Molecular Biology Practice Test

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1. Which of the following is NOT a function of the mRNA Cap? 

Explanation

The mRNA cap is involved in several important functions, including protecting the mRNA from degradation, enhancing the translatability of the mRNA, enhancing the splicing of the mRNA, and enhancing the transport of the mRNA to the cytoplasm. However, it does not directly help regulate the expression of the mRNA from the promoter. This is typically done through other mechanisms such as transcription factors and enhancers.

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About This Quiz
Molecular Biology Practice Test - Quiz


Are you fascinated by the intricate world of genetics and cellular processes? Take our Molecular Biology Quiz! This quiz is designed to test your understanding of key concepts... see morein molecular biology, including DNA replication, RNA transcription, and protein synthesis. Perfect for students and science enthusiasts, our quiz offers multiple-choice questions that will challenge your grasp of molecular structures and functions. You'll explore the mechanisms of gene expression, the role of enzymes, and the intricacies of cellular communication. Whether you're preparing for an exam or just looking to expand your knowledge, this quiz will help you deepen your understanding of the molecular foundations of life. Dive in and see how much you really know about molecular biology! see less

2. Which enzyme is used in the unwinding of DNA?

Explanation

Helicase is the enzyme used in the unwinding of DNA. It plays a crucial role in DNA replication and transcription by breaking the hydrogen bonds between the DNA strands, allowing the double helix to separate and unwind. This unwinding is necessary for the DNA to be accessible for replication or transcription processes. Helicase acts as a molecular motor, moving along the DNA strands and separating them in a process called DNA unwinding. Once the helicase unwinds the DNA, other enzymes can then bind to the separated strands and carry out their respective functions.

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3. Please put the following steps of RNA Cap synthesis in the correct order.  (1) N7 of the capping guanine is methylated (2) The terminal phosphate is removed from the pre-mRNA. (3) A capping GMP is added to the pre-mRNA (4) the 2'-O-methyl group of the penultimate nucleotide is methylated 

Explanation

The correct order for RNA Cap synthesis is as follows: first, the terminal phosphate is removed from the pre-mRNA (2). Then, a capping GMP is added to the pre-mRNA (3). Next, N7 of the capping guanine is methylated (1). Finally, the 2'-O-methyl group of the penultimate nucleotide is methylated (4).

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4. The addition of poly (A) to mRNA seems to be important for its translatability.

Explanation

The addition of poly (A) to mRNA is indeed important for its translatability. Poly (A) is a tail of adenine nucleotides that is added to the 3' end of mRNA molecules. This poly (A) tail helps in stabilizing the mRNA molecule, protecting it from degradation. It also plays a crucial role in the initiation of translation, as it interacts with various proteins involved in translation initiation. Additionally, the poly (A) tail enhances the efficiency of mRNA export from the nucleus to the cytoplasm. Therefore, the addition of poly (A) to mRNA is essential for its stability and efficient translation, making the statement true.

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5. Which of the following is not required for mammalian cell polyadenylation of pre-mRNA? 

Explanation

DNA polymerase I is not required for mammalian cell polyadenylation of pre-mRNA. Polyadenylation is the process of adding a poly(A) tail to the 3' end of the mRNA molecule. PAP (poly(A) polymerase), CPSF (cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor), PABII (poly(A)-binding protein II), and RNA polymerase II are all involved in this process. However, DNA polymerase I is not directly involved in polyadenylation. It is primarily responsible for DNA replication and repair, not mRNA processing.

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6. "Snurps" or snRNPs are composed of

Explanation

Snurps, also known as snRNPs, are a type of small nuclear ribonucleoproteins that play a crucial role in the processing of pre-mRNA molecules. These molecules are composed of both RNA and protein components. The RNA component of snurps is responsible for binding to specific sequences in the pre-mRNA, while the protein component helps in stabilizing the structure and facilitating the splicing process. Therefore, the correct answer is RNA and protein.

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7. Uncapped mRNA is much more stable than capped mRNA.

Explanation

The statement is false because capped mRNA is actually more stable than uncapped mRNA. The cap structure at the 5' end of capped mRNA provides protection against degradation by exonucleases. This cap structure also plays a crucial role in the initiation of translation by facilitating the binding of the mRNA to the ribosome. Therefore, capped mRNA is generally more stable and has a longer half-life compared to uncapped mRNA.

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8. Pre-mRNA must be cleaved before it is polyadenylated.

Explanation

Pre-mRNA, which is the initial transcript of a gene, undergoes several modifications before it can become mature mRNA. One of these modifications is cleavage, where specific sections of the pre-mRNA molecule are removed. This cleavage is necessary to remove non-coding regions and join the coding regions together. After cleavage, the pre-mRNA is polyadenylated, which involves the addition of a poly-A tail at the 3' end. Therefore, the statement that pre-mRNA must be cleaved before it is polyadenylated is true.

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9. Termination codons include three nonsense codons.

Explanation

Termination codons are specific sequences of nucleotides in mRNA that signal the termination of protein synthesis. In this case, the termination codons are UAG, UAA, and UGA. These codons do not code for any amino acids and instead signal the ribosome to stop translation. Therefore, when one of these codons is encountered during protein synthesis, the ribosome releases the newly synthesized protein and the process is terminated.

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10. The function of EF-Tu is to 

Explanation

EF-Tu is a protein that plays a crucial role in protein synthesis. It acts as a molecular escort, facilitating the delivery of aminoacyl-tRNA molecules to the ribosome during translation. Aminoacyl-tRNA molecules carry the correct amino acids that correspond to the codons on the mRNA template. EF-Tu binds to aminoacyl-tRNA and helps to bring it to the ribosome, ensuring accurate and efficient protein synthesis. Therefore, the function of EF-Tu is to escort aminoacyl-tRNA to the ribosome.

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11. Pre-mRNA processing begins during transcription.

Explanation

During transcription, the pre-mRNA molecule is synthesized by RNA polymerase. However, the pre-mRNA molecule is not immediately ready for translation into a protein. It undergoes a series of modifications known as pre-mRNA processing. These modifications include the addition of a 5' cap, the addition of a poly-A tail, and the removal of introns through a process called splicing. These modifications are necessary for the stability and functionality of the mRNA molecule. Therefore, it can be concluded that pre-mRNA processing begins during transcription.

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12. Experiments using yeast as a model have shown that cleavage of the poly (A) tail is necessary for transcription termination.

Explanation

Experiments conducted with yeast as a model organism have provided evidence that supports the idea that cleavage of the poly (A) tail is indeed necessary for transcription termination. This means that the process of cutting off the poly (A) tail is crucial in order to properly end the transcription of genetic information. Therefore, the statement "Experiments using yeast as a model have shown that cleavage of the poly (A) tail is necessary for transcription termination" is true.

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13. Which of the following is the name for the YEAST 40s particle where mRNA splicing takes place?

Explanation

The correct answer is spliceosome. The spliceosome is a complex of proteins and small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs) that is responsible for removing introns and joining exons in pre-mRNA during the process of mRNA splicing. It plays a crucial role in the maturation of mRNA molecules before they can be translated into proteins. The other options, ribosome, nucleolus, hnRNA, and R-loop, are not directly involved in mRNA splicing.

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14. The 5' cap of mRNA has no effect on the translatability of the mRNA.

Explanation

The 5' cap of mRNA plays a crucial role in the translatability of the mRNA. It helps in the recognition and binding of the mRNA to the ribosome during translation. Additionally, the 5' cap protects the mRNA from degradation and enhances its stability. Therefore, the presence of the 5' cap positively affects the translatability of the mRNA.

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15. Poly (A) tails are added to the 5' end of the mRNA molecule.

Explanation

Poly(A) tails are actually added to the 3' end of the mRNA molecule. This modification, known as polyadenylation, involves the addition of a string of adenine nucleotides to the mRNA molecule. The poly(A) tail helps protect the mRNA from degradation and is also involved in the export of the mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.

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16. When does the capping of the pre-mRNA occur?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the capping of the pre-mRNA occurs before the mRNA reaches a chain length of 30 nt. This means that the capping process, which involves the addition of a modified guanine nucleotide to the 5' end of the mRNA, takes place early in the transcription process before the mRNA molecule has grown to a certain length. This capping is important for the stability and efficient processing of the mRNA molecule.

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17. Polyadenylation is not required for the efficient transport of mRNA out of the nucleus.

Explanation

Polyadenylation is a crucial step in mRNA processing that involves the addition of a poly(A) tail to the 3' end of the mRNA molecule. This poly(A) tail plays a vital role in the efficient transport of mRNA out of the nucleus. It helps to protect the mRNA from degradation, aids in the binding of mRNA to transport proteins, and is involved in the recognition and export of mRNA through nuclear pores. Therefore, polyadenylation is indeed required for the efficient transport of mRNA out of the nucleus, making the given statement false.

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18. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the genetic code?

Explanation

The genetic code is not an overlapping code. In an overlapping code, a single nucleotide can be a part of multiple codons, leading to ambiguity in decoding the genetic information. However, in the genetic code, each nucleotide is read in a continuous, non-overlapping manner to form codons, which are then translated into specific amino acids. Therefore, the statement that the genetic code is an overlapping code is not true.

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19. Genomic sequence information can be applied to study which of the following? 

Explanation

Genomic sequence information can be applied to study the evolution, function, and structure of genomes, as well as proteomics. By analyzing the sequence of DNA or RNA, scientists can gain insights into how genomes have evolved over time, understand the functions of different genes and non-coding regions, explore the structural organization of genomes, and investigate the relationship between genomic sequences and the proteins they encode. Therefore, all of the choices mentioned in the question are correct applications of genomic sequence information.

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20. Which of the following is not required for mammalian cell polyadenylation of pre-mRNA?

Explanation

DNA polymerase I is not required for mammalian cell polyadenylation of pre-mRNA. Polyadenylation is the process of adding a poly(A) tail to the 3' end of the mRNA molecule. PAP (Poly(A) Polymerase), CPSF (Cleavage and Polyadenylation Specificity Factor), and PABII (Poly(A)-Binding Protein II) are all involved in this process. DNA polymerase I, on the other hand, is primarily involved in DNA replication and repair, and not in mRNA processing. Therefore, it is not required for mammalian cell polyadenylation.

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21. The first two bases and the last two bases in the splicing signal consensus sequence are

Explanation

The correct answer is GU-AG because it matches the consensus sequence for splicing signals. In splicing, the GU dinucleotide is found at the 5' end of the intron, while the AG dinucleotide is found at the 3' end. These dinucleotides are important for the recognition and cleavage of the intron during RNA splicing. Therefore, GU-AG is the correct answer as it follows the pattern of the splicing signal consensus sequence.

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22. Although snRNA U1 functions in the nucleus, it receives a 5' Cap to enhance its 

Explanation

SnRNA U1 is a small nuclear RNA that plays a crucial role in pre-mRNA splicing. It is primarily located in the nucleus, where it forms a complex with other proteins called snRNPs. However, in order to carry out its function, snRNA U1 needs to be exported to the cytoplasm where mRNA translation occurs. To facilitate this export, snRNA U1 receives a 5' Cap modification, which helps in its transportation from the nucleus to the cytoplasm. Therefore, the correct answer is "export to the cytoplasm."

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23. Which of the following are the three naturally occurring stop codons?

Explanation

The three naturally occurring stop codons are UAG, UAA, and UGA. These codons signal the end of protein synthesis during translation. When a ribosome encounters one of these codons, it releases the newly synthesized protein and disassembles. UAG, UAA, and UGA are recognized by release factors, which cause the termination of translation. These stop codons do not code for any amino acids and are essential for the accurate and efficient synthesis of proteins.

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24. You have isolated a new species of mRNA using an oligo-dT column. You then perform an R-looping experiment to determine if the gene encoding for your mRNA contains introns. Below is a representation of the electron micrograph results. Which of the following can you conclude from your experiment?

Explanation

Based on the electron micrograph results from the R-looping experiment, it can be concluded that the gene contains two introns. The presence of two loops in the electron micrograph indicates that there are two regions of single-stranded DNA where the mRNA has hybridized with the DNA template. These regions correspond to the introns in the gene. Therefore, the presence of two loops suggests that the gene contains two introns.

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25. The catalytic center of the spliceosome appears to include

Explanation

The catalytic center of the spliceosome is a complex composed of Mg2+, U2 and U6 snRNP, and the branch point region of the intron. These components work together to catalyze the splicing reaction, which involves removing the intron and joining the exons together. The Mg2+ ions facilitate the chemical reactions by stabilizing the transition state, while the U2 and U6 snRNPs play a role in recognizing the splice sites and positioning the intron for cleavage. The branch point region of the intron is also essential for proper splicing, as it helps to define the splice sites and guide the splicing machinery to the correct location.

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26. Which of the following is the best definition of translation?

Explanation

Translation is the process by which ribosomes read the genetic message carried by mRNA and use it to synthesize proteins. This process involves the decoding of the nucleotide sequence of mRNA into a specific amino acid sequence, which then forms a protein. This definition accurately describes the process of translation and distinguishes it from other cellular processes such as transcription or post-translational modifications.

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27. Which of the following is the mRNA polyadenylation signal motif found in mammalian cells?

Explanation

The correct answer is AAUAAA. This sequence, known as the polyadenylation signal motif, is commonly found in the mRNA of mammalian cells. It plays a crucial role in the process of polyadenylation, where a string of adenine nucleotides (poly-A tail) is added to the mRNA molecule. This poly-A tail helps in stabilizing the mRNA and facilitating its export from the nucleus to the cytoplasm for translation into proteins.

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28. Match the following eukaryotic translation initiation factors with their correct function. A. eIF2 B. eIF1 C. eIF3 D. eIF4F E. eIF6
This initiation factor is involved in binding tRNA to the ribosome. 

Explanation

eIF2 is involved in binding tRNA to the ribosome.

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29. Please place the steps of translation elongation in the correct order. (1) Peptidyl transferase forms a peptide bond between the peptide in the P site and the newly arrived aminoacyl-tRNA in the A site. (2) EF-G, with GTP, translocates peptidyl-tRNA to the P site (3) Ef-Tu, with GTP, binds an aminoacyl-tRNA to the ribosomal A site

Explanation

The correct order is (3,2,1). During the elongation phase of translation, the process begins with EF-Tu, bound to GTP, delivering an aminoacyl-tRNA to the ribosomal A site. Once the aminoacyl-tRNA is correctly positioned, peptidyl transferase catalyzes the formation of a peptide bond between the existing peptide in the P site and the new amino acid in the A site, extending the growing polypeptide chain. Subsequently, EF-G, also bound to GTP, facilitates the translocation of the peptidyl-tRNA from the A site to the P site, effectively moving the ribosome along the mRNA and making the A site available for the next aminoacyl-tRNA, thus continuing the cycle of elongation.

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30. Which of the following experiments was useful in determining the existence of introns in the adenovirus genome?

Explanation

R-looping experiments were useful in determining the existence of introns in the adenovirus genome. R-looping is a technique that involves the formation of RNA-DNA hybrids, where the RNA molecule hybridizes with the DNA template. This technique allows for the identification and mapping of introns, as the RNA molecule will form loops where the introns are present. Therefore, R-looping experiments provide valuable evidence for the existence of introns in the adenovirus genome.

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31. Which of the following snRNP is mismatched with its function?

Explanation

U4: base pairs with 3' splice site of mRNA is the mismatched snRNP and its function. The correct function of U4 snRNP is to base pair with U6 snRNA to form a complex that prevents U6 from pairing with the 5' splice site. This complex is essential for the regulation of splicing and the removal of introns from mRNA.

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32. Although snRNA U1 functions in the nucleus, it receives a 5' Cap to enhance its

Explanation

The snRNA U1 functions in the nucleus, but it receives a 5' Cap to enhance its export to the cytoplasm. This suggests that the snRNA U1 is needed in the cytoplasm for some cellular processes or interactions. The 5' Cap modification helps facilitate its transport from the nucleus to the cytoplasm, where it can carry out its functions.

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33. Put the following steps on prokaryotic translation initiation in the correct order.
(1) Binding of IF1, IF2, and GTP to the 30 S subunit
(2) Binding of IF3 to the 30S subunit.
(3) Binding of the 50S subunit and loss of IF1 and IF3
(4) Dissociation of the 70S ribosome.
(5) Formation of the 70S initiation complex by dissociation of IF2 and GTP hydrolysis.
(6) Formation of the 30S initiation complex

Explanation

The correct order for prokaryotic translation initiation is as follows:

1) Binding of IF1, IF2, and GTP to the 30 S subunit.
2) Binding of IF3 to the 30S subunit.
3) Formation of the 30S initiation complex.
4) Binding of the 50S subunit and loss of IF1 and IF3.
5) Formation of the 70S initiation complex by dissociation of IF2 and GTP hydrolysis.
6) Dissociation of the 70S ribosome.

This order ensures that the correct components are bound to the ribosome and that the initiation complex is formed before the 50S subunit binds and the 70S ribosome is fully assembled.

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34. Once an mRNA loses its poly (A) tail, it is imported back into the nucleus.

Explanation

mRNA is transcribed in the nucleus and then transported to the cytoplasm for translation. Once in the cytoplasm, the poly(A) tail of the mRNA is gradually shortened by enzymatic degradation. When the poly(A) tail is completely lost, the mRNA is targeted for degradation by exonucleases. Therefore, an mRNA that loses its poly(A) tail is not imported back into the nucleus. Hence, the correct answer is False.

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35. Once the poly (A) tail is added to the mRNA, it is very difficult to remove.

Explanation

The statement is false because the poly(A) tail can be removed from mRNA through enzymatic processes. One such process is called deadenylation, which involves the enzymatic removal of the poly(A) tail. Additionally, the poly(A) tail can also be shortened through other mechanisms such as mRNA decay pathways. Therefore, it is not accurate to say that the poly(A) tail is very difficult to remove once it is added to the mRNA.

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36. The Shine-Dalgarno sequence can be found in

Explanation

The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is a short nucleotide sequence found in mRNA molecules. It is involved in the initiation of protein translation in prokaryotes. This sequence interacts with the complementary sequence in the 16S rRNA of the 30S ribosome, allowing the ribosome to bind to the mRNA and start protein synthesis. Therefore, the Shine-Dalgarno sequence can be found in mRNA.

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37. Put the following steps of prokaryotic translation initiation in the correct order  (1) Binding of IF1, IF2, and GTP to the 30s subunit  (2) Binding of IF3 to the 30S subunit  (3) Binding of the 50S subunit and loss of IF1 and IF3 (4) Dissociation of the 70S ribosome  (5) Formation of the 70S initiation complex by dissociation of IF2 and GTP hydrolysis  (6) formation of the 30S initiation complex

Explanation

The correct order of prokaryotic translation initiation steps is as follows: (1) Binding of IF3 to the 30S subunit (2) Binding of IF1, IF2, and GTP to the 30S subunit (3) Formation of the 30S initiation complex (4) Dissociation of the 70S ribosome (5) Binding of the 50S subunit and loss of IF1 and IF3 (6) Formation of the 70S initiation complex by dissociation of IF2 and GTP hydrolysis.

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38. Which of the following is the first snRNP to bind during the assembly stage of the spliceosome cycle?

Explanation

U1 is the correct answer because it is the first snRNP (small nuclear ribonucleoprotein particle) to bind during the assembly stage of the spliceosome cycle. The spliceosome is responsible for removing introns from pre-mRNA, and U1 snRNP recognizes the 5' splice site at the beginning of the intron. It forms a base pairing interaction with the 5' splice site, marking the start of the splicing process.

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39. EF-Tu is an important protein in cells whose function is to

Explanation

EF-Tu is a protein that plays a crucial role in protein synthesis. It acts as a molecular escort, binding to aminoacyl-tRNA and delivering it to the ribosome during translation. This process ensures that the correct amino acid is added to the growing protein chain. Without EF-Tu, the accuracy and efficiency of protein synthesis would be compromised. Therefore, the correct answer is "escort aminoacyl-tRNA to the ribosome".

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40. Spliceosomal lariat is

Explanation

The correct answer is "Splicing intermediate." Spliceosomal lariat refers to the structure formed during the splicing process of pre-mRNA molecules. It is a loop-like structure that is formed when the intron is removed and the exons are joined together. This intermediate structure plays a crucial role in removing the non-coding regions (introns) and joining the coding regions (exons) to produce the mature mRNA molecule. Therefore, the term "splicing intermediate" accurately describes the spliceosomal lariat.

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41. Which of the following is NOT a function of the mRNA Cap?

Explanation

The mRNA cap has several functions, including protecting the mRNA from degradation, enhancing translatability, enhancing transport to the cytoplasm, and enhancing splicing. However, it does not directly regulate the expression of the mRNA from the promoter. This function is typically carried out by transcription factors and other regulatory elements.

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42. Direction of translation

Explanation

The direction of translation refers to the process by which a protein is synthesized from an mRNA template. The mRNA is read in the 3' to 5' direction, while the protein is made in the N to C direction. This means that the amino acids are added to the growing polypeptide chain starting from the N-terminus and progressing towards the C-terminus. Therefore, the correct answer is that protein is made in the N to C direction, starting from the N-terminus.

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43. Misfolded proteins can be toxic to cells and lead to serious diseases in humans. Which of the following diseases is caused by a misfolded protein?

Explanation

Bovine spongiform encephalitis is caused by a misfolded protein called a prion. Prions are abnormal proteins that can cause other proteins to misfold, leading to the accumulation of misfolded proteins in the brain. This accumulation damages brain cells and causes the symptoms of the disease. Sickle cell anemia, diabetes, Burkett's Lymphoma, and HIV-AIDS are not caused by misfolded proteins.

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44. Why is proteomics useful? Because of 

Explanation

Proteomics is useful because it encompasses the study of all proteins in a cell, tissue, or organism. This includes not only the proteins that are encoded by genes, but also noncoding RNAs and transcripts of unknown functions. Additionally, proteomics allows for the study of various processes such as splicing of transcripts, degradation of mRNAs, and post-translational modifications. Therefore, all of these factors make proteomics a valuable tool in understanding the complex workings of biological systems.

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45. The binding of which of the following snRNPs to spliceosome requires ATP?

Explanation

The U2 snRNP binds to the spliceosome and requires ATP.

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46. Which of the following initiation factors prevents reassociation of the 70s ribosome by binding to the free 30s subunit? 

Explanation

IF3 is the correct answer because it prevents reassociation of the 70s ribosome by binding to the free 30s subunit. This initiation factor acts as a dissociation factor, preventing the 30s subunit from reattaching to the 50s subunit after translation is complete. By binding to the free 30s subunit, IF3 helps to ensure that the ribosome remains in a dissociated state and ready for the next round of translation.

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47. Match the following eukaryotic translation initiation factors with their correct function.  A. eIF2 B. eIF1 C. eIF3 D. eIF4F E. eIF6

This initiation factor binds to the 40s subunit and inhibits re-association of the 40s and 60s subunits.

Explanation

Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 6 (eIF6) binds to the 40s subunit and inhibits re-association of the 40s and 60s subunits.

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48. Genetic code has all EXCEPT

Explanation

The genetic code is the set of rules by which information encoded within DNA or mRNA sequences is translated into proteins. It is characterized by non-overlapping codons, meaning that each codon consists of three nucleotides and is read in a continuous sequence. There are no gaps between codons, as they are read one after another. The genetic code also exhibits wobbles, which refers to the flexibility in base pairing at the third position of the codon, allowing some variation in the amino acid that is encoded. However, the genetic code is not absolutely universal, as there are some variations and exceptions found in certain organisms or organelles.

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49. Which is wrong? 

Explanation

Paralogs are homologous genes within the same species that have evolved through gene duplication. Therefore, it is incorrect to state that the gene for Huntington's disease has a paralog in bacteria, as bacteria and humans are different species.

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50. The estimated total number of genes in the human genome is 

Explanation

The estimated total number of genes in the human genome is believed to be between 20,000 and 25,000. This estimate is based on ongoing research and advancements in genomic sequencing techniques. It is important to note that this number is not fixed and may vary slightly as new discoveries are made.

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51. Which of the following is not part of the 30s initiation complex? 

Explanation

The 30s initiation complex is a complex formed during the initiation of protein synthesis in bacteria. It consists of mRNA, 16s rRNA, IF1, IF2, and IF3, as well as the initiator amino-acyl tRNA. 5S rRNA is not part of the 30s initiation complex.

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52. Please put the following steps of Cap synthesis in the correct order.
(1) N7 of the capping guanine is methylated
(2) The terminal phosphate is removed from the pre-mRNA
(3) A capping GMP is added to the pre-mRNA
(4) The 2'-O-methyl group of the penultimate nucleotide is methylated

Explanation

In the process of Cap synthesis, the correct order of steps is as follows: (2) The terminal phosphate is removed from the pre-mRNA, (3) A capping GMP is added to the pre-mRNA, (1) N7 of the capping guanine is methylated, and finally (4) The 2'-O-methyl group of the penultimate nucleotide is methylated. This order ensures the proper modification and protection of the mRNA molecule for its stability and efficient translation.

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53. The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is

Explanation

The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is a conserved nucleotide sequence found in the mRNA of prokaryotes, typically located upstream of the start codon. It plays a crucial role in initiating translation by allowing the ribosome to bind to the mRNA and position itself correctly for protein synthesis. Among the given sequences, AGGAGGU is the only one that matches the Shine-Dalgarno sequence.

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54. Match the following eukaryotic translation initiation factors with their correct function.  A. eIF2 B. eIF1 C. eIF3 D. eIF4F E. eIF6

This initiation factor aids in ribosome scanning to locate the initiation codon.

Explanation

eIF1 aids in ribosome scanning to locate the initiation codon.

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55. You have isolated a new species of mRNA using an oligo dT column. You then perform an R-looping experiment to determine if the gene encoding for your mRNA contains introns. Below is a representation of the electron micrograph results. Which of the following can you conclude from your experiment? 

Explanation

From the electron micrograph results, it can be concluded that the gene contains two introns. The R-looping experiment is used to identify the presence of introns in a gene. In this experiment, the mRNA is hybridized with the DNA template, forming loops where the introns are present. The number of loops observed in the electron micrograph indicates the number of introns in the gene. In this case, the micrograph shows two loops, suggesting that the gene contains two introns.

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56. Which is false?

Explanation

The given statement is false. In prokaryotes, the first amino acid in all mature proteins is indeed N-formyl-methionine, but in eukaryotes, the first amino acid is methionine without the formyl group. Therefore, the statement that eukaryotic translation incorporates N-formyl-methionine as the first amino acid is incorrect.

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57. Which of the following processes was used to locate the gene responsible for Huntington's disease? 

Explanation

Positional cloning is the process that was used to locate the gene responsible for Huntington's disease. This method involves mapping the location of the gene on a chromosome by analyzing the inheritance patterns of the disease in affected families. By identifying genetic markers that are closely linked to the disease, researchers can narrow down the region of the chromosome where the gene is located. Further analysis and sequencing of this region eventually led to the discovery of the specific gene responsible for Huntington's disease.

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58. Which of the following molecules does not resemble a tRNA molecule?

Explanation

The molecule Ef-Tu does not resemble a tRNA molecule. tRNA molecules are responsible for carrying amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis. His-tRNA and Phe-tRNA are examples of tRNA molecules that specifically carry the amino acids histidine and phenylalanine, respectively. Puromycin is an antibiotic that can bind to the ribosome and cause premature termination of protein synthesis. Suppressor tRNA molecules are able to recognize and insert an amino acid at a stop codon, allowing for the continuation of protein synthesis. Ef-Tu, on the other hand, is a protein that acts as a GTPase and is involved in the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to the ribosome. It does not have the same structure or function as a tRNA molecule.

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59. DNA microarrays can be used to study 

Explanation

DNA microarrays are a powerful tool used to study the clustering of gene expression in time and space. They allow researchers to simultaneously analyze the expression levels of thousands of genes in a single experiment. By comparing the expression patterns of genes across different samples or conditions, scientists can identify genes that are co-regulated and may play a role in the same biological processes. This information can provide insights into the temporal and spatial coordination of gene expression and help unravel the complex regulatory networks that govern cellular processes.

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60. How were the genetic markers that are linked to Huntington's disease genes screened originally? 

Explanation

RFLPs (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms) were originally used to screen for genetic markers linked to Huntington's disease genes. RFLPs are variations in the DNA sequence that can be detected by cutting the DNA with restriction enzymes and analyzing the resulting fragments. By comparing the RFLP patterns between affected and unaffected individuals, researchers were able to identify genetic markers associated with the disease. This technique was commonly used before the advent of more advanced methods such as genome sequencing.

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61. Match the following eukaryotic translation initiation factors with their correct function.  A. eIF2 B. eIF1 C. eIF3 D. eIF4F E. eIF6

This initiation factor binds to the 60S subunit and inhibits re-association of the 40S and 60S subunits.

Explanation

Eukaryotic translation initiation factor eIF6 binds to the 60S subunit and inhibits the re-association of the 40S and 60S subunits.

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62. Match the following eukaryotic translation initiation factors with their correct function.  A. eIF2 B. eIF1 C. eIF3 D. eIF4F E. eIF6

This initiation factor is a Cap-binding protein.

Explanation

eIF4F is the correct answer. It is a Cap-binding protein, which means it binds to the 5' cap structure of mRNA during the initiation of translation in eukaryotic cells. This binding helps in recruiting the ribosome to the mRNA and initiating protein synthesis.

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63. Which of the following are techniques used for functional genomic profiling? 

Explanation

RNAi analysis and deletion analysis are both techniques used for functional genomic profiling. RNAi analysis involves using small RNA molecules to silence specific genes, allowing researchers to study the effects of gene knockdown on cellular function. Deletion analysis involves creating mutations or deletions in specific genes or genomic regions to study their function. Both techniques are commonly used to investigate gene function and understand the role of specific genes in biological processes.

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64. RNA polymerase II transcription of a gene usually stops at the polyadenylation site.

Explanation

RNA polymerase II transcription of a gene does not usually stop at the polyadenylation site. Instead, it continues beyond the polyadenylation site and transcribes a stretch of DNA known as the poly(A) tail. This poly(A) tail is important for mRNA stability and is added to the mRNA molecule during post-transcriptional processing. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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65. Which of the following free-living organisms has the smallest genome, containing about only 470 genes? 

Explanation

Mycoplasma genitalium has the smallest genome among the given options, containing about only 470 genes.

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66. Which of the following is not a finding from the analysis of the complete DNA sequence of human chromosome 22? 

Explanation

The analysis of the complete DNA sequence of human chromosome 22 has revealed several findings. It has been found that chromosome 22 contains 679 annotated genes, which means that these genes have been identified and their functions have been determined. The chromosome also contains local and long-range duplications, which means that certain sections of the DNA sequence are repeated. Additionally, there are orthologs to the mouse chromosome, indicating that certain genes on human chromosome 22 have counterparts in the mouse genome. However, it is not a finding that human chromosome 22 contains very little noncoding DNA, as noncoding DNA makes up a significant portion of the genome and has important regulatory functions.

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67. Which of the following enzymes is used to search for CpG islands? 

Explanation

The correct answer is the restriction enzymes that cut only unmethylated CCGG. CpG islands are regions of DNA that contain a high frequency of CpG sites. Methylation of CpG sites can regulate gene expression, and CpG islands are often unmethylated in gene promoter regions. Therefore, the restriction enzymes that specifically recognize and cut only unmethylated CCGG sites are used to search for CpG islands. This allows researchers to identify and study regions of DNA that may be involved in gene regulation.

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68. How were Huntington's disease genes identified? 

Explanation

Exon trapping is a technique used to identify genes associated with a specific disease. It involves isolating and cloning exons, which are the coding regions of genes, from genomic DNA. These cloned exons are then used as probes to identify and isolate corresponding full-length genes. In the case of Huntington's disease, the genes responsible were identified using this exon trapping technique.

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69. Which of the following was the first free-living organism to have its genome sequenced? 

Explanation

Haemophilus influenza Rd was the first free-living organism to have its genome sequenced.

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70. Regarding identifying the gene for Huntington's disease (HD), which is not correct? 

Explanation

The statement that the HD genes are actually a bacterial gene is not correct. Huntington's disease is a genetic disorder caused by a mutation in the huntingtin gene, which is located on chromosome 4 in humans. The mutation involves an increased number of CAG repeats, resulting in the insertion of extra glutamines into the huntingtin protein. The gene for Huntington's disease is not of bacterial origin, but rather a human gene. The mapping of the HD gene is done using positional cloning techniques.

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71. Bioinformatics databases include all EXCEPT 

Explanation

Bioinformatics databases are repositories of biological data that are used by researchers and scientists for various purposes. GenBank, EMBL, Swissprot, and TIGR are all well-known bioinformatics databases that store genetic and protein sequence data, as well as other related information. However, BOA is not a commonly known bioinformatics database.

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72. Which is false?

Explanation

Option D is false because penicillin does not inhibit peptidyl transferase activity. Penicillin targets bacterial cell wall synthesis by inhibiting enzymes involved in the cross-linking of peptidoglycan, leading to cell wall weakening and lysis. Peptidyl transferase, an enzyme crucial for protein synthesis during translation, is inhibited by antibiotics like chloramphenicol and macrolides, not by penicillin. Thus, stating that penicillin inhibits peptidyl transferase activity is incorrect.

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73. With respect to the human genome project, which approach is wrong to take? 

Explanation

The linker insertion to map replication origins is the wrong approach to take in the context of the human genome project. This is because linker insertion is a technique used to identify specific sites in DNA, not to map replication origins. Mapping replication origins involves determining the locations where DNA replication starts, which is a different process. Therefore, this approach is not applicable in this scenario.

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74. Which of the following enzymes is used to search for CpG island? 

Explanation

Uracil-N-glycosylase is an enzyme that is used to search for CpG islands. CpG islands are regions of DNA that contain a high frequency of CpG sites, which are cytosine nucleotides followed by guanine nucleotides. Uracil-N-glycosylase specifically recognizes and removes uracil bases from DNA molecules. This enzyme is commonly used in molecular biology techniques, such as bisulfite sequencing, to identify and study CpG islands. By removing uracil from the DNA, uracil-N-glycosylase allows for the detection and analysis of CpG sites in the DNA sequence.

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75. Which is not correct about annotated genes? 

Explanation

Pseudogenes are not exons that direct translation. Pseudogenes are non-functional copies of genes that have lost their ability to produce a functional protein. They may have mutations or deletions that prevent them from being transcribed or translated into a protein. Therefore, pseudogenes do not direct translation and do not contribute to the production of functional proteins.

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Stephen Reinbold has a PhD in Biological Sciences and a strong passion for teaching. He taught various subjects including General Biology, Environmental Science, Zoology, Genetics, and Anatomy & Physiology at Metropolitan Community College in Kansas City, Missouri, for nearly thirty years. He focused on scientific methodology and student research projects. Now retired, he works part-time as an editor and engages in online activities.

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Which of the following is NOT a function of the mRNA Cap? 
Which enzyme is used in the unwinding of DNA?
Please put the following steps of RNA Cap synthesis in the correct...
The addition of poly (A) to mRNA seems to be important for its...
Which of the following is not required for mammalian cell...
"Snurps" or snRNPs are composed of
Uncapped mRNA is much more stable than capped mRNA.
Pre-mRNA must be cleaved before it is polyadenylated.
Termination codons include three nonsense codons.
The function of EF-Tu is to 
Pre-mRNA processing begins during transcription.
Experiments using yeast as a model have shown that cleavage of the...
Which of the following is the name for the YEAST 40s particle where...
The 5' cap of mRNA has no effect on the translatability of the mRNA.
Poly (A) tails are added to the 5' end of the mRNA molecule.
When does the capping of the pre-mRNA occur?
Polyadenylation is not required for the efficient transport of mRNA...
Which of the following statements is not true concerning the genetic...
Genomic sequence information can be applied to study which of the...
Which of the following is not required for mammalian cell...
The first two bases and the last two bases in the splicing signal...
Although snRNA U1 functions in the nucleus, it receives a 5' Cap...
Which of the following are the three naturally occurring stop codons?
You have isolated a new species of mRNA using an oligo-dT column. You...
The catalytic center of the spliceosome appears to include
Which of the following is the best definition of translation?
Which of the following is the mRNA polyadenylation signal motif found...
Match the following eukaryotic translation initiation factors with...
Please place the steps of translation elongation in the correct...
Which of the following experiments was useful in determining the...
Which of the following snRNP is mismatched with its function?
Although snRNA U1 functions in the nucleus, it receives a 5' Cap...
Put the following steps on prokaryotic translation initiation in the...
Once an mRNA loses its poly (A) tail, it is imported back into the...
Once the poly (A) tail is added to the mRNA, it is very difficult to...
The Shine-Dalgarno sequence can be found in
Put the following steps of prokaryotic translation initiation in the...
Which of the following is the first snRNP to bind during the assembly...
EF-Tu is an important protein in cells whose function is to
Spliceosomal lariat is
Which of the following is NOT a function of the mRNA Cap?
Direction of translation
Misfolded proteins can be toxic to cells and lead to serious diseases...
Why is proteomics useful? Because of 
The binding of which of the following snRNPs to spliceosome requires...
Which of the following initiation factors prevents reassociation of...
Match the following eukaryotic translation initiation factors with...
Genetic code has all EXCEPT
Which is wrong? 
The estimated total number of genes in the human genome is 
Which of the following is not part of the 30s initiation...
Please put the following steps of Cap synthesis in the correct order....
The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is
Match the following eukaryotic translation initiation factors with...
You have isolated a new species of mRNA using an oligo dT column. You...
Which is false?
Which of the following processes was used to locate the gene...
Which of the following molecules does not resemble a tRNA molecule?
DNA microarrays can be used to study 
How were the genetic markers that are linked to Huntington's disease...
Match the following eukaryotic translation initiation factors with...
Match the following eukaryotic translation initiation factors with...
Which of the following are techniques used for functional...
RNA polymerase II transcription of a gene usually stops at the...
Which of the following free-living organisms has the...
Which of the following is not a finding from the analysis of the...
Which of the following enzymes is used to search for CpG...
How were Huntington's disease genes identified? 
Which of the following was the first free-living organism to have its...
Regarding identifying the gene for Huntington's disease (HD), which is...
Bioinformatics databases include all EXCEPT 
Which is false?
With respect to the human genome project, which approach is wrong to...
Which of the following enzymes is used to search for CpG island? 
Which is not correct about annotated genes? 
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