Cell And Molecular Biology

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1. Which of the following features do Nucleotides have?

Explanation

Nucleotides have three main components: pentose sugar groups, nitrogenous bases, and phosphate groups. The pentose sugar groups, such as ribose or deoxyribose, form the backbone of the nucleotide. The nitrogenous bases, which include adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine, and uracil, are responsible for the genetic coding. Lastly, the phosphate group links the sugar and the base together, forming the complete nucleotide structure. Therefore, all of the given options are correct as nucleotides possess all of these features.

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About This Quiz
Cell And Molecular Biology - Quiz

Explore the fundamentals of cell and molecular biology through this engaging quiz. Topics covered include DNA structures, replication, and nucleic acid chemistry. This quiz is ideal for students... see moreand professionals looking to deepen their understanding of molecular genetics and cellular processes. see less

2. Which base is not found in DNA but found in RNA? 

Explanation

Uracil is the correct answer because it is a nitrogenous base that is found in RNA but not in DNA. In RNA, uracil replaces thymine, which is found in DNA. Uracil forms base pairs with adenine during RNA synthesis, whereas thymine forms base pairs with adenine in DNA. Therefore, uracil is specific to RNA and is not present in DNA.

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3. What are the 3 steps of the Polymerase chain reaction?
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4. What covalent bonds link nucleic acid monomers?

Explanation

Phosphodiester bonds are the covalent bonds that link nucleic acid monomers. These bonds form between the phosphate group of one nucleotide and the sugar group of another nucleotide, creating a backbone for the nucleic acid chain. This bond is formed through a condensation reaction, where a water molecule is released. Phosphodiester bonds are essential for the stability and structure of nucleic acids, such as DNA and RNA, as they connect the individual nucleotides together to form a long, continuous strand.

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5. Which of the following factors recognizes and binds to the UAG, UAA, and UGA codons?

Explanation

Termination factors are responsible for recognizing and binding to the UAG, UAA, and UGA codons. These codons are known as stop codons, and their recognition by termination factors signals the end of protein synthesis. Once the termination factors bind to the stop codon, they cause the release of the newly synthesized protein from the ribosome. This allows the ribosome to dissociate from the mRNA and complete the translation process. RNA polymerase is involved in transcription, RNA synthase is not a recognized term, and DNA polymerase is involved in DNA replication, not protein synthesis. Elongation factors are involved in the addition of amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain, not termination.

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6. What causes the Tm to be increased? 

Explanation

A high GC content causes the Tm (melting temperature) to be increased. This is because GC base pairs have three hydrogen bonds, while AT base pairs have only two. The extra hydrogen bond in GC pairs makes them stronger and more stable, requiring more energy to break them apart. As a result, DNA or RNA with a high GC content will have a higher Tm compared to sequences with a high AT content or other nucleotide combinations.

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7. A DNA sequencing reaction contains which of the following?

Explanation

All of the options are present in a DNA sequencing reaction. A DNA sequencing reaction requires both dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (ddNTPs) and deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs) as the building blocks for DNA synthesis. DNA polymerase is also necessary for the amplification of DNA during the sequencing reaction. Therefore, all of the options are correct.

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8. Which of the following is a feature of tRNA

Explanation

The feature of tRNA referred to in the question is the anticodon. The anticodon is a sequence of three nucleotides located on the tRNA molecule that is complementary to a specific codon on the mRNA during protein synthesis. This complementary pairing ensures that the correct amino acid is added to the growing polypeptide chain. The other options listed (exon, intron, and poly(A)tail) are not features specific to tRNA.

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9. Which of the following is a functional element of a plasmid?

Explanation

All of the options (origin of replication, polylinker sequence, and drug-resistance gene) are functional elements of a plasmid. The origin of replication allows the plasmid to replicate independently within the host cell. The polylinker sequence is a region that contains multiple restriction enzyme recognition sites, allowing for easy insertion of foreign DNA. The drug-resistance gene provides a selective advantage to the host cell, allowing it to survive in the presence of specific antibiotics. Therefore, all of these elements are important for the functionality and utility of a plasmid.

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10. Drosophila is good for mutant screens as  

Explanation

Drosophila is an ideal choice for mutant screens because it possesses multiple advantageous characteristics. Firstly, its small size allows for easy handling and maintenance in a laboratory setting. Secondly, it has a short generation time, enabling researchers to observe multiple generations and study the inheritance of mutations more quickly. Lastly, Drosophila has easily identifiable structures, such as wings, eyes, and bristles, which facilitate the identification and analysis of mutant phenotypes. Therefore, all of these factors make Drosophila an excellent model organism for mutant screens.

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11. DNA replication begins at sequences called :

Explanation

DNA replication begins at sequences called "ori" which stands for origin of replication. The origin of replication is a specific site on the DNA molecule where the replication process starts. At this site, the DNA strands are separated and the replication machinery is assembled to initiate the synthesis of new DNA strands. The ori sequence is recognized by specific proteins that bind to it and initiate the replication process.

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12. Which of the following are removed from mRNAs during processing?

Explanation

During mRNA processing, introns are removed. Introns are non-coding regions within a gene that do not contain instructions for protein synthesis. They are transcribed into the primary mRNA transcript but are not involved in the final protein product. The process of removing introns is called splicing, and it ensures that only the coding regions of the gene, known as exons, are present in the mature mRNA molecule. The removal of introns allows for the correct arrangement of exons, which are then translated into proteins.

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13. F a mutation occurs in a cell preventing the double-stranded DNA strands from separating at the replication fork, then the gene for which enzyme would you predict was altered by this mutation?

Explanation

If a mutation occurs in a cell preventing the double-stranded DNA strands from separating at the replication fork, it suggests that the enzyme responsible for separating the DNA strands, DNA helicase, has been altered. DNA helicase is essential for DNA replication as it unwinds the double helix and separates the strands, allowing for the formation of new complementary strands. Without the proper functioning of DNA helicase, replication cannot proceed effectively, leading to the observed mutation.

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14. What sugar is used in a DNA monomer? 

Explanation

The sugar used in a DNA monomer is 2'-deoxyribose. This sugar is a modified form of ribose, with a hydrogen atom attached to the 2' carbon instead of a hydroxyl group. This modification allows for the stability and structural integrity of the DNA molecule, as well as the formation of the phosphodiester bonds between adjacent nucleotides in the DNA strand. Glucose is not used in DNA monomers, and the other options, 3'-deoxyribose and 5'-deoxyribose, do not exist.

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15. Each DNA nucleotide is composed of?

Explanation

Each DNA nucleotide is composed of a 2'-deoxyribose sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a 5'-phosphate. The 2'-deoxyribose sugar is a modified form of ribose sugar that lacks an oxygen atom on the 2' carbon. The nitrogenous base can be adenine, thymine, cytosine, or guanine. The 5'-phosphate group is attached to the 5' carbon of the sugar molecule. This combination of components forms the backbone of the DNA molecule, with the phosphate groups linking the sugars together in a chain and the nitrogenous bases forming the "rungs" of the DNA ladder through hydrogen bonding.

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16. Which of the following scientists first discovered that the percentage of GC is constant in any given species

Explanation

Erwin Chargaff is the correct answer because he was the scientist who first discovered that the percentage of GC (guanine and cytosine) is constant in any given species. He made this observation while studying the composition of DNA from different organisms. Chargaff's findings, known as Chargaff's rules, were crucial in understanding the structure and function of DNA and laid the foundation for the discovery of the double helix structure by Watson and Crick.

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17. Which of the following is not a post translational modification? 

Explanation

Poly(A) tail is not a post translational modification because it occurs during transcription, specifically during mRNA processing. It involves the addition of a string of adenine nucleotides to the 3' end of the mRNA molecule. This modification plays a role in mRNA stability, transport, and translation initiation, but it does not occur after translation of the protein has taken place. Post translational modifications refer to changes that occur to a protein after it has been synthesized, such as protein folding, covalent modifications, and proteolytic cleavage.

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18. Which of these refers specifically to the artificial introduction of naked bacteriophage DNA into bacteria?

Explanation

Transfection refers specifically to the artificial introduction of naked bacteriophage DNA into bacteria. It is a laboratory technique used to study gene expression and function in cells. During transfection, the DNA is taken up by the bacterial cells, allowing researchers to manipulate and study the genetic material. This process is different from transformation, which involves the uptake of DNA from the environment, and transduction, which involves the transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another by a bacteriophage.

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19. How many genes does the human genome contain?

Explanation

The human genome contains approximately 26-32,000 genes. Genes are segments of DNA that contain instructions for building proteins, which are essential for the functioning and development of the human body. This range of genes is estimated based on current scientific knowledge and advancements in genetic research.

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20. What is the percentage of human variation?

Explanation

The percentage of human variation is 0.1%. This means that only 0.1% of genetic variation exists between individuals. This indicates that humans share a high degree of genetic similarity, with the vast majority of our genetic makeup being identical. The small percentage of variation is responsible for the diversity and individual differences that we observe among humans.

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21. Pyrimidines are:

Explanation

Pyrimidines are a type of nitrogenous bases found in DNA and RNA. They consist of a single ring structure. The bases C (cytosine), T (thymine), and U (uracil) are all examples of pyrimidines. Therefore, the correct answer is C, T & U.

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22. The ability of DNA to denature is important for which process?

Explanation

The ability of DNA to denature is important for all of the options listed. In nucleic acid hybridization experiments, denaturation allows the separation of the DNA strands, enabling the hybridization process. In Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), denaturation is a crucial step where the DNA template is heated to separate the strands for replication. DNA synthesis requires denaturation to separate the DNA strands and allow for the incorporation of nucleotides. Similarly, RNA synthesis also involves denaturation to separate the DNA strands and serve as a template for RNA synthesis. Therefore, the ability of DNA to denature is important for all of these processes.

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23. What is the sequence ACCAUGC known as? 

Explanation

The sequence ACCAUGC is known as the Kozak sequence. The Kozak sequence is a specific sequence of nucleotides found in eukaryotic mRNA, typically surrounding the start codon. It plays a crucial role in the initiation of protein translation by providing a recognition site for the ribosome. The Kozak sequence helps ensure accurate translation initiation by guiding the ribosome to the correct start codon and enhancing the efficiency of translation.

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24. Southern blotting is used to detect a specific

Explanation

Southern blotting is a technique used to detect specific DNA sequences in a sample. It involves the separation of DNA fragments by gel electrophoresis, followed by transfer of the DNA onto a membrane and hybridization with a labeled DNA probe. This probe will bind specifically to the target DNA sequence, allowing for its detection. Therefore, the correct answer is DNA.

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25. Define cell fate 

Explanation

Cell fate refers to the developmental decision made by a cell regarding its future identity and function. It determines what the cell will differentiate into and the specific role it will play in the organism. This decision is influenced by various factors such as genetic programs, signaling molecules, and environmental cues. Cell fate can lead to the formation of different cell types, tissues, and organs during embryonic development and tissue regeneration.

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26. In order to unwind supercoiled DNA which enzyme is used?

Explanation

Topoisomerase is the correct answer because it is the enzyme responsible for unwinding supercoiled DNA. Supercoiling occurs when the DNA helix becomes twisted, and topoisomerase helps to relieve this tension by cutting the DNA strands, allowing them to unwind, and then rejoining them. This process is crucial for DNA replication, transcription, and other DNA-related processes. Ligase is involved in joining DNA fragments together, endonuclease is involved in cutting DNA at specific points, helicase is responsible for separating the DNA strands, and polymerase is involved in DNA synthesis.

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27. The double-stranded products of PCR are difficult to clone into conventional vectors cut with restriction enzymes, as Taq polymerase adds an extra nucleotide to either end.  Therefore, you have to perform T/A cloning using special vectors possessing an extra complementary nucleotide.  The extra nucleotide added to the PCR product by Taq is a:

Explanation

Taq polymerase adds an extra nucleotide to the 3' ends of the PCR product. This extra nucleotide is an "A". Therefore, in order to clone the PCR product into conventional vectors, T/A cloning is performed using vectors that possess an extra complementary nucleotide, which is a "T" to the 3' ends of the PCR product.

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28. Restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs) are detected by hybridising Southern blots of electrophoresed restriction digests with a labelled probe, and can be used for a variety of purposes from detecting genetic diseases to population genetics.  RFLPs are:

Explanation

RFLPs refer to variations in the lengths of restriction fragments. This means that when DNA is digested with restriction enzymes, the resulting fragments will have different lengths due to genetic variations. By hybridizing these fragments with a labelled probe on a Southern blot, RFLPs can be detected and used for various purposes such as identifying genetic diseases or studying population genetics. This technique allows researchers to analyze and compare the lengths of restriction fragments to understand genetic variations and relationships between individuals or populations.

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29. CDNA libraries can be constructed in the insertion vector λgt11.  In which case an antibody can be used to identify your clone of interest through binding to a:

Explanation

cDNA libraries are constructed in the insertion vector λgt11, which allows for the production of fusion proteins. Fusion proteins are formed when the cDNA of interest is fused with a reporter gene, such as lacZ or GFP, in the vector. This fusion protein can then be expressed and detected using an antibody specific to the reporter gene. Therefore, an antibody can be used to identify the clone of interest through binding to the fusion protein.

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30. Deletion analysis is used to identify DNA sequence motifs in the regulatory region of a gene that modulate gene expression.  The proteins that interact with these motifs are called:

Explanation

Deletion analysis is a method used to identify DNA sequence motifs that regulate gene expression. These motifs are recognized and bound by proteins called transcription factors. Transcription factors play a crucial role in controlling gene expression by binding to specific DNA sequences and either promoting or inhibiting the transcription of a gene. Therefore, the correct answer is transcription factors.

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31. Agarose gels are used to separate DNA fragments according to size.  During electrophoresis DNA moves:

Explanation

During electrophoresis, DNA molecules are negatively charged due to the phosphate groups in their backbone. The cathode, which is positively charged, attracts the negatively charged DNA molecules. Therefore, the DNA moves from the cathode towards the anode. This movement is facilitated by an electric field, not by gravity, gel filtration, or capillary action.

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32. Small nucleolar RNAs are involved in which one of the following functions

Explanation

Small nucleolar RNAs (snoRNAs) are involved in rRNA modification and processing. These small RNA molecules guide the modification of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) by directing the addition of chemical groups or by guiding the cleavage of rRNA precursors. This process is essential for the proper maturation and functionality of ribosomes, which are responsible for protein synthesis in cells. snoRNAs play a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and function of the ribosomal machinery, ensuring accurate and efficient protein production.

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33. The radionuclide phosphorus-32 (32P) has a half-life of: 

Explanation

Phosphorus-32 (32P) has a half-life of 14.3 days. This means that after 14.3 days, half of the original amount of 32P will have decayed into other elements. The remaining half will continue to decay at the same rate, with half of it decaying again after another 14.3 days, and so on. This information is useful in various fields, such as medicine and research, where the decay of radioactive materials is studied and utilized.

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34. How big is the nuclear genome? 

Explanation

The correct answer is 3.2 Gbp. Gbp stands for gigabase pairs, which is a unit of measurement for the size of a genome. The "nuclear genome" refers to the total amount of DNA found in the nucleus of a cell. In this case, it is estimated to be 3.2 billion base pairs in size.

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35. When preparing DNA from E. coli contaminating protein can be removed via:

Explanation

Phenol extraction is a commonly used method to remove proteins from DNA preparations. Phenol is a strong organic solvent that can denature and precipitate proteins, allowing for their separation from DNA. This method involves the addition of phenol to the DNA sample, followed by vigorous mixing and centrifugation to separate the aqueous DNA phase from the organic phenol phase. The DNA can then be recovered from the aqueous phase, free from protein contamination. This technique is effective in removing proteins from DNA preparations and is widely used in molecular biology research.

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36. What happens in an apetala 3 null mutant flower? 

Explanation

In an apetala 3 null mutant flower, the whorl 2 organs are sepals and the whorl 3 organs are carpels. This means that the second set of floral organs, which would normally develop into petals, instead develop into sepals. Additionally, the third set of floral organs, which would normally develop into stamens, instead develop into carpels. This mutation disrupts the normal development of floral organs and results in a flower with altered organ identity and arrangement.

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37. Why does a plasmid that has never been cut give more than one band on a gel?

Explanation

DNA supercoiling can cause a plasmid that has never been cut to give more than one band on a gel. Supercoiling occurs when the DNA molecule twists upon itself, resulting in a compact and tightly wound structure. This can cause the plasmid to form multiple conformations, such as relaxed or supercoiled, which migrate differently on a gel. Therefore, when the plasmid is run on a gel, the different conformations will separate into distinct bands, leading to the appearance of multiple bands on the gel.

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38. What method can be used to functionally inactivate a gene without altering its sequence?

Explanation

RNA interference and anti-sense gene construct are both methods that can be used to functionally inactivate a gene without altering its sequence. RNA interference involves the introduction of small interfering RNA (siRNA) molecules that specifically target and degrade the mRNA transcript of the gene, preventing its translation into protein. On the other hand, an anti-sense gene construct is a DNA molecule that is designed to bind to the mRNA transcript of the target gene, preventing its translation into protein. Both methods effectively inhibit the expression of the gene, leading to its functional inactivation.

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39. After electrophoresis, agarose gels containing DNA fragments are stained with ethidium bromide and placed on an ultra-violet transilluminator, which permits the detection of small amounts of DNA.  What is the lowest amount of DNA detectable by this method?

Explanation

The lowest amount of DNA detectable by this method is 10 ng. This is because the ethidium bromide staining combined with the use of an ultra-violet transilluminator allows for the visualization of DNA fragments. The sensitivity of this method is such that it can detect DNA at a concentration as low as 10 ng.

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40. The base in the wobble position of a codon

Explanation

The base in the wobble position of a codon refers to the third base in the codon sequence. The wobble position is the position in the codon where there is some flexibility in the pairing between the codon and the anticodon during translation. This flexibility allows for a single tRNA molecule to recognize multiple codons with slight variations. Therefore, the third base in the codon, also known as the 3´ base, is the base that is most likely to vary and contribute to the wobble position.

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41. During mammalian neurulation, neural folds form on the ectodermal layer of the trilaminar embryo, either side of the midline. The following processes then occur:

Explanation

During mammalian neurulation, the neural folds on either side of the midline of the trilaminar embryo undergo invagination, leading to the formation of a neural tube. This process involves the folding inwards of the neural plate, which eventually gives rise to the brain and spinal cord. The other options mentioned, ingression and notochord formation, are not part of the process of neurulation.

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42. The developing mammalian embryo divides by 

Explanation

Rotational cleavage is a type of cleavage in which the blastomeres divide at an angle to the axis of the embryo, resulting in a spiral arrangement of cells. This type of cleavage is observed in some embryos, such as those of annelids and mollusks. It allows for the development of a compact embryo with a high cell number, as the cells divide in a way that maximizes the number of cells produced. This type of cleavage is different from other types, such as radial or equatorial cleavage, which have different patterns of cell division.

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43. The figure below shows two possible conformations of DNA, numbered 1 and 2. Of these, figure 2 indicates which one of the following DNA conformations 

Explanation

The figure shows a right-handed helical structure with a major and minor groove, which is characteristic of A-DNA. This conformation is more compact and wider than B-DNA, which is the most common DNA conformation found in cells. C-DNA, N-DNA, and Z-DNA have different structural features and are not represented in the figure. Therefore, the correct answer is A-DNA.

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44. Bacteriophage lambda has two alternative life cycles.  One of these is of use to the genetic engineer in lambda-derived cloning vectors.  This life cycle is called:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Lytic." Bacteriophage lambda has two alternative life cycles: the lytic cycle and the lysogenic cycle. In the lytic cycle, the phage infects the host bacterium, replicates its DNA, and causes the host cell to burst, releasing new phages. This life cycle is of use to genetic engineers in lambda-derived cloning vectors because it allows for the production of a large number of phages for further study or experimentation.

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45. The ABC model for flower development in Arabidopsis has 2 key features. Which of the following is correct?:

Explanation

The correct answer states that a combination of ABC homeotic genes expression is required to select the appropriate organ type. This means that the expression of multiple ABC homeotic genes is necessary for the development of specific organs in Arabidopsis. Additionally, the answer also mentions that there is regulatory antagonism between some ABC homeotic genes, indicating that these genes may have opposing effects on organ development. This explanation highlights the key features of the ABC model for flower development in Arabidopsis.

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46. Which form of Nuclear radiation is harmful as a contaminant?

Explanation

Alpha and beta radiation are harmful as contaminants because they are both ionizing radiations. Alpha particles are heavy and have a positive charge, making them highly ionizing and easily absorbed by materials, including living tissues. Beta particles are smaller and have a negative charge, also causing ionization and potential damage to cells. On the other hand, gamma and X-ray radiation are also ionizing, but they are more penetrating and can cause harm at higher doses. However, they are not considered as harmful as contaminants compared to alpha and beta radiation.

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47. The development of higher animals and higher plants differ in several significant ways. Select appropriate answers from the list below: 

Explanation

Plants have the unique ability to regenerate from various vegetative parts such as stems, leaves, and roots. This means that if a part of a plant is damaged or removed, it has the potential to grow back and form a new plant. This regenerative capacity is not found in higher animals. Animal development is mostly post-embryonic, meaning that most of their development occurs after the embryonic stage. Additionally, plant development involves varying the plane of cell division, while animal development does not typically involve this mechanism. Higher plant embryos also do not contain organs found in the adult, further distinguishing plant development from animal development.

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48. The DNA probe used in nucleic acid hybridisation is often labelled by incorporating a radioactive nucleotide, such as 32P-labelled deoxycytosine 5' triphosphate (dCTP) using the Klenow fragment of DNA polymerase.  Which phosphate is labelled:

Explanation

The correct answer is Alpha (α). In nucleic acid hybridization, the DNA probe is labeled by incorporating a radioactive nucleotide, such as 32P-labeled deoxycytosine 5' triphosphate (dCTP), using the Klenow fragment of DNA polymerase. The labeling occurs at the alpha phosphate of the dCTP molecule.

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49. Messenger RNA (mRNA) makes up about 1% of the total cellular RNA.  What feature of mRNA enables it to be selectively purified?

Explanation

Messenger RNA (mRNA) can be selectively purified because it is polyadenylated. Polyadenylation is the process by which a string of adenine nucleotides, known as a poly(A) tail, is added to the end of the mRNA molecule. This poly(A) tail allows for the specific binding of purification techniques, such as oligo(dT) beads, which can selectively capture and isolate the mRNA from the total cellular RNA. Therefore, the presence of the poly(A) tail in mRNA enables its selective purification.

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50. Which of the following enzymes will produce a blunt end (the cut site is indicated by the * in the recognition sequence)?

Explanation

AluI is the correct answer because it cuts the DNA sequence AGCT, creating a blunt end with no overhangs. BamHI, EcoRI, and Sau3A all create sticky ends with overhangs.

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51. The endodermal germ layer will eventually form: 

Explanation

The endodermal germ layer will eventually form the lining of the digestive tube, lining of the respiratory tube, and thyroid cells. This is because the endoderm gives rise to the innermost layer of the embryo, which later differentiates into the epithelial lining of the gastrointestinal tract and respiratory system. It also gives rise to the thyroid gland, which is an endocrine organ located in the neck.

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52. What happens in a Ubx null mutant Drosophila fly? 

Explanation

In a Ubx null mutant Drosophila fly, there is an occurrence of an extra pair of wings and a loss of halteres. The Ubx gene is responsible for regulating the development of the halteres, which are small structures that balance the fly during flight. When the Ubx gene is mutated or null, it disrupts the normal development of halteres, leading to their loss. Additionally, the mutation also affects the regulation of wing development, resulting in the formation of an extra pair of wings.

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53. In comparison to Drosophila, how many HOX genes do mammals have? 

Explanation

Mammals have over four times as many HOX genes as Drosophila. This means that the number of HOX genes in mammals is significantly higher than the number in Drosophila.

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54. Arabidopsis thaliana is a plant used by scientists as a model organism.  Which of the following is NOT a feature of this plant?

Explanation

Arabidopsis thaliana is a plant used as a model organism because it has a small genome, consisting of only 10 chromosomes. It also has a rapid life cycle of approximately 10 weeks under laboratory conditions, making it convenient for research purposes. Additionally, it is capable of self-fertilization. However, it does not have a genome containing 7,000 fewer genes than the human genome.

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55. Plasmid cloning vectors often contain an antibiotic resistance gene that acts as a selectable marker.  When grown in the presence of the antibiotic this resistance gene enables you to

Explanation

Plasmid cloning vectors often contain an antibiotic resistance gene that acts as a selectable marker. This means that when the bacteria are grown in the presence of the antibiotic, only the cells that have taken up the plasmid (and therefore contain the antibiotic resistance gene) will survive. Therefore, the antibiotic resistance gene enables the selection of E. coli cells that contain plasmids.

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56. High-value proteins can be produced in animals and plants by "pharming".  In mammals such proteins are often driven by the following promoter of the following gene:

Explanation

High-value proteins can be produced in animals and plants by "pharming", which involves using biotechnology to produce pharmaceutical proteins in genetically modified organisms. In mammals, such as cows, the production of these proteins is often driven by specific promoters that regulate the expression of certain genes. In this case, the correct answer is β-lactoglobin, as it is a protein found in milk and can be used as a promoter to produce high-value proteins in animals.

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57. In situ hybridisation shows

Explanation

In situ hybridisation is a technique used to locate specific nucleic acid sequences within cells or tissues. It involves the use of a labeled complementary nucleic acid probe that binds to the target RNA sequence. Therefore, in situ hybridisation shows where RNA encoded by a gene is found in the cells or tissues being examined. This technique can provide valuable information about gene expression patterns and localization within an organism.

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58. In a replacement vector a single "stuffer" fragment serves to replace all the "non-essential" regions removed from the lambda genome.  The "stuffer" fragment is necessary:

Explanation

The "stuffer" fragment is necessary to enable the vector to be replicated.

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59. When constructing a genomic library in a replacement vector the genomic DNA is partially digested with a restriction enzyme, such as Sau 3A, that recognises a four nucleotide sequence.  This is to:

Explanation

The correct answer is to ensure that restriction fragments of between 15 – 22 kilo base pairs can contain all the genome of the organism. This is because by partially digesting the genomic DNA with a restriction enzyme that recognizes a four nucleotide sequence, the resulting restriction fragments will have a range of sizes. By targeting a specific size range, in this case between 15 – 22 kilo base pairs, it ensures that the fragments are large enough to contain all the genetic information (genome) of the organism.

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60. What change in fate does the organiser graft make? 

Explanation

The organiser graft induces a dorsal fate in cells which would have been ventral. This means that the organiser graft causes the cells that would have developed into ventral tissue to instead develop into dorsal tissue.

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61. A homeotic mutation: 

Explanation

A homeotic mutation refers to a genetic mutation that causes a change in the identity or location of a body part or structure during development. This can result in the loss of one structure and the gain of another. For example, a mutation may cause an insect to develop legs where its antennae should be. Therefore, the correct answer is "loss of one structure and gain of another."

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62. Which is the best phase to harvest bacterial cells in? 

Explanation

Exponential phase is the best phase to harvest bacterial cells because during this phase, the cells are actively dividing and multiplying at their maximum rate. The population of bacteria is rapidly increasing, and the cells are in their healthiest state. Harvesting cells during exponential phase ensures a higher yield of viable and metabolically active cells, which is desirable for various applications such as protein production or genetic engineering.

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63. Which of the following is NOT an example of a reporter gene:

Explanation

Blue fluorescent protein is not an example of a reporter gene because reporter genes are used to study gene expression and regulation by monitoring the activity of the gene they are attached to. Blue fluorescent protein, on the other hand, is a protein that emits blue light when exposed to certain wavelengths of light. It is often used as a marker or tag to visualize and track the location of proteins within cells, but it does not serve as a reporter of gene expression.

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64. Reporter genes are a powerful tool used in gene expression studies because they provide the investigator with information pertaining to

Explanation

Reporter genes are used in gene expression studies to provide information about the cellular and tissue-specific localization of the mRNA encoded by a particular gene. This means that reporter genes allow researchers to visualize where the mRNA is being produced and present in the cells and tissues of interest. This information is valuable in understanding the spatial distribution and regulation of gene expression. The other options, such as the activity of the protein translated from the mRNA and the size of the mRNA transcript, are not directly related to reporter genes.

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65. How big is the largest known mammalian gene? 

Explanation

The largest known mammalian gene is 2.5 Mbp. This means that the gene is 2.5 million base pairs long. Base pairs are the building blocks of DNA, and genes are sections of DNA that contain instructions for making proteins. Therefore, this answer suggests that the largest known mammalian gene is quite large, consisting of millions of base pairs.

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66. Define an inductive signal

Explanation

An inductive signal refers to an extracellular signal that influences a cell to adopt a different fate or developmental pathway. It does not involve replication or transcription directly, but rather triggers changes in the cell's behavior, such as differentiation or specialization, leading to a distinct fate.

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67. What is the Tm? 

Explanation

The Tm, or melting temperature, is the temperature at which half of the helical structure of a double strand of DNA is lost. At this temperature, the DNA begins to denature and separate into single strands.

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68. What is the C value? 

Explanation

The C value refers to the DNA content of a haploid cell. Haploid cells contain a single set of chromosomes, and the C value represents the amount of DNA present in one copy of the genome. This value can vary between different organisms and is measured in picograms or base pairs. The C value is important in understanding the complexity and size of an organism's genome.

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69. According to the medium estimate of the United Nations the world's population will peak in 2075 at: 

Explanation

According to the medium estimate of the United Nations, the world's population is projected to peak in 2075 at 9.2 billion. This means that based on current trends and projections, the global population is expected to reach its highest point in 2075 and then start to decline.

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70. There are two forms of DNA super coiling, which of the two involve histones? 

Explanation

Toroidal supercoiling involves histones.

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71. Match the following:
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72. What is the effect of UV irradiation on developing Xenopus leavisembryos? 

Explanation

UV irradiation has been shown to have a detrimental effect on the development of Xenopus leavis embryos. Specifically, it inhibits the formation of dorsal structures in these embryos. This means that exposure to UV radiation prevents the normal development of structures that would typically form on the back or upper side of the embryo. This can have significant consequences for the overall development and survival of the embryos.

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73. Proteins of interest can be expressed in microorganisms using special plasmids that contain promoters that can be induced or repressed (switched on or off) by external factors.  The Trp promoter is an example of one of these.  It is:

Explanation

The Trp promoter is induced by 3-β-indoleacrylic acid and repressed by tryptophan. This means that when 3-β-indoleacrylic acid is present, the Trp promoter is activated and allows for the expression of proteins of interest. On the other hand, when tryptophan is present, it represses the Trp promoter and prevents the expression of proteins.

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74. What feature of PCR makes it less desirable for gene cloning?

Explanation

PCR, or polymerase chain reaction, is a technique used to amplify specific DNA sequences. One of the limitations of PCR is its inability to clone large DNA fragments. The technique is most effective for amplifying DNA fragments up to 5 kilobase pairs (kbp) in length. Therefore, the option "can clone up to 5 kbp" is the correct answer as it highlights the limited cloning capacity of PCR.

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75. Which of the following are rules of DNA replication?

Explanation

The correct answer is "A & C only" because DNA replication starts at a specific origin and is semi-conservative, meaning that each new DNA molecule contains one original strand and one newly synthesized strand. However, DNA replication can occur in both the 3' to 5' and 5' to 3' directions, so the statement "always 3' to 5'" is not a rule of DNA replication. Similarly, DNA replication can occur bidirectionally, so the statement "Unidirectional only" is also not a rule of DNA replication.

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76. What would happen in an Antp loss of function mutation? 

Explanation

An Antp loss of function mutation would result in the loss of legs and the gain of antennae. This is because the Antp gene is responsible for the development of legs in insects. When this gene is mutated and its function is lost, the legs fail to develop properly. At the same time, the mutation may cause the development of extra antennae, as the Antp gene also plays a role in the development of antennae. Therefore, in an Antp loss of function mutation, the insect would lose its legs and gain additional antennae.

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77.  Match the following to complete the timeline of DNA: 
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78. The Table shown below lists the homeotic genes involved in positioning the organs of Arabidopsis thaliana flower, and what structures are formed the. Use the possible answers below to fill in the rest of the Table. (5 marks)
Position in flower Homeotic genes involved Organ formed
Whorl 1 Apetala 2 Sepal
Whorl 2 A B
Whorl 3 C + Apetala 3 + Pistillata D
Whorl 4 E Carpel
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79. Match the following
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80. Match the following
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Which of the following features do Nucleotides have?
Which base is not found in DNA but found in RNA? 
What are the 3 steps of the Polymerase chain reaction?
What covalent bonds link nucleic acid monomers?
Which of the following factors recognizes and binds to the UAG, UAA,...
What causes the Tm to be increased? 
A DNA sequencing reaction contains which of the following?
Which of the following is a feature of tRNA
Which of the following is a functional element of a plasmid?
Drosophila is good for mutant screens as  
DNA replication begins at sequences called :
Which of the following are removed from mRNAs during processing?
F a mutation occurs in a cell preventing the double-stranded DNA...
What sugar is used in a DNA monomer? 
Each DNA nucleotide is composed of?
Which of the following scientists first discovered that the percentage...
Which of the following is not a post translational modification? 
Which of these refers specifically to the artificial introduction of...
How many genes does the human genome contain?
What is the percentage of human variation?
Pyrimidines are:
The ability of DNA to denature is important for which process?
What is the sequence ACCAUGC known as? 
Southern blotting is used to detect a specific
Define cell fate 
In order to unwind supercoiled DNA which enzyme is used?
The double-stranded products of PCR are difficult to clone into...
Restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs) are detected by...
CDNA libraries can be constructed in the insertion vector...
Deletion analysis is used to identify DNA sequence motifs in the...
Agarose gels are used to separate DNA fragments according to size....
Small nucleolar RNAs are involved in which one of the following...
The radionuclide phosphorus-32 (32P) has a half-life of: 
How big is the nuclear genome? 
When preparing DNA from E. coli contaminating protein can be removed...
What happens in an apetala 3 null mutant flower? 
Why does a plasmid that has never been cut give more than one band on...
What method can be used to functionally inactivate a gene without...
After electrophoresis, agarose gels containing DNA fragments are...
The base in the wobble position of a codon
During mammalian neurulation, neural folds form on the ectodermal...
The developing mammalian embryo divides by 
The figure below shows two possible conformations of DNA, numbered 1...
Bacteriophage lambda has two alternative life cycles.  One of...
The ABC model for flower development in Arabidopsis has 2 key...
Which form of Nuclear radiation is harmful as a contaminant?
The development of higher animals and higher plants differ in several...
The DNA probe used in nucleic acid hybridisation is often labelled by...
Messenger RNA (mRNA) makes up about 1% of the total cellular RNA....
Which of the following enzymes will produce a blunt end (the cut site...
The endodermal germ layer will eventually form: 
What happens in a Ubx null mutant Drosophila fly? 
In comparison to Drosophila, how many HOX genes do mammals have? 
Arabidopsis thaliana is a plant used by scientists as a model...
Plasmid cloning vectors often contain an antibiotic resistance gene...
High-value proteins can be produced in animals and plants by...
In situ hybridisation shows
In a replacement vector a single "stuffer" fragment serves to replace...
When constructing a genomic library in a replacement vector the...
What change in fate does the organiser graft make? 
A homeotic mutation: 
Which is the best phase to harvest bacterial cells in? 
Which of the following is NOT an example of a reporter gene:
Reporter genes are a powerful tool used in gene expression studies...
How big is the largest known mammalian gene? 
Define an inductive signal
What is the Tm? 
What is the C value? 
According to the medium estimate of the United Nations the world's...
There are two forms of DNA super coiling, which of the two involve...
Match the following:
What is the effect of UV irradiation on developing Xenopus...
Proteins of interest can be expressed in microorganisms using special...
What feature of PCR makes it less desirable for gene cloning?
Which of the following are rules of DNA replication?
What would happen in an Antp loss of function mutation? 
 Match the following to complete the timeline of DNA: 
The Table shown below lists the homeotic genes involved in positioning...
Match the following
Match the following
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