Principles Of Cardiology III- Test I

  • USMLE
  • ABIM
  • ACGME
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1. What effect will tachycardia have on coronary artery perfusion?

Explanation

Tachycardia refers to an abnormally fast heart rate. When the heart beats faster, the filling time of the ventricles decreases. This means that there is less time for the ventricles to fill with blood during diastole. As a result, the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each beat (stroke volume) decreases. Since perfusion refers to the delivery of blood to tissues, a decrease in stroke volume leads to a decrease in coronary artery perfusion. Therefore, tachycardia will have a negative effect on coronary artery perfusion.

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About This Quiz
Principles Of Cardiology III- Test I - Quiz

A review of the material for Principles III test 1. Reviewing cardiac material.

2. The above pressure loop represents which valvular disorder? 

Explanation

The pressure loop represents Mitral Stenosis because it shows a decrease in pressure during diastole, which is characteristic of this valvular disorder. Mitral Stenosis occurs when the mitral valve becomes narrowed, making it difficult for blood to flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. This results in increased pressure in the left atrium and decreased pressure in the left ventricle during diastole.

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3. Decreased contraction of the ventricles is known as…

Explanation

Hypokinesis refers to a decreased contraction of the ventricles. This means that the ventricles are not contracting as strongly as they should be. This can be caused by a variety of factors, such as damage to the heart muscle or a decrease in blood supply to the heart. Hypokinesis can lead to decreased pumping of blood from the heart, which can result in symptoms such as fatigue, shortness of breath, and decreased exercise tolerance.

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4. Which of the following will not cause an increase in myocardial oxygen consumption?

Explanation

A decrease in heart rate will not cause an increase in myocardial oxygen consumption because when the heart rate decreases, the heart has more time to fill with blood during diastole. This allows for increased coronary perfusion and oxygen delivery to the myocardium, resulting in a decrease in oxygen demand.

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5. You are the SRNA for Mr. Bad-day, a few minutes into his surgery you notice ST-segment elevation on the ECG. His BP is currently 164/98, What should you do first?

Explanation

The correct answer is to check lead placement and verify ST segment changes. This is because ST-segment elevation on the ECG can indicate myocardial ischemia or infarction, which is a serious condition that requires immediate attention. Checking the lead placement ensures that the ECG readings are accurate, while verifying the ST segment changes helps to confirm if there is indeed myocardial ischemia or infarction occurring. This information is crucial for determining the appropriate course of action and providing the necessary interventions to address the patient's condition.

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6. The above pressure loop represents which valvular disorder? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Aortic Stenosis. Aortic stenosis is a valvular disorder characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which leads to restricted blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta. This results in increased pressure in the left ventricle during systole, as shown in the pressure loop. The pressure curve rises steeply during systole and then drops quickly during diastole, indicating the difficulty in pushing blood through the narrowed valve.

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7. Which of the following is not a determinant of myocardial function?

Explanation

Oxygen demand is not a determinant of myocardial function because it refers to the amount of oxygen needed by the heart muscle to function properly, rather than directly affecting the heart's ability to contract and pump blood. The other options, such as preload, heart rate, and contractility, all directly influence myocardial function by affecting the force of contraction and the amount of blood pumped by the heart.

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8. Which of the following pts has major cardiac clinical predictors?

Explanation

Mrs. B is the correct answer because she has major cardiac clinical predictors, specifically a history of atrial fibrillation and severe mitral stenosis. These conditions indicate significant cardiac dysfunction and increase the risk of cardiovascular events. The other patients do not have major cardiac clinical predictors mentioned in their medical history.

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9.   Which of the following occurs during the A-B segment of the cardiac pressure volume loop?

Explanation

During the A-B segment of the cardiac pressure volume loop, the ventricles are in diastole and are filling with blood. This phase is known as the filling phase. The atria contract and push blood into the ventricles, causing the ventricular volume to increase while the ventricular pressure remains low. This allows for the passive filling of the ventricles before the next phase of the cardiac cycle.

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10.   Which of the following occurs during the C-D segment of the cardiac pressure volume loop?

Explanation

During the C-D segment of the cardiac pressure volume loop, the ejection phase occurs. This is the phase where the ventricles contract and push blood out of the heart into the arteries. The pressure in the ventricles increases, causing the semilunar valves to open and blood to be ejected. The volume of blood in the ventricles decreases during this phase, leading to the ejection of blood.

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11. What are METS?

Explanation

METS are a physiological concept used to express the energy cost of physical activities as multiples of Resting Metabolic Rate. It is a unit of measurement that helps in determining the intensity of different physical activities and their impact on the body's energy expenditure. By calculating METS, healthcare professionals can assess the energy requirements and recommend appropriate physical activity levels for individuals. This concept is widely used in exercise physiology and clinical settings to guide exercise prescription and rehabilitation programs.

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12. Look at the above ECG. Occlusion of which coronary artery most likely resulted in the above ECG?      

Explanation

Based on the given ECG, the most likely occlusion is in the Right Coronary Artery. This is because the ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, which are typically affected by a right coronary artery occlusion.

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13. At what stage of hypertension would a patient experience encephalopathy?

Explanation

Encephalopathy is a condition characterized by brain dysfunction, which can occur as a result of severe hypertension. Stage 4 hypertension is the most severe stage, where blood pressure is extremely high and can cause damage to various organs including the brain. Therefore, it is at this stage that a patient is most likely to experience encephalopathy.

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14. Many patients with hypertension display an accentuated _______ response to induction and an exaggerated ______ response to intubation.

Explanation

Many patients with hypertension display an accentuated hypotensive response to induction, meaning their blood pressure drops significantly during the process. However, they also exhibit an exaggerated hypertensive response to intubation, where their blood pressure increases significantly. This suggests that these patients have a tendency to experience low blood pressure during induction and high blood pressure during intubation.

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15.   Which of the following occurs during the D-A segment of the cardiac pressure volume loop?

Explanation

During the D-A segment of the cardiac pressure volume loop, isovolumetric relaxation occurs. This phase represents the period when the ventricles are in diastole and the pressure within the ventricles decreases while the volume remains constant. The mitral valve is closed, preventing blood from flowing into the ventricles, and the aortic valve is also closed, preventing blood from flowing out of the ventricles. This phase allows the ventricles to relax and refill with blood before the next contraction.

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16. A Bundle-branch block most likely represents an issue with what part of the cardiac conduction system?

Explanation

A bundle-branch block refers to a delay or blockage in the electrical signals that travel through the bundle branches of the cardiac conduction system. The bundle branches are responsible for conducting the electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles. Purkinje fibers are a specialized network of cells that extend from the bundle branches and are responsible for transmitting the electrical signals to the ventricular muscle, causing it to contract. Therefore, a bundle-branch block most likely represents an issue with the Purkinje fibers.

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17. Which of the following reflects an appropriate resting potential of the heart?

Explanation

The correct answer is -80 mv. Resting potential refers to the electrical charge difference between the inside and outside of a cell when it is at rest. In the case of the heart, a resting potential of -80 mv indicates that the inside of the heart cell is more negatively charged compared to the outside. This negative charge is essential for maintaining the normal electrical activity of the heart and allows it to contract and pump blood effectively.

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18. During anesthetic management of a pt with HTN, you should seek to keep the intra-op BP within _____ of your baseline BP.

Explanation

During anesthetic management of a patient with hypertension, it is important to keep the intraoperative blood pressure within 20% of the baseline blood pressure. This means that the blood pressure should not deviate more than 20% from the patient's normal or baseline blood pressure. This is crucial to ensure that the patient's blood pressure remains stable and within a safe range during the procedure.

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19. Paradoxical bulging of the ventricles is known as…

Explanation

Dyskinesis refers to the paradoxical bulging of the ventricles. This condition occurs when a portion of the ventricular wall moves in the opposite direction of the rest of the ventricle during contraction. It is typically caused by a regional abnormality in the myocardium, such as scar tissue or aneurysm. Dyskinesis can impair the pumping function of the heart and lead to decreased cardiac output.

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20. Blood flow to the coronary arteries decreases during which phase of the cardiac cycle?

Explanation

During systole, the heart muscle contracts and pumps blood out of the chambers and into the arteries. This contraction causes a temporary decrease in blood flow to the coronary arteries, which supply oxygen and nutrients to the heart muscle itself. This is because the contraction of the heart muscle compresses the coronary arteries, reducing the amount of blood that can flow through them. Therefore, the correct answer is systole.

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21. Occlusion of the circumflex artery will result in what type of MI?

Explanation

Occlusion of the circumflex artery will result in a lateral wall MI. The circumflex artery is one of the main branches of the left coronary artery and supplies blood to the lateral wall of the left ventricle. When this artery becomes blocked, it causes a lack of blood flow to the lateral wall, leading to myocardial infarction in that area. Symptoms of a lateral wall MI may include chest pain, shortness of breath, and changes in the ECG readings.

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22. The above pressure loop represents which valvular disorder? 

Explanation

The pressure loop shown in the question represents Mitral Regurge. This is indicated by the backward flow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium during systole. Mitral regurgitation occurs when the mitral valve does not close properly, allowing blood to leak back into the left atrium. This results in a characteristic pressure loop pattern, which is depicted in the given diagram.

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23. If a patient has a Right sided Dominant heart it means what?

Explanation

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24. The primary risk factor for the development of CAD is…

Explanation

Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is the correct answer because it is a well-known risk factor for the development of coronary artery disease (CAD). Hypertension can cause damage to the walls of the arteries, leading to the formation of plaque and narrowing of the blood vessels. This can restrict blood flow to the heart, increasing the risk of CAD. Additionally, hypertension can also lead to other cardiovascular conditions such as heart failure and stroke, further contributing to the development of CAD. Family history, aortic stenosis, and a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) may also be risk factors for CAD, but hypertension is considered the primary risk factor.

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25. What MET score would you give to Mrs. Ertha: Mrs. Ertha was a high school math teacher for 43 yrs before retiring 8 yrs ago. Sadly. 3 yrs back she had a major stroke and was left incapacitated. She currently resides in a skilled nursing facility. Mrs. Ertha is aphasic, and uncommunicative, and can not care for herself. She has contractures to all her extremities, a PEG tube, and wear diapers for incontinence. She has had pneumonia twice in the past 3 yrs as well as a healed ulcer on her right hip.

Explanation

Mrs. Ertha's condition indicates that she is severely impaired and requires total assistance for all activities of daily living. She is aphasic, uncommunicative, and unable to care for herself. She has contractures, a PEG tube, and wears diapers for incontinence. Additionally, she has had pneumonia and a healed ulcer in the past 3 years. These factors suggest a very low level of functioning, warranting a MET score of 1, indicating complete dependence on others for all activities.

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26. COMIC RELIEF: The perfect gift for any occasion...  

Explanation

The given answer "All the Above" is the correct answer because the statement "COMIC RELIEF: The perfect gift for any occasion..." suggests that the gift being referred to is something that can bring humor and laughter. The responses "Yeah!! I want it too!!", "Ha ha ha! I love SNL", and "OK, first you put 'Jizz in my pants' and now THIS?" all indicate a positive reaction to the idea of receiving the gift, reinforcing the idea that it is indeed suitable for any occasion. Therefore, the correct answer encompasses all of the given responses.

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27. During what phase of the cardiac action potential do L-type calcium channels open?

Explanation

During the plateau phase of the cardiac action potential, L-type calcium channels open. This allows calcium ions to enter the cardiac cells, leading to a sustained depolarization of the cell membrane. This phase is characterized by a prolonged period of membrane potential, which helps in the contraction of the cardiac muscle and ensures efficient pumping of blood.

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28. Which of the following pts has intermediate cardiac clinical predictors?

Explanation

The correct answer is Mr. C, a 52 yr old male with a history of diabetes and peripheral neuropathy. Intermediate cardiac clinical predictors refer to conditions or factors that are associated with an increased risk of cardiac events or complications. In this case, diabetes and peripheral neuropathy are both conditions that can contribute to cardiovascular problems. While Ms. A and Mrs. B have their own medical histories, they do not have conditions that directly relate to cardiac risk. Therefore, Mr. C is the only patient among the options provided who has intermediate cardiac clinical predictors.

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29. At what stage of hypertension would a patient begin to experience renal dysfunction?

Explanation

Stage 3 hypertension is characterized by a systolic blood pressure of 180 mmHg or higher, or a diastolic blood pressure of 110 mmHg or higher. At this stage, the blood pressure is severely elevated, which can lead to damage to the blood vessels in the kidneys. This damage can result in renal dysfunction, such as decreased kidney function or the development of chronic kidney disease. Therefore, it is at stage 3 of hypertension that a patient would begin to experience renal dysfunction.

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30. Sympathetic stimulation of the SA node results in release of ________ from nerve endings, which binds to Beta 1 adrenergic receptors on pacemaker cell membranes.

Explanation

Sympathetic stimulation of the SA node triggers the release of norepinephrine from nerve endings. Norepinephrine then binds to Beta 1 adrenergic receptors on pacemaker cell membranes. This binding activates a signaling cascade that leads to an increase in heart rate and contractility. Acetylcholine, on the other hand, is released during parasympathetic stimulation and has the opposite effect, slowing down the heart rate. Ephedrine is a sympathomimetic drug that stimulates the release of norepinephrine, but it is not directly released from nerve endings. cAMP is a secondary messenger involved in the signaling pathway activated by norepinephrine binding to the Beta 1 adrenergic receptors.

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31. Mr. Avery's BP is currently 134/80. What is his MAP?

Explanation

The mean arterial pressure (MAP) is calculated by adding twice the diastolic blood pressure (DBP) to the systolic blood pressure (SBP) and dividing the sum by 3. In this case, the DBP is 80 and the SBP is 134. Adding twice the DBP (80 x 2 = 160) to the SBP (134) gives a sum of 294. Dividing 294 by 3 gives a MAP of 98.

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32. Which portion of the cardiac conduction system causes a delay in transmission of the action potential?

Explanation

The AV node causes a delay in transmission of the action potential in the cardiac conduction system. This delay allows the atria to contract and empty their blood into the ventricles before the ventricles contract. This coordination ensures efficient blood flow and prevents the atria and ventricles from contracting at the same time, which could lead to ineffective pumping of blood.

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33. Depolarization of cardiac cells results in increased _____ and decreased _____.

Explanation

During depolarization of cardiac cells, the sodium channels open, allowing sodium ions to enter the cell. This influx of sodium ions leads to an increase in the intracellular concentration of sodium. At the same time, the potassium channels also open, allowing potassium ions to exit the cell. This efflux of potassium ions leads to a decrease in the intracellular concentration of potassium. Therefore, the correct answer is Sodium, Potassium.

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34. Look at the above ECG. Occlusion of which coronary artery most likely resulted in this ECG?    

Explanation

Based on the given ECG, the most likely occlusion is in the Left Anterior Descending (LAD) coronary artery. The ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads V1-V6, which is characteristic of an anterior wall myocardial infarction. The LAD supplies blood to the anterior wall of the left ventricle, which explains the changes seen in the ECG.

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35. You are the SRNA for Mrs. Collier today. During the procedure, she becomes bradycardic to an HR of 50 beats per minute. Her BP is currently 90/52. How do you treat this bradycardia?

Explanation

Ephedrine is a sympathomimetic drug that acts on alpha and beta adrenergic receptors, causing vasoconstriction and increased heart rate. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing bradycardia (low heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure). Ephedrine can help increase the heart rate and improve blood pressure by stimulating the sympathetic nervous system. Therefore, giving Ephedrine 5-10 mg would be an appropriate treatment for this bradycardia.

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36. What does Starling's Law state?

Explanation

Starling's Law states that the greater the amount of blood entering the heart during diastole, the greater the amount of blood ejected during systole. This means that the heart will pump out a larger volume of blood if it receives a larger volume of blood during the relaxation phase. This law helps to explain the relationship between the amount of blood entering the heart and the amount of blood pumped out, highlighting the importance of preload in cardiac function.

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37. What does the Law of La Place state?

Explanation

The Law of La Place states that there is a relationship between ventricular pressure and wall tension. This means that as ventricular pressure increases, the tension in the walls of the ventricles also increases. This relationship is important in understanding how the heart functions and how it is able to pump blood effectively.

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38. What is the Cardiac output for Mrs. Wiffenbach? Her BP is currently 141/78, HR 74, SV 84 mls, BSA 2 m2, CVP 4.

Explanation

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39.                         Which of the following BP's represents stage 1 hypertension?

Explanation

Stage 1 hypertension is defined as having a systolic blood pressure (the top number) between 130-139 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure (the bottom number) between 80-89 mmHg. Among the given options, the blood pressure reading of 142/90 falls within this range, making it the correct answer for stage 1 hypertension.

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40. You are the SRNA for Mr. Ompei, your day has gone to crap as you just verified your pt is having an intra-op MI. His BP is 162/ 88 with HR 136. You informed the surgeon of the situation, what is the most important thing to do next?

Explanation

The most important thing to do next is to give esmolol to treat the tachycardia. This is because the patient's heart rate is elevated at 136 beats per minute, which can be detrimental in the setting of an intra-op MI. Esmolol is a beta-blocker that can help decrease the heart rate and reduce the workload on the heart, improving myocardial oxygen supply and demand balance. This intervention should be prioritized to stabilize the patient's condition and prevent further complications.

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41. You are caring for Mrs. Gil today who has acute pulmonary edema. What sort of reading would you expect to see on her Pulmonary Artery Catheter?

Explanation

In acute pulmonary edema, there is an increase in fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to increased pressure in the pulmonary artery. This increased pressure is reflected in the readings of the Pulmonary Artery Catheter. CVP (Central Venous Pressure), PCWP (Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure), and PAP (Pulmonary Artery Pressure) would all be expected to increase due to the elevated fluid volume and pressure in the pulmonary artery. On the other hand, CI (Cardiac Index) would decrease as the heart's ability to pump effectively is compromised by the increased fluid and pressure in the lungs.

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42. Which anesthetic causes the greatest amount of myocardial depression?

Explanation

Halothane is the correct answer because it causes the greatest amount of myocardial depression compared to the other anesthetics listed. Myocardial depression refers to a decrease in the contractility of the heart muscle, leading to a decrease in the pumping ability of the heart. Halothane is known to have a more pronounced negative inotropic effect on the heart, meaning it reduces the force of contraction. This can be problematic in patients with compromised cardiac function or those undergoing cardiac surgery, as it can further impair heart function. Sevoflurane, Desflurane, and Isoflurane also have some myocardial depressant effects, but to a lesser extent than Halothane.

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43. Which of the following will not cause an increase in Pulmonary Artery Pressure? 

Explanation

Ischemia refers to a lack of blood flow to the tissues, which can lead to tissue damage. In the context of the question, ischemia would not cause an increase in pulmonary artery pressure because it does not directly affect the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary artery pressure is primarily influenced by conditions such as left ventricular failure, mitral regurgitation, and pulmonary hypertension, which can all lead to increased pressure in the pulmonary arteries.

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44. What it is an appropriate range for PCWP readings?

Explanation

The appropriate range for PCWP (Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure) readings is 5-15. This range is considered normal and indicates that the pressure in the left atrium and pulmonary capillaries is within a healthy range. Higher or lower readings may indicate abnormalities or health issues.

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45. What is the SVR for Mr. Gosser? BP  152/80, HR 92, CO 6.9 L min, CI 3.3 L/min/m2, BSA 2.1/m2, CVP 4, SV 75 ml.

Explanation

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46. Which chamber is sensed in a VDT pacemaker?

Explanation

A VDT pacemaker senses both the atria and the ventricles. This means that it can detect the electrical activity in both chambers of the heart. By sensing the activity in these chambers, the pacemaker can determine if the heart is beating too slowly or irregularly. It can then send electrical signals to stimulate the heart and regulate its rhythm. By sensing both chambers, the pacemaker can effectively monitor and control the overall function of the heart.

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47. Which of the following procedures is considered high cardiac risk?

Explanation

Fem-pop bypass is considered a high cardiac risk procedure because it involves bypassing a blocked or narrowed artery in the leg using a graft. This procedure requires the heart to pump blood through the graft, which puts additional strain on the heart. It is typically performed on patients with severe peripheral artery disease and significant cardiovascular risk factors. Carotid endarterectomy, mediastinoscopy, and left breast mastectomy are not specifically related to cardiac risk.

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48. The above pressure loop represents which valvular disorder? 

Explanation

The given pressure loop represents Aortic Regurge. This can be determined based on the characteristics of the pressure loop, which typically shows a rapid drop in pressure during diastole due to the regurgitation of blood from the aorta back into the left ventricle. This causes an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume and pressure, leading to a rapid rise in pressure during systole. This pattern is consistent with Aortic Regurge.

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49. What occurs during repolarization?

Explanation

During repolarization, the potassium ions inside the cell increase while the slow calcium channels close. This process allows the cell to return to its resting state by restoring the original electrical charge across the cell membrane. The increase in potassium ions helps to bring the membrane potential back to its negative value, while the closure of slow calcium channels prevents further calcium influx, which is responsible for depolarization.

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50. What is the cardiac index for Mrs. Duvar? BP 116/64, HR 58, SV 100, BSA 2 m2, CVP 6.

Explanation

The cardiac index is a measure of cardiac output adjusted for body surface area. It is calculated by dividing the cardiac output by the body surface area. In this case, the cardiac output can be calculated by multiplying the stroke volume (SV) by the heart rate (HR). The given values are BP 116/64, HR 58, SV 100, BSA 2 m2, and CVP 6. Using these values, the cardiac output can be calculated as 100 * 58 = 5800 ml/min. Dividing this by the body surface area of 2 m2 gives a cardiac index of 5800/2 = 2900 ml/min/m2, which is equivalent to 2.9 L/min/m2.

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51. Which one of the following statements is most correct regarding the PAOP waveform?

Explanation

The v-wave is due to blood filling the atrium. In the PAOP waveform, the v-wave represents the atrial filling phase, where blood is filling the atrium. This occurs during ventricular systole when the mitral valve is closed and the atrium is filling with blood. The v-wave is typically the highest peak in the waveform and represents increased pressure in the atrium.

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52. Which chamber is paced in a VDD pacemaker?

Explanation

A VDD pacemaker paces the ventricle chamber. In a VDD pacemaker, the device senses the electrical activity in the atria and sends pacing impulses to the ventricle when necessary. This type of pacemaker is commonly used when the atria are functioning properly, but there is a blockage or delay in the electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles. By pacing the ventricle, the VDD pacemaker helps to maintain a regular heart rhythm and improve overall cardiac function.

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53. Which of the following pts has minor cardiac clinical predictors?

Explanation

Ms. A, an 85-year-old patient with a history of stroke, has minor cardiac clinical predictors. This suggests that her previous stroke may have affected her cardiovascular health and could be indicative of underlying cardiac issues. While the other patients have their own medical histories, Ms. A's history of stroke is specifically mentioned as a minor cardiac clinical predictor.

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54. Which of the following is not a main function of a pacemaker?

Explanation

A pacemaker is a medical device that helps regulate the heart's rhythm. It primarily functions by sensing the heart's electrical activity and then pacing it when necessary. This pacing helps maintain a regular heartbeat. However, therapy is not a main function of a pacemaker. While pacemakers can provide various therapies, such as anti-tachycardia pacing or cardiac resynchronization therapy, these are additional functions and not the main purpose of a pacemaker. The main functions of a pacemaker are to sense and pace the heart.

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55. You are caring for a patient with a PA line and notice an increase in your CVP, while at the same time you see a decrease in your CI, PCWP, & PAP. What does this mean and how would you treat it?

Explanation

An increase in CVP (central venous pressure) along with a decrease in CI (cardiac index), PCWP (pulmonary capillary wedge pressure), and PAP (pulmonary artery pressure) suggests right ventricular (RV) failure. This means that the right side of the heart is not effectively pumping blood to the lungs, leading to fluid buildup in the systemic circulation. To treat RV failure, vasodilators can be given to reduce the workload on the right ventricle and improve blood flow to the lungs.

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56. What MET score would you give Mr. Happkis:  He is a 78 yr old male, married with 3 grown children. He states every morning he and his wife Anne exercise together by walking their dogs around the neighborhood.  He enjoys golfing (with his cart), gardening, and going to the beach.  He used to play tennis up until 5 yrs ago when he began to have some respiratory problems. He also has bad arthritis and his knees will not really allow him to run long distances. Though Anne and he have begun ballroom dancing class to keep active and he states he can usually make it through the class just fine.

Explanation

Mr. Happkis is a 78-year-old male who engages in regular physical activity such as walking his dogs, golfing with a cart, gardening, and ballroom dancing. Although he has respiratory problems and bad arthritis, he can still participate in these activities without any major issues. Based on this information, it can be inferred that Mr. Happkis has a moderate level of physical fitness, which corresponds to a MET score of 8.

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57. Which of the following BP's represents Stage 3 hypertension?

Explanation

Stage 3 hypertension is defined as a blood pressure reading of 180/110 mmHg or higher. Therefore, the correct answer is 184/110 as it falls within this range and represents Stage 3 hypertension.

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58. Where are pacemaker leads inserted for a biventricular pacemaker?

Explanation

Pacemaker leads are inserted into the coronary sinus for a biventricular pacemaker. The coronary sinus is a large vein located on the posterior side of the heart, and it receives blood from smaller cardiac veins. By placing the leads in the coronary sinus, the pacemaker can stimulate the left ventricle to contract in synchronization with the right ventricle, improving the coordination and efficiency of the heart's pumping action.

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59. You are SRNA for Mrs. Xaio today. During the procedure, you notice ST elevation on her ECG. Her BP is currently 118/ 72 with HR 116. You verified the ST segment changes already, what should you do now?

Explanation

The presence of ST elevation on the ECG indicates myocardial ischemia or a heart attack. It is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation to optimize oxygen delivery to the heart and prevent further damage. This can be achieved by providing supplemental oxygen and ensuring proper ventilation. Giving Esmolol to treat tachycardia may help control the heart rate, but it does not address the underlying issue of myocardial ischemia. Informing the surgeon and considering stopping the surgery may be necessary, but ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation should be the immediate priority. Deepening the anesthesia may not be the appropriate action as it does not directly address the myocardial ischemia.

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60. Which of the following is not true regarding the effects of placing a magnet over an ICD?

Explanation

Placing a magnet over an ICD (Implantable Cardioverter Defibrillator) temporarily suspends pacing. This means that the magnet will stop the ICD from delivering electrical impulses to the heart to regulate its rhythm. This can be useful in certain situations, such as during surgery or when the ICD is malfunctioning. However, it is important to note that this action does not suspend detection or therapy provided by the ICD, and it may prompt tones from the pacer.

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61. Which of the following patients would you want to get a stress test prior to surgery (assuming it is not already done)?

Explanation

The patient with a history of hypertension (currently well controlled), a myocardial infarction four years ago, a METS score of 3, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) undergoing transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) would require a stress test prior to surgery. This patient has a history of cardiovascular disease (MI) and a low exercise capacity (METS=3), which puts them at a higher risk for perioperative cardiac events. The stress test would help assess their cardiovascular fitness and determine if any further interventions or precautions are needed before the surgery.

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62. In a bipolar pacing system, how does the impulse return?

Explanation

The impulse in a bipolar pacing system returns through the ring electrode above the lead tip. This electrode is located near the tip of the pacing lead and allows the electrical impulse to travel back to the pacing generator. This ensures that the pacing system functions properly and maintains the desired pacing rhythm.

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63. You are caring Mr. Garjian today. You observe the following values: CVP 15, CI 1.8, PCWP 26, and PAP 43/ 25. What do these failures mean for Mr. Garjian?

Explanation

Based on the given values, a high PCWP (26) and a low PAP (43/25) suggest that there is increased pressure in the left atrium and decreased pressure in the pulmonary artery. This indicates left ventricular failure, as the left ventricle is not effectively pumping blood out to the body, leading to increased pressure in the left side of the heart and decreased pressure in the pulmonary artery. Therefore, the correct answer is that Mr. Garjian most likely has left ventricular failure.

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64. Which of the following procedures carries an intermediate cardiac risk?

Explanation

Thyroidectomy carries an intermediate cardiac risk because it involves the removal of the thyroid gland, which is located near the heart. During the procedure, there is a risk of damage to the nearby blood vessels and nerves, which can potentially lead to cardiac complications. Additionally, the surgery itself can cause stress on the cardiovascular system, increasing the risk of cardiac events such as arrhythmias or heart attack. Therefore, patients undergoing thyroidectomy should be closely monitored for any cardiac issues during and after the procedure.

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65. Which of the following statements about measurement of the pulmonary artery occlusion pressure is most correct?

Explanation

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66. Which of the following BP's represents Stage 2 hypertension?

Explanation

Stage 2 hypertension is defined as a systolic blood pressure (the top number) of 140 mmHg or higher, or a diastolic blood pressure (the bottom number) of 90 mmHg or higher. Among the given options, the BP reading of 178/100 is the only one that meets this criteria, making it the correct answer for Stage 2 hypertension.

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67. In a unipolar pacing system, how does the impulse return?

Explanation

In a unipolar pacing system, the impulse returns through body fluid and tissue. In this system, the pacing lead has only one electrode, which is located at the tip of the lead. The electrical impulse generated by the pacemaker travels from the lead tip through the body fluid and tissue, completing the circuit and returning to the pacemaker. This allows for effective pacing and stimulation of the heart.

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68. Approximately what percentage of pts with HTN and a normal ECG have undiagnosed significant CAD?

Explanation

Approximately 14% of patients with hypertension and a normal ECG have undiagnosed significant CAD. This means that out of all the patients with high blood pressure and a normal electrocardiogram, around 14% of them have significant coronary artery disease that has not been detected or diagnosed.

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