AMOC Block 6 Test

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  • 1/91 Questions

    (601a) Who is responsible to implement and enforce AFOSH compliance with Program at their level?

    • Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors
    • Commanders and functional managers
    • Functional commanders and supervisors
    • Commanders, functional managers, work center supervisors
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About This Quiz

The AMOC Block 6 Test assesses knowledge in implementing AFOSH compliance, documenting safety training, hazard reporting, and safety inspection roles. It focuses on safety within the Air Force, covering areas like flight, ground, and weapons safety.

AMOC Block 6 Test - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (601a) Where is work center specific Job Safety Training Outline (JSTO) (aka safety training) documented at?

    • AF Form 357

    • AF Form 457

    • AF Form 5

    • AF Form 55

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 55
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 55. The AF Form 55 is where the work center specific Job Safety Training Outline (JSTO), also known as safety training, is documented. This form is used to track and document safety training for individuals within the Air Force. It includes information such as the date of training, the topics covered, and the individuals who received the training. By documenting this information on AF Form 55, the Air Force ensures that all personnel are properly trained in safety procedures and protocols.

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  • 3. 

    (601a) Individuals use _____ to identify and report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk. (Used to report hazards to the safety office that cannot be eliminated)

    • AF Form 467

    • AF Form 457

    • AF Form 55

    • AF Form 5

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 457
    Explanation
    AF Form 457 is used by individuals to identify and report hazardous conditions that pose a risk to Air Force personnel or property. This form is specifically designed for reporting hazards to the safety office that cannot be eliminated.

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  • 4. 

    (601a) A unit safety representative (USR) conducts safety briefings and provides educational safety materials to personnel and they also...

    • Respond to emergencies

    • Performs spot and self-inspections

    • Correct hazards

    • Develop job safety standards

    Correct Answer
    A. Performs spot and self-inspections
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Performs spot and self-inspections. A unit safety representative (USR) is responsible for conducting safety briefings and providing educational safety materials to personnel. In addition to these tasks, they also perform spot and self-inspections. This means that they inspect the workplace or specific areas within the unit to identify any potential hazards or safety concerns. By conducting these inspections, the USR can proactively address and correct any hazards, ensuring a safe working environment for all personnel.

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  • 5. 

    (601a) What are the three main safety disciplines?

    • Flight Safety (SEF), Ground Safety (SEG), and Weapons Surity (SEW)

    • Flight Safety (SEF), Ground Safety (SEG), and Explosive Safety (SEW)

    • Flight Safety (SEF), Ground Safety (SEG), and Weapons Safety (SEW)

    • Flight Safety (SEF), Maintenance Safety (SEG), and Weapons Safety (SEW)

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight Safety (SEF), Ground Safety (SEG), and Weapons Safety (SEW)
    Explanation
    The three main safety disciplines are Flight Safety (SEF), Ground Safety (SEG), and Weapons Safety (SEW). These disciplines cover different aspects of safety within the aviation industry. Flight Safety focuses on ensuring safe operations during flight, Ground Safety focuses on safety on the ground, and Weapons Safety focuses on the safe handling and storage of weapons. This combination of disciplines ensures comprehensive safety measures are in place to protect personnel, equipment, and the public.

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  • 6. 

    (601a) What are the three disciplines of weapons safety?

    • Explosives safety, Missile safety, and Nuclear sufety

    • Explosives safety, Missile safety, and Nuclear surety

    • Explosives safety, Missile surety, and Nuclear surety

    • Explosives training, Missile safety, and Nuclear surety

    Correct Answer
    A. Explosives safety, Missile safety, and Nuclear surety
    Explanation
    The three disciplines of weapons safety are explosives safety, missile safety, and nuclear surety. This means that in order to ensure the safe handling and operation of weapons, these three areas must be carefully considered and implemented. Explosives safety involves the proper storage, handling, and transportation of explosive materials. Missile safety focuses on the safe operation and maintenance of missiles and related equipment. Nuclear surety pertains to the safety and security of nuclear weapons and their associated systems. By adhering to these disciplines, the risk of accidents, mishaps, and unauthorized use of weapons can be minimized.

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  • 7. 

    (601a) What is the main difference between a Safety Investigation Board (SIB) and an Accident Investigation Board (AIB)?

    • SIB has ''safety privilege'' and AIB does not

    • SIB can result in punitive actions and AIB cannot

    • AIB has ''safety privilege'' and SIB does not

    • There is no major difference

    Correct Answer
    A. SIB has ''safety privilege'' and AIB does not
    Explanation
    The main difference between a Safety Investigation Board (SIB) and an Accident Investigation Board (AIB) is that SIB has "safety privilege" while AIB does not. This means that SIB has the authority to withhold certain information from being used against individuals in legal or disciplinary proceedings. On the other hand, AIB does not have this privilege and all information gathered during the investigation can be used for punitive actions if necessary. Therefore, SIB investigations focus more on identifying safety issues and preventing future accidents, while AIB investigations focus on determining the cause of the accident and holding individuals accountable if necessary.

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  • 8. 

    (601a) The size and membership of the investigation (both SIB/AIB) depends on...

    • The category of the mishap being investigated

    • The complexity of the mishap being investigated

    • The category and complexity of the mishap being investigated

    • The category, location, and complexity of the mishap being investigated

    Correct Answer
    A. The category and complexity of the mishap being investigated
    Explanation
    The size and membership of the investigation (both SIB/AIB) depends on the category and complexity of the mishap being investigated. This means that the nature and severity of the mishap, as well as the level of difficulty in understanding and resolving it, will determine the number of people involved in the investigation and the expertise required. The category of the mishap alone may not provide enough information to determine the size and membership of the investigation, and neither would just the complexity of the mishap. Therefore, both factors need to be considered together to determine the appropriate size and membership of the investigation team.

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  • 9. 

    (601b) What is the hazardous waste life-cycle

    • Generation, Storage, Disposal and Treatment

    • Characterization, Storage, and Disposal

    • Classification, Storage, and Disposal

    • Generation, Storage, and Disposal

    Correct Answer
    A. Generation, Storage, and Disposal
    Explanation
    The hazardous waste life-cycle consists of three main stages: generation, storage, and disposal. Generation refers to the initial creation or production of hazardous waste. Storage involves the temporary containment of the waste in appropriate containers or facilities. Finally, disposal refers to the proper and safe removal of the waste from the storage location. This life-cycle ensures that hazardous waste is handled and managed in a way that minimizes its impact on human health and the environment.

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  • 10. 

    (601b) What part of the Hazardous waste life-cycle is the hazard characterized?

    • Treatment

    • Generation

    • Disposal

    • Storage

    Correct Answer
    A. Generation
    Explanation
    The hazard of hazardous waste is characterized during the generation phase of its life cycle. This is the stage where the waste is initially created or produced. It involves activities such as manufacturing, industrial processes, or any other activities that result in the creation of hazardous waste. During this phase, the nature and extent of the hazard are assessed, including its potential impact on human health and the environment. It is important to properly manage and handle hazardous waste during the generation phase to minimize the risks associated with its handling, transportation, and disposal.

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  • 11. 

    (601c) Which act regulates all hazardous substances and was established to clean up inactive, abandoned sites and enact emergency response procedures for hazardous substance spills?

    • Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act 1980 (CERCLA)

    • Solid Waste Disposal Act 1965 (SWDA)

    • Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) 1976

    • Federal Facility Compliance Act of 1992

    Correct Answer
    A. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act 1980 (CERCLA)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act 1980 (CERCLA). This act regulates all hazardous substances and was established to clean up inactive, abandoned sites and enact emergency response procedures for hazardous substance spills. It is commonly known as Superfund and provides a framework for identifying and addressing hazardous waste sites, as well as holding responsible parties accountable for the costs of cleanup and remediation.

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  • 12. 

    (601c) What is the primary regulation guiding Air Force hazardous waste management practices?

    • Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act 1980 (CERCLA)

    • Solid Waste Disposal Act 1965 (SWDA)

    • Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) 1976

    • Federal Facility Compliance Act of 1992

    Correct Answer
    A. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) 1976
    Explanation
    The primary regulation guiding Air Force hazardous waste management practices is the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) 1976. This act was enacted to ensure the safe management and disposal of hazardous waste, including hazardous waste generated by the Air Force. It establishes a framework for the proper handling, storage, treatment, and disposal of hazardous waste, as well as requirements for monitoring and reporting. The RCRA also provides guidelines for the cleanup of hazardous waste sites and the enforcement of regulations.

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  • 13. 

    (601c) What act is focused on municipal waste disposal practices at sites such as dumps and landfills?

    • Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act 1980 (CERCLA)

    • Solid Waste Disposal Act 1965 (SWDA)

    • Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) 1976

    • Federal Facility Compliance Act of 1992

    Correct Answer
    A. Solid Waste Disposal Act 1965 (SWDA)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Solid Waste Disposal Act 1965 (SWDA). This act is focused on municipal waste disposal practices at sites such as dumps and landfills. It was the first federal law to address the issue of solid waste management and provided guidelines and regulations for the proper disposal of solid waste. The SWDA aimed to reduce the environmental and health risks associated with improper waste disposal and promote more sustainable waste management practices.

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  • 14. 

    (601c) What act allows state and federal agencies to assess DoD facilities with fines for RCRA violations? (this act gave the EPA teeth)

    • Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act 1980 (CERCLA)

    • Solid Waste Disposal Act 1965 (SWDA)

    • Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) 1976

    • Federal Facility Compliance Act of 1992

    Correct Answer
    A. Federal Facility Compliance Act of 1992
    Explanation
    The Federal Facility Compliance Act of 1992 allows state and federal agencies to assess DoD facilities with fines for RCRA violations. This act was put in place to ensure that Department of Defense (DoD) facilities comply with the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) of 1976, which regulates the management of hazardous waste. The act gave the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) the authority to enforce RCRA regulations and impose penalties on non-compliant DoD facilities.

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  • 15. 

    (601c) Federal regulations can be more stringent than the state regulations? (in regards to EPA)

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Federal regulations can be more stringent than state regulations. The EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) is a federal agency that sets and enforces environmental regulations across the United States. These federal regulations often set a minimum standard that all states must meet, but individual states are allowed to have more stringent regulations if they choose to do so. Therefore, it is possible for state regulations to be more stringent than federal regulations in some cases.

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  • 16. 

    (601c) How long can hazardous waste stay at the Initial Accumulation (Satellite) Point? (once its reached the max)

    • 4 days

    • 72 hrs

    • 48 hrs

    • 30 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 72 hrs
    Explanation
    Hazardous waste can stay at the Initial Accumulation (Satellite) Point for a maximum of 72 hours. This means that once the waste reaches the maximum time limit, it needs to be properly disposed of or transferred to a designated hazardous waste facility. It is important to adhere to this time limit to prevent any potential risks or hazards associated with the storage of hazardous waste.

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  • 17. 

    (601c) Initial accumulation points are limited to _______of hazardous waste or ______of acute hazardous waste.

    • 55 gallons, 1 pint

    • 55 gallons, 5 quarts

    • 55 quarts, 1 gallon

    • 55 gallons, 1 quart

    Correct Answer
    A. 55 gallons, 1 quart
    Explanation
    The initial accumulation points for hazardous waste are limited to 55 gallons and 1 quart. This means that a maximum of 55 gallons of hazardous waste can be accumulated, along with an additional 1 quart. This restriction helps to ensure that hazardous waste is properly managed and stored to prevent any potential risks or hazards.

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  • 18. 

    (601c) Accumulation Site is a Centralized location where wastes from several generating activities are placed for up to_____days for large quantity generators, ______days for small quantity generators

    • 90, 180/270

    • 180, 90/270

    • 270, 90/180

    • 90, 180/365

    Correct Answer
    A. 90, 180/270
    Explanation
    An accumulation site is a centralized location where wastes from several generating activities are placed for a certain period of time. For large quantity generators, the wastes can be stored at the accumulation site for up to 90 days. On the other hand, small quantity generators can store their wastes for up to 180 days. This ensures that there is sufficient time for proper management and disposal of the accumulated waste. The answer choice that correctly represents these time periods is 90, 180/270.

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  • 19. 

    (601d) Select the waste minimization management options hierarchy. (from highest priority to least)

    • Recycling, Source reduction, Treatment, than Disposal

    • Source reduction, Recycling, Disposal, than Treatment

    • Source reduction, Recycling, Treatment, than Disposal

    • Source reduction, Treatment, Recycling, than Disposal

    Correct Answer
    A. Source reduction, Recycling, Treatment, than Disposal
    Explanation
    The waste minimization management options hierarchy starts with source reduction, which focuses on reducing the amount of waste generated at the source. This is followed by recycling, which involves processing waste materials to create new products. Treatment comes next, which involves treating waste to reduce its environmental impact. Finally, disposal is the last option, which involves safely disposing of waste that cannot be reduced, recycled, or treated. Therefore, the correct order is source reduction, recycling, treatment, and then disposal.

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  • 20. 

    (601d) What provides a standard way to manage HAZMAT procurement and use?

    • HAZMAT tracking activities (HTA)

    • Track HAZMAT Data (THA)

    • ESOHCAMP

    • Waste Minimization

    Correct Answer
    A. HAZMAT tracking activities (HTA)
    Explanation
    HAZMAT tracking activities (HTA) provide a standard way to manage HAZMAT procurement and use. This means that HTA is a system or process that allows for the tracking and management of hazardous materials, ensuring that they are procured and used in a safe and compliant manner. It helps in keeping a record of HAZMAT data, monitoring its usage, and ensuring waste minimization. ESOHCAMP and Track HAZMAT Data (THA) are not mentioned as providing a standard way to manage HAZMAT procurement and use, so they are not the correct answers.

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  • 21. 

    (601d) Unit Commanders are responsible for tracking and closing Tier___ and Tier___ assessment findings.

    • 2, 4

    • 1, 3

    • 1, 2

    • 2, 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2, 3
    Explanation
    Unit Commanders are responsible for tracking and closing Tier 2 and Tier 3 assessment findings. This means that they are accountable for monitoring and resolving any issues or deficiencies identified during the assessment process at these two levels. By doing so, Unit Commanders ensure that their units are in compliance with the required standards and regulations, and that any identified risks or vulnerabilities are addressed promptly.

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  • 22. 

    (601d) Tier 1 is only internal ESOHCAMP inspection.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Tier 1 and 2 are internal and tier 3 is external

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  • 23. 

    (601e) Who is ultimately responsible for installation HAZCOM programs? 

    • Bioenvironmental Flight

    • Wing/Installation Commanders

    • Unit Commanders

    • Work Area/Shop Supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing/Installation Commanders
    Explanation
    The Wing/Installation Commanders are ultimately responsible for the installation HAZCOM programs. They have the authority and oversight to ensure that the programs are implemented and followed correctly. As the highest-ranking officials at the installation or wing level, they have the power to allocate resources, enforce compliance, and make decisions regarding the HAZCOM programs. This responsibility falls on them because they are in a position of leadership and have the ability to influence and direct the implementation of safety protocols.

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  • 24. 

    (601e) Who is responsible for completing the HCL (hazardous chemical list) and identification of associated hazard categories? 

    • Bioenvironmental Flight

    • Wing/Installation Commanders

    • Unit Commanders

    • Work Area/Shop Supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Work Area/Shop Supervisor
    Explanation
    The work area/shop supervisor is responsible for completing the HCL (hazardous chemical list) and identification of associated hazard categories. This individual is in charge of overseeing the work area or shop where hazardous chemicals are used or stored, and they are responsible for ensuring that the HCL is accurate and up to date. They are also responsible for identifying the hazard categories associated with each chemical, which is crucial for ensuring the safety of the personnel working in that area. The supervisor plays a key role in maintaining a safe working environment and complying with regulations regarding hazardous chemicals.

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  • 25. 

    (601e) Which AF HAZCOM program element provides the framework for organizing, maintaining, and communicating? 

    • Safety Data Sheet (SDS)

    • Employee Information and Training

    • Hazardous Chemical List (HCL)

    • Labels and other forms of warning

    Correct Answer
    A. Employee Information and Training
    Explanation
    Employee Information and Training is the correct answer because it is the program element that provides the framework for organizing, maintaining, and communicating the necessary information about hazardous chemicals to employees. This element ensures that employees are informed about the hazards of the chemicals they work with, the protective measures to be taken, and the proper procedures for handling and storing them. It also includes training sessions and materials to educate employees on the safe use and handling of hazardous chemicals.

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  • 26. 

    (601e) Which AF HAZCOM program element identifies materials requiring SDS and defines scope of HAZCOM programs? 

    • Safety Data Sheet (SDS)

    • Employee Information and Training

    • Hazardous Chemical List (HCL)

    • Labels and other forms of warning

    Correct Answer
    A. Hazardous Chemical List (HCL)
    Explanation
    The Hazardous Chemical List (HCL) is the AF HAZCOM program element that identifies materials requiring Safety Data Sheets (SDS) and defines the scope of HAZCOM programs. The HCL provides a comprehensive list of all hazardous chemicals used in the workplace, ensuring that employees are aware of the potential hazards associated with these substances. It helps in determining which chemicals require SDS and ensures that proper labeling and other forms of warning are provided for these hazardous materials.

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  • 27. 

    (601e) What is called when supervisors brief workers on accessing SDS, finding info on SDS, and interpret chemical labels? 

    • Non-routine Tasks

    • Worker Training

    • Hazard Communication (HAZCOM)

    • Employee Information and training

    Correct Answer
    A. Worker Training
    Explanation
    Worker training is the correct answer because it refers to the process of supervisors briefing workers on accessing Safety Data Sheets (SDS), finding information on SDS, and interpreting chemical labels. This training is essential to ensure that workers have the necessary knowledge and skills to handle hazardous substances safely and understand the potential risks associated with them. It is a crucial part of hazard communication and helps in promoting workplace safety and preventing accidents or incidents related to chemical exposure.

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  • 28. 

    (601e) Document supervisor, worker initial, and supplemental HAZCOM training on the AF Form _____ .

    • 55

    • 5

    • 457

    • 957

    Correct Answer
    A. 55
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 55 because AF Form 55 is used to document supervisor, worker initial, and supplemental HAZCOM training. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and ensures that all necessary information regarding the training is recorded and documented properly.

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  • 29. 

    (602a) What is considered the lowest level of command?

    • Group Commander

    • Squadron/Unit Commander

    • Flight Commander

    • AMU OIC

    Correct Answer
    A. Squadron/Unit Commander
    Explanation
    The lowest level of command is considered to be the Squadron/Unit Commander. This individual is responsible for overseeing and managing a specific squadron or unit within a larger organization. They are responsible for the day-to-day operations, training, and welfare of the personnel under their command. They report to higher-level commanders and are accountable for the performance and readiness of their squadron or unit.

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  • 30. 

    (602a) Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Squadron/unit commander?

    • Ensure manning is distributed between shifts to safely and efficiently accomplish the mission

    • Enforce sound maintenance and supply discipline.

    • Manage unit flying crew chief (FCC) program as applicable

    • Chairs daily production meeting

    • Recommend personnel for QA duty positions to MXG/CC

    Correct Answer
    A. Chairs daily production meeting
    Explanation
    The responsibility of chairing the daily production meeting is not a responsibility of the Squadron/unit commander. This duty is typically assigned to a different role within the unit, such as a production superintendent or a production control officer. The Squadron/unit commander is responsible for ensuring manning is distributed between shifts, enforcing maintenance and supply discipline, managing the unit flying crew chief program, and recommending personnel for QA duty positions to MXG/CC.

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  • 31. 

    (602a) Who is considered Maintenance Supervision? (Maintenance Operations)

    • Operations Officer

    • Maintenance Superintendent

    • Maintenance Operations Officer

    • Maintenance Operations Officer (MOO)/Maintenance Superintendent

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Operations Officer (MOO)/Maintenance Superintendent
    Explanation
    Maintenance Supervision is considered to be the Maintenance Operations Officer (MOO)/Maintenance Superintendent. This role is responsible for overseeing and managing maintenance operations within an organization. They ensure that maintenance tasks are carried out efficiently and effectively, coordinate with maintenance staff, and make decisions regarding maintenance priorities and resource allocation. This position requires a combination of technical knowledge, leadership skills, and the ability to effectively manage and supervise a team.

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  • 32. 

    (602a) Who Manages the Special Certification Roster (SCR), and Advises the squadron commander on technical matters?

    • Operations Officer/MX SUPT

    • AMU OIC

    • Flight Commander

    • Flight Chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations Officer/MX SUPT
    Explanation
    The Operations Officer/MX SUPT is responsible for managing the Special Certification Roster (SCR) and providing technical advice to the squadron commander. They oversee the certification process and ensure that all necessary qualifications and standards are met. They work closely with the squadron commander to make informed decisions regarding technical matters within the squadron.

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  • 33. 

    (602a) How often is the SCR reviewed/signed?

    • Biennially

    • Annually

    • Semi-annually

    • Quarterly

    Correct Answer
    A. Semi-annually
    Explanation
    The SCR, which stands for System Change Request, is reviewed and signed semi-annually. This means that the review and signing process for the SCR occurs twice a year.

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  • 34. 

    (602a) What is not a responsibility of the AMU OIC/Superintendent?

    • Responsible to Operations Officer for sortie generation and management/training of assigned personnel

    • Review PRDs daily and ensure proper maintenance actions are taken.

    • Review all aborts and ensure proper maintenance actions are taken.

    • Monitor Dedicated Crew Chief/Flying Crew Chief programs

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitor Dedicated Crew Chief/Flying Crew Chief programs
    Explanation
    The responsibility of the AMU OIC/Superintendent does not include monitoring the Dedicated Crew Chief/Flying Crew Chief programs. Their responsibilities include being responsible to the Operations Officer for sortie generation and management/training of assigned personnel, reviewing PRDs daily and ensuring proper maintenance actions are taken, and reviewing all aborts and ensuring proper maintenance actions are taken.

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  • 35. 

    (602a) Who is responsible to the Flight/CC/Chief or AMU OIC/Chief for the leadership, supervision, and training of assigned personnel?

    • Section NCOIC

    • NCOIC

    • Functional Manager

    • Production Superintendent

    Correct Answer
    A. Section NCOIC
    Explanation
    The Section NCOIC is responsible for the leadership, supervision, and training of assigned personnel. They are accountable to the Flight/CC/Chief or AMU OIC/Chief for these responsibilities.

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  • 36. 

    (602a) What two sections ensure production?

    • Pro Super and Section NCOIC

    • Flight CC and Pro Super

    • Pro Super and Expediter

    • Leadership and Supervision

    Correct Answer
    A. Pro Super and Expediter
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Pro Super and Expediter. The Pro Super is responsible for overseeing the production process and ensuring that it runs smoothly. They coordinate with different departments and make sure that all tasks are completed on time. The Expediter, on the other hand, is responsible for expediting the production process and ensuring that materials and resources are available when needed. Together, the Pro Super and Expediter work to ensure efficient production.

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  • 37. 

    (602a) Select all below that an expediter should have in his or her truck?

    • Flying schedule

    • Aircraft Impoundment Procedures

    • Emergency action and functional checklists

    • Base grid map with cordon overlay

    • IPI listings, Minimum Essential Subsystem List (MESL)

    • Quick Reference List (QRL) (if developed),

    • Copies of Aircraft Forms

    • Work Unit Code (WUC) manual

    • Tracking device for aircraft status

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Flying schedule
    A. Emergency action and functional checklists
    A. Base grid map with cordon overlay
    A. IPI listings, Minimum Essential Subsystem List (MESL)
    A. Quick Reference List (QRL) (if developed),
    A. Work Unit Code (WUC) manual
    A. Tracking device for aircraft status
    Explanation
    An expediter should have a flying schedule in their truck to keep track of the aircraft's departure and arrival times. They should also have emergency action and functional checklists to ensure they are prepared for any emergency situations. The base grid map with cordon overlay is necessary for navigation and understanding the layout of the base. IPI listings and MESL are important for identifying and prioritizing essential subsystems. The QRL provides quick access to important information, while the WUC manual helps in understanding work unit codes. Finally, a tracking device for aircraft status allows the expediter to monitor the location and condition of the aircraft.

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  • 38. 

    (602a) Who ensures all in flight malfunctions are documented in aircraft forms and MIS?

    • Expediters

    • Pro Supers

    • Aircrew and Maintenance Debriefing Section

    • Aircraft Section

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircrew and Maintenance Debriefing Section
    Explanation
    The Aircrew and Maintenance Debriefing Section is responsible for ensuring that all in-flight malfunctions are documented in aircraft forms and Management Information System (MIS). This section is responsible for collecting information from both the aircrew and maintenance personnel, debriefing them about any malfunctions or issues encountered during the flight, and documenting these in the appropriate forms and systems. This helps in maintaining a record of all malfunctions and allows for analysis and further action if necessary.

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  • 39. 

    (602a) What section has DCCs and FCCs?

    • Aircraft

    • Specialist

    • Weapons

    • Support

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft
    Explanation
    The section that has DCCs (Direct Current Converters) and FCCs (Frequency Converters) is the Aircraft section. These devices are commonly used in aircrafts to convert electrical power from one form to another, ensuring that the different electrical systems on board receive the appropriate voltage and frequency. The Aircraft section is responsible for maintaining and repairing these components to ensure the proper functioning of the aircraft's electrical systems.

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  • 40. 

    (602a) Who manages and supervises all mx on their aircraft?

    • DCCs

    • ADCCs

    • FCCs

    • Lead Technicians

    Correct Answer
    A. DCCs
    Explanation
    DCCs, or Dedicated Crew Chiefs, are responsible for managing and supervising all maintenance activities on their assigned aircraft. They ensure that all maintenance tasks are completed correctly and on time, and they coordinate with other maintenance personnel to ensure the aircraft is in optimal condition. DCCs have extensive knowledge and experience with the specific aircraft they are assigned to, and they play a crucial role in ensuring the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft.

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  • 41. 

    (602a) Who travels w/acft & perform launch, recovery, inspection, servicing, generation, and mx and is also qualified on all critical systems? (Provides qualified mx support at austere locations)

    • DCCs

    • ADCCs

    • FCCs

    • AFCCs

    Correct Answer
    A. FCCs
    Explanation
    FCCs, or Fleet Composite Squadrons, are responsible for traveling with aircraft and performing various tasks such as launch, recovery, inspection, servicing, generation, and maintenance. They are also qualified on all critical systems, which allows them to provide qualified maintenance support even in austere locations.

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  • 42. 

    (602a) Which of the following is not part of the specialist section?

    • Avionics

    • Propulsion

    • Hydraulics

    • Support Section/

    • Electro/Environmental

    Correct Answer
    A. Support Section/
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Support Section/. The other options, Avionics, Propulsion, Hydraulics, and Electro/Environmental, are all part of the specialist section. The Support Section, on the other hand, is not considered part of the specialist section.

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  • 43. 

    (602a) What two sections fall under Weapons?

    • Loading and Building

    • Arming and Maintenance

    • Maintenance and Ammo

    • Loading and Maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. Loading and Maintenance
    Explanation
    The two sections that fall under Weapons are Loading and Maintenance. Loading refers to the process of preparing and loading ammunition into the weapon, while Maintenance involves the regular care and upkeep of the weapon to ensure its proper functioning. These two sections are essential in the overall operation and effectiveness of weapons.

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  • 44. 

    (602a) Select all of the following that you can find in a support section?

    • Composite Tool Kit (CTK), bench stock, Technical Orders

    • Dash 21 equipment

    • Alternate mission equipment

    • Vehicles

    • Mobility

    • Dedicated supply

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Composite Tool Kit (CTK), bench stock, Technical Orders
    A. Dash 21 equipment
    A. Alternate mission equipment
    A. Vehicles
    A. Mobility
    A. Dedicated supply
    Explanation
    The support section typically contains various resources and equipment to assist in maintenance and operations. This can include items such as the Composite Tool Kit (CTK), bench stock, Technical Orders, Dash 21 equipment, Alternate mission equipment, Vehicles, Mobility, and Dedicated supply. These resources are essential for providing support and ensuring the smooth functioning of operations and maintenance tasks.

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  • 45. 

    (602b) The BASH and HATR fall under what?

    • Safety

    • Wing Safety

    • Command post

    • Current Operations Flight

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing Safety
    Explanation
    The BASH (Bird Aircraft Strike Hazard) and HATR (Hazardous Air Traffic Report) are both related to safety measures in aviation. They are protocols and systems put in place to mitigate risks and ensure the safety of aircraft operations. Therefore, they fall under the category of Wing Safety, which focuses on maintaining a safe environment for flight operations within a military wing or unit.

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  • 46. 

    (602b) Who is the focal point for all communications involving base activities? (Alert Forces, Airfield, Weather, Navigational Aids)

    • Command Post

    • Ground Safety

    • OSS

    • MOC

    Correct Answer
    A. Command Post
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Command Post. The Command Post serves as the focal point for all communications involving base activities, including Alert Forces, Airfield, Weather, and Navigational Aids. They are responsible for coordinating and disseminating information to ensure effective communication and coordination among different units and departments on the base.

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  • 47. 

    (602b) Who is the focal point for command and control of flight operations?

    • Command Post

    • Supervisor Of Flying (SOF)

    • Host Aviation Resource Management

    • Lead instructor pilot

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor Of Flying (SOF)
    Explanation
    The Supervisor Of Flying (SOF) is the focal point for command and control of flight operations. They are responsible for coordinating and overseeing all flight activities, ensuring adherence to regulations and safety protocols. The SOF acts as a liaison between the flight crew and higher-level command, providing guidance and direction as needed. They also play a key role in managing flight schedules, crew assignments, and mission planning. Overall, the SOF is the central figure in ensuring efficient and effective flight operations.

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  • 48. 

    (602b) Current Operations Flight Manages flying hour program?

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Current Operations Flight manages the flying hour program. This means that they are responsible for overseeing and coordinating the allocation and utilization of flying hours for aircraft operations. They ensure that the flying hours are distributed efficiently and effectively, taking into account factors such as training requirements, operational needs, and resource availability. By managing the flying hour program, Current Operations Flight plays a crucial role in maintaining the readiness and operational capability of the aircraft fleet.

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  • 49. 

    (602b) Who provides intelligence through all phases of conflict and trains aircrew and prepares wing for wartime missions?

    • Intelligence section

    • Intelligence flight

    • Intelligence wing

    • Intelligence

    Correct Answer
    A. Intelligence flight
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Intelligence flight. The intelligence flight is responsible for providing intelligence support throughout all phases of conflict and training aircrew. They also prepare the wing for wartime missions by gathering and analyzing intelligence information. The intelligence flight is a specialized unit within the larger intelligence section, which is responsible for overall intelligence operations. The intelligence wing refers to the entire organization or unit dedicated to intelligence activities, which may include multiple flights and sections.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 13, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Mark Creel

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