Molecular Biology (Chapter 1-5, 20-23)

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1. Positive supercoliling causes the DNA to form a more compact structure.

Explanation

Positive supercoiling refers to the twisting of DNA in the same direction as its helical structure, resulting in a more compact and tightly coiled DNA molecule. This compact structure allows for efficient packaging of the DNA within the cell and plays a role in various cellular processes such as gene regulation and DNA replication. Therefore, the statement that positive supercoiling causes the DNA to form a more compact structure is true.

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About This Quiz
Molecular Biology Quizzes & Trivia

These are the powerpoint questions he asked I'll add some randoms one later when I get through reading all the chapters. Good luck.

2. Polynucleotide probes can be used to screen a genomic library for specific genomic sequences. 

Explanation

Polynucleotide probes are short sequences of DNA or RNA that are complementary to specific target sequences in a genome. By using these probes, researchers can identify and isolate specific genomic sequences from a genomic library. This technique, known as screening, allows for the identification of genes or other important sequences of interest. Therefore, the statement that polynucleotide probes can be used to screen a genomic library for specific genomic sequences is true.

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3. Double-stranded DNA consists of two antiparallel strands, meaning that one strand is oriented in the 5' to 3' direction, while the other is oriented in the 3' to 5' direction.

Explanation

Correct answer is: (A) True

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4. Rearrangement of mammalian cell immunoglobulin genes is responsible for the large diversity of antibodies produced by B-cell

Explanation

The statement is true because the rearrangement of mammalian cell immunoglobulin genes is indeed responsible for the large diversity of antibodies produced by B-cells. During the development of B-cells, the genes that encode for the variable regions of antibodies undergo a process called V(D)J recombination. This process involves the rearrangement and joining of different gene segments, resulting in the generation of a wide variety of unique antibody molecules. This genetic rearrangement is crucial for the immune system's ability to recognize and respond to a wide range of pathogens.

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5. A gene can accept occasional changes, which allows organisms to evolve

Explanation

Genes can indeed accept occasional changes, which is known as genetic variation. This genetic variation is crucial for the process of evolution as it allows organisms to adapt to their environment over time. These changes can occur through various mechanisms such as mutations, gene flow, and genetic recombination. Therefore, the statement "A gene can accept occasional changes, which allows organisms to evolve" is true.

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6. An amino group, a carboxyl group, and a hydrogen are found in all amino acids

Explanation

All amino acids have a common structure consisting of an amino group, a carboxyl group, and a hydrogen atom. The amino group contains a nitrogen atom bonded to two hydrogen atoms, while the carboxyl group consists of a carbon atom double-bonded to an oxygen atom and single-bonded to a hydroxyl group. These functional groups are essential for the formation of peptide bonds and the overall structure and function of proteins. Therefore, it is true that all amino acids contain an amino group, a carboxyl group, and a hydrogen atom.

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7. Insertion sequences are transposable elements that can inactivate gene

Explanation

Insertion sequences are a type of transposable element that have the ability to move within a genome and insert themselves into different locations. When an insertion sequence inserts itself into a gene, it can disrupt the normal functioning of that gene, leading to its inactivation. Therefore, the statement that insertion sequences can inactivate genes is true.

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8. A segments of DNA is considered upstream when t is located on the 5' end of the start site.

Explanation

The statement is true because in DNA, the 5' end refers to the end of the DNA strand that has a phosphate group attached to the 5th carbon of the sugar molecule. The start site is where transcription begins, and if a segment of DNA is located on the 5' end of the start site, it is considered upstream.

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9. In E. coli, the antibiotic nalidixic acid, by inhibiting DNA gyrase, prevents DNA replication, which then causes positive supercoiling of the DNA

Explanation

Nalidixic acid is an antibiotic that inhibits DNA gyrase, an enzyme essential for DNA replication. When DNA gyrase is inhibited, DNA replication cannot occur properly, leading to the formation of positive supercoiling of the DNA. Therefore, the statement that nalidixic acid prevents DNA replication and causes positive supercoiling of the DNA in E. coli is true.

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10. Antibiotic resistance in bacteria can be transferred using insertion sequences

Explanation

Antibiotic resistance in bacteria can indeed be transferred using insertion sequences. Insertion sequences are small segments of DNA that can move from one location to another within the bacterial genome. When an insertion sequence containing a resistance gene inserts itself into a new location, it can confer antibiotic resistance to the bacteria. This mechanism of transfer is one of the ways in which bacteria can acquire resistance to antibiotics, leading to the spread of resistant strains and making treatment more difficult.

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11. E.Coli dnaB temperature senstive mutatns cannot undergo DNA replication at 40C due to the loss of helicase activity.

Explanation

E. coli dnaB temperature sensitive mutants are unable to undergo DNA replication at 40°C because they have lost their helicase activity. Helicase is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in DNA replication by unwinding the double-stranded DNA molecule. Without helicase activity, the DNA cannot be properly unwound and replicated, leading to a failure in DNA replication at higher temperatures. Therefore, the statement is true.

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12. DNA under the control of one origin of replication is called a replicon. 

Explanation

A replicon is a DNA molecule that can replicate independently. In other words, it is capable of initiating and completing DNA replication on its own. DNA under the control of one origin of replication fits this definition, as it can replicate independently without the need for additional origins of replication. Therefore, DNA under the control of one origin of replication is indeed called a replicon, making the statement true.

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13. HindII is so named because it was isolated from Haemophilus influenzae bacterium 

Explanation

HindII is named after Haemophilus influenzae bacterium because it was isolated from this specific bacterium. This suggests that the enzyme was first discovered and identified in Haemophilus influenzae, leading to its name "HindII". Therefore, the statement "HindII is so named because it was isolated from Haemophilus influenzae bacterium" is true.

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14. Holliday junctions are intermediates in RecBCD recombination in E.coli

Explanation

Holliday junctions are indeed intermediates in RecBCD recombination in E.coli. RecBCD is a protein complex involved in DNA repair and recombination in E.coli. During the process of recombination, the RecBCD complex unwinds the DNA strands and creates a Holliday junction, which is a four-way DNA structure. This junction can then be resolved to form new combinations of DNA strands, leading to genetic diversity. Therefore, the statement "Holliday junctions are intermediates in RecBCD recombination in E.coli" is true.

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15. Asymmetrical spacing of the backbones of the DNA double helix generates major and minor grooves.

Explanation

Correct Answer is: (A) True

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16. All of the following are found in RNA except

Explanation

Correct answer is: deoxyribose

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17. Phosphodiester bonds are examples of

Explanation

Correct answer is: convalent bonds

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18. For DNA probes to hybridize 

Explanation

DNA probes are short, single-stranded DNA molecules that are used to detect specific sequences of DNA in a sample. In order for DNA probes to hybridize, or bind, to their target sequences, the DNA strands must be homologous. This means that they must have regions with similar or identical nucleotide sequences. This allows for the complementary base pairing between the DNA probe and its target sequence, resulting in a stable hybridization. If the DNA strands are non-homologous, the probe will not be able to bind to its target sequence effectively. Therefore, the correct answer is that DNA strands must be homologous.

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19. Non-homologous DNA will attach to a DNA probe 

Explanation

Non-homologous DNA will not attach to a DNA probe. A DNA probe is a single-stranded DNA molecule that is designed to bind specifically to a complementary DNA sequence. Non-homologous DNA refers to DNA sequences that do not have a complementary match. Therefore, non-homologous DNA will not bind to a DNA probe.

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20. Priming is essential to 

Explanation

Priming is essential to DNA replication because it provides the starting point for DNA synthesis. During replication, an enzyme called DNA polymerase adds new nucleotides to the growing DNA strand, but it can only do so if there is a short RNA primer already attached to the template DNA strand. This primer provides the necessary 3' hydroxyl group for DNA polymerase to add nucleotides and initiate replication. Without priming, DNA replication cannot occur efficiently or accurately.

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21. Which of the following is not found in RNA and DNA?

Explanation

Correct answer is: (D) sulfur

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22. The messenger hypothesis states that

Explanation

The correct answer is: (C) messenger RNAs carry genetic information to ribosomes

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23. Prokaryotic DNA contains both exons and introns 

Explanation

Prokaryotic DNA does not contain introns. In prokaryotes, such as bacteria, the DNA is organized into a single circular chromosome that does not have introns. Introns are non-coding regions of DNA that are present in eukaryotes, where the DNA is organized into multiple linear chromosomes. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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24. Which of the following is likely to contribute to a shift in the reading frame in an mRNA molecule?

Explanation

The correct answer is: (C) removal of a single base

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25. One approach to prevent religation of the ends of a restricted plasmid DNA is to 

Explanation

Treating the plasmid with alkaline phosphatase is an effective approach to prevent religation of the ends of a restricted plasmid DNA. This is because alkaline phosphatase removes the phosphate groups from the sticky ends of the DNA, which are necessary for the ends to rejoin and religate. By removing the phosphate groups, the sticky ends become blunt ends, making it difficult for the DNA to reconnect and religate. Therefore, treating the plasmid with alkaline phosphatase helps to prevent the unwanted rejoining of the DNA ends and maintains the integrity of the restricted plasmid.

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26. Which of the following is not a product of transcription?

Explanation

Correct answer is: (B) DNA

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27. The bonds that connect adenine to thymine in a DNA double helix are

Explanation

The correct answer: (C) hydrogen

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28. Who first conducted the X-ray diffraction studies of DNA?

Explanation

Correct answer is: (A) Franklin and Wilkins

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29. At high temperature, two complementary DNA strands will anneal. 

Explanation

At high temperature, two complementary DNA strands will not anneal. Annealing refers to the process of two single DNA strands coming together and forming a double-stranded DNA molecule. This process occurs at lower temperatures, typically around 50-65 degrees Celsius, during a PCR reaction or DNA hybridization. At high temperatures, the DNA strands will separate or denature rather than anneal.

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30. The complementary sequence of oneof the following is a palindrome. Which one?

Explanation

The correct answer is: (A) GAATTC

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31. In semiconservative replication of DNA, the two parental strands stay together and the two new daughter strands are produced. 

Explanation

In semiconservative replication of DNA, the two parental strands separate and each strand serves as a template for the synthesis of a new daughter strand. This results in two DNA molecules, each consisting of one parental strand and one newly synthesized daughter strand. Therefore, the correct answer is false as the two parental strands do not stay together in semiconservative replication.

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32. In the process of cloning eukaryotic DNA into prokaryotic cells, the role of reverse transcriptase is to make 

Explanation

Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that can synthesize complementary DNA (cDNA) from an RNA template. In the process of cloning eukaryotic DNA into prokaryotic cells, reverse transcriptase is used to make double-stranded eukaryotic cDNA from mature mRNA. This is because mature mRNA contains the coding regions of genes, which can be used to produce a complementary DNA copy. This cDNA can then be inserted into a prokaryotic cell for further manipulation and study.

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33. About meiosis, which is wrong?

Explanation

Meiosis is a type of cell division that occurs in sexually reproducing organisms, including plants and animals. It is responsible for the formation of gametes (sperm and egg cells) in these organisms. However, E.Coli is a bacterium and does not undergo meiosis as it reproduces asexually through a process called binary fission. Therefore, the statement "It affects E.Coli" is incorrect.

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34. Select the component that is most critical to the function of as plasmid? 

Explanation

The origin of replication is the component that is most critical to the function of a plasmid. It is responsible for initiating the replication process and allows the plasmid to be replicated and passed on to daughter cells. Without the origin of replication, the plasmid would not be able to replicate and would not be maintained in the cell population. The other components listed, such as tetracycline resistance, ampicillin resistance, EcoRI site, and ligase, are important for certain applications or functions of the plasmid but are not essential for its basic replication and maintenance.

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35. RNA polymerase removes exons from precursor RNA 

Explanation

RNA polymerase is responsible for transcribing DNA into RNA, not for removing exons from precursor RNA. The process of removing exons and joining together the remaining introns is called RNA splicing, which is carried out by a complex called the spliceosome. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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36. Which of the following is not used in a Sanger chain termination reaction?: 

Explanation

ddUTP is not used in a Sanger chain termination reaction. In a Sanger sequencing reaction, DNA synthesis is terminated by the incorporation of a chain-terminating nucleotide, which lacks a 3'-OH group required for the addition of the next nucleotide. The chain-terminating nucleotides used in Sanger sequencing include ddATP, ddCTP, ddGTP, and ddTTP, but not ddUTP.

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37. _________ supercoiling represents a force on the DNA in a right-handed direction

Explanation

Positive supercoiling refers to a force on the DNA in a right-handed direction. Supercoiling occurs when the DNA molecule twists upon itself, forming a coiled structure. In positive supercoiling, the DNA is overwound, meaning that the number of twists in the helix is greater than the number of twists in a relaxed state. This results in a right-handed twist, creating tension and strain on the DNA molecule. Positive supercoiling is important for various cellular processes such as DNA replication, transcription, and packaging into the compact structure of chromosomes.

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38. The ability of two polynucleotide strands to hybridize is based on which of the following principles?

Explanation

The correct answer is: (C) complementary base pairing

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39. Which of the following statements is not true concerning homologous recombination?

Explanation

Homologous recombination is a process in which genetic material is exchanged between two similar or identical DNA molecules. It can occur both intramolecularly, within a single DNA molecule, and intermolecularly, between two different DNA molecules. This process is known to result in genetic variation as it leads to the shuffling of genetic material. Additionally, homologous recombination is a reciprocal process, meaning that the exchange of genetic material occurs in both directions. The statement "Only one cross-over event can occur" is not true because multiple cross-over events can happen during homologous recombination.

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40. Experiments conducted by Frederick Griffiths laid the foundation for?

Explanation

Correct answer is: (B) DNA as the genetic material

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41. Which of the following would be the substance of choice to destroy the DNA in a solution?

Explanation

Correct answer is: deoxyribonuclease

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42. DNA probes are used to 

Explanation

DNA probes are short single-stranded DNA molecules that are designed to bind specifically to a complementary DNA sequence. They are labeled with a detectable marker, such as a fluorescent dye, which allows for their visualization. These probes are used in molecular biology techniques, such as hybridization assays, to locate and identify specific DNA sequences in a test sample. By binding to the target DNA sequence, the probes can help researchers locate and study specific genes or mutations, aiding in genetic research and diagnostics.

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43. How many enzymes should be used in a plasmid DNA and an insert if there is one desired site to ligate the insert in the vector to a specific orientation? 

Explanation

If there is one desired site to ligate the insert in the vector to a specific orientation, two enzymes should be used in the plasmid DNA and insert. One enzyme will cut the plasmid DNA at the desired site, creating a linear vector. The other enzyme will cut the insert at a compatible site, creating sticky ends that can base pair with the sticky ends of the linear vector. This will allow the insert to be ligated into the vector in the desired orientation.

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44. A major function of reporter gene assay is to? 

Explanation

The major function of a reporter gene assay is to measure transcriptional levels. Reporter genes are artificially introduced into cells and their expression is used as a proxy for the activity of the gene of interest. By measuring the expression of the reporter gene, researchers can infer the transcriptional levels of the gene they are studying. This allows them to study gene regulation, identify regulatory elements, and assess the effects of various factors on gene expression.

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45. Since RecA is such a versatile protein, RecBCD is not really necessary for homologous recombination to occur

Explanation

RecA is a protein involved in homologous recombination, a process that repairs DNA damage by exchanging genetic material between two similar DNA molecules. While RecA is indeed versatile and plays a crucial role in this process, it requires the assistance of other proteins, such as RecBCD, to efficiently carry out homologous recombination. RecBCD is responsible for processing the DNA ends and generating the necessary single-stranded DNA substrate for RecA to bind and initiate recombination. Therefore, RecBCD is necessary for homologous recombination to occur, making the statement false.

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46. Which of the following features is common to DNA, RNA, and proteins?

Explanation

The correct answer is: (D) They are polymers

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47. MRNA encodes a gene

Explanation

mRNA does not encode a gene. mRNA is a molecule that is transcribed from a gene and carries the genetic information from the DNA to the ribosomes, where it serves as a template for protein synthesis. Genes are segments of DNA that contain the instructions for making a specific protein or functional RNA molecule. Therefore, mRNA is a product of gene expression, not the gene itself.

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48. Which of the following enzymes cannot catalyze the formation of a phosphodiester bond? 

Explanation

Endonucleases are enzymes that cleave phosphodiester bonds within a DNA or RNA molecule. They do not catalyze the formation of phosphodiester bonds. Therefore, the correct answer is endonuclease.

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49. Which of the following is true about wild-type organisms?

Explanation

Correct answer is: (C) They are also referred to as standard-types

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50. Which of the following DNA molecules is the most stable?

Explanation

Correct answer is: (D)

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51. An experimenter is able to select recombinant colonies from a bacterial culture plate based on the color of the colonies. Which of the following is a correct statement. 

Explanation

The correct statement is that colonies that contain recombinants are colorless due to the disruption of the lacZ gene by the insert. This is because the lacZ gene is responsible for producing an enzyme called beta-galactosidase, which is required for the breakdown of a colorless substrate called X-gal into a blue product. When the lacZ gene is disrupted by the insert, the colonies are unable to produce the enzyme and therefore do not turn blue.

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52. In the construction of an expression vector, which of the following would you include in order to stimulate a high level of RNA synthesis? 

Explanation

The T7phage promoter is included in the construction of an expression vector to stimulate a high level of RNA synthesis. The T7phage promoter is a strong promoter that efficiently drives transcription in bacterial cells. It is commonly used in molecular biology research to produce large amounts of RNA transcripts for various applications. The other options listed, such as the origin of replication, Amp gene, His region, and GFP, are not directly involved in stimulating RNA synthesis.

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53. Rapid purification of proteins based on size can best be done using 

Explanation

Gel filtration is the most effective method for rapidly purifying proteins based on size. This technique separates proteins based on their molecular weight using a porous gel matrix. When a protein sample is applied to the gel, smaller proteins are able to enter the pores and travel through the gel more slowly, while larger proteins are excluded and elute first. As a result, the proteins are separated and can be collected in individual fractions. Gel filtration is advantageous because it does not require harsh conditions or denaturing agents, allowing for the preservation of protein structure and activity during purification.

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54. Which of the following is not part of the E.coli primosome?

Explanation

TerE is not part of the E.coli primosome. The primosome is a complex of proteins that is involved in DNA replication. DnaA, DnaB, oriC, and DnaG are all components of the primosome. However, TerE is not involved in DNA replication and is unrelated to the primosome.

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55. Some genes located on the same chromosome do not show perfect linkage because?

Explanation

Correct answer is: (C) crossover events occur between homologous genes

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56. A new mutant cell line was accidentall created in the lab. This mutant was found to be deficient in the enzyme aminacyl-tRNA synthetase. Which of the following would most likely to observe in this cell line?

Explanation

The correct answers is: (C) Most tRNA molecules would not be able to attach to amino acids

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57. A bacterial sample  was contaminated with an unknown preparation of vector DNA. In order to identify the vector, the bacteria was streaked on a plate  and incubated overnight. Examination of the plate revealed at least 120 clear plaques. Which of the following is a plausible conclusion? 

Explanation

Based on the information provided, the presence of at least 120 clear plaques indicates that the vector could be a phage. Phages are viruses that infect bacteria and can form clear plaques on a bacterial lawn. Plasmids, Ti plasmids, puc18, and cosmids are all types of vectors, but they do not typically form clear plaques. Therefore, the most plausible conclusion is that the vector is a phage.

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58. In hybridization 

Explanation

In hybridization, DNA from two separate sources combine. This process involves the joining of two DNA molecules from different sources to form a hybrid molecule. This can be done in a laboratory setting by denaturing the DNA strands, allowing them to separate, and then reannealing them together. Hybridization is commonly used in molecular biology techniques such as DNA sequencing, DNA fingerprinting, and gene expression analysis.

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59. In the E. coli RecBCD pathway, in order for homologous recombination to occur, which of the following proteins coats the single stranded DNA tail produced by exonuclease activity?

Explanation

RecA is the correct answer because it is known to coat the single stranded DNA tail produced by exonuclease activity in the E. coli RecBCD pathway. RecA plays a crucial role in homologous recombination by binding to the single stranded DNA and facilitating the strand invasion and exchange with the homologous DNA template. This allows for the repair of DNA damage and the formation of new genetic combinations.

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60. The correct structure of DNA components can be presented as

Explanation

Correct answer is: (B) phosphate-sugar-base

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61. The analytic tools used to show that DNA was the transforming substance include all of the following except

Explanation

Correct answer is: (D) heat inactivation

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62. Put the following steps of E.Coli primosome assembly in the correct order.
(1) Primase binds
(2) DnaA binds to oriC at dnaA boxes
(3) DnaB binds to the open complex
(4) DnaA, RNA polymerase, and HU protein melt the DNA.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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63. Evidence that physical recombination occurs between two chromosomes was provided by?

Explanation

Correct answer: (A) McClintock and Creighton

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64. Which of the following was demonstrated by Frederick and Griffiths?

Explanation

Correct answer is: (B) a genetic trait can be transferred from one organsim to another

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65. A disadvantage of using a prokaryotic expression systems for eukaryotic proteins is that the proteins are 

Explanation

Using a prokaryotic expression system for eukaryotic proteins can lead to the proteins being improperly folded. Prokaryotic cells lack the machinery and post-translational modifications required for proper folding of eukaryotic proteins. As a result, the proteins may not adopt their correct three-dimensional structure and may be functionally inactive or unstable. This can affect their biological activity and overall usefulness in research or industrial applications.

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66. In order to clone eukaryotic DNA into prokaryotic cells 

Explanation

When cloning eukaryotic DNA into prokaryotic cells, it is necessary to add DNA without introns. This is because prokaryotic cells lack the machinery to process and remove introns from mRNA. Therefore, if DNA with introns is used, the prokaryotic cells will not be able to correctly transcribe and translate the DNA into protein. By adding DNA without introns, the prokaryotic cells can efficiently express the genes of interest without any intron-related complications.

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67. A primosome can be defined as

Explanation

A primosome is a collection of proteins that are required for the synthesis of primers during the replication of DNA. Primers are short RNA sequences that serve as starting points for DNA replication. These proteins work together to unwind the DNA double helix, stabilize the unwound DNA, and recruit the enzyme responsible for primer synthesis. Therefore, the correct answer is "a collection of proteins needed for synthesis of primers for replicating DNA."

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68. E.coli RecA protein is only necessary for the presynapsis step of homologous recombination.

Explanation

The statement that E.coli RecA protein is only necessary for the presynapsis step of homologous recombination is false. E.coli RecA protein is actually required for multiple steps in homologous recombination, including presynapsis, synapsis, and postsynapsis. It plays a crucial role in DNA strand exchange, promoting the pairing of homologous DNA molecules and facilitating the exchange of genetic material. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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69. During an experiment with drosophilia, it was discovered that all females had red eyes. A conclusing based on this observation would be?

Explanation

Correct answer is: (E) both (A) and (B) are correct

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70. The chromosomal theory of inheritance holds that

Explanation

Correct answer is: (D) genes are arranged in a linear order on chromosomes

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71. The noncoding strand of a gene is the same as the antisense strand

Explanation

The noncoding strand of a gene is not the same as the antisense strand. The noncoding strand is the template strand that is transcribed into RNA, while the antisense strand is the complementary strand to the coding (sense) strand.

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72. Restriction enzymes were discoverd by

Explanation

The correct answer is: (B) Linn and Arber

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73. Which of the following vectors is the best choice for the expression of eukaryotic proteins? 

Explanation

Baculovirus is the best choice for the expression of eukaryotic proteins because it is a type of virus that infects insect cells and has been widely used as a vector for protein expression in eukaryotic systems. Baculovirus vectors offer high protein yields, proper post-translational modifications, and efficient protein folding, making them suitable for the production of complex eukaryotic proteins.

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74. Which of the following techniques is not used to quantify the level of gene expression? 

Explanation

Southern blotting is a technique used for detecting specific DNA sequences, not for quantifying gene expression. It involves the transfer of DNA fragments from a gel to a membrane, which is then hybridized with a labeled probe. This technique is useful for determining the presence or absence of a specific DNA sequence, but it does not provide information about the level of gene expression. Other techniques like northern blotting, S1 mapping, RNase protection, and nuclear run-off are commonly used for quantifying gene expression.

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75. Which of the following is not a characteristic of prokaryotic single stranded DNA binding proteins? 

Explanation

Prokaryotic single stranded DNA binding proteins play a crucial role in cell replication by binding to and stabilizing single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) during DNA replication. They prevent the ssDNA from reannealing and aid in the action of helicase, which unwinds the DNA strands. Additionally, they stimulate DNA polymerase, which is responsible for synthesizing new DNA strands. Therefore, the statement "They are not essential for cell replication" is incorrect because these proteins are indeed essential for the process of DNA replication in prokaryotic cells.

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76. Which of the following agents causes DNA damage by forming pyrimidine dimmers?

Explanation

UV radiation causes DNA damage by forming pyrimidine dimers. Pyrimidine dimers occur when two adjacent pyrimidine bases (thymine or cytosine) in the DNA molecule become covalently bonded, disrupting the normal structure of the DNA helix. This can lead to errors in DNA replication and transcription, potentially causing mutations and other genetic abnormalities. X-rays and gamma radiation can also cause DNA damage, but they do so through different mechanisms such as ionization. Alkylating agents and ethidium bromide can also cause DNA damage, but they do not specifically form pyrimidine dimers.

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77. DNA gyrase adds positive supercoils to a negatively coiled DNA molecule.

Explanation

DNA gyrase is an enzyme that adds negative supercoils to DNA molecules, not positive supercoils. Supercoiling is the process of twisting the DNA molecule upon itself, and DNA gyrase is responsible for introducing negative supercoils by cutting and resealing the DNA strands. These negative supercoils help in the compaction and organization of DNA within the cell. Therefore, the given statement is false.

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78. Rapid cooling of DNA following heating at high temperature will cause

Explanation

The correct answer: (C) the strands to remain separted. a common procedure to ensure that denatured DNA stays denatured is to brunge the hot dna solution into ice also called quenching.

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79. Predict the consequence of treating the 70s ribosomal with urea:

Explanation

The correct asnswer is: (D) the unit would dissociate from RNA and protein components

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80. Bacteria use th restriction-modification system to synthesize new DNA molecule 

Explanation

The statement is false because bacteria use the restriction-modification system to protect themselves from foreign DNA, not to synthesize new DNA molecules. This system involves the production of restriction enzymes that can recognize and cut specific DNA sequences, preventing the entry of foreign DNA into the bacterial cell. The modification enzymes then add methyl groups to the bacterial DNA, marking it as "self" and protecting it from being cut by the restriction enzymes. This system is a defense mechanism rather than a mechanism for DNA synthesis.

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81. In vivo, DNA polymerase III holoenzyme can synthesize DNA at a rate of

Explanation

The correct answer is 1000nt/sec. This means that DNA polymerase III holoenzyme can synthesize 1000 nucleotides per second in vivo. This is a high rate of DNA synthesis, indicating the efficiency and speed of this enzyme in replicating DNA.

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82. The notion of one-gene/one-enzyme is true or not? If not, it is because of which of the following?

Explanation

Correct answer is: (D) All A-C are correct

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83. Which of the following is a characteristic of double-stranded DNA?

Explanation

Correct answer is: (E) A, B and C

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84. In an experiment conducted to toest the messenger hypothesis, whch states that messenger RNA carries the genetic information 35S was used instead of 32P. What is one possible outcome of this experiment?

Explanation

The correct answer is: (B) No label would be found in the RNA

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85. 5'-ACCGTAG- GATGCCA-3' is an example of an inverted repeat sequence

Explanation

The given sequence 5'-ACCGTAG- GATGCCA-3' is not an example of an inverted repeat sequence. Inverted repeat sequences are DNA sequences that read the same forward and backward on complementary strands. In this case, the sequence does not have a complementary sequence that reads the same in the opposite direction. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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86. The relationship between genes and enzymes was shown by?

Explanation

Correct answer is: (B) Beadle and Tatum

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87. In experiments conducted by Griffitsh, the inabilityy of the avirulent strain to produce a lethal infection was due to

Explanation

Correct answer is: (B) Destruction by the host's white blood cells

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88. CDNA is 

Explanation

cDNA, or complementary DNA, is synthesized from a messenger RNA (mRNA) template using the enzyme reverse transcriptase. It is a DNA molecule that contains only the exons, or coding regions, of a gene, without the introns, or non-coding regions. This allows for the production of a DNA molecule that is a complementary copy of the mRNA, which can then be cloned into prokaryotes for further study or manipulation. Therefore, the correct answer is "eukaryotic DNA with only exons that can be cloned into prokaryotes."

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89. The most common type of DNA damage repair is

Explanation

The most common type of DNA damage repair is excision repair. This process involves the removal of damaged or incorrect nucleotides from the DNA strand and replacing them with the correct ones. It is a highly efficient mechanism that helps maintain the integrity of the DNA molecule and prevent the accumulation of mutations. Excision repair is involved in repairing various types of DNA damage, including UV-induced pyrimidine dimers, chemical adducts, and other types of base modifications. This repair mechanism is essential for the cell's survival and plays a crucial role in maintaining genomic stability.

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90. DNA gyrase introduces_____ supercoils in the DNA

Explanation

DNA gyrase is an enzyme that introduces negative supercoils in the DNA. Supercoiling is the twisting or coiling of the DNA molecule, and it can be either positive or negative. In the case of DNA gyrase, it introduces negative supercoils by breaking and rejoining the DNA strands, which helps in the compaction and organization of the DNA molecule. Positive supercoiling, on the other hand, is introduced by other enzymes such as topoisomerase I. Therefore, the correct answer is negative.

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91. Barbara McClintock discovered the first eukaryotic transposable element in

Explanation

Barbara McClintock discovered the first eukaryotic transposable element in maize. This means that she found the first instance of a mobile genetic element that can change its position within the genome of a maize plant. This discovery was groundbreaking as it provided evidence for the existence of genetic elements that can move and potentially impact gene expression and genome evolution. McClintock's work in maize genetics revolutionized our understanding of genome dynamics and earned her the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1983.

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92. Which of the follwing scientists provided definitive evidence for the chromosomal theory?

Explanation

Correct answer is: (B) Morgan

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93. Which is the following is not requried during the elongation phase of translation in bacteria?

Explanation

The correct answer is: (E) ribonuclease

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94. Branch migration is a spontaneous process that takes place after a Holliday junction is formed

Explanation

Branch migration is not a spontaneous process that takes place after a Holliday junction is formed. Instead, branch migration is an enzymatic process that occurs during the resolution of a Holliday junction, where the DNA strands are moved along the junction to promote either crossover or non-crossover events. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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95. The Ds transposable element of maize cannot transpose on its won because it lacks

Explanation

The Ds transposable element of maize cannot transpose on its own because it lacks transposase. Transposase is an enzyme that is required for the movement of transposable elements within a genome. Without transposase, the Ds element is unable to undergo transposition, which is the process of moving from one location to another within the genome. Therefore, the absence of transposase prevents the Ds element from transposing on its own.

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96. During SDS-PAGE, which of the following does not directly affect the migration of the polypeptides through the gel? 

Explanation

The migration of polypeptides through the gel in SDS-PAGE is primarily determined by their size, as smaller molecules can move more easily through the pores of the gel. The strength of the electric field also affects the migration, as a stronger field will cause faster movement. The molecular mass of the protein is indirectly related to its size and can influence the migration. SDS (sodium dodecyl sulfate) is a detergent used in SDS-PAGE to denature proteins and give them a negative charge, which helps to separate them based on size. However, the native charge on the polypeptides does not directly affect their migration in SDS-PAGE, as SDS masks the native charge and provides a uniform negative charge to all proteins.

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97. The (e)-subunit of DNa Polymerase III core enzyme functions in proofreading by having 5'---->3' exonuclease activity

Explanation

The (e)-subunit of DNA Polymerase III core enzyme does not function in proofreading by having 5'---->3' exonuclease activity. The correct answer is False.

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98. A circular 3000 bp UC18 plasmid DNA sample was treated with BAMHI restriction enzyme. The plasmid has restriction sites at position 100 and position 2000. Which of the following choices represents the size fragments that would be observed on an agarose gel? 

Explanation

When the UC18 plasmid DNA sample is treated with the BAMHI restriction enzyme, it cuts at the restriction sites located at position 100 and position 2000. This results in two fragments being produced: one fragment of size 1900 bp (from position 100 to position 2000) and another fragment of size 1100 bp (from position 2000 to position 100 and then back to position 100 again). Therefore, the correct answer is 1900,1100.

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99. Which of the following statements is not true concerning DNA replication in prokaryotes? 

Explanation

The statement that is not true concerning DNA replication in prokaryotes is "DNA replication requires only one enzyme". In reality, DNA replication in prokaryotes requires multiple enzymes, including DNA polymerase, primase, helicase, ligase, and topoisomerase. These enzymes work together to unwind the DNA double helix, synthesize new DNA strands, and seal any gaps in the newly synthesized DNA. Therefore, the statement that DNA replication requires only one enzyme is incorrect.

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100. A fragment restricted with EcoRI enzyme can be used for ligation into a plasmid that was restricted with BamHI because both the insert and the plasmid contain sticky ends. 

Explanation

The statement is false because EcoRI and BamHI have different recognition sequences, so they would not produce compatible sticky ends. Therefore, a fragment restricted with EcoRI enzyme cannot be used for ligation into a plasmid restricted with BamHI.

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101. Which of the following is not true about run-on transcription assay? 

Explanation

The run-on transcription assay is a technique used to measure the transcription rates of genes. It involves using isolated nuclei, not including cytoplasmic RNA, and performing the reaction in the presence of labeled nucleotides. By analyzing the labeled RNA, the assay can identify the genes that are being actively transcribed. Therefore, the statement "Cytoplasmic RNA is included in the assay" is not true about the run-on transcription assay.

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102. A new insulin gene was isolated and a study was planned to look at the function region. Which of the following would be the best choice for this study? 

Explanation

A report gene assay would be the best choice for this study because it allows researchers to measure the activity of the isolated insulin gene. The assay involves linking the insulin gene to a reporter gene, such as luciferase or green fluorescent protein, which produces a measurable signal when the insulin gene is active. This would provide valuable information about the function of the insulin gene and its regulatory elements. Southern analysis, immunoblotting, PCR, and immunoprecipitation are not suitable for directly studying the function of a gene.

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103. The constant region of an antibody contains the antigen binding domains.

Explanation

The constant region of an antibody does not contain the antigen binding domains. The antigen binding domains are located in the variable region of the antibody. The constant region is responsible for mediating effector functions and determining the class and isotype of the antibody.

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104. Which of the following statements is not true regarding genetic mapping?

Explanation

Correct answer is: (E) Mapping is used ot determine the compositon of a gene.

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105. A recombinant plasmid was constructed with several restriction enzyme sites and an ampicillin resistance marker. This recombinant was used to transform a host bacteria that also has the ampicillin resistant gene. Which of the following statements is true regarding this experiment? 

Explanation

All of the choices are true. Since the recombinant plasmid contains an ampicillin resistance marker, all transformed bacteria, including both the transformed and untransformed ones, will be able to grow on a plate containing ampicillin. Additionally, the presence of multiple restriction enzyme sites in the plasmid makes it difficult to screen for a colony containing the plasmid. Therefore, it is true that it will be difficult to screen for a colony containing a plasmid. Lastly, it is recommended to use an ampicillin-sensitive bacterial host for screening purposes.

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106. In constructing a cDNA library, which of the following would you use to generate rare restriction sites on the cDNA strands? 

Explanation

To generate rare restriction sites on the cDNA strands, one would use the technique of ligating cDNA to specific linkers. Linkers are short DNA sequences that contain rare restriction sites. By ligating these linkers to the cDNA strands, rare restriction sites can be introduced. This allows for the identification and isolation of specific DNA fragments within the cDNA library using the corresponding restriction enzymes. Restriction enzymes, PCR with multiple cycles, and BamHI restriction followed by ligation are not methods specifically used to generate rare restriction sites on the cDNA strands.

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107. Which of the following is used to study the interaction of proteins with DNA? 

Explanation

DNase-1 footprinting is used to study the interaction of proteins with DNA. This technique involves the digestion of DNA with DNase-1, which cleaves DNA at specific sites. However, when a protein is bound to the DNA, it protects the DNA from digestion, resulting in the formation of a "footprint" or region of DNA that is not cleaved by DNase-1. By analyzing the pattern of DNA cleavage, researchers can determine the location and strength of protein-DNA interactions. S1 nuclease protection, DNA fingerprinting, southern analysis, and northern blotting are all techniques used for different purposes and are not specifically used to study protein-DNA interactions.

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108. In molecular biology all of the following methods can detect small traces of radioactivity except 

Explanation

Spectrophotometry is a method used to measure the absorption or transmission of light by a substance. It is commonly used to determine the concentration of a substance in a solution. However, spectrophotometry does not have the ability to detect radioactivity directly. On the other hand, the other methods listed (liquid scintillation counter, autoradiography, x-ray film, and phosphorimaging) are all commonly used techniques to detect and measure radioactivity in biological samples.

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109. Site-directed mutagenesis is used for which of the following purposes? 

Explanation

Site-directed mutagenesis is a technique used to make specific changes to the bases in DNA. This can involve introducing mutations, deletions, or insertions at specific locations in the DNA sequence. It allows researchers to study the effects of specific changes on gene function and protein structure. The other options mentioned, such as inserting fragments, inducing site-specific recombination, and removing large segments of DNA, are not the primary purposes of site-directed mutagenesis.

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110. Molecular modeling of RuvA and a Holliday junction showed that hey form a _____ that favors rapid branch migration.

Explanation

The correct answer is square planar conformation. Molecular modeling studies have shown that RuvA and a Holliday junction form a square planar conformation, which allows for rapid branch migration. This conformation provides the necessary flexibility and stability for the efficient movement of the DNA strands during genetic recombination.

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111. One mechanism by which gene conversion can occur in N. crassa during meiosis is ________

Explanation

During meiosis in N. crassa, gene conversion can occur through mismatch repair. Mismatch repair is a mechanism that corrects errors in DNA replication by identifying and removing mispaired bases. In the context of gene conversion, mismatch repair can be triggered when a heteroduplex is formed during recombination. If there is a mismatch between the two DNA strands in the heteroduplex, the mismatch repair machinery can recognize and repair the mismatch by either replacing the incorrect base with the correct one or by initiating DNA synthesis to correct the mismatch. This process can result in the conversion of one allele to another, leading to genetic diversity.

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112. It is suspected that a novel histone protein only interacts with the promoter region of B-globin genes. Which of the following techniques should be used to confirm this suspicion? 

Explanation

All of the techniques mentioned (EMSA, DNase footprinting, filter binding, and gel mobility shift assay) can be used to confirm the suspicion that a novel histone protein only interacts with the promoter region of B-globin genes. EMSA (Electrophoretic Mobility Shift Assay) can determine if the protein binds to the DNA sequence, DNase footprinting can identify the specific binding site, filter binding can quantify the binding affinity, and gel mobility shift assay can confirm the interaction between the protein and the DNA. Therefore, all of these techniques are appropriate for confirming the suspicion.

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113. The recombinases RAG-1 and RAG-2 are expressed in both plasma and memory B-cells

Explanation

The statement is false because the recombinases RAG-1 and RAG-2 are not expressed in plasma and memory B-cells. These recombinases are actually expressed in developing B and T cells during the process of V(D)J recombination, which is crucial for generating diverse antigen receptors. Once B cells undergo this recombination process and mature into plasma or memory B cells, RAG-1 and RAG-2 expression is turned off.

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114. Which of the following mammalian cell DNA polymerases is not correctly matched with its function? 

Explanation

DNA Pol (&) is not correctly matched with its function of ligation of DNA strands. DNA Pol (&) is actually involved in the process of nucleotide excision repair, which is a DNA repair mechanism.

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115. DNA gyrase uses_____ to alleviate supercoiling

Explanation

DNA gyrase is a type of topoisomerase II enzyme that is responsible for alleviating supercoiling in DNA. Supercoiling occurs when the DNA helix becomes twisted and can interfere with various cellular processes. To unwind the supercoiled DNA, DNA gyrase uses the energy from ATP hydrolysis. ATP provides the necessary energy for DNA gyrase to break and rejoin DNA strands, allowing for the release of supercoiling and the maintenance of DNA structure and function.

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116. Which of the following molecules serves as a primer for reverse transcriptase during retroviral replication?

Explanation

During retroviral replication, reverse transcriptase uses a host tRNA molecule as a primer. Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that synthesizes DNA from an RNA template, and it requires a primer to initiate the synthesis. In this case, the host tRNA molecule serves as the primer, providing the necessary starting point for reverse transcriptase to begin synthesizing viral DNA. The other molecules listed, such as host snRNA, viral RNA, viral DNA, and host DNA, do not serve as primers during retroviral replication.

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117. Which of the following techniques was key in demonstrating the presynapsis and synapsis steps of homologous recombination?

Explanation

Electron microscopy was key in demonstrating the presynapsis and synapsis steps of homologous recombination because it allows for high-resolution imaging of biological samples, including DNA molecules. This technique enables researchers to visualize the physical interactions between DNA strands during the process of homologous recombination, providing valuable insights into the mechanisms and steps involved.

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118. West and colleagues used gel mobility sift assays to demonstrate that_____ could bind to and resolve Holliday junctions.

Explanation

West and colleagues used gel mobility shift assays to demonstrate that RuvC could bind to and resolve Holliday junctions.

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119. Which of the following repair mechanisms is a damge bypass mechanism, not an actual repair mechanism?

Explanation

Recombinant repair is not an actual repair mechanism, but rather a damage bypass mechanism. It involves the exchange of genetic material between two DNA molecules, which can lead to the formation of new combinations of genes. This process does not directly repair the damage in the DNA, but rather allows for genetic diversity and adaptation in organisms.

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120. Which of the following has no reverse transcriptase gene associated with it?

Explanation

Tn3 is the correct answer because it is a transposon, a type of DNA sequence that can move from one location to another within a genome. Transposons do not have a reverse transcriptase gene associated with them. In contrast, HIV, Ty, AMV, and L1 are all retroviruses or retrotransposons, which have a reverse transcriptase gene that allows them to convert their RNA genome into DNA for integration into the host genome. Therefore, Tn3 is the only option that does not have a reverse transcriptase gene.

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121. Which of the following is the primase that synthesizes primers during DNA replication in E.Coli?

Explanation

DnaG is the correct answer because it is the primase that synthesizes RNA primers during DNA replication in E.Coli. Primers are necessary for DNA polymerase to start replication, and DnaG is responsible for synthesizing these primers by adding RNA nucleotides to the DNA template. DnaG is an essential component of the replication machinery and plays a crucial role in initiating DNA replication.

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122. Which of the followign would probably not be a charactersitic of the Tn3 transposon?

Explanation

The Tn3 transposon is a type of mobile genetic element that can move from one location to another within a genome. It typically contains inverted repeat sequences, antibiotic resistance genes, resolvase genes, and transposase genes. The oriT site, on the other hand, is a site that is involved in the initiation of DNA transfer during conjugation, which is a different mechanism of genetic transfer. Therefore, it is not likely to be a characteristic of the Tn3 transposon.

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Positive supercoliling causes the DNA to form a more compact...
Polynucleotide probes can be used to screen a genomic library for...
Double-stranded DNA consists of two antiparallel strands, meaning that...
Rearrangement of mammalian cell immunoglobulin genes is responsible...
A gene can accept occasional changes, which allows organisms to evolve
An amino group, a carboxyl group, and a hydrogen are found in all...
Insertion sequences are transposable elements that can inactivate gene
A segments of DNA is considered upstream when t is located on the 5'...
In E. coli, the antibiotic nalidixic acid, by inhibiting DNA gyrase,...
Antibiotic resistance in bacteria can be transferred using insertion...
E.Coli dnaB temperature senstive mutatns cannot undergo DNA...
DNA under the control of one origin of replication is called a...
HindII is so named because it was isolated from Haemophilus influenzae...
Holliday junctions are intermediates in RecBCD recombination in E.coli
Asymmetrical spacing of the backbones of the DNA double helix...
All of the following are found in RNA except
Phosphodiester bonds are examples of
For DNA probes to hybridize 
Non-homologous DNA will attach to a DNA probe 
Priming is essential to 
Which of the following is not found in RNA and DNA?
The messenger hypothesis states that
Prokaryotic DNA contains both exons and introns 
Which of the following is likely to contribute to a shift in the...
One approach to prevent religation of the ends of a restricted plasmid...
Which of the following is not a product of transcription?
The bonds that connect adenine to thymine in a DNA double helix are
Who first conducted the X-ray diffraction studies of DNA?
At high temperature, two complementary DNA strands will anneal. 
The complementary sequence of oneof the following is a palindrome....
In semiconservative replication of DNA, the two parental strands stay...
In the process of cloning eukaryotic DNA into prokaryotic cells, the...
About meiosis, which is wrong?
Select the component that is most critical to the function of as...
RNA polymerase removes exons from precursor RNA 
Which of the following is not used in a Sanger chain termination...
_________ supercoiling represents a force on the DNA in a right-handed...
The ability of two polynucleotide strands to hybridize is based on...
Which of the following statements is not true concerning homologous...
Experiments conducted by Frederick Griffiths laid the foundation for?
Which of the following would be the substance of choice to destroy the...
DNA probes are used to 
How many enzymes should be used in a plasmid DNA and an insert if...
A major function of reporter gene assay is to? 
Since RecA is such a versatile protein, RecBCD is not really necessary...
Which of the following features is common to DNA, RNA, and proteins?
MRNA encodes a gene
Which of the following enzymes cannot catalyze the formation of a...
Which of the following is true about wild-type organisms?
Which of the following DNA molecules is the most stable?
An experimenter is able to select recombinant colonies from a...
In the construction of an expression vector, which of the following...
Rapid purification of proteins based on size can best be done...
Which of the following is not part of the E.coli primosome?
Some genes located on the same chromosome do not show perfect linkage...
A new mutant cell line was accidentall created in the lab. This mutant...
A bacterial sample  was contaminated with an unknown preparation...
In hybridization 
In the E. coli RecBCD pathway, in order for homologous recombination...
The correct structure of DNA components can be presented as
The analytic tools used to show that DNA was the transforming...
Put the following steps of E.Coli primosome assembly in the correct...
Evidence that physical recombination occurs between two chromosomes...
Which of the following was demonstrated by Frederick and Griffiths?
A disadvantage of using a prokaryotic expression systems for...
In order to clone eukaryotic DNA into prokaryotic cells 
A primosome can be defined as
E.coli RecA protein is only necessary for the presynapsis step of...
During an experiment with drosophilia, it was discovered that all...
The chromosomal theory of inheritance holds that
The noncoding strand of a gene is the same as the antisense strand
Restriction enzymes were discoverd by
Which of the following vectors is the best choice for the expression...
Which of the following techniques is not used to quantify the level of...
Which of the following is not a characteristic of prokaryotic single...
Which of the following agents causes DNA damage by forming pyrimidine...
DNA gyrase adds positive supercoils to a negatively coiled DNA...
Rapid cooling of DNA following heating at high temperature will cause
Predict the consequence of treating the 70s ribosomal with urea:
Bacteria use th restriction-modification system to synthesize new DNA...
In vivo, DNA polymerase III holoenzyme can synthesize DNA at a rate of
The notion of one-gene/one-enzyme is true or not? If not, it is...
Which of the following is a characteristic of double-stranded DNA?
In an experiment conducted to toest the messenger hypothesis, whch...
5'-ACCGTAG- GATGCCA-3' is an example of an inverted repeat sequence
The relationship between genes and enzymes was shown by?
In experiments conducted by Griffitsh, the inabilityy of the avirulent...
CDNA is 
The most common type of DNA damage repair is
DNA gyrase introduces_____ supercoils in the DNA
Barbara McClintock discovered the first eukaryotic transposable...
Which of the follwing scientists provided definitive evidence for the...
Which is the following is not requried during the elongation phase of...
Branch migration is a spontaneous process that takes place after a...
The Ds transposable element of maize cannot transpose on its won...
During SDS-PAGE, which of the following does not directly affect the...
The (e)-subunit of DNa Polymerase III core enzyme functions in...
A circular 3000 bp UC18 plasmid DNA sample was treated with BAMHI...
Which of the following statements is not true concerning DNA...
A fragment restricted with EcoRI enzyme can be used for ligation into...
Which of the following is not true about run-on transcription...
A new insulin gene was isolated and a study was planned to look at the...
The constant region of an antibody contains the antigen binding...
Which of the following statements is not true regarding genetic...
A recombinant plasmid was constructed with several restriction enzyme...
In constructing a cDNA library, which of the following would you use...
Which of the following is used to study the interaction of proteins...
In molecular biology all of the following methods can detect small...
Site-directed mutagenesis is used for which of the following...
Molecular modeling of RuvA and a Holliday junction showed that hey...
One mechanism by which gene conversion can occur in N. crassa during...
It is suspected that a novel histone protein only interacts with the...
The recombinases RAG-1 and RAG-2 are expressed in both plasma and...
Which of the following mammalian cell DNA polymerases is not correctly...
DNA gyrase uses_____ to alleviate supercoiling
Which of the following molecules serves as a primer for reverse...
Which of the following techniques was key in demonstrating the...
West and colleagues used gel mobility sift assays to demonstrate...
Which of the following repair mechanisms is a damge bypass mechanism,...
Which of the following has no reverse transcriptase gene associated...
Which of the following is the primase that synthesizes primers during...
Which of the followign would probably not be a charactersitic of the...
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