Molecular And Cellular Biology Quiz!

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  • 1/61 Questions

    If the atomic number of a neutral atom is 6, how many protons and electrons does the atom have?

    • 0 protons, 6 electrons
    • 3 protons, 3 electrons
    • 6 protons, 0 electrons
    • 6 protons, 6 electrons
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About This Quiz

Explore the fundamentals of molecular and cellular biology with this engaging quiz! Test your knowledge on atomic structure, chemical properties, and organic molecules, enhancing your understanding of basic biology and chemistry concepts.

Molecular And Cellular Biology Quiz! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The mass of an atom is 23, and its atomic number is 11. How many protons, electrons, and neutrons does this atom have?

    • 11 protons, 11 electrons, and 12 neutrons

    • 11 protons, 11 electrons, and 1 neutron

    • 11 protons, 1 electrons, 11 neutrons

    • 6 protons, 5 electrons, and 12 neutrons

    Correct Answer
    A. 11 protons, 11 electrons, and 12 neutrons
    Explanation
    The atomic number of an atom represents the number of protons it has. In this case, the atomic number is 11, so the atom has 11 protons. Since atoms are electrically neutral, the number of electrons is also equal to the number of protons, so it also has 11 electrons. The mass of the atom is given as 23, which is the sum of the protons and neutrons. Therefore, to find the number of neutrons, we subtract the atomic number (11) from the mass number (23), giving us 12 neutrons.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following terms describes an atom that has donated an electron to become a positively charged particle?

    • Anion

    • Cation

    • Compound

    • Molecule

    Correct Answer
    A. Cation
    Explanation
    A cation is an atom that has donated an electron, resulting in a positive charge. When an atom loses an electron, it becomes positively charged because the number of protons in its nucleus is greater than the number of electrons. This creates an imbalance of positive and negative charges, causing the atom to become a cation. Anions, on the other hand, are atoms that have gained an electron and therefore have a negative charge. Compounds and molecules are not specific to the charge of an atom, but rather refer to the combination of two or more atoms.

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  • 4. 

    A carbon atom has four electrons in its valence shell, while a hydrogen atom has on electron in its valence shell. How many atoms of hydrogen can be covalently bonded to carbon?

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    • Five

    Correct Answer
    A. Four
    Explanation
    A carbon atom can form four covalent bonds because it has four electrons available in its valence shell. Since a hydrogen atom can form only one covalent bond, four hydrogen atoms can be covalently bonded to a carbon atom, resulting in a total of four hydrogen atoms bonded to carbon.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is an organic molecule?

    • CO2

    • CH4

    • NH3

    • H2

    Correct Answer
    A. CH4
    Explanation
    CH4 (methane) is an organic molecule because it consists of carbon (C) bonded to hydrogen (H) atoms. Organic molecules are characterized by the presence of carbon atoms, which can form covalent bonds with other elements such as hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and more. In the case of CH4, the carbon atom is bonded to four hydrogen atoms, making it an organic compound commonly found in natural gas and produced by various biological processes. On the other hand, CO2 (carbon dioxide), NH3 (ammonia), and H2 (hydrogen gas) do not contain carbon atoms and are therefore not organic molecules.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following bonds gives rise to the properties of water that make it essential for life?

    • The ionic bonds between water molecules

    • The ionic bonds within a water molecule

    • The hydrogen bonds between water molecules

    • The hydrogen bonds within a water molecule

    Correct Answer
    A. The hydrogen bonds between water molecules
    Explanation
    The properties of water that make it essential for life are due to the hydrogen bonds between water molecules. Hydrogen bonds are formed between the slightly positive hydrogen atom of one water molecule and the slightly negative oxygen atom of another water molecule. These bonds give water its high boiling point, high specific heat capacity, and cohesion, which are crucial for various biological processes such as temperature regulation, transportation of nutrients, and maintaining the structure of cells. Ionic bonds, on the other hand, involve the transfer of electrons between atoms and are not responsible for the unique properties of water.

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  • 7. 

    Proteins are build from which of the following monomers?

    • Monosaccharides

    • Nucleotides

    • Amino acids

    • Fatty acids

    Correct Answer
    A. Amino acids
    Explanation
    Proteins are built from amino acids. Amino acids are organic compounds that contain an amino group, a carboxyl group, and a side chain. They are the building blocks of proteins and are linked together through peptide bonds to form long chains called polypeptides. These polypeptide chains then fold into specific three-dimensional structures to create functional proteins. Monosaccharides are the monomers of carbohydrates, nucleotides are the monomers of nucleic acids, and fatty acids are the monomers of lipids.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following scenarios would most likely result in a membrane potential?

    • The concentration of potassium ions inside the cell is the same as the concentration of hydrogen ions outside the cell

    • The concentration of potassium inside the cell is the same as the concentration of oxygen outside the cell

    • The concentration of potassium inside the cell is greater that the concentration of potassium outside the cell

    • The concentration of potassium inside the cell is greater than the concentration of potassium outside the cell

    Correct Answer
    A. The concentration of potassium inside the cell is greater than the concentration of potassium outside the cell
    Explanation
    The membrane potential is the difference in electrical charge across the cell membrane. This potential is generated by the unequal distribution of ions, particularly potassium ions, across the cell membrane. When the concentration of potassium inside the cell is greater than outside, it creates an electrochemical gradient, resulting in a membrane potential. This difference in concentration drives the movement of potassium ions across the membrane, leading to the establishment of a membrane potential.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following terms describes a molecule that inhibits the function of an enzyme by altering the shape of the enzyme's active site?

    • Coenzyme

    • Repressor

    • Activator

    • Substrate

    Correct Answer
    A. Repressor
    Explanation
    A molecule that inhibits the function of an enzyme by altering the shape of the enzyme's active site is called a repressor. Repressors bind to the enzyme and cause a conformational change in the active site, preventing the substrate from binding and inhibiting the enzyme's activity. Coenzymes are molecules that assist enzymes in their function but do not inhibit them. Activators are molecules that enhance the activity of enzymes, while substrates are the molecules that bind to the active site of an enzyme and undergo a chemical reaction.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following types of regulation is described below:                Enzyme X catalyzes the metabolism of Amino Acid G. When Amino Acid G is bound to Enzyme X, the                     affinity for Amino Acid G increases at the other active site on Enzyme X

    • Competitive inhibition

    • Noncompetitive inhibition

    • Positive cooperativity

    • Negative cooperativity

    Correct Answer
    A. Positive cooperativity
    Explanation
    Positive cooperativity is the correct answer because it describes a type of regulation where the binding of a substrate to one active site of an enzyme increases the affinity of the enzyme for the same substrate at other active sites. In this case, when Amino Acid G is bound to Enzyme X, it increases the affinity for Amino Acid G at the other active site on Enzyme X. This positive interaction between the substrate and enzyme enhances the catalytic activity of the enzyme.

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  • 11. 

    Why do some photosynthetic structures like leaves appear green?

    • The epidermis of the leaf absorbs red and blue light

    • The epidermis of the leaf absorbs green light

    • The chlorophyll of the leaf absorbs red and blue light

    • The chlorophyll of the leaf absorbs green light

    Correct Answer
    A. The chlorophyll of the leaf absorbs red and blue light
    Explanation
    Chlorophyll is the pigment responsible for photosynthesis in plants. It absorbs light energy from the sun, primarily in the red and blue regions of the visible spectrum. The green light is not effectively absorbed by chlorophyll and is instead reflected or transmitted, giving leaves their green color. Therefore, the chlorophyll in the leaf absorbs red and blue light, while green light is not absorbed and is reflected back, making the leaf appear green.

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  • 12. 

    Which TWO of the following metabolic reactions occur in plants?

    • 6CO2 +6H2O -> C6H12O6 + 6O2

    • C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> 6CO2 +6H2O

    • N2 + 8H+ + 8e- -> 2NH3 + H2

    • CO2 + 4H2S + O2 -> CH2O +4S + 3H2O

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. 6CO2 +6H2O -> C6H12O6 + 6O2
    A. C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> 6CO2 +6H2O
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 6CO2 + 6H2O -> C6H12O6 + 6O2 and C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O. These reactions represent photosynthesis, which is a metabolic process that occurs in plants. In photosynthesis, plants use carbon dioxide and water to produce glucose (C6H12O6) and oxygen. This process takes place in the chloroplasts of plant cells and is essential for the plant's survival and the production of oxygen in the atmosphere.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following statements about diffusion is true?

    • Facilitated diffusion is the movement of molecules from areas of low to high concentration

    • Small molecules may move through the membrane by the process of simple diffusion

    • ATP drives the facilitated diffusion of molecules across the cell membrane

    • The movement of molecules by facilitated diffusion does not require a carrier protein

    Correct Answer
    A. Small molecules may move through the membrane by the process of simple diffusion
  • 14. 

    Which of the following facilitates exocytosis in a cell?

    • Carrier proteins

    • Vesicles

    • Pores in the cell membrane

    • Cell-surface receptors

    Correct Answer
    A. Vesicles
    Explanation
    Vesicles facilitate exocytosis in a cell. Exocytosis is the process by which cells release substances from their intracellular compartments into the extracellular space. Vesicles are small membrane-bound sacs that transport molecules within the cell. During exocytosis, these vesicles fuse with the cell membrane, allowing their contents to be released outside the cell. This process is essential for various cellular functions, including the secretion of hormones, neurotransmitters, and digestive enzymes. Carrier proteins, pores in the cell membrane, and cell-surface receptors do not directly facilitate exocytosis but may have other roles in cellular transport and signaling.

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  • 15. 

    During labor, the body releases oxytocin, a hormone that speeds up the time between contractions. As contractions increase, more oxytocin is released, which speeds up the contractions, resulting in the release of more oxytocin. This cycle continues until the baby is born. This phenomenon described is an example of:

    • Positive feedback

    • Negative feedback

    • Homeostasis

    • Signal transduction

    Correct Answer
    A. Positive feedback
    Explanation
    The phenomenon described in the question is an example of positive feedback. Positive feedback occurs when a response to a stimulus amplifies or increases the original stimulus. In this case, the release of oxytocin during labor stimulates contractions, and as contractions increase, more oxytocin is released, further stimulating contractions. This cycle continues until the baby is born, resulting in a positive feedback loop.

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  • 16. 

    In which of the following phases of mitosis does the nucleolus reappear?

    • Prophase

    • Metaphase

    • Anaphase

    • Telophase

    Correct Answer
    A. Telophase
    Explanation
    During telophase, the final phase of mitosis, the nucleolus reappears. Telophase is characterized by the reformation of the nuclear envelope around the separated daughter chromosomes, and the nucleolus, which is responsible for the production of ribosomes, becomes visible again within the newly formed nuclei.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following best describes the process of transcription and translation?

    • RNA -> protein -> DNA

    • DNA -> protein -> RNA

    • Protein -> DNA -> RNA

    • DNA -> RNA -> protein

    Correct Answer
    A. DNA -> RNA -> protein
    Explanation
    The process of transcription and translation involves the conversion of DNA into RNA and then the translation of RNA into protein. Transcription is the process in which DNA is transcribed into RNA, while translation is the process in which RNA is translated into protein. Therefore, the correct sequence is DNA -> RNA -> protein.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is the site at which the tRNAs are released from the ribosome?

    • P site

    • E site

    • Elongation site

    • Termination site

    Correct Answer
    A. E site
    Explanation
    The E site is the site at which the tRNAs are released from the ribosome. During translation, the ribosome moves along the mRNA molecule and as each tRNA molecule delivers its amino acid, it moves from the A site to the P site, and finally to the E site where it is released from the ribosome. The E site is responsible for the exit of the tRNA, allowing for the next tRNA to enter the A site and continue the elongation process.

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  • 19. 

    Ultraviolent light is known to cause which of the following?

    • Crossing over

    • Translocation

    • Recombination

    • A mutation

    Correct Answer
    A. A mutation
    Explanation
    Ultraviolet light is known to cause a mutation. Ultraviolet light has the ability to damage DNA molecules by creating covalent bonds between adjacent thymines, forming thymine dimers. This disrupts the normal structure of the DNA molecule and can lead to errors during DNA replication or repair, resulting in mutations. Therefore, exposure to ultraviolet light increases the risk of mutations in organisms.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following mutations results when an adenine base is added before the first C in the DNA sequence CTGGGAATC?

    • Base substitution

    • Deletion

    • Insertion

    • Inversion

    Correct Answer
    A. Insertion
    Explanation
    The correct answer is insertion because an adenine base is added before the first C in the DNA sequence CTGGGAATC. This results in an additional base being inserted into the sequence, causing a mutation.

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  • 21. 

    A spectrophotometer can be used to do which of the following tasks?

    • Distinguish between pigments in a plant cell

    • Measure enzymes in the blood of a heart attack patient

    • Determine how fast a pathogen grows in liquid culture

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    A spectrophotometer is a device used to measure the intensity of light absorbed by a substance at different wavelengths. It can be used to distinguish between pigments in a plant cell by measuring the specific wavelengths of light absorbed by each pigment. It can also measure enzymes in the blood of a heart attack patient by detecting the presence and concentration of specific enzymes. Additionally, it can determine how fast a pathogen grows in liquid culture by measuring the optical density of the culture over time. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above".

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  • 22. 

    All of the following are reasons why gene therapy is still considered experimental and controversial EXCEPT

    • If gene therapy is performed on a germ-line cell, the effects on a future fetus are not known

    • Patients in some gene therapy trails have experienced serious side effects

    • The immune system may attack new materials inserted into a cell

    • It is unknown whether gene therapy is effective in preventing the expression of a gene

    Correct Answer
    A. It is unknown whether gene therapy is effective in preventing the expression of a gene
    Explanation
    The given answer is incorrect. The correct answer should be "if gene therapy is performed on a germ-line cell, the effects on a future fetus are not known." This is because gene therapy on germ-line cells can result in heritable changes that can be passed on to future generations, and the long-term effects of these changes on the health and development of a fetus are not fully understood. The other options provided are valid reasons why gene therapy is still considered experimental and controversial, as they highlight potential risks and uncertainties associated with the treatment.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following properties of water causes water droplets to form beads on surfaces, such as on a leaf?

    • Adhesion

    • Specific heat

    • Surface tension

    • Ability to dissolve substances

    Correct Answer
    A. Surface tension
    Explanation
    Surface tension is the property of water that causes water droplets to form beads on surfaces, such as on a leaf. Surface tension is the force that acts on the surface of a liquid, causing it to behave like a stretched elastic sheet. This force is responsible for the cohesive nature of water molecules, which allows them to stick together and form droplets rather than spreading out. This cohesive force is stronger than the adhesive force between water and the surface, causing the water droplets to bead up instead of spreading out.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following statements about thermodynamics explains why energy is required to move a hydrogen atom against a chemical gradient?

    • The first law of thermodynamics states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed

    • The second law of thermodynamics states that energy must be conserved

    • The first law of thermodynamics states that entropy increases

    • The second law of thermodynamics states that entropy increases

    Correct Answer
    A. The second law of thermodynamics states that entropy increases
    Explanation
    The second law of thermodynamics states that entropy increases. Entropy is a measure of the disorder or randomness in a system. When a hydrogen atom is moved against a chemical gradient, it goes from a state of lower entropy to a state of higher entropy. This means that the system becomes more ordered, which requires energy input. Therefore, according to the second law of thermodynamics, energy is required to move a hydrogen atom against a chemical gradient.

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  • 25. 

    The Calvin Cycle produces one molecule of glucose from which of the following three molecules?

    • ATP, HADPH, and O2

    • ATP, NADPH and CO2

    • CO2, H2O, and ATP

    • CO2, H2O, and O2

    Correct Answer
    A. ATP, NADPH and CO2
    Explanation
    The Calvin Cycle is a series of chemical reactions that occur in the chloroplasts of plants during photosynthesis. It uses ATP (adenosine triphosphate) and NADPH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate) as energy sources, and CO2 (carbon dioxide) as a carbon source. These molecules are used to produce glucose, which is a sugar molecule that serves as a primary source of energy for the plant. Therefore, the correct answer is ATP, NADPH, and CO2.

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  • 26. 

    In the balanced chemical equation for cellular respiration, C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O, which molecule is oxidized and which is reduced?

    • C6H12O6 is oxidized and CO2 is reduced

    • C6H12O6 is oxidized and O2 is reduced

    • O2 is oxidized and H2O is reduced

    • O2 is oxidized and C6H12O6 is reduced

    Correct Answer
    A. C6H12O6 is oxidized and O2 is reduced
    Explanation
    In cellular respiration, glucose (C6H12O6) is oxidized, meaning it loses electrons, while oxygen (O2) is reduced, meaning it gains electrons. This is evident in the balanced chemical equation where glucose is converted into carbon dioxide (CO2) and oxygen is converted into water (H2O). The process of oxidation and reduction is a fundamental part of cellular respiration, where glucose is broken down to release energy for the cell to use.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following features distinguishes prokaryotic cells from eukaryotic cells?

    • Division by binary fission

    • The presence of DNA

    • An organized cell membrane

    • A rigid cell wall

    Correct Answer
    A. Division by binary fission
    Explanation
    Prokaryotic cells are distinguished from eukaryotic cells by their ability to divide by binary fission. Binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction where the cell divides into two identical daughter cells. Eukaryotic cells, on the other hand, undergo a more complex process of cell division called mitosis or meiosis. The presence of DNA, an organized cell membrane, and a rigid cell wall are characteristics shared by both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is true about the phospholipids that make up the cellular membrane?

    • The phosphate heads of the bilayer interact with the extracellular environment and the cytoplasm

    • The phosphate heads of the bilayer interact with the cytoplasm only

    • The fatty acid tails of the bilayer interact with the extracellular environment and the cytoplasm.

    • The fatty acid tails of the bilayer interact with the cytoplasm only

    Correct Answer
    A. The phosphate heads of the bilayer interact with the extracellular environment and the cytoplasm
    Explanation
    The phospholipids that make up the cellular membrane have phosphate heads that interact with both the extracellular environment and the cytoplasm. This is because the phosphate heads are polar and hydrophilic, meaning they are attracted to water and can interact with the aqueous environment on both sides of the membrane. The fatty acid tails, on the other hand, are nonpolar and hydrophobic, so they are shielded from the aqueous environment and interact with each other in the interior of the bilayer.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following protein fibers of the cytoskeleton are primarily responsible for the crawling movement of cells such as white blood cells?

    • Flagella

    • Intermediate filaments

    • Microtubules

    • Microfilaments

    Correct Answer
    A. Microfilaments
    Explanation
    Microfilaments, also known as actin filaments, are primarily responsible for the crawling movement of cells such as white blood cells. These protein fibers are composed of actin and are involved in various cellular processes, including cell movement, contraction, and shape changes. They form a dynamic network that allows cells to extend protrusions called lamellipodia and filopodia, which help in cell crawling and migration. Microfilaments also interact with other cytoskeletal components and molecular motors to generate the necessary forces for cell movement.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following statements about the sodium-potassium pump is true?

    • Sodium ions are pumped into the cell; potassium ions are pumped out of the cell

    • The formation of ATP drives the action of the sodium-potassium pump

    • The sodium-potassium pump uses facilitated diffusion to move ions across the membrane

    • The sodium-potassium pump is powered by the oxidation of ATP

    Correct Answer
    A. The sodium-potassium pump is powered by the oxidation of ATP
    Explanation
    The sodium-potassium pump is powered by the oxidation of ATP. This means that the pump uses the energy released from breaking down ATP molecules to move sodium ions out of the cell and potassium ions into the cell. This process is essential for maintaining the proper balance of sodium and potassium ions in cells, which is necessary for proper cell function and nerve impulse transmission.

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  • 31. 

    Which TWO of the following statemtns are true of a solution with a high water potential?

    • The solution consists of more free water molecules than a solution with a low water potential

    • The solution consists of fewer free water molecules than a solution with a low water potential

    • The concentration of solutes is high compared to a solution with a low water potential

    • The concentration of solutes is low compared to a solution with a low water potential

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. The solution consists of more free water molecules than a solution with a low water potential
    A. The concentration of solutes is low compared to a solution with a low water potential
    Explanation
    A solution with a high water potential means that there is a high concentration of free water molecules, meaning that there are more water molecules available to move freely. This is in contrast to a solution with a low water potential, where there are fewer free water molecules. Additionally, a solution with a high water potential has a low concentration of solutes compared to a solution with a low water potential, indicating that there are fewer dissolved particles in the solution.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following will occur when a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution?

    • Water will move from outside the cell to inside the cell

    • Water will move from inside the cell to outside the cell

    • Solute will move from outside the cell to inside the cell

    • Solute will move from inside the cell to outside the cell

    Correct Answer
    A. Water will move from outside the cell to inside the cell
    Explanation
    When a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, it means that the concentration of solutes outside the cell is lower than inside the cell. In this situation, water will move from outside the cell to inside the cell in an attempt to equalize the concentration of solutes on both sides of the cell membrane. This movement of water is known as osmosis, and it helps maintain the cell's internal environment and prevent it from shrinking or shriveling.

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  • 33. 

    The cell spends most of its life in which of the following phrases?

    • G1 phase

    • S phase

    • G2 phase

    • M phase

    Correct Answer
    A. G1 phase
    Explanation
    The G1 phase is the first phase of the cell cycle, where the cell grows and carries out its normal functions. It is also known as the gap phase. During this phase, the cell prepares itself for DNA replication and checks for any errors or damage in the DNA. The G1 phase is the longest phase of the cell cycle and the cell spends most of its life in this phase before progressing to the S phase, where DNA replication occurs.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following processes occurs during anaphase I of meiosis?

    • The spindle pulls homologous chromosomes to either side of the cell

    • The spindle pulls sister chromatids to either side of the cell

    • Chromosomes align along the metaphase plate

    • Two diploid (2n) daughter cells are formed

    Correct Answer
    A. The spindle pulls homologous chromosomes to either side of the cell
    Explanation
    During anaphase I of meiosis, the spindle pulls homologous chromosomes to either side of the cell. This is a crucial step in meiosis as it ensures that each daughter cell receives one copy of each homologous chromosome, resulting in genetic variation. This separation of homologous chromosomes is different from anaphase II, where the spindle pulls sister chromatids apart. The alignment of chromosomes along the metaphase plate occurs during metaphase I, and the formation of two diploid daughter cells occurs at the end of telophase II.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following statements about meiosis is true?

    • The process of meiosis includes on nuclear division

    • Recombination occurs during the first phase of meiosis

    • Chromosomes replicate prior to meiosis II

    • Meiosis results in four diploid (2n) daughter cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Recombination occurs during the first phase of meiosis
    Explanation
    During meiosis, recombination occurs during the first phase, known as prophase I. Recombination involves the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes, resulting in genetic variation. This process is essential for the production of genetically diverse gametes. Meiosis consists of two nuclear divisions, meiosis I and meiosis II, and chromosomes replicate prior to meiosis I. Meiosis results in the production of four haploid (n) daughter cells, not diploid cells.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following nucleotides are two ringed nitrogenous bases?

    • Adenosine and thymine

    • Cytosine and thymine

    • Adenine and guanine

    • Guanine and cytosine

    Correct Answer
    A. Adenine and guanine
    Explanation
    Adenine and guanine are two ringed nitrogenous bases. Nucleotides are composed of three components: a sugar molecule, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base. The nitrogenous bases can be categorized into two types: purines and pyrimidines. Adenine and guanine are purines, which means they have a double-ring structure. On the other hand, thymine and cytosine are pyrimidines, which have a single-ring structure. Therefore, the correct answer is adenine and guanine.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following statements about RNA are true? Select all that apply

    • Hydrogen bonds form between A - T and G - C bases

    • A sequence of RNA will not contain T bases but will contain U bases

    • RNA is single stranded

    • RNA is double stranded

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A sequence of RNA will not contain T bases but will contain U bases
    A. RNA is single stranded
    Explanation
    RNA is single stranded and contains uracil (U) bases instead of thymine (T). Hydrogen bonds form between adenine (A) and uracil (U) bases, as well as between guanine (G) and cytosine (C) bases. Therefore, the correct statements are that a sequence of RNA will not contain T bases but will contain U bases, and RNA is single stranded.

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  • 38. 

    If a strand of DNA has the base sequence 5' AAGCCCTATAC 3', what would the corresponding base sequence in the complementary strand of DNA?

    • 3' UUCGGGAUAUG 5'

    • 3' TTCGGGATATG 5'

    • 3' GTATAGGGCTT 5'

    • 3' GUAUAGGGCUU 5'

    Correct Answer
    A. 3' TTCGGGATATG 5'
    Explanation
    The given question asks for the corresponding base sequence in the complementary strand of DNA. In DNA, adenine (A) pairs with thymine (T) and guanine (G) pairs with cytosine (C). Therefore, the complementary strand of DNA would have the opposite sequence of bases. In this case, the complementary sequence would be 3' TTCGGGATATG 5', which matches the given answer.

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  • 39. 

    DNA is replicated during which of the following cell phases?

    • C phase

    • M phase

    • S phase

    • G1 phase

    Correct Answer
    A. S phase
    Explanation
    During the S phase of the cell cycle, DNA replication occurs. This is the phase where the cell's DNA is duplicated in preparation for cell division. The S phase follows the G1 phase, during which the cell grows and prepares for DNA replication. After the S phase, the cell enters the G2 phase, where it continues to grow and prepare for cell division. Therefore, the correct answer is S phase.

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  • 40. 

    If a strand of DNA has the base sequence 5' AAGCCCTATAC 3', what would be the corresponding base sequence on the mRNA transcript?

    • 3' UUCGGGAUAUG 5'

    • 3' TTCGGGATATG 5'

    • 3' GTATAGGGCTT 5'

    • 3' GUAUAGGGCUU 5'

    Correct Answer
    A. 3' UUCGGGAUAUG 5'
    Explanation
    The mRNA transcript is synthesized using the complementary base pairing rule, where adenine pairs with uracil, cytosine pairs with guanine, guanine pairs with cytosine, and thymine pairs with adenine. Therefore, the corresponding base sequence on the mRNA transcript would be 3' TTCGGGATATG 5'.

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  • 41. 

    RNA processing in a eukaryotic cell occurs in which of the following locations?

    • Ribosomes

    • Cell membranes

    • Cytoplasm

    • Nucleus

    Correct Answer
    A. Nucleus
    Explanation
    RNA processing in a eukaryotic cell occurs in the nucleus. This is because the nucleus is where transcription, the first step of gene expression, takes place. During transcription, the DNA sequence is copied into a pre-mRNA molecule. This pre-mRNA molecule then undergoes various processing steps, such as the removal of introns and addition of a poly-A tail, to form the mature mRNA. Once the mRNA is processed, it can then be transported out of the nucleus and into the cytoplasm, where it can be translated into protein by ribosomes. Therefore, the correct location for RNA processing in a eukaryotic cell is the nucleus.

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  • 42. 

    The process of removing introns from the pre-mRNA molecule in a eukaryotic cell is called:

    • Ligation

    • Splicing

    • Polyadenylation

    • Initiation

    Correct Answer
    A. Splicing
    Explanation
    Splicing is the correct answer because it refers to the process of removing introns, non-coding regions, from the pre-mRNA molecule in a eukaryotic cell. During splicing, the remaining exons, coding regions, are joined together to form the mature mRNA molecule that can be translated into a protein. Ligation refers to the joining of two DNA or RNA fragments, polyadenylation is the addition of a poly(A) tail to the mRNA, and initiation refers to the beginning of transcription or translation.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is true of an enhancer?

    • Enhancers are a form of promoter in a bacterial cell

    • Enhancers are enzymes that help in the transcription of DNA

    • Enhancers are located at a distance to the promoter

    • Enhancers are proteins that bind and activate RNA polymersae

    Correct Answer
    A. Enhancers are located at a distance to the promoter
    Explanation
    Enhancers are DNA sequences that are located at a distance from the promoter. They can increase the transcription of genes by binding to specific transcription factors and enhancing the recruitment of RNA polymerase to the promoter region. This allows for the regulation of gene expression in a spatial and temporal manner. Unlike promoters, enhancers do not have a fixed position or orientation relative to the gene they regulate, and can be located upstream, downstream, or even within introns of the gene.

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  • 44. 

    Cell A and Cell B carry the same genes, including Gene 1, Gene 2, Gene 3, and Gene 4. Which of the following scenarios best describes differential gene expression?

    • Cell A expresses all four genes; Cell B expresses all four genes

    • Cell A expresses only Genes 1 and 2, Cell B expresses only genes 1 and 2

    • Cell A expresses only genes 3 and 4, Cell B expresses only genes 3 and 4

    • Cell A expresses only genes 1 and 2, Cell B expresses only genes 3 and 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Cell A expresses only genes 1 and 2, Cell B expresses only genes 3 and 4
    Explanation
    This scenario best describes differential gene expression because it shows that different genes are being expressed in each cell. In Cell A, only genes 1 and 2 are expressed, while in Cell B, only genes 3 and 4 are expressed. This indicates that there is a difference in gene expression between the two cells, as they are expressing different sets of genes.

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  • 45. 

    If a fertilized egg can develop into every cell in an organism, it is classified as which type of cell?

    • Totipotent cell

    • Pluripotent cell

    • Multipotent cell

    • Unipotent cell

    Correct Answer
    A. Totipotent cell
    Explanation
    A fertilized egg that can develop into every cell in an organism is classified as a totipotent cell. Totipotent cells have the ability to differentiate into any type of cell in the body, including both embryonic and extraembryonic cells. This means they have the potential to give rise to all the specialized cell types in the body and can form a complete organism. Pluripotent cells, on the other hand, can differentiate into any cell type except extraembryonic cells, while multipotent cells can differentiate into a limited range of cell types, and unipotent cells can only differentiate into one cell type.

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  • 46. 

    If the sentence below represents a chromosome, which of the following answers represents a chromosome inversion? This is a chromosome inversion.

    • This is a chromosome inversion

    • This a emosomorhc a inversion

    • This is a inversion chromosome

    • This is a emosomorhc noisrevni

    Correct Answer
    A. This a emosomorhc a inversion
  • 47. 

    Nucleic acids carry overall negative charge due to

    • Nucleotides

    • Sugar molecules

    • Phosphate groups

    • Nitrogenous bases

    Correct Answer
    A. Phosphate groups
    Explanation
    Nucleic acids carry an overall negative charge due to the presence of phosphate groups. Phosphate groups are negatively charged due to the presence of oxygen atoms with lone pairs of electrons. These phosphate groups are an essential component of nucleic acids, such as DNA and RNA, and contribute to their overall negative charge. The sugar molecules and nitrogenous bases present in nucleic acids do not carry a charge.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following equations is an anabolic reaction?

    • 6CO2 + 6 H2O -> C6H12O6 + 6O2

    • 2H2O2 -> 2H2O + O2

    • C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O

    • 2NH3 -> N2 +3H2

    Correct Answer
    A. 6CO2 + 6 H2O -> C6H12O6 + 6O2
    Explanation
    The equation 6CO2 + 6 H2O -> C6H12O6 + 6O2 is an anabolic reaction because it involves the synthesis of glucose (C6H12O6) from carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) through the process of photosynthesis. Anabolic reactions are characterized by the building up or synthesis of complex molecules from simpler ones, which is exactly what happens in this equation.

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  • 49. 

    If the iron ion Fe3+ has an oxidation number of +3, which two of the following are true?

    • Fe3+ can donate three electrons to form a chemical bond

    • Fe3+ can accept an electron to form a chemical bond

    • Fe3+ is an oxidizing agent

    • Fe3+ is a reducing agent

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Fe3+ can accept an electron to form a chemical bond
    A. Fe3+ is an oxidizing agent
    Explanation
    Fe3+ can accept an electron to form a chemical bond because it has a positive oxidation number, indicating a tendency to gain electrons. Additionally, Fe3+ is an oxidizing agent because it can accept electrons from other substances, causing them to be oxidized.

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