Molecular Biology (Chapter 1-5, 20-23)

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  • 1/122 Questions

    Positive supercoliling causes the DNA to form a more compact structure.

    • True
    • False
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Molecular Biology Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

These are the powerpoint questions he asked I'll add some randoms one later when I get through reading all the chapters. Good luck.

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  • 2. 

    Double-stranded DNA consists of two antiparallel strands, meaning that one strand is oriented in the 5' to 3' direction, while the other is oriented in the 3' to 5' direction.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Correct answer is: (A) True

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  • 3. 

    Polynucleotide probes can be used to screen a genomic library for specific genomic sequences. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Polynucleotide probes are short sequences of DNA or RNA that are complementary to specific target sequences in a genome. By using these probes, researchers can identify and isolate specific genomic sequences from a genomic library. This technique, known as screening, allows for the identification of genes or other important sequences of interest. Therefore, the statement that polynucleotide probes can be used to screen a genomic library for specific genomic sequences is true.

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  • 4. 

    Rearrangement of mammalian cell immunoglobulin genes is responsible for the large diversity of antibodies produced by B-cell

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because the rearrangement of mammalian cell immunoglobulin genes is indeed responsible for the large diversity of antibodies produced by B-cells. During the development of B-cells, the genes that encode for the variable regions of antibodies undergo a process called V(D)J recombination. This process involves the rearrangement and joining of different gene segments, resulting in the generation of a wide variety of unique antibody molecules. This genetic rearrangement is crucial for the immune system's ability to recognize and respond to a wide range of pathogens.

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  • 5. 

    A gene can accept occasional changes, which allows organisms to evolve

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Genes can indeed accept occasional changes, which is known as genetic variation. This genetic variation is crucial for the process of evolution as it allows organisms to adapt to their environment over time. These changes can occur through various mechanisms such as mutations, gene flow, and genetic recombination. Therefore, the statement "A gene can accept occasional changes, which allows organisms to evolve" is true.

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  • 6. 

    An amino group, a carboxyl group, and a hydrogen are found in all amino acids

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    All amino acids have a common structure consisting of an amino group, a carboxyl group, and a hydrogen atom. The amino group contains a nitrogen atom bonded to two hydrogen atoms, while the carboxyl group consists of a carbon atom double-bonded to an oxygen atom and single-bonded to a hydroxyl group. These functional groups are essential for the formation of peptide bonds and the overall structure and function of proteins. Therefore, it is true that all amino acids contain an amino group, a carboxyl group, and a hydrogen atom.

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  • 7. 

    Insertion sequences are transposable elements that can inactivate gene

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Insertion sequences are a type of transposable element that have the ability to move within a genome and insert themselves into different locations. When an insertion sequence inserts itself into a gene, it can disrupt the normal functioning of that gene, leading to its inactivation. Therefore, the statement that insertion sequences can inactivate genes is true.

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  • 8. 

    A segments of DNA is considered upstream when t is located on the 5' end of the start site.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because in DNA, the 5' end refers to the end of the DNA strand that has a phosphate group attached to the 5th carbon of the sugar molecule. The start site is where transcription begins, and if a segment of DNA is located on the 5' end of the start site, it is considered upstream.

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  • 9. 

    In E. coli, the antibiotic nalidixic acid, by inhibiting DNA gyrase, prevents DNA replication, which then causes positive supercoiling of the DNA

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Nalidixic acid is an antibiotic that inhibits DNA gyrase, an enzyme essential for DNA replication. When DNA gyrase is inhibited, DNA replication cannot occur properly, leading to the formation of positive supercoiling of the DNA. Therefore, the statement that nalidixic acid prevents DNA replication and causes positive supercoiling of the DNA in E. coli is true.

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  • 10. 

    Antibiotic resistance in bacteria can be transferred using insertion sequences

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Antibiotic resistance in bacteria can indeed be transferred using insertion sequences. Insertion sequences are small segments of DNA that can move from one location to another within the bacterial genome. When an insertion sequence containing a resistance gene inserts itself into a new location, it can confer antibiotic resistance to the bacteria. This mechanism of transfer is one of the ways in which bacteria can acquire resistance to antibiotics, leading to the spread of resistant strains and making treatment more difficult.

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  • 11. 

    E.Coli dnaB temperature senstive mutatns cannot undergo DNA replication at 40C due to the loss of helicase activity.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    E. coli dnaB temperature sensitive mutants are unable to undergo DNA replication at 40°C because they have lost their helicase activity. Helicase is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in DNA replication by unwinding the double-stranded DNA molecule. Without helicase activity, the DNA cannot be properly unwound and replicated, leading to a failure in DNA replication at higher temperatures. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 12. 

    DNA under the control of one origin of replication is called a replicon. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A replicon is a DNA molecule that can replicate independently. In other words, it is capable of initiating and completing DNA replication on its own. DNA under the control of one origin of replication fits this definition, as it can replicate independently without the need for additional origins of replication. Therefore, DNA under the control of one origin of replication is indeed called a replicon, making the statement true.

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  • 13. 

    HindII is so named because it was isolated from Haemophilus influenzae bacterium 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    HindII is named after Haemophilus influenzae bacterium because it was isolated from this specific bacterium. This suggests that the enzyme was first discovered and identified in Haemophilus influenzae, leading to its name "HindII". Therefore, the statement "HindII is so named because it was isolated from Haemophilus influenzae bacterium" is true.

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  • 14. 

    Holliday junctions are intermediates in RecBCD recombination in E.coli

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Holliday junctions are indeed intermediates in RecBCD recombination in E.coli. RecBCD is a protein complex involved in DNA repair and recombination in E.coli. During the process of recombination, the RecBCD complex unwinds the DNA strands and creates a Holliday junction, which is a four-way DNA structure. This junction can then be resolved to form new combinations of DNA strands, leading to genetic diversity. Therefore, the statement "Holliday junctions are intermediates in RecBCD recombination in E.coli" is true.

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  • 15. 

    Asymmetrical spacing of the backbones of the DNA double helix generates major and minor grooves.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Correct Answer is: (A) True

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  • 16. 

    All of the following are found in RNA except

    • Adenine

    • Deoxyribose

    • Cytosine

    • Guanine

    • Uracil

    Correct Answer
    A. Deoxyribose
    Explanation
    Correct answer is: deoxyribose

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is not found in RNA and DNA?

    • Nitrogen

    • Oxygen

    • Carbon

    • Sulfur

    • Hydrogen

    Correct Answer
    A. Sulfur
    Explanation
    Correct answer is: (D) sulfur

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  • 18. 

    Phosphodiester bonds are examples of

    • Hydrophobic interactions

    • Hydrogen bonds

    • Convalent bonds

    • Noncovalent bonds

    • Ionic bonds

    Correct Answer
    A. Convalent bonds
    Explanation
    Correct answer is: convalent bonds

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  • 19. 

    For DNA probes to hybridize 

    • DNA strands must be homologous, having regions with similar or identical nucleotide sequences

    • DNA strands must be non-homologous

    • DNA must be complementary to RNA

    • DNA must be fragmented by reverse transcriptase

    Correct Answer
    A. DNA strands must be homologous, having regions with similar or identical nucleotide sequences
    Explanation
    DNA probes are short, single-stranded DNA molecules that are used to detect specific sequences of DNA in a sample. In order for DNA probes to hybridize, or bind, to their target sequences, the DNA strands must be homologous. This means that they must have regions with similar or identical nucleotide sequences. This allows for the complementary base pairing between the DNA probe and its target sequence, resulting in a stable hybridization. If the DNA strands are non-homologous, the probe will not be able to bind to its target sequence effectively. Therefore, the correct answer is that DNA strands must be homologous.

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  • 20. 

    Non-homologous DNA will attach to a DNA probe 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Non-homologous DNA will not attach to a DNA probe. A DNA probe is a single-stranded DNA molecule that is designed to bind specifically to a complementary DNA sequence. Non-homologous DNA refers to DNA sequences that do not have a complementary match. Therefore, non-homologous DNA will not bind to a DNA probe.

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  • 21. 

    Priming is essential to 

    • DNA Replication

    • Translation

    • Recombination

    • Transpositon

    Correct Answer
    A. DNA Replication
    Explanation
    Priming is essential to DNA replication because it provides the starting point for DNA synthesis. During replication, an enzyme called DNA polymerase adds new nucleotides to the growing DNA strand, but it can only do so if there is a short RNA primer already attached to the template DNA strand. This primer provides the necessary 3' hydroxyl group for DNA polymerase to add nucleotides and initiate replication. Without priming, DNA replication cannot occur efficiently or accurately.

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  • 22. 

    The messenger hypothesis states that

    • Messenger RNAs are very stable and are not destroyed

    • Ribosomal RNAs carry the inforamtion for making proteins

    • Messenger RNAs carry genetic inforamtion to ribosomes

    • New ribosome are made to trasmit new genetic inforamtion

    • None of the choices are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. Messenger RNAs carry genetic inforamtion to ribosomes
    Explanation
    The correct answer is: (C) messenger RNAs carry genetic information to ribosomes

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  • 23. 

    Prokaryotic DNA contains both exons and introns 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Prokaryotic DNA does not contain introns. In prokaryotes, such as bacteria, the DNA is organized into a single circular chromosome that does not have introns. Introns are non-coding regions of DNA that are present in eukaryotes, where the DNA is organized into multiple linear chromosomes. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is likely to contribute to a shift in the reading frame in an mRNA molecule?

    • Removal a triplet code

    • Removal of nine bases

    • Removal of a single base

    • Removal of six bases

    • Noneo fthe choices are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. Removal of a single base
    Explanation
    The correct answer is: (C) removal of a single base

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is not a product of transcription?

    • RNA

    • DNA

    • RRNA

    • TRNA

    • MRNA

    Correct Answer
    A. DNA
    Explanation
    Correct answer is: (B) DNA

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  • 26. 

    One approach to prevent religation of the ends of a restricted plasmid DNA is to 

    • Store the plasmid in DNase

    • Store the plasmid in RNAase

    • Treat the plasmid with alkaline phosphatase to remove phosphate for the sticky ends

    • Treat the plasmid with a protease to remove all proteins

    • Treat the plasmid with BamHI to create gaps

    Correct Answer
    A. Treat the plasmid with alkaline phosphatase to remove phosphate for the sticky ends
    Explanation
    Treating the plasmid with alkaline phosphatase is an effective approach to prevent religation of the ends of a restricted plasmid DNA. This is because alkaline phosphatase removes the phosphate groups from the sticky ends of the DNA, which are necessary for the ends to rejoin and religate. By removing the phosphate groups, the sticky ends become blunt ends, making it difficult for the DNA to reconnect and religate. Therefore, treating the plasmid with alkaline phosphatase helps to prevent the unwanted rejoining of the DNA ends and maintains the integrity of the restricted plasmid.

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  • 27. 

    The bonds that connect adenine to thymine in a DNA double helix are

    • Ionic

    • Hydrophobic

    • Hydrogen

    • Covalent

    • One of the choices are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydrogen
    Explanation
    The correct answer: (C) hydrogen

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  • 28. 

    Who first conducted the X-ray diffraction studies of DNA?

    • Franklin and Wilkins

    • Miescher and McClintock

    • Wason and Crick

    • Meselson and Stahl

    • Avery and Beadle

    Correct Answer
    A. Franklin and Wilkins
    Explanation
    Correct answer is: (A) Franklin and Wilkins

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  • 29. 

    At high temperature, two complementary DNA strands will anneal. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    At high temperature, two complementary DNA strands will not anneal. Annealing refers to the process of two single DNA strands coming together and forming a double-stranded DNA molecule. This process occurs at lower temperatures, typically around 50-65 degrees Celsius, during a PCR reaction or DNA hybridization. At high temperatures, the DNA strands will separate or denature rather than anneal.

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  • 30. 

    The complementary sequence of oneof the following is a palindrome. Which one?

    • GAATTC

    • CTGACT

    • ATCCTC

    • GGCCAA

    • CCTTTC

    Correct Answer
    A. GAATTC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is: (A) GAATTC

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  • 31. 

    In semiconservative replication of DNA, the two parental strands stay together and the two new daughter strands are produced. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    In semiconservative replication of DNA, the two parental strands separate and each strand serves as a template for the synthesis of a new daughter strand. This results in two DNA molecules, each consisting of one parental strand and one newly synthesized daughter strand. Therefore, the correct answer is false as the two parental strands do not stay together in semiconservative replication.

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  • 32. 

    In the process of cloning eukaryotic DNA into prokaryotic cells, the role of reverse transcriptase is to make 

    • Double-stranded eukaryotic cDNA from mature mRNA

    • Mature mRNA from precursor mRNA

    • Bacterial DNA from eukaryotic DNA

    • Double-stranded DNA with introns added back

    • MRNA and DNA

    Correct Answer
    A. Double-stranded eukaryotic cDNA from mature mRNA
    Explanation
    Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that can synthesize complementary DNA (cDNA) from an RNA template. In the process of cloning eukaryotic DNA into prokaryotic cells, reverse transcriptase is used to make double-stranded eukaryotic cDNA from mature mRNA. This is because mature mRNA contains the coding regions of genes, which can be used to produce a complementary DNA copy. This cDNA can then be inserted into a prokaryotic cell for further manipulation and study.

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  • 33. 

    About meiosis, which is wrong?

    • It affects human cells

    • It affects mammalian cells

    • It affects plants cells

    • It affects E.Coli

    Correct Answer
    A. It affects E.Coli
    Explanation
    Meiosis is a type of cell division that occurs in sexually reproducing organisms, including plants and animals. It is responsible for the formation of gametes (sperm and egg cells) in these organisms. However, E.Coli is a bacterium and does not undergo meiosis as it reproduces asexually through a process called binary fission. Therefore, the statement "It affects E.Coli" is incorrect.

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  • 34. 

    Select the component that is most critical to the function of as plasmid? 

    • Tetracycline resistance

    • Ampicillin resistance

    • EcoRI site

    • Origin of replication

    • Ligase

    Correct Answer
    A. Origin of replication
    Explanation
    The origin of replication is the component that is most critical to the function of a plasmid. It is responsible for initiating the replication process and allows the plasmid to be replicated and passed on to daughter cells. Without the origin of replication, the plasmid would not be able to replicate and would not be maintained in the cell population. The other components listed, such as tetracycline resistance, ampicillin resistance, EcoRI site, and ligase, are important for certain applications or functions of the plasmid but are not essential for its basic replication and maintenance.

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  • 35. 

    RNA polymerase removes exons from precursor RNA 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    RNA polymerase is responsible for transcribing DNA into RNA, not for removing exons from precursor RNA. The process of removing exons and joining together the remaining introns is called RNA splicing, which is carried out by a complex called the spliceosome. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is not used in a Sanger chain termination reaction?: 

    • DdATP

    • DdUTP

    • DdCTP

    • DdGTP

    • DdTTP

    Correct Answer
    A. DdUTP
    Explanation
    ddUTP is not used in a Sanger chain termination reaction. In a Sanger sequencing reaction, DNA synthesis is terminated by the incorporation of a chain-terminating nucleotide, which lacks a 3'-OH group required for the addition of the next nucleotide. The chain-terminating nucleotides used in Sanger sequencing include ddATP, ddCTP, ddGTP, and ddTTP, but not ddUTP.

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  • 37. 

    _________ supercoiling represents a force on the DNA in a right-handed direction

    • Negative

    • Positive

    • Neutral

    • Detrimental

    Correct Answer
    A. Positive
    Explanation
    Positive supercoiling refers to a force on the DNA in a right-handed direction. Supercoiling occurs when the DNA molecule twists upon itself, forming a coiled structure. In positive supercoiling, the DNA is overwound, meaning that the number of twists in the helix is greater than the number of twists in a relaxed state. This results in a right-handed twist, creating tension and strain on the DNA molecule. Positive supercoiling is important for various cellular processes such as DNA replication, transcription, and packaging into the compact structure of chromosomes.

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  • 38. 

    Experiments conducted by Frederick Griffiths laid the foundation for?

    • Elucidation of mRNA structure

    • DNA as the genetic material

    • The virulence of S. pneumoniae

    • The discovery of the capsule of S. pneumoniae

    • Elucidaiton of tRNA structure.

    Correct Answer
    A. DNA as the genetic material
    Explanation
    Correct answer is: (B) DNA as the genetic material

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following would be the substance of choice to destroy the DNA in a solution?

    • Ribonuclease

    • Trypson

    • Chymotrypsin

    • Deoxyribonuclease

    • None of the choices are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. Deoxyribonuclease
    Explanation
    Correct answer is: deoxyribonuclease

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  • 40. 

    The ability of two polynucleotide strands to hybridize is based on which of the following principles?

    • Double helical nature of DNA

    • The presence of phosphodiester bonds

    • Complementary base pairing

    • The presence of 3' and 5' ends

    • The presence of covalent bonds

    Correct Answer
    A. Complementary base pairing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is: (C) complementary base pairing

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following statements is not true concerning homologous recombination?

    • It can be intramolecular

    • It can be biolecular

    • Only one cross-over event can occur.

    • It results in genetic variation.

    • It is a reciprocal

    Correct Answer
    A. Only one cross-over event can occur.
    Explanation
    Homologous recombination is a process in which genetic material is exchanged between two similar or identical DNA molecules. It can occur both intramolecularly, within a single DNA molecule, and intermolecularly, between two different DNA molecules. This process is known to result in genetic variation as it leads to the shuffling of genetic material. Additionally, homologous recombination is a reciprocal process, meaning that the exchange of genetic material occurs in both directions. The statement "Only one cross-over event can occur" is not true because multiple cross-over events can happen during homologous recombination.

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  • 42. 

    DNA probes are used to 

    • Locate complementary RNA sequences in a test sample

    • Make homologous DNA

    • Make homologous RNA

    • Locate a specific DNA nucleotide sequence in a test sample

    Correct Answer
    A. Locate a specific DNA nucleotide sequence in a test sample
    Explanation
    DNA probes are short single-stranded DNA molecules that are designed to bind specifically to a complementary DNA sequence. They are labeled with a detectable marker, such as a fluorescent dye, which allows for their visualization. These probes are used in molecular biology techniques, such as hybridization assays, to locate and identify specific DNA sequences in a test sample. By binding to the target DNA sequence, the probes can help researchers locate and study specific genes or mutations, aiding in genetic research and diagnostics.

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  • 43. 

    How many enzymes should be used in a plasmid DNA and an insert if there is one desired site to ligate the insert in the vector to a specific orientation? 

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    If there is one desired site to ligate the insert in the vector to a specific orientation, two enzymes should be used in the plasmid DNA and insert. One enzyme will cut the plasmid DNA at the desired site, creating a linear vector. The other enzyme will cut the insert at a compatible site, creating sticky ends that can base pair with the sticky ends of the linear vector. This will allow the insert to be ligated into the vector in the desired orientation.

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  • 44. 

    A major function of reporter gene assay is to? 

    • Measure mutation rates of a gene

    • Measure transcriptional levels

    • Measure replication

    • Monitor luciferase activity

    • Monitor CAT activity

    Correct Answer
    A. Measure transcriptional levels
    Explanation
    The major function of a reporter gene assay is to measure transcriptional levels. Reporter genes are artificially introduced into cells and their expression is used as a proxy for the activity of the gene of interest. By measuring the expression of the reporter gene, researchers can infer the transcriptional levels of the gene they are studying. This allows them to study gene regulation, identify regulatory elements, and assess the effects of various factors on gene expression.

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  • 45. 

    Since RecA is such a versatile protein, RecBCD is not really necessary for homologous recombination to occur

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    RecA is a protein involved in homologous recombination, a process that repairs DNA damage by exchanging genetic material between two similar DNA molecules. While RecA is indeed versatile and plays a crucial role in this process, it requires the assistance of other proteins, such as RecBCD, to efficiently carry out homologous recombination. RecBCD is responsible for processing the DNA ends and generating the necessary single-stranded DNA substrate for RecA to bind and initiate recombination. Therefore, RecBCD is necessary for homologous recombination to occur, making the statement false.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is true about wild-type organisms?

    • They are always foudn in the wild.

    • They are free of all mutations.

    • They are also referred to as standard-types

    • They carry no recessive genes.

    • None of the choices

    Correct Answer
    A. They are also referred to as standard-types
    Explanation
    Correct answer is: (C) They are also referred to as standard-types

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following DNA molecules is the most stable?

    • CTGCATAC GACGTATG

    • GAAATTTC CTTTAAAG

    • AGTCGAAT TCAGCTTA

    • GCGTGCAC CGCACGTG

    • GGATCCTG CCTAGGAC

    Correct Answer
    A. GCGTGCAC CGCACGTG
    Explanation
    Correct answer is: (D)

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following features is common to DNA, RNA, and proteins?

    • They contain amino acidds

    • They contain nucleotides

    • Hey contain uracil

    • They are polymers.

    • Hey are found in vesicles

    Correct Answer
    A. They are polymers.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is: (D) They are polymers

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  • 49. 

    MRNA encodes a gene

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    mRNA does not encode a gene. mRNA is a molecule that is transcribed from a gene and carries the genetic information from the DNA to the ribosomes, where it serves as a template for protein synthesis. Genes are segments of DNA that contain the instructions for making a specific protein or functional RNA molecule. Therefore, mRNA is a product of gene expression, not the gene itself.

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  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Feb 11, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Ekanye

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