Molecular Biology (Chapter 1-5, 20-23)

122 Questions

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Molecular Biology Quizzes & Trivia

These are the powerpoint questions he asked I'll add some randoms one later when I get through reading all the chapters. Good luck.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      They are too close together

    • B. 

      The are interrupted by other genes

    • C. 

      Crossover events occur between homologous genes

    • D. 

      Some genes are deleted

    • E. 

      Too many alleles are present

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      The gene for eye color is located on the X chromosome

    • B. 

      The eye color phenotype is sex-linked

    • C. 

      The females are homozygotes

    • D. 

      The gene for eye color is located on an autosome

    • E. 

      Both (A) and (B) are correct

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      Genes are arragned in a linear order on chromosomes

    • B. 

      Recombination occurs between chromosomes

    • C. 

      There is a mathematical relationship between the distance separtating two genes and the recombination frequency

    • D. 

      Mapping is used to establish the location of genes relative to each other

    • E. 

      Mapping is used to determine the composition of a gene.

  • 4. 
    Evidence that physical recombination occurs between two chromosomes was provided by?
    • A. 

      McClintock and Creighton

    • B. 

      Watson and Crick

    • C. 

      Avery, McLeod and McCarthy

    • D. 

      Hershey and Chase

    • E. 

      Miescher and Morgan

  • 5. 
    The chromosomal theory of inheritance holds that
    • A. 

      Chromosomes vary in size

    • B. 

      The number of chromosomes vary in individuals

    • C. 

      Chromosomes contain histone protiens

    • D. 

      Genes are arranged in a linear order on chromosomes

    • E. 

      Chromosomes condense during mitosis

  • 6. 
    Which of the following was demonstrated by Frederick and Griffiths?
    • A. 

      Nuclein was the possible genetic material

    • B. 

      A genetic trait can be transferred from one organism to another

    • C. 

      Genes are linked

    • D. 

      Corssing over occurs between chromosomes

    • E. 

      Protein is a major component of nuclein.

  • 7. 
    Who first conducted the X-ray diffraction studies of DNA?
    • A. 

      Franklin and Wilkins

    • B. 

      Miescher and McClintock

    • C. 

      Wason and Crick

    • D. 

      Meselson and Stahl

    • E. 

      Avery and Beadle

  • 8. 
    Which of the follwing scientists provided definitive evidence for the chromosomal theory?
    • A. 

      Mendel

    • B. 

      Morgan

    • C. 

      McClintock

    • D. 

      Miescher

    • E. 

      Avery

  • 9. 
    The relationship between genes and enzymes was shown by?
    • A. 

      Watson and Crick

    • B. 

      Beadle and Tatum

    • C. 

      Avery and McLeod

    • D. 

      Morgan and Mendel

    • E. 

      Miescher and Stern

  • 10. 
    The notion of one-gene/one-enzyme is true or not? If not, it is because of which of the following?
    • A. 

      An enzyme can be composed of more than one polypeptide

    • B. 

      Many genes contain the information for making polypeptides that are not enzymes.

    • C. 

      The end products of some genes are not polypeptides

    • D. 

      All A-C are correct

    • E. 

      Only A and B are correct

  • 11. 
    Which of the following is not a product of transcription?
    • A. 

      RNA

    • B. 

      DNA

    • C. 

      RRNA

    • D. 

      TRNA

    • E. 

      MRNA

  • 12. 
    Which of the following is true about wild-type organisms?
    • A. 

      They are always foudn in the wild.

    • B. 

      They are free of all mutations.

    • C. 

      They are also referred to as standard-types

    • D. 

      They carry no recessive genes.

    • E. 

      None of the choices

  • 13. 
    The correct structure of DNA components can be presented as
    • A. 

      Phosphate–base–sugar

    • B. 

      Phosphate-sugar-base

    • C. 

      Base-phosphate-sugar

    • D. 

      Phosphate-sugar-phosphate-base

    • E. 

      Base-sugar-phosphate-base

  • 14. 
    Which of the following is a characteristic of double-stranded DNA?
    • A. 

      2 nanometers in width

    • B. 

      10 base pairs per turn

    • C. 

      0.34 nanometers per basepair

    • D. 

      A and B

    • E. 

      A, B and C

  • 15. 
    Which of the following DNA molecules is the most stable?
    • A. 

      CTGCATAC GACGTATG

    • B. 

      GAAATTTC CTTTAAAG

    • C. 

      AGTCGAAT TCAGCTTA

    • D. 

      GCGTGCAC CGCACGTG

    • E. 

      GGATCCTG CCTAGGAC

  • 16. 
    Double-stranded DNA consists of two antiparallel strands, meaning that one strand is oriented in the 5' to 3' direction, while the other is oriented in the 3' to 5' direction.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 17. 
    Asymmetrical spacing of the backbones of the DNA double helix generates major and minor grooves.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 18. 
    In experiments conducted by Griffitsh, the inabilityy of the avirulent strain to produce a lethal infection was due to
    • A. 

      The presence of a protective

    • B. 

      Destruction by the host's white blood cells

    • C. 

      The presence of a gene for a polysaccharide coat

    • D. 

      The high body temperature of the host

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct

  • 19. 
    Experiments conducted by Frederick Griffiths laid the foundation for?
    • A. 

      Elucidation of mRNA structure

    • B. 

      DNA as the genetic material

    • C. 

      The virulence of S. pneumoniae

    • D. 

      The discovery of the capsule of S. pneumoniae

    • E. 

      Elucidaiton of tRNA structure.

  • 20. 
    Which of the following would be the substance of choice to destroy the DNA in a solution?
    • A. 

      Ribonuclease

    • B. 

      Trypson

    • C. 

      Chymotrypsin

    • D. 

      Deoxyribonuclease

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct

  • 21. 
    The analytic tools used to show that DNA was the transforming substance include all of the following except
    • A. 

      Ultracentrifugation

    • B. 

      Electrophoresis

    • C. 

      UV absorption spectrophotometry

    • D. 

      Heat inactivation

    • E. 

      Chemical analysis

  • 22. 
    All of the following are found in RNA except
    • A. 

      Adenine

    • B. 

      Deoxyribose

    • C. 

      Cytosine

    • D. 

      Guanine

    • E. 

      Uracil

  • 23. 
    Which of the following is not found in RNA and DNA?
    • A. 

      Nitrogen

    • B. 

      Oxygen

    • C. 

      Carbon

    • D. 

      Sulfur

    • E. 

      Hydrogen

  • 24. 
    The bonds that connect adenine to thymine in a DNA double helix are
    • A. 

      Ionic

    • B. 

      Hydrophobic

    • C. 

      Hydrogen

    • D. 

      Covalent

    • E. 

      One of the choices are correct

  • 25. 
    Phosphodiester bonds are examples of
    • A. 

      Hydrophobic interactions

    • B. 

      Hydrogen bonds

    • C. 

      Convalent bonds

    • D. 

      Noncovalent bonds

    • E. 

      Ionic bonds

  • 26. 
    The ability of two polynucleotide strands to hybridize is based on which of the following principles?
    • A. 

      Double helical nature of DNA

    • B. 

      The presence of phosphodiester bonds

    • C. 

      Complementary base pairing

    • D. 

      The presence of 3' and 5' ends

    • E. 

      The presence of covalent bonds

  • 27. 
    Rapid cooling of DNA following heating at high temperature will cause
    • A. 

      The strands to break

    • B. 

      Rapid renaturation of the strands

    • C. 

      The strands to remain separated

    • D. 

      The double helix to fomr rapidly

    • E. 

      Mismatching between the strands

  • 28. 
    Which of the following features is common to DNA, RNA, and proteins?
    • A. 

      They contain amino acidds

    • B. 

      They contain nucleotides

    • C. 

      Hey contain uracil

    • D. 

      They are polymers.

    • E. 

      Hey are found in vesicles

  • 29. 
    The messenger hypothesis states that
    • A. 

      Messenger RNAs are very stable and are not destroyed

    • B. 

      Ribosomal RNAs carry the inforamtion for making proteins

    • C. 

      Messenger RNAs carry genetic inforamtion to ribosomes

    • D. 

      New ribosome are made to trasmit new genetic inforamtion

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct

  • 30. 
    • A. 

      The phage RNA would be label along the entire molecule

    • B. 

      No label would be found in the RNA

    • C. 

      The DNA of the host bacteria would be labeled.

    • D. 

      The ribosomal RNA would be labeled

    • E. 

      All fo the choices are possible outcomes

  • 31. 
    Predict the consequence of treating the 70s ribosomal with urea:
    • A. 

      The RNA portion would be degraded

    • B. 

      The unit would be undisturbed

    • C. 

      The protein component would be degraded

    • D. 

      The unit would dissociate from RNA and protein components.

    • E. 

      The treatment would lead to tighter association between RNA components.

  • 32. 
    A new mutant cell line was accidentall created in the lab. This mutant was found to be deficient in the enzyme aminacyl-tRNA synthetase. Which of the following would most likely to observe in this cell line?
    • A. 

      No tRNA molecules would be present

    • B. 

      TRNA molecules would contain no anticodons

    • C. 

      Most tRNA molecules would not be able to attach to amino acids

    • D. 

      Protein synthesis would increase

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct

  • 33. 
    Which is the following is not requried during the elongation phase of translation in bacteria?
    • A. 

      EF-Tu

    • B. 

      Peptidyl transferease

    • C. 

      GTP

    • D. 

      70 S ribosome

    • E. 

      Ribonuclease

  • 34. 
    • A. 

      Removal a triplet code

    • B. 

      Removal of nine bases

    • C. 

      Removal of a single base

    • D. 

      Removal of six bases

    • E. 

      Noneo fthe choices are correct

  • 35. 
    A gene can accept occasional changes, which allows organisms to evolve
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 36. 
    MRNA encodes a gene
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 37. 
    The noncoding strand of a gene is the same as the antisense strand
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 38. 
    An amino group, a carboxyl group, and a hydrogen are found in all amino acids
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 39. 
    A segments of DNA is considered upstream when t is located on the 5' end of the start site.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 40. 
    Restriction enzymes were discoverd by
    • A. 

      Boyer and Cohen

    • B. 

      Linn and Arber

    • C. 

      Watson and Crick

    • D. 

      Gurdon and Linn

    • E. 

      Cohen and Gurdon

  • 41. 
    The complementary sequence of oneof the following is a palindrome. Which one?
    • A. 

      GAATTC

    • B. 

      CTGACT

    • C. 

      ATCCTC

    • D. 

      GGCCAA

    • E. 

      CCTTTC

  • 42. 
    Select the component that is most critical to the function of as plasmid? 
    • A. 

      Tetracycline resistance

    • B. 

      Ampicillin resistance

    • C. 

      EcoRI site

    • D. 

      Origin of replication

    • E. 

      Ligase

  • 43. 
    An experimenter is able to select recombinant colonies from a bacterial culture plate based on the color of the colonies. Which of the following is a correct statement. 
    • A. 

      Colonies that contain recombinant plasmids are red

    • B. 

      Colonies that contain recombinant plasmids are blue due to the disruption of the lacZ gene the insert

    • C. 

      Colonies that contain recombinants are colorless due to the distruption of the lacZ gene by the insert

    • D. 

      Colonies are blue due to the disruption of them ampicillin gene

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 44. 
    One approach to prevent religation of the ends of a restricted plasmid DNA is to 
    • A. 

      Store the plasmid in DNase

    • B. 

      Store the plasmid in RNAase

    • C. 

      Treat the plasmid with alkaline phosphatase to remove phosphate for the sticky ends

    • D. 

      Treat the plasmid with a protease to remove all proteins

    • E. 

      Treat the plasmid with BamHI to create gaps

  • 45. 
    • A. 

      All transformed bacteria will grow on a plate containing ampicillin

    • B. 

      All transformed and untransformed bacteria will grow on a plate containing ampicillin

    • C. 

      It will be difficult to screen for a colony containing a plasmid.

    • D. 

      A bacterial host that is ampicillin-sensitive should be sued for the screening

    • E. 

      All of the choices are true

  • 46. 
    How many enzymes should be used in a plasmid DNA and an insert if there is one desired site to ligate the insert in the vector to a specific orientation? 
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

    • E. 

      5

  • 47. 
    • A. 

      The vector could be a plasmid

    • B. 

      The vector could be a phage

    • C. 

      The vector is a Ti

    • D. 

      The vector is puc18

    • E. 

      The vector is a cosmid.

  • 48. 
    In constructing a cDNA library, which of the following would you use to generate rare restriction sites on the cDNA strands? 
    • A. 

      Restriction enzymes

    • B. 

      PCR with multiple cycles

    • C. 

      BamHI restriction followed by ligation

    • D. 

      Ligate cDNA to specific linkers

  • 49. 
    Which of the following enzymes cannot catalyze the formation of a phosphodiester bond? 
    • A. 

      Endonuclease

    • B. 

      RNA polymerase

    • C. 

      DNA polymerase

    • D. 

      Ligase

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct

  • 50. 
    A disadvantage of using a prokaryotic expression systems for eukaryotic proteins is that the proteins are 
    • A. 

      Highly phosphorylated after translation

    • B. 

      Improperly folded

    • C. 

      Highly soluble

    • D. 

      Heavily glycosylated

    • E. 

      Over expressed

  • 51. 
    In the construction of an expression vector, which of the following would you include in order to stimulate a high level of RNA synthesis? 
    • A. 

      Origin of replication

    • B. 

      T7phage promoter

    • C. 

      Amp gene

    • D. 

      His region

    • E. 

      GFP

  • 52. 
    HindII is so named because it was isolated from Haemophilus influenzae bacterium 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 53. 
    Bacteria use th restriction-modification system to synthesize new DNA molecule 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 54. 
    A fragment restricted with EcoRI enzyme can be used for ligation into a plasmid that was restricted with BamHI because both the insert and the plasmid contain sticky ends. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 55. 
    Polynucleotide probes can be used to screen a genomic library for specific genomic sequences. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 56. 
    Which of the following vectors is the best choice for the expression of eukaryotic proteins? 
    • A. 

      M13

    • B. 

      Baculovirus

    • C. 

      Phagemid

    • D. 

      PUC18

    • E. 

      PUC19

  • 57. 
    In order to clone eukaryotic DNA into prokaryotic cells 
    • A. 

      DNA with both exons and introns must be used

    • B. 

      DNA without introns must be added

    • C. 

      RNA with both exons and introns must be used

    • D. 

      Exons must be removed from eukaryotic DNA

    • E. 

      Introns must be added back to eukaryotic DNA

  • 58. 
    In the process of cloning eukaryotic DNA into prokaryotic cells, the role of reverse transcriptase is to make 
    • A. 

      Double-stranded eukaryotic cDNA from mature mRNA

    • B. 

      Mature mRNA from precursor mRNA

    • C. 

      Bacterial DNA from eukaryotic DNA

    • D. 

      Double-stranded DNA with introns added back

    • E. 

      MRNA and DNA

  • 59. 
    CDNA is 
    • A. 

      DNA with both introns and exons that can be cloned into prokaryotes

    • B. 

      DNA with only introns that can be cloned into prokaryotes

    • C. 

      Eukaryotic DNA with only exons that can be cloned into prokaryotes

    • D. 

      Used to make precursor mRNA

  • 60. 
    Prokaryotic DNA contains both exons and introns 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 61. 
    RNA polymerase removes exons from precursor RNA 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 62. 
    During SDS-PAGE, which of the following does not directly affect the migration of the polypeptides through the gel? 
    • A. 

      The size of the polypeptide

    • B. 

      The strength of the electric field

    • C. 

      The molecular mass of the protein

    • D. 

      The native charge on the polypeptides

    • E. 

      The SDS

  • 63. 
    Rapid purification of proteins based on size can best be done using 
    • A. 

      Gel filtration

    • B. 

      Ion-exchange chromatography

    • C. 

      Native gel electrophoresis

    • D. 

      2-D gel electrophoresis

    • E. 

      Cation-exchange chromatography

  • 64. 
    In molecular biology all of the following methods can detect small traces of radioactivity except 
    • A. 

      Liquid scintillation counter

    • B. 

      Autoradiography

    • C. 

      X-ray film

    • D. 

      Phosphorimaging

    • E. 

      Spectrophotometry

  • 65. 
    Which of the following is not used in a Sanger chain termination reaction?: 
    • A. 

      DdATP

    • B. 

      DdUTP

    • C. 

      DdCTP

    • D. 

      DdGTP

    • E. 

      DdTTP

  • 66. 
    A circular 3000 bp UC18 plasmid DNA sample was treated with BAMHI restriction enzyme. The plasmid has restriction sites at position 100 and position 2000. Which of the following choices represents the size fragments that would be observed on an agarose gel? 
    • A. 

      2900,100

    • B. 

      1900,100,1000

    • C. 

      1900,1100

    • D. 

      2900, 50, 50

    • E. 

      1900, 50, 50, 1000

  • 67. 
    Site-directed mutagenesis is used for which of the following purposes? 
    • A. 

      To insert fragments of more than 100 pairs into a specific DNA site

    • B. 

      To induced site-specific recombination

    • C. 

      To make changes to specific bases in DNA

    • D. 

      To remove large segments of a DNA sequence

    • E. 

      Both to induced site-specific recombination and to make changes to specific bases in DNA are correct

  • 68. 
    Which of the following is not true about run-on transcription assay? 
    • A. 

      Isolated nuclei are used in the assay

    • B. 

      Cytoplasmic RNA is included int he assay.

    • C. 

      The reaction is done in the presence of labeled nucleotide

    • D. 

      The assay can reveal the transcription rates of genes

    • E. 

      Genes being transcribed can be identified

  • 69. 
    A major function of reporter gene assay is to? 
    • A. 

      Measure mutation rates of a gene

    • B. 

      Measure transcriptional levels

    • C. 

      Measure replication

    • D. 

      Monitor luciferase activity

    • E. 

      Monitor CAT activity

  • 70. 
    Which of the following techniques is not used to quantify the level of gene expression? 
    • A. 

      Southern blotting

    • B. 

      Nothern blotting

    • C. 

      S1 mapping

    • D. 

      RNase protection

    • E. 

      Nuclear run-off

  • 71. 
    A new insulin gene was isolated and a study was planned to look at the function region. Which of the following would be the best choice for this study? 
    • A. 

      Southern analysis

    • B. 

      Immunoblotting

    • C. 

      Report gene assay

    • D. 

      PCR

    • E. 

      Immunoprecipitation

  • 72. 
    Which of the following is used to study the interaction of proteins with DNA? 
    • A. 

      S1 nuclease protection

    • B. 

      DNase-1 footprinting

    • C. 

      DNA fingerprinting

    • D. 

      Southern analysis

    • E. 

      Northern blotting

  • 73. 
    It is suspected that a novel histone protein only interacts with the promoter region of B-globin genes. Which of the following techniques should be used to confirm this suspicion? 
    • A. 

      EMSA

    • B. 

      DNase footprinting

    • C. 

      Filter binding

    • D. 

      Gel mobility shift assay

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 74. 
    In hybridization 
    • A. 

      Two DNAs from the same source combine

    • B. 

      DNA from two separate sources combine

    • C. 

      DNA combines with complementary RNA

    • D. 

      DNA is split into two separate pieces

  • 75. 
    DNA probes are used to 
    • A. 

      Locate complementary RNA sequences in a test sample

    • B. 

      Make homologous DNA

    • C. 

      Make homologous RNA

    • D. 

      Locate a specific DNA nucleotide sequence in a test sample

  • 76. 
    For DNA probes to hybridize 
    • A. 

      DNA strands must be homologous, having regions with similar or identical nucleotide sequences

    • B. 

      DNA strands must be non-homologous

    • C. 

      DNA must be complementary to RNA

    • D. 

      DNA must be fragmented by reverse transcriptase

  • 77. 
    Non-homologous DNA will attach to a DNA probe 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 78. 
    At high temperature, two complementary DNA strands will anneal. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 79. 
    Priming is essential to 
    • A. 

      DNA Replication

    • B. 

      Translation

    • C. 

      Recombination

    • D. 

      Transpositon

  • 80. 
    Which of the following statements is not true concerning DNA replication in prokaryotes? 
    • A. 

      DNA replication is semiconservative

    • B. 

      DNA replication is semidiscontinuous

    • C. 

      DNA repliation is RNA dependent

    • D. 

      DNA replication requires only one enzyme

    • E. 

      There is one origin of replication

  • 81. 
    Which of the following mammalian cell DNA polymerases is not correctly matched with its function? 
    • A. 

      DNA Pol (a) - priming DNA synthesis

    • B. 

      DNA Pol (B) - DNA repair

    • C. 

      DNA Pol (y) - Mitochondrial DNA

    • D. 

      DNA Pol (&)- ligation of DNA strands

    • E. 

      DNA Pol (e)- DNA repair

  • 82. 
    In semiconservative replication of DNA, the two parental strands stay together and the two new daughter strands are produced. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 83. 
    DNA under the control of one origin of replication is called a replicon. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 84. 
    The (e)-subunit of DNa Polymerase III core enzyme functions in proofreading by having 5'---->3' exonuclease activity
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 85. 
    Which of the following is not a characteristic of prokaryotic single stranded DNA binding proteins? 
    • A. 

      They are not essential for cell replication

    • B. 

      They stimulate DNA polymerase

    • C. 

      They aid helicase action

    • D. 

      They keep DNA strands from annealing

    • E. 

      They bind more tightly to ssDNA than to dsDNA

  • 86. 
    E.Coli dnaB temperature senstive mutatns cannot undergo DNA replication at 40C due to the loss of helicase activity.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 87. 
    In E. coli, the antibiotic nalidixic acid, by inhibiting DNA gyrase, prevents DNA replication, which then causes positive supercoiling of the DNA
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 88. 
    Which of the following agents causes DNA damage by forming pyrimidine dimmers?
    • A. 

      X-rays

    • B. 

      Gamma radiation

    • C. 

      UV radiation

    • D. 

      Alkylating agents

    • E. 

      Ethidium bromide

  • 89. 
    The most common type of DNA damage repair is
    • A. 

      Excision repair

    • B. 

      Photoreactivation

    • C. 

      Suicide enzyme repair

    • D. 

      DNA photolyase

    • E. 

      Proofreading repair

  • 90. 
    Which of the following repair mechanisms is a damge bypass mechanism, not an actual repair mechanism?
    • A. 

      DNA photolyase

    • B. 

      Base excision repair

    • C. 

      Nonhomologous end joining

    • D. 

      Mismatch repair

    • E. 

      Recombinant repair

  • 91. 
    DNA gyrase introduces_____ supercoils in the DNA
    • A. 

      Positive

    • B. 

      Negative

    • C. 

      Neutral

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 92. 
    _________ supercoiling represents a force on the DNA in a right-handed direction
    • A. 

      Negative

    • B. 

      Positive

    • C. 

      Neutral

    • D. 

      Detrimental

  • 93. 
    DNA gyrase uses_____ to alleviate supercoiling
    • A. 

      Spare nucleotides

    • B. 

      Mutations

    • C. 

      Toposisomerase II

    • D. 

      ATP

  • 94. 
    DNA gyrase adds positive supercoils to a negatively coiled DNA molecule.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 95. 
    Positive supercoliling causes the DNA to form a more compact structure.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 96. 
    A primosome can be defined as
    • A. 

      The enzyme that synthesizes primers for M13 phage replication

    • B. 

      A collection of protiens needed for synthesis of primers for replicating DNA

    • C. 

      A collection of RNA primers

    • D. 

      A DNA molecule that is primed and ready for replication

    • E. 

      An area of DNA near the replication fork waiting to

  • 97. 
    Which of the following is the primase that synthesizes primers during DNA replication in E.Coli?
    • A. 

      DnaA

    • B. 

      RNA polymerase

    • C. 

      HU protein

    • D. 

      DnaB

    • E. 

      DnaG

  • 98. 
    Put the following steps of E.Coli primosome assembly in the correct order.(1) Primase binds(2) DnaA binds to oriC at dnaA boxes(3) DnaB binds to the open complex(4) DnaA, RNA polymerase, and HU protein melt the DNA.
    • A. 

      2,4,1,3

    • B. 

      2,4,3,1

    • C. 

      4,1,2,3

    • D. 

      4,2,1,3

    • E. 

      3,4,1,2

  • 99. 
    In vivo, DNA polymerase III holoenzyme can synthesize DNA at a rate of
    • A. 

      250 nt/sec

    • B. 

      500 nt/sec

    • C. 

      400 nt/sec

    • D. 

      1000nt/sec

    • E. 

      2000nt/sec

  • 100. 
    Which of the following is not part of the E.coli primosome?
    • A. 

      DnaA

    • B. 

      DnaB

    • C. 

      OriC

    • D. 

      TerE

    • E. 

      DnaG

  • 101. 
    Which of the following statements is not true concerning homologous recombination?
    • A. 

      It can be intramolecular

    • B. 

      It can be biolecular

    • C. 

      Only one cross-over event can occur.

    • D. 

      It results in genetic variation.

    • E. 

      It is a reciprocal

  • 102. 
    Which of the following techniques was key in demonstrating the presynapsis and synapsis steps of homologous recombination?
    • A. 

      SI nuclease mapping

    • B. 

      Exonuclease digestion

    • C. 

      DNA footprinting

    • D. 

      Southern Blot

    • E. 

      Electron microscopy

  • 103. 
    In the E. coli RecBCD pathway, in order for homologous recombination to occur, which of the following proteins coats the single stranded DNA tail produced by exonuclease activity?
    • A. 

      RecA

    • B. 

      RecB

    • C. 

      RecC

    • D. 

      RecD

    • E. 

      RuvB

  • 104. 
    Molecular modeling of RuvA and a Holliday junction showed that hey form a _____ that favors rapid branch migration.
    • A. 

      Square planer conformation

    • B. 

      Supercoiled conformation

    • C. 

      Colver leaf conformation

    • D. 

      D loop conformation

    • E. 

      Y-shape conformation

  • 105. 
    West and colleagues used gel mobility sift assays to demonstrate that_____ could bind to and resolve Holliday junctions.
    • A. 

      Rec A

    • B. 

      RuvA

    • C. 

      RuvB

    • D. 

      RuvC

    • E. 

      RecB

  • 106. 
    About meiosis, which is wrong?
    • A. 

      It affects human cells

    • B. 

      It affects mammalian cells

    • C. 

      It affects plants cells

    • D. 

      It affects E.Coli

  • 107. 
    One mechanism by which gene conversion can occur in N. crassa during meiosis is ________
    • A. 

      RecBCD

    • B. 

      Mismatch repair

    • C. 

      Double stranded break synthesis

    • D. 

      SOS repair

    • E. 

      Excision repair

  • 108. 
    Holliday junctions are intermediates in RecBCD recombination in E.coli
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 109. 
    Branch migration is a spontaneous process that takes place after a Holliday junction is formed
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 110. 
    E.coli RecA protein is only necessary for the presynapsis step of homologous recombination.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 111. 
    Since RecA is such a versatile protein, RecBCD is not really necessary for homologous recombination to occur
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 112. 
    Which of the followign would probably not be a charactersitic of the Tn3 transposon?
    • A. 

      Inverted repeat sequences

    • B. 

      Antibiotic resistance gene(s)

    • C. 

      Resolvase gene

    • D. 

      Transposase gene

    • E. 

      OriT site

  • 113. 
    Barbara McClintock discovered the first eukaryotic transposable element in
    • A. 

      Fruti flies

    • B. 

      Nematodes

    • C. 

      Maize

    • D. 

      Fungi

    • E. 

      Peas

  • 114. 
    The Ds transposable element of maize cannot transpose on its won because it lacks
    • A. 

      Transposase

    • B. 

      Inverted repeats

    • C. 

      Origin of replication

    • D. 

      Antibiotic resistance

    • E. 

      Tn10

  • 115. 
    Which of the following molecules serves as a primer for reverse transcriptase during retroviral replication?
    • A. 

      Host snRNA

    • B. 

      Viral RNA

    • C. 

      Host tRNA

    • D. 

      Viral DNA

    • E. 

      Host DNA

  • 116. 
    Which of the following has no reverse transcriptase gene associated with it?
    • A. 

      HIV

    • B. 

      Ty

    • C. 

      AMV

    • D. 

      L1

    • E. 

      Tn3

  • 117. 
    Insertion sequences are transposable elements that can inactivate gene
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 118. 
    5'-ACCGTAG- GATGCCA-3' is an example of an inverted repeat sequence
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 119. 
    Antibiotic resistance in bacteria can be transferred using insertion sequences
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 120. 
    The constant region of an antibody contains the antigen binding domains.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 121. 
    Rearrangement of mammalian cell immunoglobulin genes is responsible for the large diversity of antibodies produced by B-cell
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 122. 
    The recombinases RAG-1 and RAG-2 are expressed in both plasma and memory B-cells
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False