Ultimate Molecular Biology Quiz

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Ekanye
E
Ekanye
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 16 | Total Attempts: 13,196
| Attempts: 1,404 | Questions: 80
Please wait...
Question 1 / 80
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. One hypothesis explaining the mechanism of repression of the lac operon states that the repressor binds the operator and blocks access by the polymerase to the adjacent promoter.

Explanation

This statement is true because the lac operon is a system in bacteria that controls the expression of genes involved in lactose metabolism. The lac repressor protein can bind to the operator region of the operon, preventing RNA polymerase from accessing the promoter and initiating transcription. This mechanism allows the bacteria to regulate the expression of the lac genes in response to the presence or absence of lactose in the environment.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
Ultimate Molecular Biology Quiz - Quiz

Do you understand molecular biology well? Take this molecular biology quiz, and see how much you know about this topic. Molecular biology studies the chemical and physical structure... see moreof biological macromolecules. Go for this quiz, and test your knowledge. Even if you miss out on some questions, we will help you with the correct answer. Try to get 100% on this quiz. If you find this quiz informative, share it with others interested in testing their knowledge on this topic.
see less

2. Epitope tagging is an efficient way to immunoprecipitate to isolate an entire polymerase complex. 

Explanation

Epitope tagging involves attaching a small protein sequence, known as an epitope tag, to a target protein. This tag allows for easy detection and purification of the tagged protein using specific antibodies. In the given statement, it is stated that epitope tagging is an efficient way to immunoprecipitate and isolate an entire polymerase complex. This is true because by tagging a specific subunit of the polymerase complex with an epitope tag, the entire complex can be precipitated and isolated using antibodies that recognize the epitope tag.

Submit
3. Arabinose can derepress the ara operon by causing AraC to loosen its attachment to araO2 and bind to araI2 instead. 

Explanation

Arabinose can derepress the ara operon by causing AraC to loosen its attachment to araO2 and bind to araI2 instead. This means that when arabinose is present, it triggers a change in the binding of AraC protein, allowing it to activate gene expression from the araI2 site. This process leads to the production of enzymes necessary for the metabolism of arabinose. Therefore, the statement is true.

Submit
4. Which of the following is not present in the core RNA polymerase? 

Explanation

The correct answer is sigma (o). Sigma (o) is not present in the core RNA polymerase. The core RNA polymerase consists of two subunits, B (Beta) and B' (Beta prime), which are responsible for the catalytic activity of RNA synthesis. Sigma (o) is a separate subunit that associates with the core enzyme to form the holoenzyme, which is responsible for promoter recognition and initiation of transcription. Therefore, sigma (o) is not a component of the core RNA polymerase.

Submit
5. Which of the following is absent in an operon? 

Explanation

An operon is a functional unit of DNA that consists of a promoter, operator, and one or more genes. The promoter is responsible for initiating the transcription of the genes, while the operator controls the access of RNA polymerase to the genes. In an operon, introns are absent. Introns are non-coding sequences of DNA that are present in eukaryotic genes but are spliced out during mRNA processing. In prokaryotes, which have operons, the genes are typically organized in a continuous sequence without introns. Therefore, the correct answer is intron.

Submit
6. TFIID collaborates with TFIIA to bind to the TATA box.

Explanation

TFIID and TFIIA are transcription factors that are involved in the initiation of transcription in eukaryotic cells. TFIID is responsible for recognizing and binding to the TATA box, a DNA sequence located in the promoter region of genes. TFIIA, on the other hand, helps stabilize the binding of TFIID to the TATA box. Therefore, TFIID and TFIIA work together to bind to the TATA box, making the statement true.

Submit
7. If an operon is under negative control, it means that the operon is never operational.

Explanation

If an operon is under negative control, it means that the operon is regulated by a repressor protein. This protein binds to the operator region of the operon and prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the genes. Therefore, the operon is only operational when the repressor protein is not bound to the operator. Hence, the statement that an operon under negative control is never operational is false.

Submit
8.  RNA polymerase prevents the binding of TFIIF to the promoter region

Explanation

RNA polymerase does not prevent the binding of TFIIF to the promoter region. In fact, TFIIF is one of the general transcription factors that helps RNA polymerase bind to the promoter region and initiate transcription. TFIIF stabilizes the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter and also plays a role in transcription initiation. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

Submit
9. Attenuation causes the length of the RNA molecules to be significantly extended. 

Explanation

Attenuation does not cause the length of RNA molecules to be significantly extended. Attenuation is a regulatory mechanism in gene expression where the transcription of certain genes is prematurely terminated. It involves the formation of a hairpin structure in the RNA molecule, which leads to the termination of transcription. This process does not result in the extension of RNA molecules. Therefore, the statement is false.

Submit
10. Eukaryotic ribosomal RNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase II.

Explanation

Eukaryotic ribosomal RNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase I, not RNA polymerase II. RNA polymerase I is responsible for transcribing the genes that encode for the large rRNA molecules found in the ribosomes of eukaryotic cells. RNA polymerase II, on the other hand, transcribes protein-coding genes and some non-coding RNA genes. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

Submit
11. CAMP level is increased by the presence of a high level of glucose 

Explanation

The statement is false because the presence of a high level of glucose does not increase cAMP levels. cAMP (cyclic adenosine monophosphate) is a molecule involved in cellular signaling and is typically increased by the activation of certain receptors or enzymes, not by the presence of glucose.

Submit
12. Roeder and Rutter showed that there are four polymerases operating in the eukaryotic cell.

Explanation

Roeder and Rutter did not show that there are four polymerases operating in the eukaryotic cell. Therefore, the statement is false.

Submit
13. Recent experimental evidence has shown that only one operator sequence is needed for maximal expression.

Explanation

The recent experimental evidence suggests that more than one operator sequence is needed for maximal expression, which contradicts the statement. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

Submit
14. Place the following in the order that they occur during transcription initiation: 1- formation of open complex2- formation of closed complex3- promoter clearance4- synthesis of about 10 nucleotides 

Explanation

During transcription initiation, the first step is the formation of a closed complex, where the RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region of the DNA. Then, the closed complex transitions into an open complex, allowing the RNA polymerase to unwind the DNA and expose the template strand. Once the open complex is formed, the synthesis of about 10 nucleotides begins. Finally, promoter clearance occurs, where the RNA polymerase moves away from the promoter region and transcription continues. Therefore, the correct order is 2,1,4,3.

Submit
15. Which of the following techniques is suitable for the study of DNA: RNA hybrid formation during transcription? 

Explanation

DNA: RNA crosslinking is a suitable technique for the study of DNA: RNA hybrid formation during transcription. This technique involves the covalent crosslinking of DNA and RNA molecules, allowing the identification and characterization of DNA: RNA hybrids. By crosslinking the two molecules together, researchers can analyze the interaction between DNA and RNA, providing insights into the process of transcription and the formation of DNA: RNA hybrids.

Submit
16. Which of the following is most likely to occur if the level of glucose is low in a bacterial cell? 

Explanation

If the level of glucose is low in a bacterial cell, it indicates that the cell is in need of an alternative energy source. In this situation, CAP (catabolite activator protein) will assist in stimulating transcription of the lac operon if lactose is added. This is because the lac operon is responsible for the metabolism of lactose as an alternative energy source. When glucose is scarce, CAP helps to activate the lac operon, allowing the cell to utilize lactose for energy production.

Submit
17. Which of the following statements is false regarding the sigma factor? 

Explanation

The sigma factor is a protein subunit that is involved in the initiation of transcription in bacteria. It is responsible for recognizing and binding to specific DNA sequences called promoter regions. Once bound, the sigma factor helps to recruit the RNA polymerase core enzyme to the promoter, allowing for the initiation of transcription. Therefore, the statement "It does not have a DNA-binding domain" is false because the sigma factor does indeed have a DNA-binding domain, which is essential for its function in transcription initiation.

Submit
18. Which of the following is true about the holoenzyme of RNA pol in an open complex? 

Explanation

In an open complex, the holoenzyme of RNA pol binds mainly to the sigma-subunit. This means that the DNA is primarily interacting with the sigma-subunit of the holoenzyme. Additionally, the answer states that there is no interaction between the sigma factor and the -10 region. This means that the sigma factor, which is responsible for recognizing the promoter sequence, does not directly interact with the -10 region of the DNA.

Submit
19. In the absence of glucose, there will be a rapid accumulation of lactose in the following mutant: I- Oc Z+ Y-I- O+ Z+ Y-

Explanation

In the absence of glucose, there will not be a rapid accumulation of lactose in the given mutant. This can be determined by analyzing the genotype of the mutant. The presence of "I-" indicates that the mutant lacks the lac repressor, which normally binds to the operator region and prevents transcription of the lac operon in the absence of glucose. Additionally, the presence of "Oc" indicates that the operator region is constitutively active, meaning that the lac operon will be transcribed regardless of the presence of glucose. Therefore, in the absence of glucose, the mutant will still accumulate lactose. Hence, the correct answer is False.

Submit
20. Which of the following sigma specificity factor is involved in middle gene transcription during SPO1 phage infection of bacteria?

Explanation

During SPO1 phage infection of bacteria, gp28 is the sigma specificity factor involved in middle gene transcription.

Submit
21. Which of the following can be found in DNA-binding domains? 

Explanation

DNA-binding domains can contain various motifs and regions that allow them to bind to DNA. Zinc fingers are one type of DNA-binding motif that consists of a zinc ion coordinated by cysteine and histidine residues. Glutamine-rich regions are another type of DNA-binding domain that contains an abundance of glutamine amino acids and can interact with DNA. bZIP motifs, short for basic leucine zipper motifs, are DNA-binding domains that consist of a basic region and a leucine zipper region. bHLH motifs, short for basic helix-loop-helix motifs, are also DNA-binding domains that contain a basic region and two helix-loop-helix regions. Therefore, all of the choices are correct.

Submit
22. Which of the following techniques would be most useful in testing the ability of the core RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter? 

Explanation

DNase footprinting would be the most useful technique in testing the ability of the core RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter. DNase footprinting is a method used to identify the specific DNA sequence that is bound by a protein. In this case, by using DNase footprinting, we can determine if the core RNA polymerase is binding to the promoter region of the DNA. This technique involves treating the DNA with DNase, which cuts the DNA at unprotected regions. If the core RNA polymerase is bound to the promoter, it will protect that region from being cut by DNase, creating a "footprint" that can be visualized and analyzed.

Submit
23. An antibody was produced and used in an immunohistochemical assay to detect the location of RNA polymerase I in a thin section of a liver biopsy. The section was antibody-labeled with a fluorescent tag, then viewed under a fluorescent microscope. State where you would expect to find positive staining if the enzymes are present. 

Explanation

The correct answer is nucleolus. RNA polymerase I is responsible for transcribing ribosomal RNA (rRNA) in the nucleolus, which is a distinct subcompartment within the nucleus. Therefore, positive staining would be expected in the nucleolus if the enzymes are present. The other options, rough endoplasmic reticulum, endoplasmic reticulum, and ribosomes, are not directly involved in the transcription of rRNA.

Submit
24. An experiment was designed to obtain nonspecific transcription from both strands of a DNA molecule. Which of the following strategies would be most effective in achieving this? 

Explanation

Using the core enzyme of RNA polymerase would be the most effective strategy in obtaining nonspecific transcription from both strands of a DNA molecule. The core enzyme is capable of binding to DNA and initiating transcription without the need for additional factors or subunits. This allows for transcription to occur on both strands of the DNA molecule, resulting in nonspecific transcription. Including the RNA holoenzyme in the reaction or enriching the preparation with the sigma subunit may enhance transcription efficiency, but they are not necessary for achieving nonspecific transcription.

Submit
25. Dimethyl sulfate is used to 

Explanation

Dimethyl sulfate is a chemical compound that is commonly used to add methyl groups to DNA. Methyl groups are small chemical units that can be added to DNA molecules, and this process is known as methylation. Methylation of DNA can have various effects on gene expression and is an important mechanism in regulating gene activity. Dimethyl sulfate is often used in laboratory settings to specifically add methyl groups to DNA at specific locations, allowing researchers to study the effects of methylation on gene function. Therefore, the correct answer is that dimethyl sulfate is used to add methyl groups to DNA.

Submit
26. Which of the following does not have a DNA-binding domain? 

Explanation

The UP region does not have a DNA-binding domain. The UP region is a regulatory sequence found in bacterial promoters that helps to increase the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter region, thereby enhancing transcription. It does not directly bind to DNA itself, but rather interacts with the alpha subunit of RNA polymerase to facilitate transcription initiation. In contrast, sigma-factors, alpha-factor, beta, and beta prime are all protein subunits of RNA polymerase that contain DNA-binding domains and are involved in the recognition and binding of specific DNA sequences during transcription initiation.

Submit
27. Differences in the transcription of T7 and SPO1 genes are 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Both correct". This is because the given information states that T7 phage encodes a new RNA polymerase for phage genes, while SPO1 phage uses the new sigma factor for phage genes. This implies that there are differences in the transcription of T7 and SPO1 genes, supporting the statement that both options are correct.

Submit
28. Which of the following is true about the action of CAP at the lac promoter? 

Explanation

The correct answer states that the binding of CAP-cAMP to the lac activator-binding site recruits RNA polymerase. This means that CAP-cAMP plays a role in bringing RNA polymerase to the lac promoter, which is necessary for gene expression. This explanation is supported by the fact that CAP is known to act as an activator of transcription in the lac operon system, and its binding to the activator-binding site is necessary for the recruitment of RNA polymerase.

Submit
29. Why three RNA polymerases? How many types of RNA are in the cells? 

Explanation

The three RNA polymerases are necessary because each one is responsible for transcribing a specific type of RNA. RNA polymerase I transcribes the genes that encode for ribosomal RNA (rRNA), which are essential components of the ribosomes. The rRNA molecules produced by RNA polymerase I include the 28S, 18S, 5.8S, and 5S rRNA. RNA polymerase II transcribes the genes that encode for messenger RNA (mRNA), which carries the genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes for protein synthesis. RNA polymerase III transcribes the genes that encode for transfer RNA (tRNA) and other small non-coding RNAs, including small nuclear RNA (snRNA). Therefore, the presence of three RNA polymerases allows for the transcription of different types of RNA molecules in the cell.

Submit
30. Which of the following are typical features of transcriptional activators? 

Explanation

Transcriptional activators are proteins that bind to specific DNA sequences and enhance the transcription of genes. They typically have two key features: a transcription-activation domain and a DNA-binding domain. The transcription-activation domain interacts with other proteins involved in the transcription process, such as the RNA polymerase, to promote gene expression. The DNA-binding domain allows the activator to recognize and bind to specific DNA sequences, positioning it in the correct location to activate transcription. Therefore, the correct answer is transcription-activation domain and DNA-binding domain.

Submit
31. Which of the following bond is lactose linked between glucose and galactose? 

Explanation

The given correct answer is "All of the choices are correct." This means that all of the statements provided in the question are true. The bond between glucose and galactose in lactose is a glycoside bond, specifically a (beta)-1, 4 bond. This bond can be broken by (beta)-galactosidase, and it is a covalent bond. Therefore, all of the statements are correct.

Submit
32. The following is an example of a cis-dominant mutation: I-d O+ Z+ Y+ A-

Explanation

The given sequence of blood types (I-d O+ Z+ Y+ A-) does not represent a cis-dominant mutation. A cis-dominant mutation occurs when a mutation affects only one copy of a gene, while the other copy remains normal. In this case, the blood types listed do not indicate any mutation or alteration in the gene responsible for blood type. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

Submit
33. Which of the following statements is true about a lac operon with this genotype? I-d O+ Z+ Y- A- 

Explanation

The lac operon with the given genotype (I-d O+ Z+ Y- A-) is non-repressible because the presence of the I-d mutation prevents the repressor protein from binding to the operator region, allowing the lac operon to be transcribed and expressed continuously. This means that even in the absence of lactose, the operon will still be active and producing the enzymes necessary for lactose metabolism.

Submit
34. A promoter region replacing the TATA box with the ICIC box will not bind to TFIID. 

Explanation

The statement is false because the TATA box is a crucial element in the promoter region that helps in binding to TFIID, which is a protein complex involved in the initiation of transcription. If the TATA box is replaced with the ICIC box, it is expected that TFIID will still be able to bind to the promoter region.

Submit
35. Which of the following organisms would produce functional lac products in the presence of IPTG? 

Explanation

The organisms that would produce functional lac products in the presence of IPTG are those that have all the genes necessary for lactose metabolism (lac operon) present and functional. In this case, the answer is I+ O+ Z+ Y+ A+, which indicates that all the necessary genes (I, O, Z, Y, A) are present and functional in the organism.

Submit
36. Which of the following products are made by RNA polymerase III? 

Explanation

RNA polymerase III is responsible for transcribing small non-coding RNAs, including 7SL RNA, 5S rRNA, and U6 snRNA. These RNA molecules play important roles in various cellular processes. 7SL RNA is involved in protein targeting and secretion, 5S rRNA is a component of the ribosome, and U6 snRNA is involved in splicing of pre-mRNA. Therefore, the correct answer is 7SL RNA and 5S rRNA and U6 snRNA.

Submit
37. An experiment is planned to study the effect of reducing the transcription of the myosin gene. Which of the following inhibitors would be useful in this study? 

Explanation

(alpha)-amanitin is a potent inhibitor of RNA polymerase II, which is responsible for transcribing the myosin gene. By using (alpha)-amanitin, the transcription of the myosin gene can be reduced, allowing the researchers to study the effect of this reduction on various cellular processes. DMS, heparin, and ammonium sulfate are not known to specifically inhibit transcription of the myosin gene, so they would not be useful in this study. Therefore, the correct choice is (alpha)-amanitin.

Submit
38. The glucocorticoid receptor is activated by binding to 

Explanation

The glucocorticoid receptor is activated by binding to its hormone ligand, which triggers a conformational change in the receptor. This activated receptor then translocates to the nucleus, where it binds to specific DNA sequences known as glucocorticoid response elements (GREs). This receptor-DNA interaction leads to the regulation of target gene expression, resulting in various physiological responses.

Submit
39. Which of the following are characteristic of intrinsic terminator elements? 

Explanation

Intrinsic terminator elements are DNA sequences that play a role in the termination of transcription. They contain an inverted repeat, which is a sequence that is repeated in the opposite orientation. This inverted repeat forms a hairpin loop structure, which helps in the termination process. Additionally, intrinsic terminator elements also contain several T's in the non-template strand of DNA. Therefore, the correct answer is that intrinsic terminator elements contain an inverted repeat, a hairpin loop, and several T's in the non-template strand of DNA.

Submit
40. Which of the following plasmids could be used to restore inducible regulation of (Beta)-galactosidase in this mutant: I+ Oc Z- Y+ A+? 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
41. Which of the following is true about the cro gene? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "cro repression is important to lysogeny." This means that the repression of the cro gene plays a crucial role in the process of lysogeny. Lysogeny is a state in which a bacteriophage's DNA is integrated into the host cell's genome and remains dormant. The cro gene codes for a protein that acts as a repressor, preventing the expression of other genes involved in the lytic cycle of the bacteriophage. This repression is necessary for the establishment and maintenance of lysogeny.

Submit
42. Predict a possible effect of deleting the enhancers region of the polymerase I gene. 

Explanation

Deleting the enhancers region of the polymerase I gene would likely result in a reduction in the amount of rRNA made. Enhancers are DNA sequences that enhance the transcription of specific genes. In the case of the polymerase I gene, enhancers play a crucial role in promoting the transcription of rRNA, which is essential for ribosome synthesis. Therefore, deleting the enhancers region would likely lead to a decrease in the transcription of rRNA and subsequently reduce the amount of rRNA produced.

Submit
43. Which of the following would most likely occur if an in vitro transcription assay is performed by using a cell extract containing an (alpha) subunit without the C-terminal domain? 

Explanation

If an in vitro transcription assay is performed using a cell extract containing an (alpha) subunit without the C-terminal domain, the most likely occurrence would be that the polymerase complex would be loosely associated with the promoter. The C-terminal domain of the (alpha) subunit is responsible for stabilizing the interaction between the polymerase complex and the promoter. Without this domain, the interaction becomes weaker, resulting in a looser association between the polymerase complex and the promoter. This can affect the efficiency and accuracy of transcription.

Submit
44. Which of the following techniques is most useful in determining if RNA polymerase has initiated transcription from the lac DNA template? 

Explanation

A run-off transcription assay is the most useful technique for determining if RNA polymerase has initiated transcription from the lac DNA template. This assay involves allowing RNA polymerase to transcribe the lac DNA template in the presence of labeled nucleotides, and then isolating and analyzing the newly synthesized RNA. By comparing the amount of labeled RNA produced in the presence and absence of RNA polymerase, it can be determined if transcription has occurred. This technique directly measures the activity of RNA polymerase and provides evidence of transcription initiation.

Submit
45. Which of the following would you choose to specifically collect polymerase subunits in cell extracts? 

Explanation

Epitope tagging is a technique used to specifically collect polymerase subunits in cell extracts. This involves adding a short amino acid sequence, known as an epitope tag, to the protein of interest. Antibodies that specifically recognize the epitope tag can then be used to isolate and purify the tagged protein from the cell extract. This method allows for the specific collection of polymerase subunits and can be used to study their function and interactions. Immunoprecipitation, in vitro transcription, western blotting, and DNAase footprinting are not specifically designed for collecting polymerase subunits in cell extracts.

Submit
46. Which of the following is not a part of the core class II promoter? 

Explanation

The upstream element is not a part of the core class II promoter. The core class II promoter consists of the TATA box, BRE (TFIIB recognition element), DPE (downstream promoter element), and Inr (initiator element). The upstream element is a separate regulatory element located upstream of the core promoter region. It plays a role in the regulation of transcription initiation but is not considered a part of the core promoter itself.

Submit
47. Which statement is wrong regarding promoters in humans? 

Explanation

The given statement "Promoter can be never within a gene" is incorrect. In humans, promoters can indeed be located within a gene. Promoters are DNA sequences that are responsible for initiating the process of transcription, where RNA polymerase binds and starts transcribing the gene. Promoters can be found upstream or downstream of the gene, as well as within the gene itself. Therefore, the statement that promoters can never be within a gene is incorrect.

Submit
48. Which of the following is the correct order of chromatin folding? 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
49. Which of the following is true about the regulation of the trp operon? 

Explanation

All of the choices are true. The regulation of the trp operon involves an aporepressor, which is a protein that is inactive until it binds to a corepressor molecule. Attenuation is also a control mechanism in the regulation of the trp operon, where the transcription of the operon is prematurely terminated under conditions of high tryptophan levels. Additionally, the regulation of the trp operon is a negative control mechanism, as it involves the repression of gene expression.

Submit
50. Insulators are DNA elements that 

Explanation

Insulators are DNA elements that shield genes from activation by blocking enhancer activity. This means that insulators act as barriers, preventing enhancers from interacting with genes and activating their transcription. By blocking enhancer activity, insulators help regulate gene expression and ensure that genes are only activated when necessary.

Submit
51. Which of the following is incorrect regarding rho-dependent terminators? 

Explanation

Rho-dependent terminators are a type of termination signal in bacterial transcription. They contain several T's in the non-template strand, consist of inverted repeats, and form hairpin loops. Rho, a protein, binds to the growing transcripts and acts as a helicase to unwind the RNA-DNA hybrid, facilitating termination. Therefore, the statement that Rho has no helicase activity is incorrect.

Submit
52. Which of the following statements about ribosomal genes is incorrect? 

Explanation

Ribosomal genes do have repetitive sequences, so the statement "There are no repetitive sequences" is incorrect. These genes contain multiple copies of the same sequence, which are repeated in tandem. This repetition allows for the production of multiple ribosomal RNA molecules, which are essential for protein synthesis.

Submit
53. An electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA) was conducted to check for the binding of TFIIB to a segment of a DNA promoter region. Which of the following approaches could be used to confirm that TFIIB is indeed binding? 

Explanation

Using an antibody to TFIIB and checking for a supershift by EMSA is a valid approach to confirm the binding of TFIIB to the DNA promoter region. In EMSA, the DNA-protein complex is separated from the unbound DNA by gel electrophoresis. If TFIIB is indeed binding to the DNA, adding an antibody specific to TFIIB will result in a supershift, where the complex migrates slower on the gel due to the additional size of the antibody. This confirms the presence of TFIIB in the DNA-protein complex and its binding to the promoter region.

Submit
54. Which of the following would you expect to bind to a chromatography column made of a resin conjugated to UBF? 

Explanation

SL1 would be expected to bind to a chromatography column made of a resin conjugated to UBF.

Submit
55. Which of the following is involved in maintaining lysogeny in (lambda) phage? 

Explanation

P (RM) is involved in maintaining lysogeny in (lambda) phage.

Submit
56. Which of the following would you choose to study the role of polymerase subunits in elongation? 

Explanation

In vitro transcription would be the best choice to study the role of polymerase subunits in elongation because it involves the synthesis of RNA using purified components in a test tube. This allows researchers to manipulate and control the conditions of the transcription process, making it easier to study the specific role of polymerase subunits in elongation. Epitope tagging, immunoprecipitation, western blotting, and DNAase footprinting are techniques that can provide valuable information in other areas of molecular biology but may not be as suitable for studying polymerase subunits in elongation.

Submit
57. Which of the following techniques would you use to study the role of the BRE? 

Explanation

Linker scanning mutations would be the technique used to study the role of the BRE. This technique involves systematically mutating specific regions of DNA to identify the effects on gene expression. By creating mutations within the linker regions, which connect different functional elements of DNA, researchers can determine the impact on gene regulation and understand the role of the BRE in this process. X-ray crystallography and S1 nuclease protection analysis are not specifically mentioned as techniques for studying the role of the BRE, so they are not the correct answer.

Submit
58. Select the feature that is not true of the GAL4 protein. 

Explanation

The GAL4 protein is a member of the zinc-containing family, contains zinc ions in the DNA binding motif, and contains (alpha)-helix. However, it does not contain six cysteines.

Submit
59. Which of the following statements is true about a lac operon with the following genotype? I- Oc Z+ Y-I- O+ Z- Y-

Explanation

The lac operon with the given genotype I- Oc Z+ Y-I- O+ Z- Y- indicates that the operator region (O) is not functional, and the repressor protein cannot bind to it. As a result, the repressor protein will not be produced, leading to the constitutive production of (Beta)-galactosidase. The other options do not align with the given genotype and are therefore incorrect.

Submit
60. Which of the following is true about the interaction with the (lambda) repressor and RNA polymerase at P (RM)? 

Explanation

The correct answer states that the interaction between the repressor and polymerase is essential for the activation of transcription, and this interaction specifically involves region 4 of the sigma-factor. This means that in order for transcription to occur, the repressor protein must interact with the RNA polymerase enzyme, and this interaction is mediated by region 4 of the sigma-factor. This interaction is crucial for the proper functioning of the transcription process.

Submit
61. Which of the following are products of RNA polymerase II activity? 

Explanation

RNA polymerase II is responsible for transcribing protein-coding genes in eukaryotic cells. It synthesizes heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA), which is the precursor to messenger RNA (mRNA). hnRNA undergoes further processing to become mature mRNA. Additionally, RNA polymerase II also transcribes small nuclear RNA (snRNA), which is involved in the splicing of pre-mRNA. Therefore, the correct answer is snRNA and hnRNA.

Submit
62. One effect of mutation or deleting the activation domain of a transcriptional activator would be 

Explanation

Mutations or deletion of the activation domain of a transcriptional activator would result in the activator being able to bind to DNA, but it would not be able to activate transcription. This means that the activator would be able to physically bind to the DNA sequence but would not be able to initiate the process of transcription, which is the conversion of DNA into RNA. Therefore, the activator would be present at the DNA site but would not be able to activate the transcription process.

Submit
63. Predict the outcome of the removal of the N from the DNA sequence of the (lambda) phage:

Explanation

The removal of the N from the DNA sequence of the (lambda) phage will affect antitermination and interrupt transcription from the left promoter. The N protein is responsible for preventing transcription termination and allowing continuous transcription of the phage genes. Without the N protein, antitermination will be affected, leading to premature termination of transcription. Additionally, the left promoter is dependent on the N protein for efficient transcription initiation. Therefore, the removal of N will interrupt transcription from the left promoter.

Submit
64. In an in vitro transcription assay to detect the level of transcription from a lac operon, one of the RNA precursors was tagged with a fluorescent label on the y-phosphate. Which of the following is a likely outcome if transcription occurred? 

Explanation

If transcription occurred in the in vitro transcription assay, the RNA precursors with a fluorescent label on the y-phosphate would be synthesized. These labeled RNA molecules would contribute to the level of fluorescence in the assay buffer, resulting in a high level of fluorescence. Therefore, the correct answer is that the level of fluorescence would be very high in the assay buffer.

Submit
65. The following conditions lead to a change in gene expression patterns in bacterial cells.

Explanation

Sporulation is a process in which bacteria form endospores as a survival mechanism under unfavorable conditions. During sporulation, there is a significant change in gene expression patterns in bacterial cells. This is because the bacteria need to activate specific genes that are involved in the formation of endospores and deactivate genes that are not necessary for survival in the dormant state. Therefore, sporulation leads to a change in gene expression patterns in bacterial cells.

Submit
66. Which of the following is a possible mechanism for the action of NusA in termination? 

Explanation

NusA is a protein that plays a role in transcription termination in bacteria. It interacts with the RNA polymerase and aids in the formation of a hairpin loop structure at the termination site, which leads to the release of the RNA transcript. This mechanism is known as intrinsic termination. The other options mentioned in the question, such as binding to the RNA polymerase causing it to stall or promoting detachment of the RNA polymerase, are not directly associated with the action of NusA in termination. Therefore, the correct answer is that NusA stimulates termination at the intrinsic terminator by facilitating hairpin loop formation.

Submit
67. A new mutant cell line was developed and was found to be defective in polymerase III activity. Which of the following is likely to be observed in this cell line? 

Explanation

If the mutant cell line is defective in polymerase III activity, it is likely to affect the splicing function. Polymerase III is responsible for transcribing small nuclear RNAs (snRNAs), which are essential for the splicing process. Therefore, if polymerase III activity is impaired, it would result in a defective splicing function. This explains why the correct answer is "Splicing function is impaired."

Submit
68. HMG (Y) plays a role in IFN-(beta) transcription by

Explanation

HMG (Y) plays a role in IFN-(beta) transcription by bending the DNA, which facilitates the binding and interaction of more activators. This interaction enhances the transcription process, leading to increased IFN-(beta) expression.

Submit
69. Which of the following conditions does not lead to a change in gene expression patterns in bacteria cells? 

Explanation

All of the conditions listed in the question can lead to a change in gene expression patterns in bacteria cells. Sporulation, heat shock, nutrient availability, and nitrogen deprivation are all known to trigger changes in gene expression. Therefore, none of the choices are correct in terms of not leading to a change in gene expression patterns in bacteria cells.

Submit
70. During an experiment to study the rate of infection of bacteria with T4, bacteria with T4, bacterial cultures were accidentally exposed to a UV light source. Which of the following would be expected for this exposure? 

Explanation

When bacterial cultures are exposed to UV light, it can cause DNA damage. The activation of coprotease activity in the RecA protein helps to repair this DNA damage by promoting the cleavage of LexA repressor, which leads to the induction of the SOS response. The SOS response is a cellular response to DNA damage, where a variety of repair mechanisms are activated. Therefore, the correct answer is that coprotease activity in RecA protein is activated, and SOS response is induced.

Submit
71. Which of the following is the correct order of addition of general transcription factors to the initiation complex? 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
72. Histone acetylation can occur in the 

Explanation

Histone acetylation refers to the addition of acetyl groups to histone proteins, which are involved in DNA packaging and gene regulation. This process typically occurs in the nucleus, where the DNA is located. However, recent studies have also shown that histone acetylation can occur in the cytoplasm, outside of the nucleus. This suggests that histone acetylation may have additional functions beyond its role in gene regulation. Therefore, the correct answer is "nucleus and cytoplasm."

Submit
73. Which of the following is true about the early phase of T7 infection of bacteria?

Explanation

In the early phase of T7 infection of bacteria, the first genes to be transcribed are the Class I genes. This means that the phage-encoded polymerase transcribes the Class I phage genes, indicating that the correct answer is "Class I genes are the first to be transcribed." This suggests that the phage takes control of the transcription process early on in the infection, utilizing its own polymerase to transcribe its own genes.

Submit
74. Which of the following histone protein is the most highly conserved from one organism to another? 

Explanation

H3 is the most highly conserved histone protein from one organism to another. This means that the amino acid sequence of H3 remains very similar across different species. The high conservation of H3 suggests that it plays a crucial role in the structure and function of chromatin, which is important for DNA packaging and gene regulation.

Submit
75. Which of the following is a target site for GAL4?

Explanation

The correct answer is UAS (G). UAS (G) refers to upstream activating sequence with a GATA motif. GAL4 is a transcription factor that binds to UAS (G) and activates gene expression. The other options, CCAATT and GCAAT, are not specific target sites for GAL4.

Submit
76. One method to demonstrate the existence of nucleosome-free DNA regions is 

Explanation

DNase hypersensitivity experiments can be used to demonstrate the existence of nucleosome-free DNA regions. DNase is an enzyme that can cleave DNA, and it is more likely to cleave DNA that is not bound to nucleosomes. Therefore, when DNA is treated with DNase, regions that are not protected by nucleosomes will be more susceptible to cleavage and show higher sensitivity to DNase. By comparing the cleavage patterns of different regions of the genome, researchers can identify and characterize nucleosome-free DNA regions, providing evidence for their existence.

Submit
77. Which of the following operators is a target of CI gene production? 

Explanation

All of the operators mentioned in the options (O RI, O R2, O L1, O L2) are targets of CI gene production.

Submit
78. Which of the following is a reasonable way to explain the ability of enhancers to act at a distance? 

Explanation

The answer "All of the choices and explanations are possible" is correct because all of the given explanations provide reasonable ways to explain the ability of enhancers to act at a distance. Each explanation describes a mechanism by which an activator binds to an enhancer and facilitates the activation of transcription either by changing the supercoiling state of DNA, sliding along the DNA until it encounters the promoter, creating loops in the DNA, or forming a loop with a downstream segment to track toward the promoter. Therefore, any of these explanations could be valid in describing the ability of enhancers to act at a distance.

Submit
79. You were asked to choose a method to separate a mixture of eukaryotic polymerases. Which of the following methods would you choose? 

Explanation

Chromatography is a commonly used method to separate mixtures based on their different physical and chemical properties. In the context of separating eukaryotic polymerases, chromatography can be used to separate the different types of polymerases based on their size, charge, or affinity for certain molecules. UMP incorporation assay, on the other hand, is a technique used to measure the activity of polymerases by monitoring the incorporation of UMP molecules into a growing DNA or RNA chain. By combining chromatography with UMP incorporation assay, one can not only separate the polymerases but also determine their activity levels, providing a more comprehensive analysis of the mixture.

Submit
80. Determine which of the following would most likely lead to a dramatic reduction in transcription. 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Sep 2, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Sep 02, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 31, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Ekanye
Cancel
  • All
    All (80)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
One hypothesis explaining the mechanism of repression of the lac...
Epitope tagging is an efficient way to immunoprecipitate to isolate an...
Arabinose can derepress the ara operon by causing AraC to loosen its...
Which of the following is not present in the core RNA...
Which of the following is absent in an operon? 
TFIID collaborates with TFIIA to bind to the TATA box.
If an operon is under negative control, it means that the operon is...
 RNA polymerase prevents the binding of TFIIF to the promoter...
Attenuation causes the length of the RNA molecules to be significantly...
Eukaryotic ribosomal RNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase II.
CAMP level is increased by the presence of a high level of...
Roeder and Rutter showed that there are four polymerases operating in...
Recent experimental evidence has shown that only one operator sequence...
Place the following in the order that they occur during transcription...
Which of the following techniques is suitable for the study of DNA:...
Which of the following is most likely to occur if the level of glucose...
Which of the following statements is false regarding the sigma...
Which of the following is true about the holoenzyme of RNA pol in an...
In the absence of glucose, there will be a rapid accumulation of...
Which of the following sigma specificity factor is involved in middle...
Which of the following can be found in DNA-binding domains? 
Which of the following techniques would be most useful in testing the...
An antibody was produced and used in an immunohistochemical assay to...
An experiment was designed to obtain nonspecific transcription from...
Dimethyl sulfate is used to 
Which of the following does not have a DNA-binding domain? 
Differences in the transcription of T7 and SPO1 genes are 
Which of the following is true about the action of CAP at the lac...
Why three RNA polymerases? How many types of RNA are in the...
Which of the following are typical features of transcriptional...
Which of the following bond is lactose linked between glucose and...
The following is an example of a cis-dominant mutation: I-d O+ Z+...
Which of the following statements is true about a lac operon with this...
A promoter region replacing the TATA box with the ICIC box will not...
Which of the following organisms would produce functional lac products...
Which of the following products are made by RNA polymerase III? 
An experiment is planned to study the effect of reducing the...
The glucocorticoid receptor is activated by binding to 
Which of the following are characteristic of intrinsic terminator...
Which of the following plasmids could be used to restore inducible...
Which of the following is true about the cro gene? 
Predict a possible effect of deleting the enhancers region of the...
Which of the following would most likely occur if an in vitro...
Which of the following techniques is most useful in determining if RNA...
Which of the following would you choose to specifically collect...
Which of the following is not a part of the core class II...
Which statement is wrong regarding promoters in humans? 
Which of the following is the correct order of chromatin...
Which of the following is true about the regulation of the trp...
Insulators are DNA elements that 
Which of the following is incorrect regarding rho-dependent...
Which of the following statements about ribosomal genes is...
An electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA) was conducted to check...
Which of the following would you expect to bind to a chromatography...
Which of the following is involved in maintaining lysogeny in (lambda)...
Which of the following would you choose to study the role of...
Which of the following techniques would you use to study the role of...
Select the feature that is not true of the GAL4 protein. 
Which of the following statements is true about a lac operon with the...
Which of the following is true about the interaction with the (lambda)...
Which of the following are products of RNA polymerase II...
One effect of mutation or deleting the activation domain of a...
Predict the outcome of the removal of the N from the DNA sequence of...
In an in vitro transcription assay to detect the level of...
The following conditions lead to a change in gene expression patterns...
Which of the following is a possible mechanism for the action of NusA...
A new mutant cell line was developed and was found to be defective in...
HMG (Y) plays a role in IFN-(beta) transcription by
Which of the following conditions does not lead to a change in gene...
During an experiment to study the rate of infection of bacteria with...
Which of the following is the correct order of addition of general...
Histone acetylation can occur in the 
Which of the following is true about the early phase of T7 infection...
Which of the following histone protein is the most highly conserved...
Which of the following is a target site for GAL4?
One method to demonstrate the existence of nucleosome-free DNA regions...
Which of the following operators is a target of CI gene...
Which of the following is a reasonable way to explain the ability of...
You were asked to choose a method to separate a mixture of eukaryotic...
Determine which of the following would most likely lead to a dramatic...
Alert!

Advertisement