves a conscious decision or choice made by an individual rather than a physiological condition.

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  • 10. 

    Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?

    • A.

      Bioenvironmental Engineering

    • B.

      Installation safety office

    • C.

      Base civil engineer

    • D.

      Supervisors

    Correct Answer
    A. Bioenvironmental Engineering
    Explanation
    Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess and analyze the potential risks and hazards in the environment and provide recommendations on how to minimize or eliminate them. This includes implementing safety measures, conducting inspections, and monitoring the health and safety conditions to ensure a safe and healthy working environment for individuals.

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  • 11. 

    What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards

    • A.

      Isolating operations

    • B.

      Providing administrative controls

    • C.

      Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).

    • D.

      Substitution a less hazardous material or process

    Correct Answer
    C. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).
    Explanation
    The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. While PPE can provide some level of protection, it is not as effective as other control measures such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. PPE should be used in conjunction with other control methods to ensure comprehensive hazard control.

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  • 12. 

    How many impact classifications do hardhats have?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    B. Two
    Explanation
    Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to protect against two different levels of impact: low impact and high impact. The low impact classification is suitable for situations where there is a minimal risk of falling objects or bumps to the head, while the high impact classification is intended for more hazardous environments where there is a higher risk of heavy falling objects or significant impact.

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  • 13. 

    Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      C

    • C.

      E

    • D.

      G

    Correct Answer
    B. C
    Explanation
    Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors. This is because helmet class C is a basic hard hat that does not have any electrical protection features. It is designed to protect against impact and penetration hazards but does not provide insulation against electrical shocks or contact with live electrical conductors. Therefore, it is not suitable for use in environments where there is a risk of electrical hazards.

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  • 14. 

    What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

    • A.

      Falls

    • B.

      Poor lighting

    • C.

      Horseplay

    • D.

      Poor ergonomics

    Correct Answer
    A. Falls
    Explanation
    Falls are the greatest hazard in the typical office because they can occur due to various reasons such as slippery floors, tripping over objects, or falling from unstable furniture. Falls can result in serious injuries like fractures, sprains, or head trauma. Office spaces often have multiple potential fall hazards like stairs, uneven flooring, or cluttered walkways. Therefore, it is important to maintain a safe environment and implement preventive measures to reduce the risk of falls in the office.

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  • 15. 

    According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

    • A.

      1 to 2

    • B.

      2 to 2.5

    • C.

      2 to 4.5

    • D.

      2.5 to 3

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 to 2.5
    Explanation
    According to the CDC, office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers. This suggests that the risk of falling and getting injured is significantly higher for office workers compared to those who do not work in an office setting.

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  • 16. 

    What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?

    • A.

      8

    • B.

      9

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      11

    Correct Answer
    C. 10
    Explanation
    Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.

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  • 17. 

    How are fires classified?

    • A.

      Fuel type

    • B.

      Heat source

    • C.

      Temperature.

    • D.

      Atmospheric conditions

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuel type
    Explanation
    Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuels, such as wood, paper, gasoline, or electrical equipment, can lead to different fire behaviors and require different firefighting techniques. By understanding the fuel type, firefighters can better assess the risks and determine the most effective strategies to extinguish the fire.

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  • 18. 

    What classification do flammable liquids receive?

    • A.

      Class A

    • B.

      Class B

    • C.

      Class C

    • D.

      Class D

    Correct Answer
    B. Class B
    Explanation
    Flammable liquids are classified as Class B. Class B refers to liquids that have a flash point below 100 degrees Fahrenheit (37.8 degrees Celsius) and can easily catch fire or explode when exposed to a flame or spark. These liquids include gasoline, ethanol, and certain solvents. Class B fires are typically extinguished using foam, carbon dioxide, or dry chemical extinguishers.

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  • 19. 

    Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

    • A.

      Class A

    • B.

      Class B

    • C.

      Class C

    • D.

      Class D

    Correct Answer
    C. Class C
    Explanation
    When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they undergo a chemical reaction and change their classification to Class C. This change occurs because the introduction of an electric current can cause the fuel to ignite more easily or burn at a higher temperature, making it more hazardous and increasing its flammability. Class C fuels are typically characterized by their ability to conduct electricity and are commonly found in electrical equipment or power sources.

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  • 20. 

    What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

    • A.

      Evacuate personnel from the building

    • B.

      Extinguish the fire if possible

    • C.

      Call the fire departmen

    • D.

      Sound the fire alarm

    Correct Answer
    D. Sound the fire alarm
    Explanation
    The first action to take when encountering a fire is to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building about the fire and allows them to evacuate safely. By sounding the alarm, people are made aware of the emergency and can take appropriate actions to evacuate the building and prevent any further harm or damage. Once the alarm is sounded, personnel can then proceed to evacuate the building, call the fire department, and attempt to extinguish the fire if it is safe to do so.

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  • 21. 

    What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?

    • A.

      Evacuate personnel from the building

    • B.

      Extinguish the fire if possible.

    • C.

      Call the fire department

    • D.

      Sound the fire alarm

    Correct Answer
    B. Extinguish the fire if possible.
    Explanation
    The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step is crucial as it involves taking immediate action to suppress and eliminate the fire before it spreads further and causes more damage. It is important to prioritize the safety of individuals and property by attempting to extinguish the fire using appropriate firefighting techniques and equipment.

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  • 22. 

    Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

    • A.

      50

    • B.

      40

    • C.

      20

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    A. 50
    Explanation
    Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. Cardiac arrest occurs when the electrical activity of the heart becomes disrupted, leading to the heart stopping. At 50 milliamps, the electrical current can interfere with the heart's normal rhythm and potentially cause it to stop. Lower currents, such as 40, 20, or 10 milliamps, may still cause harm but are less likely to result in cardiac arrest.

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  • 23. 

    Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

    • A.

      Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits

    • B.

      Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder

    • C.

      Using a ladder as a scaffold

    • D.

      Using a homemade ladder

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits
    Explanation
    Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, there is no risk of electric shock or short circuit when using a wooden ladder around electrical circuits. However, it is important to ensure that the ladder is in good condition and properly maintained to prevent any accidents or injuries.

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  • 24. 

    Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • C.

      Apply the process irregularly and continuously

    • D.

      Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels

    Correct Answer
    C. Apply the process irregularly and continuously
    Explanation
    The action of applying the risk management process irregularly and continuously is not a part of risk management. Risk management involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks in a systematic and consistent manner. Applying the process irregularly would mean that some risks may be overlooked or not properly addressed, leading to potential negative consequences. Additionally, applying the process continuously ensures that risks are constantly monitored and managed to adapt to changing circumstances. Therefore, applying the process irregularly and continuously goes against the principles of effective risk management.

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  • 25. 

    The risk management process includes how many steps?

    • A.

      FOUR

    • B.

      FIVE

    • C.

      SIX

    • D.

      SEVEN

    Correct Answer
    B. FIVE
    Explanation
    The risk management process includes five steps. These steps are identification of risks, assessment of risks, mitigation of risks, monitoring and controlling of risks, and communication and reporting of risks. Each step plays a crucial role in effectively managing and minimizing risks within an organization or project.

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  • 26. 

    How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?

    • A.

      ONE

    • B.

      TWO

    • C.

      THREE

    • D.

      FOUR

    Correct Answer
    D. FOUR
    Explanation
    The Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is made up of four volumes. Each volume provides guidance and standards for different aspects of the framework, including the overall architecture, the data and information exchange, the systems and services, and the implementation and migration. These four volumes work together to provide a comprehensive framework for architecture development and management within the Department of Defense.

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  • 27. 

    Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

    • A.

      Office of Administration

    • B.

      Office of Communications

    • C.

      Office of Public Engagement

    • D.

      Office of Management and Budget

    Correct Answer
    D. Office of Management and Budget
    Explanation
    The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments. OMB is responsible for making well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. They assess the effectiveness and efficiency of IT investments requested by agencies and ensure that they align with the overall goals and objectives of the government. OMB plays a crucial role in overseeing and improving the management of IT investments across agencies.

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  • 28. 

    What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?

    • A.

      State level

    • B.

      Federal level

    • C.

      Congressional level

    • D.

      Department of Defense level

    Correct Answer
    B. Federal level
    Explanation
    The development of Air Force architectures is mandated at the federal level. This means that the requirements for these architectures are set and enforced by the federal government. This ensures that there is a standardized and consistent approach to developing Air Force architectures across the entire country. The federal level also allows for coordination and collaboration between different branches of the military and other federal agencies, ensuring that the architectures meet the needs and objectives of the entire nation.

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  • 29. 

    What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

    • A.

      Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record

    • B.

      Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.

    • C.

      Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record

    • D.

      Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record

    Correct Answer
    C. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record
    Explanation
    The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) consists of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes all the necessary paperwork and documentation related to the installation, such as contracts, permits, and licenses. The drawing record contains the technical drawings and diagrams of the installed system. The maintenance record includes logs and reports of any maintenance activities performed on the system. These three parts together provide a comprehensive record of the installation process and ongoing maintenance of the communications and information systems.

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  • 30. 

    Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?

    • A.

      Administrative record

    • B.

      Maintenance record

    • C.

      Drawing record

    • D.

      Outage record

    Correct Answer
    C. Drawing record
    Explanation
    The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data. This section includes detailed drawings and diagrams that illustrate the placement and configuration of the systems, helping to ensure accurate installation and maintenance.

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  • 31. 

    Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?

    • A.

      Administrative record

    • B.

      Maintenance record

    • C.

      Drawing record

    • D.

      Outage record

    Correct Answer
    B. Maintenance record
    Explanation
    The maintenance record is normally retained in the production work center of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). This record contains important information regarding the maintenance activities performed on the systems and equipment in the work center. It includes details such as the date of maintenance, the type of maintenance performed, any issues or repairs made, and the personnel involved. Retaining the maintenance record allows the work center to track and document the maintenance history of the systems, which is crucial for ensuring their proper functioning and troubleshooting any future problems.

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  • 32. 

    What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?

    • A.

      Programming

    • B.

      Transport.

    • C.

      Network

    • D.

      Data

    Correct Answer
    C. Network
    Explanation
    The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify the functions related to network communication. These layers define the protocols and processes involved in establishing and maintaining network connections, routing data packets, and managing network resources. The Network layer, specifically, is responsible for addressing and routing data across different networks, ensuring that data reaches its intended destination efficiently and reliably.

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  • 33. 

    What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model

    • A.

      Data Transport and Application

    • B.

      Session and Data Transport

    • C.

      Network and Presentation

    • D.

      Application and Session

    Correct Answer
    A. Data Transport and Application
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The OSI reference model consists of seven layers, which are divided into two categories: the upper layers and the lower layers. The upper layers include the Application, Presentation, and Session layers, which are responsible for tasks such as data formatting, encryption, and managing communication sessions. The lower layers include the Transport, Network, Data Link, and Physical layers, which handle tasks such as data segmentation, routing, error detection, and physical transmission of data. Therefore, the Data Transport and Application layers belong to the respective categories of the OSI model.

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  • 34. 

    The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?

    • A.

      Transport

    • B.

      Data Link

    • C.

      Physical

    • D.

      Session

    Correct Answer
    B. Data Link
    Explanation
    The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. The Data Link layer is responsible for providing error-free transmission of data over the physical layer. The LLC sublayer specifically handles the flow control and error control mechanisms, ensuring reliable communication between the network devices.

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  • 35. 

    What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

    • A.

      Communications between devices over multiple links of a network

    • B.

      Communications between devices over a single link of a network

    • C.

      Protocol access to the physical network medium

    • D.

      Protocol access to the links of a network

    Correct Answer
    B. Communications between devices over a single link of a network
    Explanation
    The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for providing error control, flow control, and sequencing of frames on a single link. It ensures reliable transmission of data between devices on the same network link, handling any issues that may arise during the transmission process.

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  • 36. 

    What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

    • A.

      Communications between devices over a single link of a network

    • B.

      Communications between devices over multiple links of a network

    • C.

      Protocol access to the physical network medium

    • D.

      Protocol access to the links of a network

    Correct Answer
    C. Protocol access to the physical network medium
    Explanation
    The media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages the protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network gain access to the physical medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies, in order to transmit data. The MAC sublayer ensures that only one device can transmit at a time to avoid collisions and manages the protocols for addressing and error detection on the physical medium.

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  • 37. 

    When used alone, the word “topology” often refers to a network’s

    • A.

      Transport topology

    • B.

      Physical topology

    • C.

      Physical medium

    • D.

      Logical topology

    Correct Answer
    B. Physical topology
    Explanation
    The term "topology" can have different meanings depending on the context in which it is used. In the given question, when the word "topology" is used alone, it typically refers to the physical arrangement or layout of devices and cables in a network. This is known as the physical topology. It describes how the network is physically connected, such as whether it is a bus, star, ring, or mesh topology. The other options, such as transport topology, physical medium, and logical topology, are not the primary meanings of "topology" when used alone.

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  • 38. 

    What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

    • A.

      Star

    • B.

      Ring

    • C.

      Loop

    • D.

      Linear

    Correct Answer
    D. Linear
    Explanation
    A bus topology is a network setup in which all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear structure. Therefore, the term "Linear" is another name for a bus topology.

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  • 39. 

    What topology offers centralized management of a network?

    • A.

      Bus

    • B.

      Star

    • C.

      Ring

    • D.

      Radial

    Correct Answer
    B. Star
    Explanation
    The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which acts as a central point of control. This allows for easier management and troubleshooting of the network, as any changes or issues can be addressed at the central hub. Additionally, the star topology provides better performance and scalability compared to other topologies like bus or ring, making it a preferred choice for networks that require centralized management.

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  • 40. 

    What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

    • A.

      There are no negative effects

    • B.

      A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication

    • C.

      Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices

    • D.

      When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated

    Correct Answer
    D. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated
    Explanation
    When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to manage communication between the different networks. If this central node point fails, it can result in large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that communication between those isolated portions and the rest of the network will be disrupted, leading to a negative effect on overall network connectivity and functionality.

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  • 41. 

    Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

    • A.

      Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • B.

      Federal Communications Commission (FCC).

    • C.

      Department of Homeland Security (DHS).

    • D.

      Department of Defense (DOD).

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body responsible for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. DISA is responsible for providing IT services, infrastructure, and capabilities to support the DOD's mission and ensure secure and reliable communication within the department.

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  • 42. 

    What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?

    • A.

      Regular of how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement

    • B.

      Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine (in the application layer).

    • C.

      Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers

    • D.

      Preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data

    Correct Answer
    C. Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers
    Explanation
    A TCP socket is a combination of a port number and an IP address. It is used by a process to request network services and is passed as an argument between layers. This allows the process to establish a connection with another process on a different machine and communicate over the network. The port number helps identify the specific application or process on each machine, while the IP address identifies the destination machine. Together, they form a unique identifier for the socket, enabling communication between processes on different machines.

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  • 43. 

    What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?

    • A.

      Request network services and pass arguments between layers

    • B.

      Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine

    • C.

      Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data

    • D.

      Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an aacknowledgement

    Correct Answer
    D. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an aacknowledgement
    Explanation
    A sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is used to regulate the amount of information that can pass over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps in controlling the flow of data and prevents network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices with data.

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  • 44. 

    What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

    • A.

      Version Identification

    • B.

      Header Checksum

    • C.

      Time to Live

    • D.

      Flags

    Correct Answer
    B. Header Checksum
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Header Checksum. The Header Checksum is a field in the IP Datagram that allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers. It is a mathematical calculation performed on the header of the packet, and the result is placed in the Header Checksum field. When the packet arrives at its destination, the receiver recalculates the checksum and compares it to the value in the Header Checksum field. If the values do not match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the packet is discarded.

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  • 45. 

    What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

    • A.

      239

    • B.

      254

    • C.

      255

    • D.

      256

    Correct Answer
    C. 255
    Explanation
    In Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4), an octet is a group of 8 bits. Each bit can have a value of either 0 or 1, resulting in a total of 256 possible combinations. However, the maximum value for an octet in IPv4 is 255, as the counting starts from 0. Therefore, 255 is the correct answer.

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  • 46. 

    Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?

    • A.

      Class A address

    • B.

      Class B address

    • C.

      Class C address

    • D.

      Class D address

    Correct Answer
    C. Class C address
    Explanation
    Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. This is because Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which means that there are 8 bits available for host addresses. With 8 bits, there are 2^8 - 2 = 254 possible host addresses in each Class C network. Class A and Class B addresses have larger default subnet masks, allowing for more hosts per network, while Class D addresses are used for multicast addresses and do not have a fixed number of hosts per network.

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  • 47. 

    What class is reserved for multicast addressing?

    • A.

      Class A address

    • B.

      Class B address

    • C.

      Class C address

    • D.

      Class D address

    Correct Answer
    D. Class D address
    Explanation
    Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. In IPv4, multicast addresses are used to send data packets to a group of hosts instead of a single host. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255, with the first 4 bits of the address set to 1110. Multicast addresses allow efficient distribution of data to multiple recipients, making them suitable for applications such as video streaming, online gaming, and multicast messaging.

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  • 48. 

    What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?

    • A.

      0-1023

    • B.

      1024-49151

    • C.

      49152-65535

    • D.

      65536-87000

    Correct Answer
    A. 0-1023
    Explanation
    The range of numbers 0-1023 represents the well-known port numbers. Well-known port numbers are reserved for specific services and protocols, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). These port numbers are standardized and widely recognized, making them easily identifiable and commonly used for various network applications.

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  • 49. 

    What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?

    • A.

      ROM is volatile, RAM in non-volatile

    • B.

      ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile

    • C.

      RAM has a slower access time versus ROM

    • D.

      ROM has a slower access time versus RAM

    Correct Answer
    B. ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile
    Explanation
    ROM is non-volatile, meaning that it retains its data even when power is lost, while RAM is volatile, meaning that it loses its data when power is lost. This is the major difference between the two types of memory.

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  • 50. 

    What action is the main purpose of system cache?

    • A.

      Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM).

    • B.

      Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data

    • C.

      Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data

    • D.

      Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data

    Correct Answer
    C. Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data
    Explanation
    The main purpose of the system cache is to reduce the central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. The system cache stores frequently accessed data from the main memory, allowing the CPU to retrieve it quickly without having to access the slower main memory. This helps to improve the overall performance of the system by reducing the time it takes for the CPU to access data, resulting in faster processing speeds.

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