AMOC Block 6 Test

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About This Quiz

The AMOC Block 6 Test assesses knowledge in implementing AFOSH compliance, documenting safety training, hazard reporting, and safety inspection roles. It focuses on safety within the Air Force, covering areas like flight, ground, and weapons safety.

AMOC Block 6 Test - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (602a) Which of the following is not part of the specialist section?

    • Avionics

    • Propulsion

    • Hydraulics

    • Support Section/

    • Electro/Environmental

    Correct Answer
    A. Support Section/
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Support Section/. The other options, Avionics, Propulsion, Hydraulics, and Electro/Environmental, are all part of the specialist section. The Support Section, on the other hand, is not considered part of the specialist section.

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  • 3. 

    (602c) What brevity code used by aircrew means no new/additional discrepancies?

    • Code 1

    • Code 2

    • Code 3

    • Code 0

    Correct Answer
    A. Code 1
    Explanation
    Code 1 is the brevity code used by aircrew to indicate that there are no new or additional discrepancies. This means that everything is operating as expected and there are no issues or problems that need to be addressed. It is a way for aircrew to communicate efficiently and quickly, allowing them to focus on other tasks without the need for lengthy explanations or discussions.

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  • 4. 

    (602c) What brevity code used by aircrew means major discrepancies?

    • Code 1

    • Code 2

    • Code 3

    • Code 0

    Correct Answer
    A. Code 3
    Explanation
    Code 3 is the brevity code used by aircrew to indicate major discrepancies. This code is used to communicate quickly and efficiently, allowing aircrew to relay important information about the aircraft's condition or any significant issues that may affect its performance. By using brevity codes like Code 3, aircrew can effectively communicate critical information without wasting time or causing confusion.

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  • 5. 

    (602c) What brevity code used by aircrew means minor discrepancies?

    • Code 1

    • Code 2

    • Code 3

    • Code 0

    Correct Answer
    A. Code 2
    Explanation
    Code 2 is the brevity code used by aircrew to indicate minor discrepancies. This code is used to communicate that there are small issues or problems that do not pose a significant threat or risk. It allows aircrew to quickly and efficiently convey this information to ground personnel or other members of their team.

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  • 6. 

    (602c) Who does maintenance communicate requirements through?

    • Command post

    • Control tower

    • Supply

    • Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)
    Explanation
    Maintenance communicates their requirements through the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC). The MOC serves as a central hub for coordinating and managing maintenance activities. It acts as a liaison between maintenance personnel and other departments, such as supply and command post, ensuring that all maintenance requirements are effectively communicated and addressed. By utilizing the MOC, maintenance can streamline their communication process and ensure that their needs are properly conveyed to the relevant parties.

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  • 7. 

    (601a) What is the main difference between a Safety Investigation Board (SIB) and an Accident Investigation Board (AIB)?

    • SIB has ''safety privilege'' and AIB does not

    • SIB can result in punitive actions and AIB cannot

    • AIB has ''safety privilege'' and SIB does not

    • There is no major difference

    Correct Answer
    A. SIB has ''safety privilege'' and AIB does not
    Explanation
    The main difference between a Safety Investigation Board (SIB) and an Accident Investigation Board (AIB) is that SIB has "safety privilege" while AIB does not. This means that SIB has the authority to withhold certain information from being used against individuals in legal or disciplinary proceedings. On the other hand, AIB does not have this privilege and all information gathered during the investigation can be used for punitive actions if necessary. Therefore, SIB investigations focus more on identifying safety issues and preventing future accidents, while AIB investigations focus on determining the cause of the accident and holding individuals accountable if necessary.

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  • 8. 

    (603b) Which type of aircraft mod has the highest priority?

    • T-2

    • Permanent

    • Permanent Safety

    • Temporary

    Correct Answer
    A. Permanent Safety
    Explanation
    Permanent Safety modifications have the highest priority because they are essential for ensuring the safety and security of the aircraft. These modifications are typically made to address critical safety issues and are considered permanent because they are necessary for the continued airworthiness of the aircraft. Temporary modifications, on the other hand, are usually made for short-term purposes and may not be as crucial for the overall safety of the aircraft. Therefore, Permanent Safety modifications take precedence over other types of aircraft mods.

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  • 9. 

    (603b) Which organization brings the customer and single manager to together to resolve deficiencies?

    • PIM

    • MOC

    • CGOC

    • PWIG

    Correct Answer
    A. PWIG
    Explanation
    PWIG stands for the Programmatic Working Group (PWIG). This organization is responsible for bringing the customer and single manager together to resolve deficiencies. They work collaboratively to identify and address any issues or shortcomings in a program or project. The PWIG ensures that the customer's needs are met and that any deficiencies are resolved in a timely and effective manner.

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  • 10. 

    (601a) Who is responsible to implement and enforce AFOSH compliance with Program at their level?

    • Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors

    • Commanders and functional managers

    • Functional commanders and supervisors

    • Commanders, functional managers, work center supervisors

    Correct Answer
    A. Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors
    Explanation
    Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors are responsible for implementing and enforcing AFOSH compliance at their respective levels. This means that all three levels of leadership have a role to play in ensuring that the AFOSH program is followed and adhered to. Commanders are responsible for overall oversight and ensuring that the program is implemented effectively. Functional managers are responsible for ensuring compliance within their specific functional areas. Supervisors are responsible for enforcing compliance within their work centers and ensuring that employees are following AFOSH guidelines.

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  • 11. 

    (601a) What are the three disciplines of weapons safety?

    • Explosives safety, Missile safety, and Nuclear sufety

    • Explosives safety, Missile safety, and Nuclear surety

    • Explosives safety, Missile surety, and Nuclear surety

    • Explosives training, Missile safety, and Nuclear surety

    Correct Answer
    A. Explosives safety, Missile safety, and Nuclear surety
    Explanation
    The three disciplines of weapons safety are explosives safety, missile safety, and nuclear surety. This means that in order to ensure the safe handling and operation of weapons, these three areas must be carefully considered and implemented. Explosives safety involves the proper storage, handling, and transportation of explosive materials. Missile safety focuses on the safe operation and maintenance of missiles and related equipment. Nuclear surety pertains to the safety and security of nuclear weapons and their associated systems. By adhering to these disciplines, the risk of accidents, mishaps, and unauthorized use of weapons can be minimized.

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  • 12. 

    (601a) The size and membership of the investigation (both SIB/AIB) depends on...

    • The category of the mishap being investigated

    • The complexity of the mishap being investigated

    • The category and complexity of the mishap being investigated

    • The category, location, and complexity of the mishap being investigated

    Correct Answer
    A. The category and complexity of the mishap being investigated
    Explanation
    The size and membership of the investigation (both SIB/AIB) depends on the category and complexity of the mishap being investigated. This means that the nature and severity of the mishap, as well as the level of difficulty in understanding and resolving it, will determine the number of people involved in the investigation and the expertise required. The category of the mishap alone may not provide enough information to determine the size and membership of the investigation, and neither would just the complexity of the mishap. Therefore, both factors need to be considered together to determine the appropriate size and membership of the investigation team.

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  • 13. 

    (601c) What act is focused on municipal waste disposal practices at sites such as dumps and landfills?

    • Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act 1980 (CERCLA)

    • Solid Waste Disposal Act 1965 (SWDA)

    • Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) 1976

    • Federal Facility Compliance Act of 1992

    Correct Answer
    A. Solid Waste Disposal Act 1965 (SWDA)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Solid Waste Disposal Act 1965 (SWDA). This act is focused on municipal waste disposal practices at sites such as dumps and landfills. It was the first federal law to address the issue of solid waste management and provided guidelines and regulations for the proper disposal of solid waste. The SWDA aimed to reduce the environmental and health risks associated with improper waste disposal and promote more sustainable waste management practices.

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  • 14. 

    (602a) Who Manages the Special Certification Roster (SCR), and Advises the squadron commander on technical matters?

    • Operations Officer/MX SUPT

    • AMU OIC

    • Flight Commander

    • Flight Chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations Officer/MX SUPT
    Explanation
    The Operations Officer/MX SUPT is responsible for managing the Special Certification Roster (SCR) and providing technical advice to the squadron commander. They oversee the certification process and ensure that all necessary qualifications and standards are met. They work closely with the squadron commander to make informed decisions regarding technical matters within the squadron.

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  • 15. 

    (602a) What two sections ensure production?

    • Pro Super and Section NCOIC

    • Flight CC and Pro Super

    • Pro Super and Expediter

    • Leadership and Supervision

    Correct Answer
    A. Pro Super and Expediter
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Pro Super and Expediter. The Pro Super is responsible for overseeing the production process and ensuring that it runs smoothly. They coordinate with different departments and make sure that all tasks are completed on time. The Expediter, on the other hand, is responsible for expediting the production process and ensuring that materials and resources are available when needed. Together, the Pro Super and Expediter work to ensure efficient production.

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  • 16. 

    (602a) Who travels w/acft & perform launch, recovery, inspection, servicing, generation, and mx and is also qualified on all critical systems? (Provides qualified mx support at austere locations)

    • DCCs

    • ADCCs

    • FCCs

    • AFCCs

    Correct Answer
    A. FCCs
    Explanation
    FCCs, or Fleet Composite Squadrons, are responsible for traveling with aircraft and performing various tasks such as launch, recovery, inspection, servicing, generation, and maintenance. They are also qualified on all critical systems, which allows them to provide qualified maintenance support even in austere locations.

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  • 17. 

    (602c) When does the supply time start?

    • When you enter the request into IMIS

    • When you bring over the beer

    • When you make a valid demand on supply and/or

    • When maintenance receives part

    Correct Answer
    A. When you make a valid demand on supply and/or
    Explanation
    The supply time starts when you make a valid demand on supply and/or when maintenance receives the part. This means that the time for supply begins when a request for the item is made or when the part is received by the maintenance department.

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  • 18. 

    (602d) Who tracks, analyze, and presents information to senior leadership on unit performance and manages MIS?

    • Plans, Scheduling and Documentation (PS&D)

    • Maintenance Management Analysis (MMA)

    • Maintenance Training

    • Programs and Resources

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Management Analysis (MMA)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Maintenance Management Analysis (MMA). MMA is responsible for tracking, analyzing, and presenting information to senior leadership on unit performance. They also manage the Management Information System (MIS) which is used to gather and organize data related to maintenance activities. MMA plays a crucial role in providing valuable insights and recommendations to improve unit performance and efficiency.

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  • 19. 

    (602d) Who is responsible for overall management and control of the training management subsystem

    • Maintenance Supply Liaison (MSL)

    • Plans, Scheduling and Documentation (PS&D)

    • Maintenance Training

    • Programs and Resources

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Training
    Explanation
    The overall management and control of the training management subsystem is the responsibility of Maintenance Training.

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  • 20. 

    (603a) An obvious defect which could have been readily detected by a technician or supervisor but it is not a specific work card item or TO step is defined as what?

    • CAT I Discrepancy

    • CAT II Discrepancy

    • Major Discrepancy

    • Minor Discrepancy

    Correct Answer
    A. CAT II Discrepancy
    Explanation
    A CAT II Discrepancy refers to an obvious defect that could have been easily detected by a technician or supervisor, but it is not specifically mentioned in the work card or technical order (TO) steps. This means that the defect is significant enough to be noticed by an experienced individual, but it does not fall under the category of a major discrepancy.

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  • 21. 

    (601a) Individuals use _____ to identify and report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk. (Used to report hazards to the safety office that cannot be eliminated)

    • AF Form 467

    • AF Form 457

    • AF Form 55

    • AF Form 5

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 457
    Explanation
    AF Form 457 is used by individuals to identify and report hazardous conditions that pose a risk to Air Force personnel or property. This form is specifically designed for reporting hazards to the safety office that cannot be eliminated.

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  • 22. 

    (601a) A unit safety representative (USR) conducts safety briefings and provides educational safety materials to personnel and they also...

    • Respond to emergencies

    • Performs spot and self-inspections

    • Correct hazards

    • Develop job safety standards

    Correct Answer
    A. Performs spot and self-inspections
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Performs spot and self-inspections. A unit safety representative (USR) is responsible for conducting safety briefings and providing educational safety materials to personnel. In addition to these tasks, they also perform spot and self-inspections. This means that they inspect the workplace or specific areas within the unit to identify any potential hazards or safety concerns. By conducting these inspections, the USR can proactively address and correct any hazards, ensuring a safe working environment for all personnel.

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  • 23. 

    (601b) What is the hazardous waste life-cycle

    • Generation, Storage, Disposal and Treatment

    • Characterization, Storage, and Disposal

    • Classification, Storage, and Disposal

    • Generation, Storage, and Disposal

    Correct Answer
    A. Generation, Storage, and Disposal
    Explanation
    The hazardous waste life-cycle consists of three main stages: generation, storage, and disposal. Generation refers to the initial creation or production of hazardous waste. Storage involves the temporary containment of the waste in appropriate containers or facilities. Finally, disposal refers to the proper and safe removal of the waste from the storage location. This life-cycle ensures that hazardous waste is handled and managed in a way that minimizes its impact on human health and the environment.

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  • 24. 

    (601c) What act allows state and federal agencies to assess DoD facilities with fines for RCRA violations? (this act gave the EPA teeth)

    • Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act 1980 (CERCLA)

    • Solid Waste Disposal Act 1965 (SWDA)

    • Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) 1976

    • Federal Facility Compliance Act of 1992

    Correct Answer
    A. Federal Facility Compliance Act of 1992
    Explanation
    The Federal Facility Compliance Act of 1992 allows state and federal agencies to assess DoD facilities with fines for RCRA violations. This act was put in place to ensure that Department of Defense (DoD) facilities comply with the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) of 1976, which regulates the management of hazardous waste. The act gave the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) the authority to enforce RCRA regulations and impose penalties on non-compliant DoD facilities.

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  • 25. 

    (601d) What provides a standard way to manage HAZMAT procurement and use?

    • HAZMAT tracking activities (HTA)

    • Track HAZMAT Data (THA)

    • ESOHCAMP

    • Waste Minimization

    Correct Answer
    A. HAZMAT tracking activities (HTA)
    Explanation
    HAZMAT tracking activities (HTA) provide a standard way to manage HAZMAT procurement and use. This means that HTA is a system or process that allows for the tracking and management of hazardous materials, ensuring that they are procured and used in a safe and compliant manner. It helps in keeping a record of HAZMAT data, monitoring its usage, and ensuring waste minimization. ESOHCAMP and Track HAZMAT Data (THA) are not mentioned as providing a standard way to manage HAZMAT procurement and use, so they are not the correct answers.

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  • 26. 

    (602c) When does supply time stop?

    • When you turn in the old part

    • Once you close out the form with a signature

    • When you make a valid demand on supply and/or

    • When maintenance receives part

    Correct Answer
    A. When maintenance receives part
    Explanation
    Supply time stops when maintenance receives the part because at that point, the supply has been successfully delivered and is in the hands of the maintenance team. This means that the supply process is complete and the supply time can be considered to have ended.

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  • 27. 

    (603a) What is NOT a reason for impoundment?

    • Uncommanded flight control movement

    • In flight fire

    • Inadvertent ordinance release

    • FOD damage

    Correct Answer
    A. FOD damage
    Explanation
    FOD damage refers to Foreign Object Debris damage, which occurs when foreign objects such as rocks, tools, or other debris are ingested by an aircraft's engines or cause damage to its structure. This can lead to engine failure or structural damage, posing a risk to the safety of the aircraft and its occupants. Therefore, FOD damage is a valid reason for impoundment, as it ensures that the aircraft is thoroughly inspected and repaired before being allowed to fly again.

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  • 28. 

    (601a) Where is work center specific Job Safety Training Outline (JSTO) (aka safety training) documented at?

    • AF Form 357

    • AF Form 457

    • AF Form 5

    • AF Form 55

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 55
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 55. The AF Form 55 is where the work center specific Job Safety Training Outline (JSTO), also known as safety training, is documented. This form is used to track and document safety training for individuals within the Air Force. It includes information such as the date of training, the topics covered, and the individuals who received the training. By documenting this information on AF Form 55, the Air Force ensures that all personnel are properly trained in safety procedures and protocols.

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  • 29. 

    (601c) Initial accumulation points are limited to _______of hazardous waste or ______of acute hazardous waste.

    • 55 gallons, 1 pint

    • 55 gallons, 5 quarts

    • 55 quarts, 1 gallon

    • 55 gallons, 1 quart

    Correct Answer
    A. 55 gallons, 1 quart
    Explanation
    The initial accumulation points for hazardous waste are limited to 55 gallons and 1 quart. This means that a maximum of 55 gallons of hazardous waste can be accumulated, along with an additional 1 quart. This restriction helps to ensure that hazardous waste is properly managed and stored to prevent any potential risks or hazards.

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  • 30. 

    (601c) Accumulation Site is a Centralized location where wastes from several generating activities are placed for up to_____days for large quantity generators, ______days for small quantity generators

    • 90, 180/270

    • 180, 90/270

    • 270, 90/180

    • 90, 180/365

    Correct Answer
    A. 90, 180/270
    Explanation
    An accumulation site is a centralized location where wastes from several generating activities are placed for a certain period of time. For large quantity generators, the wastes can be stored at the accumulation site for up to 90 days. On the other hand, small quantity generators can store their wastes for up to 180 days. This ensures that there is sufficient time for proper management and disposal of the accumulated waste. The answer choice that correctly represents these time periods is 90, 180/270.

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  • 31. 

    (601d) Unit Commanders are responsible for tracking and closing Tier___ and Tier___ assessment findings.

    • 2, 4

    • 1, 3

    • 1, 2

    • 2, 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2, 3
    Explanation
    Unit Commanders are responsible for tracking and closing Tier 2 and Tier 3 assessment findings. This means that they are accountable for monitoring and resolving any issues or deficiencies identified during the assessment process at these two levels. By doing so, Unit Commanders ensure that their units are in compliance with the required standards and regulations, and that any identified risks or vulnerabilities are addressed promptly.

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  • 32. 

    (601e) Document supervisor, worker initial, and supplemental HAZCOM training on the AF Form _____ .

    • 55

    • 5

    • 457

    • 957

    Correct Answer
    A. 55
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 55 because AF Form 55 is used to document supervisor, worker initial, and supplemental HAZCOM training. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and ensures that all necessary information regarding the training is recorded and documented properly.

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  • 33. 

    (602d) Who manages manning, facilities, support agreements, and deployment functions for MXG and is the resource Advisor to MXG/CC? 

    • Plans, Scheduling and Documentation (PS&D)

    • Maintenance Management Analysis (MMA)

    • Programs and Resources

    • Maintenance Training

    Correct Answer
    A. Programs and Resources
    Explanation
    Programs and Resources manages manning, facilities, support agreements, and deployment functions for MXG and serves as the resource Advisor to MXG/CC.

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  • 34. 

    (603a) What TO is used for Weight and Balance?

    • TO 1-1B-50

    • Aircraft -05 Series

    • AFI 21-103

    • Aircraft -6 series

    Correct Answer
    A. TO 1-1B-50
    Explanation
    TO 1-1B-50 is the correct answer for the question. This document provides the necessary information and guidelines for conducting weight and balance operations for aircraft. It outlines the procedures for calculating the weight and balance of the aircraft, including the distribution of weight and the limits that should be adhered to. This document is an important reference for ensuring the safety and proper functioning of the aircraft during flight.

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  • 35. 

    (603b) Who establishes a system to track errors made in the MIS by work center and squadron?

    • QA

    • MMA

    • DIT

    • AMU OIC

    Correct Answer
    A. DIT
    Explanation
    The DIT (Data Integrity Team) establishes a system to track errors made in the Management Information System (MIS) by work center and squadron. This team is responsible for ensuring the accuracy and integrity of data entered into the system, and they track and monitor any errors or discrepancies that occur. They work closely with the work center and squadron personnel to identify and resolve any issues, and they play a crucial role in maintaining the quality and reliability of the MIS.

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  • 36. 

    (602a) What section has DCCs and FCCs?

    • Aircraft

    • Specialist

    • Weapons

    • Support

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft
    Explanation
    The section that has DCCs (Direct Current Converters) and FCCs (Frequency Converters) is the Aircraft section. These devices are commonly used in aircrafts to convert electrical power from one form to another, ensuring that the different electrical systems on board receive the appropriate voltage and frequency. The Aircraft section is responsible for maintaining and repairing these components to ensure the proper functioning of the aircraft's electrical systems.

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  • 37. 

    (602a) Who manages and supervises all mx on their aircraft?

    • DCCs

    • ADCCs

    • FCCs

    • Lead Technicians

    Correct Answer
    A. DCCs
    Explanation
    DCCs, or Dedicated Crew Chiefs, are responsible for managing and supervising all maintenance activities on their assigned aircraft. They ensure that all maintenance tasks are completed correctly and on time, and they coordinate with other maintenance personnel to ensure the aircraft is in optimal condition. DCCs have extensive knowledge and experience with the specific aircraft they are assigned to, and they play a crucial role in ensuring the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft.

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  • 38. 

    (602a) What two sections fall under Weapons?

    • Loading and Building

    • Arming and Maintenance

    • Maintenance and Ammo

    • Loading and Maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. Loading and Maintenance
    Explanation
    The two sections that fall under Weapons are Loading and Maintenance. Loading refers to the process of preparing and loading ammunition into the weapon, while Maintenance involves the regular care and upkeep of the weapon to ensure its proper functioning. These two sections are essential in the overall operation and effectiveness of weapons.

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  • 39. 

    (602b) What section under airfield operations flight controls all airspace at or near the base flying activity?

    • Central tower

    • Airport tower

    • Airfield tower

    • Control tower

    Correct Answer
    A. Control tower
    Explanation
    The control tower is responsible for managing and controlling all airspace at or near the base flying activity. It is the central hub for airfield operations and ensures the safe and efficient movement of aircraft in and around the base. The control tower coordinates with pilots, air traffic controllers, and other personnel to ensure that all aircraft movements are conducted in accordance with established procedures and regulations.

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  • 40. 

    (602c) What are the main status codes for aircraft logistics status reporting?

    • FMC, PMC, & NMC

    • NMCM, NMCS, & MNCB

    • PMCM, PMCS, & PMCB

    • FMC, PMC, & MNC

    Correct Answer
    A. FMC, PMC, & NMC
    Explanation
    The main status codes for aircraft logistics status reporting are FMC, PMC, and NMC. These codes represent different statuses of the aircraft. FMC stands for Fully Mission Capable, indicating that the aircraft is fully operational and ready for its intended mission. PMC stands for Partially Mission Capable, indicating that the aircraft is partially operational and may have some limitations or restrictions. NMC stands for Not Mission Capable, indicating that the aircraft is not operational and requires maintenance or repairs before it can be used for its intended mission.

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  • 41. 

    (603a) Hot Refuel/Defuel Program fueling is done with then engines running.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Hot Refuel/Defuel Program refers to a fueling process where the aircraft's engines are kept running during the refueling or defueling process. This allows for a quicker turnaround time as the aircraft does not need to be shut down and restarted. It is a common practice in military aviation to minimize downtime and maximize operational efficiency. Therefore, the correct answer is True.

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  • 42. 

    (601c) What is the primary regulation guiding Air Force hazardous waste management practices?

    • Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act 1980 (CERCLA)

    • Solid Waste Disposal Act 1965 (SWDA)

    • Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) 1976

    • Federal Facility Compliance Act of 1992

    Correct Answer
    A. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) 1976
    Explanation
    The primary regulation guiding Air Force hazardous waste management practices is the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) 1976. This act was enacted to ensure the safe management and disposal of hazardous waste, including hazardous waste generated by the Air Force. It establishes a framework for the proper handling, storage, treatment, and disposal of hazardous waste, as well as requirements for monitoring and reporting. The RCRA also provides guidelines for the cleanup of hazardous waste sites and the enforcement of regulations.

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  • 43. 

    (602b) The weather flight provides weather services for all operations on base? 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement "The weather flight provides weather services for all operations on base" is true. This means that the weather flight is responsible for providing weather-related information and services to support all operations taking place on the base. This could include providing forecasts, monitoring weather conditions, issuing warnings, and ensuring that personnel have access to accurate and up-to-date weather information to make informed decisions.

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  • 44. 

    (602c) If aircraft status changes, a(n) ________ _________ will be re-accomplished.

    • Flight pre-check

    • -6 inspection

    • Final release (FR)

    • Exceptional release (ER)

    Correct Answer
    A. Exceptional release (ER)
    Explanation
    If the aircraft status changes, an exceptional release (ER) will be re-accomplished. This means that if there are any changes or issues with the aircraft that could affect its safety or performance, an exceptional release will be required before the aircraft can be cleared for flight. This ensures that any necessary repairs or adjustments have been made and that the aircraft is safe to fly.

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  • 45. 

    (601a) What are the three main safety disciplines?

    • Flight Safety (SEF), Ground Safety (SEG), and Weapons Surity (SEW)

    • Flight Safety (SEF), Ground Safety (SEG), and Explosive Safety (SEW)

    • Flight Safety (SEF), Ground Safety (SEG), and Weapons Safety (SEW)

    • Flight Safety (SEF), Maintenance Safety (SEG), and Weapons Safety (SEW)

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight Safety (SEF), Ground Safety (SEG), and Weapons Safety (SEW)
    Explanation
    The three main safety disciplines are Flight Safety (SEF), Ground Safety (SEG), and Weapons Safety (SEW). These disciplines cover different aspects of safety within the aviation industry. Flight Safety focuses on ensuring safe operations during flight, Ground Safety focuses on safety on the ground, and Weapons Safety focuses on the safe handling and storage of weapons. This combination of disciplines ensures comprehensive safety measures are in place to protect personnel, equipment, and the public.

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  • 46. 

    (601b) What part of the Hazardous waste life-cycle is the hazard characterized?

    • Treatment

    • Generation

    • Disposal

    • Storage

    Correct Answer
    A. Generation
    Explanation
    The hazard of hazardous waste is characterized during the generation phase of its life cycle. This is the stage where the waste is initially created or produced. It involves activities such as manufacturing, industrial processes, or any other activities that result in the creation of hazardous waste. During this phase, the nature and extent of the hazard are assessed, including its potential impact on human health and the environment. It is important to properly manage and handle hazardous waste during the generation phase to minimize the risks associated with its handling, transportation, and disposal.

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  • 47. 

    (601c) Federal regulations can be more stringent than the state regulations? (in regards to EPA)

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Federal regulations can be more stringent than state regulations. The EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) is a federal agency that sets and enforces environmental regulations across the United States. These federal regulations often set a minimum standard that all states must meet, but individual states are allowed to have more stringent regulations if they choose to do so. Therefore, it is possible for state regulations to be more stringent than federal regulations in some cases.

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  • 48. 

    (602a) How often is the SCR reviewed/signed?

    • Biennially

    • Annually

    • Semi-annually

    • Quarterly

    Correct Answer
    A. Semi-annually
    Explanation
    The SCR, which stands for System Change Request, is reviewed and signed semi-annually. This means that the review and signing process for the SCR occurs twice a year.

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  • 49. 

    (602a) Who ensures all in flight malfunctions are documented in aircraft forms and MIS?

    • Expediters

    • Pro Supers

    • Aircrew and Maintenance Debriefing Section

    • Aircraft Section

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircrew and Maintenance Debriefing Section
    Explanation
    The Aircrew and Maintenance Debriefing Section is responsible for ensuring that all in-flight malfunctions are documented in aircraft forms and Management Information System (MIS). This section is responsible for collecting information from both the aircrew and maintenance personnel, debriefing them about any malfunctions or issues encountered during the flight, and documenting these in the appropriate forms and systems. This helps in maintaining a record of all malfunctions and allows for analysis and further action if necessary.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 13, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Mark Creel

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