2a653 CDC Vol 1 Review

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  • 1/70 Questions

    The final responsibility for your personal safety rests with

    • You
    • Your supervisor
    • Wing safety office
    • Squadron commander
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About This Quiz

The '2A653 CDC Vol 1 Review' assesses knowledge on AFOSH program responsibilities, safety standards, and hazard communication. It ensures understanding of personal safety responsibilities and procedures for reporting job hazards. Essential for professionals in safety compliance roles.

2a653 CDC Vol 1 Review - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The greatest safety hazard in an aircraft cockpit comes from the

    • Flight controls

    • Instrument panel

    • Canopy actuator

    • Canopy and seat ejection systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Canopy and seat ejection systems
    Explanation
    The greatest safety hazard in an aircraft cockpit comes from the canopy and seat ejection systems. These systems are designed to quickly eject the pilot and canopy in case of an emergency. However, if not properly maintained or operated, they can malfunction and cause serious injuries or fatalities. The explosive force used to eject the pilot can be dangerous if not controlled properly. Additionally, the canopy itself can pose a hazard if it shatters or breaks during ejection, potentially causing debris to strike the pilot or other critical aircraft components. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure the proper functioning and maintenance of the canopy and seat ejection systems to minimize the safety risks in the cockpit.

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  • 3. 

    What does the fire-fighting acronym PASS stand for?

    • Press the leer, Aim the nazzle, Sweep back and forth, Shout a warning.

    • Pull the pin, Aim the nozzle, sweep back and forth, Squeeze the handle.

    • Pull the pin, Aim the nozzle, squeeze the handle, Sweep back and forth.

    • Press the lever, Aim the nozzle, Swueeze the handle, Shout a warning.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pull the pin, Aim the nozzle, squeeze the handle, Sweep back and forth.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Pull the pin, Aim the nozzle, squeeze the handle, Sweep back and forth." This acronym, PASS, is commonly used in fire-fighting to remember the steps to operate a fire extinguisher. Pulling the pin is the first step to unlock the extinguisher, aiming the nozzle directs the extinguishing agent towards the fire, squeezing the handle releases the agent, and sweeping back and forth helps to cover the fire area effectively.

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  • 4. 

    What effect will radio-frequency radiation have on you if you enter the radiation path of an aircraft radar antenna?

    • Severe dehydration.

    • Internal Tissue damage.

    • Loss of muscle control

    • Blisters on external tissues.

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal Tissue damage.
    Explanation
    If you enter the radiation path of an aircraft radar antenna, radio-frequency radiation can cause internal tissue damage. Radio-frequency radiation is a form of electromagnetic radiation that can penetrate the body and interact with tissues, potentially causing harm. This can result in damage to internal organs and tissues, leading to various health problems. It is important to avoid exposure to such radiation to prevent potential harm to the body.

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  • 5. 

    Serviceable and unserviceable explosive item must be

    • Integrated.

    • Segregated

    • Stored in an approved shipping container

    • Turned in to the munitions storage of explosives as soon as possible.

    Correct Answer
    A. Segregated
    Explanation
    Serviceable and unserviceable explosive items must be segregated. This means that they should be kept separate from each other to prevent any accidental mixing or potential dangers. Segregation ensures that there is no risk of contamination or accidental detonation. By keeping these items apart, it allows for easier identification, handling, and disposal of both serviceable and unserviceable explosives.

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  • 6. 

    Which statement is not consistent with good fire prevention proactices?

    • Empty dirty rag conainers daily.

    • Always observe NO SMOKING rules.

    • Ensure the aircraft is properly grounded prior to maintenance.

    • Air dry oil-saturated clothing before returning to your mainteance task.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air dry oil-saturated clothing before returning to your mainteance task.
    Explanation
    The statement "Air dry oil-saturated clothing before returning to your maintenance task" is not consistent with good fire prevention practices. Oil-saturated clothing can easily catch fire, especially if it is not properly cleaned or dried. It is important to properly dispose of or clean oil-saturated clothing to minimize the risk of fire.

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  • 7. 

    The entry "Hot" or "Cold" on an aircraft's forms pertains to the

    • Fuel system

    • Egress system

    • Weapons system

    • Water injection system

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons system
    Explanation
    The entry "Hot" or "Cold" on an aircraft's forms pertains to the weapons system. This is because when an aircraft is armed and ready to use its weapons, it is considered "Hot." On the other hand, when the weapons are not armed and cannot be used, the aircraft is considered "Cold." This distinction is important for maintenance and operational purposes, as it helps communicate the status of the weapons system to ground crew and other personnel involved in aircraft operations.

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  • 8. 

    What does a flashing red light from the control tower indicate?

    • General warning

    • Stop where you are

    • Return to starting point.

    • Clear active runway immediately.

    Correct Answer
    A. Clear active runway immediately.
    Explanation
    A flashing red light from the control tower indicates that the active runway should be cleared immediately. This is a signal for all aircraft on the runway to vacate it as quickly as possible to ensure the safety of incoming or departing aircraft. It is crucial to follow this instruction to prevent any potential collisions or accidents on the runway.

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  • 9. 

    At least how many people are required when using the deman-respnse method.

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Two
    Explanation
    The demand-response method requires at least two people. This method involves one person making a demand or request, and another person responding to that demand. Without both a demand and a response, the method cannot be implemented effectively. Therefore, a minimum of two people is required for the demand-response method to work.

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  • 10. 

    Which situation would require you to use an operation and maintenance technical order?

    • Evaluation explosive storage procedures.

    • Researching explosive safety procedures.

    • Performing aircraft maintenance

    • Determining quantity/distance

    Correct Answer
    A. Performing aircraft maintenance
    Explanation
    Performing aircraft maintenance would require the use of an operation and maintenance technical order. This is because technical orders provide detailed instructions and guidance on how to perform specific maintenance tasks on aircraft. These orders ensure that maintenance procedures are carried out correctly and safely, helping to maintain the operational readiness and safety of the aircraft.

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  • 11. 

    What is the most common protective device used to guard against hearing loss?

    • Cotton

    • Ear clip

    • Earplugs.

    • Ear muffs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Earplugs.
    Explanation
    Earplugs are the most common protective device used to guard against hearing loss. They are small, soft inserts that are inserted into the ear canal to block out noise. Earplugs are effective in reducing the intensity of sound and protecting the ears from loud noises that can cause damage to the hearing. They are commonly used in various environments such as construction sites, concerts, and industrial settings to prevent noise-induced hearing loss.

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  • 12. 

    The maximum speed limit on the flight line is

    • 5 mph

    • 10 mph

    • 15 mph

    • 20 mph

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 mph
    Explanation
    The maximum speed limit on the flight line is 15 mph. This speed limit is likely set to ensure the safety of personnel and aircraft on the flight line. A speed of 15 mph allows for efficient movement while still maintaining control and awareness of surroundings. Going faster than this speed could increase the risk of accidents or collisions, especially in busy areas where there may be a lot of activity. Therefore, it is important to adhere to this speed limit to prioritize safety.

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  • 13. 

    When you are driving within 25 feet of an aircraft, you should

    • Maintain your speed

    • Reduce you soeed to 5 mph

    • Reduce you speed to 10 mph

    • Increase your speed to 20 mph

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce you soeed to 5 mph
    Explanation
    When driving within 25 feet of an aircraft, it is important to reduce your speed to 5 mph. This is necessary to ensure the safety of both the driver and the aircraft. By reducing the speed, you have more control over your vehicle and can react quickly to any unexpected situations that may arise. It also allows the aircraft to maneuver safely without any interference from your vehicle.

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  • 14. 

    Supervisors make sure fire extinguishers are inspected how often?

    • Weekly

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    Supervisors ensure that fire extinguishers are inspected on a monthly basis. This regular inspection frequency allows for any potential issues or malfunctions to be identified and addressed promptly. By inspecting fire extinguishers monthly, supervisors can ensure that the extinguishers are in proper working condition and ready to be used in case of a fire emergency. This regular maintenance and inspection schedule helps to maintain the safety and effectiveness of fire extinguishers in the workplace.

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  • 15. 

    The second part of a technical order Buumber identifies the

    • Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO

    • Types of instructions in the TO

    • Category number of the TO

    • Sectionalization of the TO

    Correct Answer
    A. Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "model and series of the equipment covered by the TO." The second part of a technical order Buumber is used to identify the specific model and series of the equipment that is covered by the TO. This helps to ensure that the instructions and information provided in the TO are applicable to the specific equipment being used.

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  • 16. 

    Responsibility for initiating a Technical Order System Publication Improvenment Report and Reply rests with the

    • MajCom improvement report monitor.

    • Person who discovers the deficiency.

    • Quality control officer

    • Shop supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Person who discovers the deficiency.
    Explanation
    The responsibility for initiating a Technical Order System Publication Improvement Report and Reply rests with the person who discovers the deficiency. This individual is in the best position to identify and report any issues or areas for improvement within the Technical Order System Publication. By involving the person who discovers the deficiency, the system ensures that problems are promptly addressed and necessary improvements are made to enhance the overall quality and effectiveness of the publication.

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  • 17. 

    What unique feature does the B-1B aircraft incorporate that could sever a human body?

    • Variable wing.

    • Rocket catapult

    • Jettisoning panels.

    • State-of-the-art drogue parachute.

    Correct Answer
    A. Variable wing.
    Explanation
    The B-1B aircraft incorporates a unique feature called a variable wing, which allows it to change the shape and angle of its wings during flight. This feature could potentially sever a human body if someone were to come into contact with the moving parts of the wing while it is in motion.

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  • 18. 

    What class of fire extinguisher must be used to fight a fire fueled by wood, paper, or cloth

    • A

    • B

    • D

    • K

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    Class A fire extinguishers are specifically designed to fight fires fueled by wood, paper, or cloth. These extinguishers contain water or foam as their extinguishing agent, which helps to cool down the fire and remove the heat source. Water or foam extinguishers are effective in extinguishing Class A fires by reducing the temperature and smothering the flames. Therefore, Class A fire extinguishers are the appropriate choice for fighting fires fueled by wood, paper, or cloth.

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  • 19. 

    Government cegicles that are used to transport explosives must be inspected daily to

    • Ensure they have been inventoried

    • Removed any foreign objects from them

    • Make sure they have not been tampered with.

    • Ensure the fuel tanks and feed lines are secure and not leaking.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure the fuel tanks and feed lines are secure and not leaking.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to ensure the fuel tanks and feed lines are secure and not leaking. This is important because any leakage or insecurity in the fuel tanks and feed lines can lead to accidents or explosions during transportation. Regular inspection is necessary to identify and fix any issues to ensure the safe transportation of explosives.

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  • 20. 

    The plane of rotation danger area of an aircraft engine or turvine power unit is marked by

    • A painted RED stripe

    • A painted YELLOW stripe

    • The words "STAND CLEAR" painted in RED

    • The words "STAND CLEAR" painted in YELLOW

    Correct Answer
    A. A painted RED stripe
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a painted RED stripe. This is because a red stripe is commonly used to indicate danger or cautionary areas in aviation. By marking the plane of rotation danger area with a red stripe, it serves as a visual warning to individuals to stay clear of the rotating parts of the engine or turbine power unit to prevent accidents or injuries.

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  • 21. 

    What symbol is place on the aircraft forms when an immediate action time compliance technical order (TCTO) is received?

    • Red X

    • Circled Red X

    • Red Diagonal

    • Red last name initial

    Correct Answer
    A. Red X
    Explanation
    When an immediate action time compliance technical order (TCTO) is received, the symbol that is placed on the aircraft forms is a Red X. This symbol indicates that the aircraft is not airworthy and requires immediate attention or repair. The Red X serves as a visual indicator to alert maintenance personnel that the aircraft cannot be flown until the necessary corrective actions have been taken.

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  • 22. 

    To report a job hazard, you would use the Air Force Form

    • 9

    • 349

    • 350

    • 457

    Correct Answer
    A. 457
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 457 because Air Force Form 457 is specifically designed for reporting job hazards. This form allows individuals to document and report any potential hazards or safety concerns they have identified in their workplace. By using this form, the Air Force can effectively track and address these hazards to ensure the safety and well-being of its personnel. The other options (9, 349, 350) are not relevant forms for reporting job hazards in the Air Force.

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  • 23. 

    When Air Education and Training Command (AETC) has no traing capability for a specific aircraft egress system, who should conduct the training?

    • Depot-level personnel.

    • Quality assurance personnel.

    • The most qualified personnel.

    • The egress element supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. The most qualified personnel.
    Explanation
    When Air Education and Training Command (AETC) does not have the training capability for a specific aircraft egress system, the training should be conducted by the most qualified personnel. These individuals are likely to have the necessary expertise and knowledge to effectively train others on the specific egress system. This ensures that the training is conducted by individuals who are well-versed in the subject matter and can provide comprehensive instruction to enhance safety and proficiency in handling the aircraft egress system.

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  • 24. 

    What is the minimum permissible distance you can drive a vehicle toward an aircraft that has its engines running?

    • 25 feet front, 200 feet rear

    • 50 feet front, 200 feet rear.

    • 100 feet front, 100 feet rear.

    • 200 feet front, 100 feet rear.

    Correct Answer
    A. 25 feet front, 200 feet rear
    Explanation
    When an aircraft has its engines running, it creates strong gusts of wind that can pose a danger to nearby vehicles. Therefore, it is important to maintain a safe distance. The correct answer states that the minimum permissible distance to drive a vehicle toward an aircraft with running engines is 25 feet in the front and 200 feet in the rear. This ensures that the vehicle is at a safe distance from the aircraft and reduces the risk of being affected by the wind generated by the engines.

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  • 25. 

    Wich nuclear mishap could create a risk of war?

    • Nucflash

    • Bent Spear.

    • Empty Quiver

    • Broken Arrow

    Correct Answer
    A. Nucflash
    Explanation
    A "Nucflash" refers to a nuclear detonation that is detected by early warning systems, but the cause of the detonation is unknown. This type of nuclear mishap could create a risk of war because it could be interpreted as a deliberate attack by another country, leading to a potential escalation of military actions and retaliation. The uncertainty surrounding the cause of the detonation could also lead to heightened tensions and mistrust between nations, increasing the likelihood of a conflict.

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  • 26. 

    One of the main advantages of using abbreviated TO is that they 

    • Paraphrase and eliminate the need for basic TOs

    • Cover safety in more detail

    • Serve as supplemental material

    • Simplify work

    Correct Answer
    A. Simplify work
    Explanation
    Abbreviated TOs simplify work by providing concise and condensed instructions, allowing for quicker and more efficient completion of tasks. They eliminate the need for basic TOs by summarizing the essential steps, reducing the time and effort required to understand and follow instructions. This advantage is particularly beneficial in fast-paced and time-sensitive work environments where simplicity and speed are crucial.

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  • 27. 

    Which is not a power-actuated surface?

    • Speed brake

    • Egress hatch.

    • Weapon bay door

    • Flight control surface.

    Correct Answer
    A. Egress hatch.
    Explanation
    The egress hatch is not a power-actuated surface. Power-actuated surfaces are controlled by hydraulic or electric systems to move and adjust their position. Speed brakes, weapon bay doors, and flight control surfaces are all examples of power-actuated surfaces as they can be operated and controlled using power systems. However, an egress hatch is a manually operated surface used for emergency exits and does not require any power system for its operation.

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  • 28. 

    When may an explosives-laden vehicle be loaded and un-loaded while the engine is running?

    • Never.

    • If it has been chocked and is on level pavement.

    • Only when the vehicle has spark arrestors installed on it.

    • When the engine is required to provide power for support equipment used to load/unload explosives.

    Correct Answer
    A. When the engine is required to provide power for support equipment used to load/unload explosives.
    Explanation
    An explosives-laden vehicle may be loaded and unloaded while the engine is running when the engine is required to provide power for support equipment used in the loading and unloading process. This is because the support equipment may require the engine's power to operate effectively. However, it is important to ensure that all necessary safety precautions are taken to minimize the risk of accidents or explosions.

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  • 29. 

    Which hazard class/division of in-use egress explsives may be held i a limited quantity in the shop storage area when removed from aircraft undergoing maintenance?

    • 1.1

    • 1.3

    • 1.4

    • Any class/division.

    Correct Answer
    A. Any class/division.
    Explanation
    Any class/division of in-use egress explosives may be held in a limited quantity in the shop storage area when removed from aircraft undergoing maintenance. This means that regardless of the hazard class/division, as long as the explosives are in-use egress explosives and are being removed from aircraft undergoing maintenance, they can be stored in the shop storage area in a limited quantity.

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  • 30. 

    Within the egress maintenance work area, which limitaions apply to the number of seats and spare components undergoing maintenance at any one time?

    • Q-D (quantity/distance).

    • NEW (net explosive weight).

    • Time.

    • Personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. NEW (net explosive weight).
    Explanation
    Within the egress maintenance work area, the limitation that applies to the number of seats and spare components undergoing maintenance at any one time is the net explosive weight (NEW). This means that there are restrictions on the amount of explosive material that can be present in the maintenance area at a given time. This limitation is in place to ensure the safety of personnel and prevent any accidents or explosions from occurring.

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  • 31. 

    To be acceptable for the storage of explosives, a proposed facility must

    • Gave at least two exits.

    • Be protected from moisture and high temperatures.

    • Be protected from dry, cool temperatures

    • Contain a minimum of three fire extinguishers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Be protected from moisture and high temperatures.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "be protected from moisture and high temperatures." This is because explosives are highly sensitive to moisture and high temperatures, which can cause them to become unstable and potentially explode. Therefore, a proposed facility for storing explosives must have measures in place to prevent moisture from entering and to regulate the temperature to ensure it does not reach dangerous levels.

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  • 32. 

    To recommend correction of a technical order deficiency, you would submit and Air Force Technical Order IMT Form

    • 1000

    • 601A

    • 95

    • 22

    Correct Answer
    A. 22
    Explanation
    To recommend correction of a technical order deficiency, you would submit an Air Force Technical Order IMT Form 22.

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  • 33. 

    Each Time you are assigned to a new egress system, you are required to learn the new system by attending.

    • A proficiency course.

    • A special training course.

    • An on-the-job (OJT) course.

    • An Air Education and Training Command (AETC) approved Egress Journeyman Course.

    Correct Answer
    A. An Air Education and Training Command (AETC) approved Egress Journeyman Course.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is an Air Education and Training Command (AETC) approved Egress Journeyman Course. This is because the statement mentions that each time you are assigned to a new egress system, you are required to learn the new system. Attending an AETC approved Egress Journeyman Course would provide the necessary training and knowledge to learn the new system effectively. The other options - a proficiency course, a special training course, and an on-the-job (OJT) course - do not specifically mention being approved by AETC or being focused on egress systems.

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  • 34. 

    The key to preventing mishaps is

    • Proper egress maintenance training.

    • Continual mishap preventing education

    • To eliminate one unsage act to prevent the chain of events

    • To eliminate or control hazards or deficiencies before injuries or damage.

    Correct Answer
    A. To eliminate or control hazards or deficiencies before injuries or damage.
    Explanation
    This answer is the most comprehensive and accurate explanation for preventing mishaps. By eliminating or controlling hazards or deficiencies before they cause injuries or damage, one can effectively prevent mishaps from occurring. This approach focuses on proactive measures to identify and address potential risks, ensuring a safer environment and minimizing the likelihood of accidents or incidents. It emphasizes the importance of risk management and maintaining a safe and hazard-free environment to prevent mishaps.

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  • 35. 

    What kind of driver's license does an Air Force cibilian driver neeed in order to transport explosives off a military installation?

    • Military license

    • Commercial license

    • Military license with the base commander's endorsement.

    • Commercial license with a hazardous materials' endorsement.

    Correct Answer
    A. Commercial license with a hazardous materials' endorsement.
    Explanation
    An Air Force civilian driver needs a commercial license with a hazardous materials' endorsement in order to transport explosives off a military installation. This is because transporting hazardous materials, such as explosives, requires special training and certification to ensure safety and compliance with regulations. A commercial license with a hazardous materials' endorsement indicates that the driver has completed the necessary training and is qualified to transport such materials.

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  • 36. 

    Which publication contains the four nuclear safety standards that govern the Nuclear Surety Program?

    • AFI 91-101, Air Force Nuclear Weapons Surety Program.

    • Department of Defense Directive 5210.41 Securty Policy for Protecting Nuclear Weapons.

    • DOD Directive 3150.2 Safety Studies and Reviews of Nuclear Weapon Systems.

    • AFI 91-104, Nuclear Surety Tamper Control and Detection Program

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 91-101, Air Force Nuclear Weapons Surety Program.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 91-101, Air Force Nuclear Weapons Surety Program. This publication contains the four nuclear safety standards that govern the Nuclear Surety Program. It is specifically focused on the Air Force's nuclear weapons surety program and provides guidance on the policies and procedures to ensure the safe and secure handling of nuclear weapons. This publication is an essential resource for maintaining the highest level of safety and security in the Air Force's nuclear operations.

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  • 37. 

    Procedres for the documentation of maintenance forms are sovered in the TO

    • 00-5-18

    • 00-20-1

    • 00-25-1

    • 00-35D-54

    Correct Answer
    A. 00-20-1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 00-20-1. This is because the question asks for the procedures for the documentation of maintenance forms, and the TO (Technical Order) 00-20-1 specifically covers this topic. The other options do not pertain to the documentation of maintenance forms.

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  • 38. 

    Personnel in the applicable office must respond to your appeal of an unstisfactory response

    • 5 days

    • 10 days

    • 20 days

    • 30 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 days
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10 days because personnel in the applicable office are required to respond to the appeal within this time frame. This suggests that there is a specific deadline for addressing appeals and ensuring that a timely response is provided to the person making the appeal. Choosing any of the other options would imply a longer or shorter response time, which would not align with the given information.

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  • 39. 

    A person who has control or use of wepon authentication systems, but not necessarily technical knowledge knowledge of the weapon, is said to have what type of position under the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)

    • Access

    • Critical

    • Command

    • Controlled

    Correct Answer
    A. Controlled
    Explanation
    In the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP), a person who has control or use of weapon authentication systems, regardless of their technical knowledge of the weapon, is referred to as having a "Controlled" position. This means that they have the authority and responsibility to manage and operate the weapon authentication systems, ensuring that only authorized personnel have access to the weapon. Their role is crucial in maintaining the security and reliability of the weapons under the PRP.

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  • 40. 

    As an egress journeyman, you're required to have weapons safty training

    • Annually.

    • Prior to porming explusive-related tasks.

    • Prior to performing explosive-related tasks and then annually.

    • Prior to performing explosive-related tasks and then semiannually

    Correct Answer
    A. Prior to performing explosive-related tasks and then annually.
    Explanation
    As an egress journeyman, it is necessary to undergo weapons safety training before carrying out explosive-related tasks. This training is required initially and then on an annual basis to ensure that the individual is up to date with the safety protocols and procedures associated with handling explosives.

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  • 41. 

    You are performing a periodic inspection of an explosive operation. To do this properly, yuo would

    • Not limit your inspection to one area

    • Use scecklists that focus strictly on explosive operations.

    • Time the ispection to coincide with the wing safety inspection

    • Request assistance from someone outside of your area for a more honest evaluation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Not limit your inspection to one area
    Explanation
    To perform a periodic inspection of an explosive operation properly, it is important not to limit the inspection to one area. This is because explosive operations involve various components and processes that need to be thoroughly examined for safety and compliance. By inspecting multiple areas, one can identify potential hazards, ensure proper handling and storage of explosives, check equipment and machinery, and assess the overall safety measures in place. Limiting the inspection to one area may overlook critical aspects and compromise the effectiveness of the inspection process.

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  • 42. 

    What time compliance technical orders has circled red Xs with alternately spaced red diagonals bordering the first page?

    • Immediate action

    • Routine action

    • Record type

    • Urgent action

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent action
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Urgent action." This is because circled red Xs with alternately spaced red diagonals bordering the first page indicates that immediate attention is required. It signifies that there is an urgent issue or problem that needs to be addressed promptly.

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  • 43. 

    To provide the greatest protection from inadvertent ignition in side storage facilities, you must give priority to items that could be

    • Self-initiated.

    • Self-propelled.

    • Easily initiated.

    • Accidentally initiated.

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-propelled.
    Explanation
    To provide the greatest protection from inadvertent ignition in side storage facilities, giving priority to items that could be self-propelled is crucial. Self-propelled items have the potential to move on their own, increasing the risk of accidental contact or collision with other objects that could cause ignition. By prioritizing the storage and handling of self-propelled items, the chances of inadvertent ignition can be minimized, ensuring a safer environment within the storage facility.

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  • 44. 

    You are developing local written procedures for an explosive operation not covered in detail by a technical order. To do this properly, you do not need to include the

    • Actions to be taken during emergencies.

    • References to standard publications.

    • Explosive and personnel limits.

    • Step-by-step procedures.

    Correct Answer
    A. References to standard publications.
    Explanation
    When developing local written procedures for an explosive operation, it is not necessary to include references to standard publications. This is because local procedures are specific to the organization or location and may not align with the guidelines provided in standard publications. Instead, local procedures should focus on providing step-by-step instructions, actions to be taken during emergencies, and information on explosive and personnel limits to ensure safe and effective execution of the operation.

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  • 45. 

    Which is not a fundamental principle that must be observed when your're planning and conduction explosives operations does not include a minimum

    • Amount of time

    • Of two personnel

    • Number of people

    • Quantity of explosivers

    Correct Answer
    A. Of two personnel
    Explanation
    The given answer "of two personnel" is not a fundamental principle that must be observed when planning and conducting explosives operations. The other options, such as a minimum amount of time, number of people, and quantity of explosives, are all important factors that need to be considered and adhered to in order to ensure the safe and successful execution of explosives operations. However, the number of personnel involved is not specifically mentioned as a fundamental principle in this context.

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  • 46. 

    TCTOs are identified by the number

    • -501 or higher in the second part of the technical order number.

    • -501 or higher in the third part of the TO number

    • -101 or higher in the second part of the TO number

    • -101 or higher in the third part of the TO number

    Correct Answer
    A. -501 or higher in the third part of the TO number
    Explanation
    TCTOs are identified by the number -501 or higher in the third part of the TO number. This means that any TO number that has a third part number of -501 or higher will indicate a TCTO. The second part of the TO number does not determine whether it is a TCTO or not.

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  • 47. 

    Egress explosives must be carried in

    • Protective containers

    • Shipping containers.

    • A properly marked box

    • Explosion-proof containers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protective containers
    Explanation
    Egress explosives must be carried in protective containers to ensure safety during transportation. These containers are specifically designed to withstand the impact of an explosion, minimizing the risk of harm to individuals and surrounding areas. By using protective containers, the explosives are securely contained and isolated, reducing the chances of accidental detonation or damage. This precautionary measure is crucial in preventing potential accidents and ensuring the safe handling and transportation of egress explosives.

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  • 48. 

    Which nuclear mishap is the loss of a nuclear weapon or component?

    • Nucflash

    • Bent Spear.

    • Empty Quiver

    • Broken Arrow.

    Correct Answer
    A. Empty Quiver
    Explanation
    Empty Quiver refers to the loss of a nuclear weapon or component. This term is used to describe situations where a nuclear weapon or its components are missing, stolen, or unaccounted for. It is a serious nuclear mishap that can pose significant risks and concerns regarding the security and safety of nuclear weapons.

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  • 49. 

    To be acceptable for storage, explosives must be

    • Clean

    • Segregated

    • Undamaged

    • Assigned a hazard classification

    Correct Answer
    A. Assigned a hazard classification
    Explanation
    Explosives must be assigned a hazard classification in order to be acceptable for storage. This classification helps to identify the level of risk associated with the explosive material. It takes into account factors such as the potential for explosion, the sensitivity to heat or shock, and the potential harm it can cause. By assigning a hazard classification, it ensures that proper storage and handling procedures are followed to minimize the risk of accidents or incidents. Without this classification, it would be difficult to determine the appropriate safety measures required for storing and handling explosives.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Apr 23, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 23, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 02, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    CarlTHarris

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