Let's Test Your Pharmacology Knowledge With This Quiz

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1. The acetylcholinesterase enzyme ____________________.

Explanation

The acetylcholinesterase enzyme causes rapid hydrolysis of acetylcholine. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that is responsible for transmitting signals between nerve cells. By rapidly breaking down acetylcholine, acetylcholinesterase helps to terminate the cholinergic signal transmission. This allows for precise control and regulation of nerve impulses in the body.

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2.
Albuterol [Ventolin, Proventil] treats bronchospasm by relaxing bronchial smooth muscle

Explanation

Albuterol, also known as Ventolin or Proventil, is a medication used to treat bronchospasm. It works by relaxing the bronchial smooth muscles, which helps to open up the airways and make breathing easier. Therefore, the statement is true.

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3.
Muscarinic antagonists treat peptic ulcer by __________.

Explanation

Muscarinic antagonists treat peptic ulcers by reducing gastric motility and gastric acid secretion. These medications block the action of acetylcholine on muscarinic receptors in the stomach, which leads to a decrease in gastric motility and a reduction in the production of gastric acid. By inhibiting these processes, muscarinic antagonists help to alleviate the symptoms of peptic ulcers and promote healing. The other options, increasing secretions of gastric epithelium and inhibition of cholinesterase enzymes in the stomach, are not correct explanations for the mechanism of action of muscarinic antagonists in treating peptic ulcers. Vasoconstriction to decrease blood flow to the esophagus is also not a mechanism of action for these medications.

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4.
Cholinomimetics relieve symptoms of Sjogrens syndrome by ______________.

Explanation

Cholinomimetics relieve symptoms of Sjogrens syndrome by increasing secretions of salivary and tear glands. This is because cholinomimetics stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for regulating glandular secretions. By enhancing the release of acetylcholine, cholinomimetics promote the production of saliva and tears, helping to alleviate the dryness and discomfort associated with Sjogrens syndrome.

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5.
Telenzepine is a M1-selective antagonist
 

Explanation

Telenzepine is a M1-selective antagonist, meaning it specifically targets and blocks the M1 receptor subtype. This suggests that it has a high affinity for the M1 receptor and does not significantly interact with other receptor subtypes. Therefore, the statement "Telenzepine is a M1-selective antagonist" is true.

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6.
Alpha1-antagonists treat benign prostatic hyperplasia via relaxing smooth muscle in bladder neck, prostate and urethra, which result in increased urinary flow.

Explanation

Alpha1-antagonists are indeed used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) by relaxing the smooth muscle in the bladder neck, prostate, and urethra. This relaxation helps to relieve the symptoms of BPH, such as difficulty urinating and decreased urinary flow. By increasing urinary flow, alpha1-antagonists can improve the overall quality of life for individuals with BPH. Therefore, the statement is true.

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7. B1-antagonists are most selective for receptors located  ________________.

Explanation

b1-antagonists are most selective for receptors located on cardiac muscle. This means that these antagonists specifically target and bind to the beta-1 adrenergic receptors found on the surface of cardiac muscle cells. By blocking these receptors, b1-antagonists can reduce the effects of the sympathetic nervous system on the heart, such as decreasing heart rate and blood pressure. This selective action on cardiac muscle makes b1-antagonists commonly used in the treatment of conditions like hypertension, angina, and heart failure.

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8.
Propranolol [Inderal] is used to treat ___________.

Explanation

Propranolol, also known as Inderal, is a medication commonly used to treat hypertension, which is high blood pressure. It works by blocking certain receptors in the body, resulting in decreased heart rate and blood pressure. By reducing blood pressure, propranolol helps to prevent complications associated with hypertension, such as heart attacks, strokes, and kidney problems. It is not used to treat COPD, peptic ulcer, stuffy nose, or benign prostate hyperplasia.

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9.
_______________ is an alpha2-selective antagonist.

Explanation

Yohimbine is an alpha2-selective antagonist. This means that it blocks the alpha2-adrenergic receptors, which are responsible for inhibiting the release of norepinephrine. By blocking these receptors, yohimbine increases the release of norepinephrine, leading to increased sympathetic activity. This can have various effects on the body, including increased blood pressure and heart rate.

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10.
Scopolamine is a ___________ and a(n) _____________ that is used for _____________.

Explanation

Scopolamine is a muscarinic antagonist, which means it blocks the action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors. It is derived from the belladonna alkaloid, which is a natural compound found in the belladonna plant. Scopolamine is used specifically for the treatment of motion sickness, as it helps to reduce nausea and dizziness associated with motion.

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11.
Tiotropium bromide [Spiriva] is a ___________ used as a treatment for _____________.

Explanation

Tiotropium bromide [Spiriva] is a M1/M3 selective antagonist used as a treatment for COPD. This medication works by blocking the M1 and M3 receptors, which are responsible for bronchoconstriction and mucus production. By blocking these receptors, tiotropium bromide helps to relax the airway muscles and reduce mucus production, improving breathing and reducing symptoms in patients with COPD.

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12. Nicotinic and/or muscarinic receptors are located in

Explanation

Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors are both types of cholinergic receptors. Nicotinic receptors are located in the postganglionic parasympathetic nervous system, sweat glands, and the neuromuscular junction. Muscarinic receptors are found in the brain and various other tissues. Therefore, the correct answer is that all of these locations have either nicotinic or muscarinic receptors.

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13.
Indirect-acting sympatholytics include:

Explanation

The correct answer is "three of these is correct..." because all three options listed - alpha-methyldopa, guanadrel, and carbidopa - are examples of indirect-acting sympatholytics. These medications work by inhibiting the release or uptake of norepinephrine, leading to a decrease in sympathetic nervous system activity.

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14.
Physostigmine and revastigmine are reversible AChE inhibitors

Explanation

Physostigmine and revastigmine are both drugs that inhibit the enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE) in a reversible manner. AChE is responsible for breaking down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, and by inhibiting this enzyme, the levels of acetylcholine in the brain are increased. This can be beneficial in certain conditions, such as Alzheimer's disease, where there is a deficiency of acetylcholine. Therefore, the statement that physostigmine and revastigmine are reversible AChE inhibitors is correct.

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15.
Tolterodine tartrate [Detrol LA] is a ____________ used as a treatment for ______________.

Explanation

Tolterodine tartrate is a muscarinic antagonist, which means it blocks the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors. It is used as a treatment for overactive bladder, as it helps to relax the bladder muscles and reduce urinary frequency and urgency.

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16.
Direct-acting cholinomimetics include _________

Explanation

The correct answer is "two of these choices is correct." This means that there are two options among the given choices that are direct-acting cholinomimetics. The options listed are bethanecol, cevimeline, physostigmine, neostigmine, pilocarpine, carbachol, ecothiophate, and isofluophate. The explanation does not specify which two choices are correct, but it suggests that there are two direct-acting cholinomimetics among these options.

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17.
Irreversible AChE inhibitors include:

Explanation

The correct answer is "two of these choices is correct". This means that out of the given options, two of them are irreversible AChE inhibitors. However, without knowing which specific options are correct, we cannot determine the exact choices.

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18.
Fusaric acid is a neurotransmitter synthesis inhibitor
 

Explanation

Fusaric acid is a compound that has been found to inhibit the synthesis of neurotransmitters. This means that it interferes with the production of neurotransmitters in the brain, which are important for communication between nerve cells. As a result, the correct answer is true.

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19. Reversible AChE inhibitors include:

Explanation

Physostigmine and rivastigmine are both reversible acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitors. AChE is an enzyme that breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, and inhibiting this enzyme can increase the levels of acetylcholine in the brain. Physostigmine is a natural alkaloid derived from the Calabar bean and is used to treat conditions like glaucoma and Alzheimer's disease. Rivastigmine is a synthetic derivative of physostigmine and is also used for the treatment of Alzheimer's disease. Both drugs work by reversibly inhibiting AChE, allowing for increased acetylcholine levels and improved cognitive function.

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20.
Non-selective beta-antagonists, such as ________ are used to treat __________.

Explanation

Timolol and Levobunolol are non-selective beta-antagonists that are used to treat glaucoma. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, and these medications help to reduce the pressure by decreasing the production of aqueous humor in the eye.

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21.
Alpha1-selective antagonists include:

Explanation

Tamsulosin HCl [Flomax] is the correct answer because it is an alpha1-selective antagonist. Alpha1-selective antagonists are a class of drugs that block the alpha1-adrenergic receptors, which are found primarily in smooth muscle in the prostate, bladder neck, and urethra. Tamsulosin specifically targets the alpha1A-adrenergic receptors in the prostate, leading to relaxation of smooth muscle and improved urinary flow in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Timolol, carteolol, and yohimbine are not alpha1-selective antagonists, so they are not correct answers.

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22. Non-selective beta-antagonists have utility in treating _______________

Explanation

Non-selective beta-antagonists are a class of drugs that block the action of beta receptors in the body. These receptors are found in various organs and tissues, including the heart, blood vessels, and thyroid gland. By blocking these receptors, non-selective beta-antagonists can be used to treat different conditions. In the case of cardiac arrhythmias, these drugs can help regulate the heart's rhythm. They can also be used in the treatment of acute dissection aortic aneurysm to reduce the force on the heart. Additionally, non-selective beta-antagonists can be effective in preventing migraines by reducing the frequency and severity of attacks. Lastly, they can be used in the management of hyperthyroidism to block the effects of excess thyroid hormones. Therefore, all of the options mentioned are correct uses for non-selective beta-antagonists.

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23.
The purpose of treating Alzheimer's Disease symptoms with cholinomimetics is to _______________.

Explanation

Cholinomimetics are drugs that mimic the action of acetylcholine (ACh), a neurotransmitter involved in memory processes. By enhancing ACh-associated memory processes, these drugs can potentially improve cognitive function in individuals with Alzheimer's Disease. This explanation is supported by the fact that Alzheimer's Disease is characterized by a decrease in ACh levels in the brain, and cholinomimetics can help compensate for this deficiency.

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24.
_________ is an example of a non-selective sympathomimetic drug

Explanation

Epinephrine is an example of a non-selective sympathomimetic drug because it acts on both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. It stimulates the sympathetic nervous system, leading to increased heart rate, vasoconstriction, and bronchodilation. Epinephrine is commonly used in emergency situations to treat anaphylaxis, cardiac arrest, and severe asthma attacks. Its non-selective action allows it to have a wide range of effects on various organ systems in the body.

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25.
Ritodrine is a beta2-selective agonist

Explanation

Ritodrine is classified as a beta2-selective agonist because it specifically targets and activates beta2-adrenergic receptors. This means that it has a higher affinity for beta2 receptors compared to other subtypes, such as beta1 receptors. As a beta2 agonist, Ritodrine primarily acts on smooth muscles in the bronchioles and blood vessels, leading to bronchodilation and vasodilation. This makes it useful in medical settings for conditions such as asthma and premature labor.

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26.
Dextroamphetamine [Dexadrine] is a(n) ________________.

Explanation

Dextroamphetamine is classified as an indirect-acting sympathomimetic because it works by increasing the release and blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine in the brain. This leads to increased stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system, resulting in increased alertness, focus, and energy.

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27.
Methylphenidate [Ritalin] is an example of a(n) ________.

Explanation

Methylphenidate, also known as Ritalin, is classified as an indirect-acting sympathomimetic. This means that it enhances the release and inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine in the brain. By increasing the levels of these neurotransmitters, methylphenidate can improve attention, focus, and impulse control in individuals with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). This classification distinguishes methylphenidate from direct-acting sympathomimetics, which directly stimulate adrenergic receptors, and other types of agonists such as beta2 selective agonists and alpha1-selective agonists.

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28.
Edophonium and ambenonium are _______________.

Explanation

Edophonium and ambenonium are indirect-acting cholinomimetics because they inhibit the enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE), which is responsible for breaking down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh). By inhibiting AChE, these drugs increase the concentration of ACh in the synaptic cleft, leading to enhanced cholinergic neurotransmission and increased activation of cholinergic receptors. This results in various physiological effects, such as increased muscle strength and improved neuromuscular transmission in conditions like myasthenia gravis.

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29. Muscarinic antagonists constrict pupils (miosis) and decrease heart rate

Explanation

Muscarinic antagonists actually dilate pupils (mydriasis) instead of constricting them, and they increase heart rate instead of decreasing it. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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30. ___________  is an example of a b3-selective agonist.

Explanation

BRL 37344 is an example of a b3-selective agonist.

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31.
Alpha-1 selective agonists include ________________.

Explanation

Alpha-1 selective agonists are a class of drugs that specifically target and activate alpha-1 adrenergic receptors in the body. These receptors are found in various tissues and organs, including blood vessels and smooth muscles. Phenylephrine, mephentermine, meteraminol, and methoxamine are all examples of alpha-1 selective agonists. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as all of these drugs belong to the class of alpha-1 selective agonists.

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32.
Darifenacin is used to ________________.                

Explanation

Darifenacin is a medication that is used to decrease cholinergic drug side effects. Cholinergic drugs stimulate the activity of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, which can lead to various side effects such as increased heart rate (tachycardia). Darifenacin works by blocking the effects of acetylcholine in certain parts of the body, helping to reduce the unwanted side effects of cholinergic drugs.

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33.
Prazosin [Minipress] is a(n)_______________.

Explanation

Prazosin, also known as Minipress, is classified as an alpha1-selective antagonist. This means that it specifically blocks the alpha1-adrenergic receptors, which are found in smooth muscle tissues of blood vessels and the prostate gland. By blocking these receptors, prazosin causes relaxation of the smooth muscle, leading to vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure. It is commonly used to treat hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia.

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34. Based on the Atropine Sensitivity Curve, ___________ are most sensitive to the effects of muscarinic antagonism, while the  _____________ is least sensitive.

Explanation

The Atropine Sensitivity Curve indicates that the salivary glands are most sensitive to the effects of muscarinic antagonism, while the gastrointestinal tract is least sensitive. This means that when muscarinic receptors in the salivary glands are blocked by atropine, it will have a stronger effect on reducing salivation compared to the gastrointestinal tract.

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35.
Sarin, soman and tabun are ________________.

Explanation

Sarin, soman, and tabun are classified as indirect-acting cholinomimetics. This means that they do not directly bind to and activate cholinergic receptors, but instead inhibit the enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE), which is responsible for breaking down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. By inhibiting AChE, these substances increase the levels of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft, leading to excessive stimulation of cholinergic receptors. This can result in a range of symptoms, including muscle twitching, convulsions, respiratory distress, and ultimately, paralysis.

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36.
Tacrine is a _____________.

Explanation

Tacrine is classified as an indirect-acting cholinomimetic. This means that it increases the concentration of acetylcholine in the brain by inhibiting the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which breaks down acetylcholine. By inhibiting this enzyme, tacrine allows for increased levels of acetylcholine, which can improve cognitive function in patients with Alzheimer's disease.

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37.
Carteolol [Occupress] is a(n) ________________.

Explanation

Carteolol [Occupress] is classified as a non-selective beta-antagonist. This means that it blocks the beta receptors in the body, specifically the beta-1 and beta-2 receptors. By doing so, it reduces the effects of adrenaline and other stress hormones on the heart and blood vessels, leading to a decrease in heart rate and blood pressure. This class of medications is commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension and certain heart rhythm disorders.

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38.
CLD 11090 is an example of a beta3-selective agonist
 

Explanation

CLD 11090 is not an example of a beta3-selective agonist.

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39. The actions of a1- antagonists that decrease hypertension include _____________. 

Explanation

The actions of a1-antagonists that decrease hypertension include reducing peripheral resistance in the vasculature. This means that these drugs help to relax and widen the blood vessels, allowing blood to flow more easily and reducing the overall resistance to blood flow. By reducing peripheral resistance, the pressure on the walls of the blood vessels decreases, leading to a decrease in hypertension.

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40. Beta-antagonists treat glaucoma by _________

Explanation

Beta-antagonists treat glaucoma by inhibiting aqueous formation. They do this by blocking beta2 receptors on the nonpigmented ciliary epithelium, which reduces the production of aqueous humor. By blocking these receptors, the beta-antagonists decrease the amount of fluid being produced in the eye, helping to lower intraocular pressure and manage glaucoma. This mechanism of action is different from the other options listed, which involve different effects on the ciliary muscle, pupillary constriction, vasoconstriction, and pupil dilation.

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41.
Hypertension treatment with an alpha2 agonist, such as clonidine, works by _______________

Explanation

Clonidine, an alpha2 agonist, works by acting at autoreceptors to decrease sympathetic outflow. Autoreceptors are located on sympathetic nerve terminals and when activated, they inhibit the release of norepinephrine (NE), resulting in a decrease in sympathetic activity. By decreasing sympathetic outflow, clonidine helps to reduce vascular resistance and lower blood pressure.

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42. Fusaric acid is a(n) ____________.

Explanation

Fusaric acid is categorized as an indirect-acting sympatholytic. This means that it indirectly inhibits the sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the "fight or flight" response in the body. It does so by blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine, a neurotransmitter involved in the sympathetic nervous system. By preventing the reuptake of norepinephrine, fusaric acid prolongs its effects and reduces sympathetic activity, leading to a decrease in the "fight or flight" response.

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43.
_______would be an example of a Beta2-selective agonist.

Explanation

Terbutaline [Brethine] would be an example of a Beta2-selective agonist. This means that it specifically targets and activates the Beta2 receptors in the body. Propranolol, epinephrine, and isoproterenol, on the other hand, are non-selective beta agonists, meaning they activate both Beta1 and Beta2 receptors. Therefore, terbutaline is the only option that fits the criteria of being a Beta2-selective agonist.

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44.
Flavoxate hydrochoride [Urispas] and Dicyclomine hydrochloride [Bentyl] are _______________.

Explanation

Flavoxate hydrochloride [Urispas] and Dicyclomine hydrochloride [Bentyl] are muscarinic antagonists. Muscarinic antagonists block the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors, which are found in various tissues in the body. By blocking these receptors, muscarinic antagonists can inhibit the effects of acetylcholine, such as smooth muscle contractions and secretions. Flavoxate hydrochloride and Dicyclomine hydrochloride are commonly used to treat conditions such as urinary bladder spasms and irritable bowel syndrome, where excessive smooth muscle contractions are present.

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45.
Parathion and malathion are ______________.

Explanation

Parathion and malathion are two of these choices is correct. Both parathion and malathion are organophosphate insecticides that act as irreversible acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitors. This means that they inhibit the enzyme responsible for breaking down acetylcholine, leading to an accumulation of acetylcholine at the synapses and overstimulation of cholinergic receptors. This results in symptoms of cholinergic poisoning. Therefore, they can be classified as indirect-acting cholinomimetics. Additionally, they can also be considered as parasympatholytics because they inhibit the parasympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for rest and digest activities.

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46.
Biperidin [Akineton] is a ________________.

Explanation

Biperidin [Akineton] is classified as a muscarinic/nicotinic antagonist. This means that it blocks the action of acetylcholine (ACh) at both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors. By inhibiting ACh from binding to these receptors, biperidin reduces the activity of the parasympathetic nervous system, leading to a decrease in cholinergic effects. This can be useful in treating conditions such as Parkinson's disease, where there is an excess of ACh activity.

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47. The alphas-antagonist, yohimbine, increases blood pressure and heart rate by an action on:

Explanation

Yohimbine, an alpha-antagonist, increases blood pressure and heart rate by acting on pre-synaptic autoreceptors. Autoreceptors are located on the presynaptic neuron and regulate the release of neurotransmitters. By blocking these autoreceptors, yohimbine enhances the release of norepinephrine, leading to increased sympathetic activity, vasoconstriction, and elevated blood pressure and heart rate.

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48.
______________ is a(n) M2 selective antagonist.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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49.
Isoproterenol [Isuprel] is an example of a(n)_________.

Explanation

Isoproterenol [Isuprel] is classified as a direct-acting sympathomimetic because it directly stimulates the beta-adrenergic receptors in the sympathetic nervous system. This leads to various physiological effects such as increased heart rate, bronchodilation, and vasodilation. Isoproterenol does not have selectivity for specific adrenergic receptor subtypes, making it a non-selective agonist. Therefore, the correct answer is direct-acting sympathomimetic.

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50.
The following drugs activate alpha2 receptors:

Explanation

Apraclonidine and Clonidine are both drugs that activate alpha2 receptors. These drugs are commonly used in the treatment of glaucoma (Apraclonidine) and hypertension (Clonidine). Activation of alpha2 receptors leads to a decrease in sympathetic outflow from the central nervous system, resulting in a decrease in blood pressure. Epinephrine, Terbutaline, and Dobutamine do not activate alpha2 receptors, but instead have different mechanisms of action.

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The acetylcholinesterase enzyme ____________________.
Albuterol [Ventolin, Proventil] treats bronchospasm by relaxing...
Muscarinic antagonists treat peptic ulcer by __________.
Cholinomimetics relieve symptoms of Sjogrens syndrome by...
Telenzepine is a M1-selective antagonist  
Alpha1-antagonists treat benign prostatic hyperplasia via relaxing...
B1-antagonists are most selective for receptors located ...
Propranolol [Inderal] is used to treat ___________.
_______________ is an alpha2-selective antagonist.
Scopolamine is a ___________ and a(n) _____________ that is used for...
Tiotropium bromide [Spiriva] is a ___________ used as a treatment for...
Nicotinic and/or muscarinic receptors are located in
Indirect-acting sympatholytics include:
Physostigmine and revastigmine are reversible AChE inhibitors
Tolterodine tartrate [Detrol LA] is a ____________ used as a treatment...
Direct-acting cholinomimetics include _________
Irreversible AChE inhibitors include:
Fusaric acid is a neurotransmitter synthesis inhibitor...
Reversible AChE inhibitors include:
Non-selective beta-antagonists, such as ________ are used to treat...
Alpha1-selective antagonists include:
Non-selective beta-antagonists have utility in treating...
The purpose of treating Alzheimer's Disease symptoms with...
_________ is an example of a non-selective sympathomimetic drug
Ritodrine is a beta2-selective agonist
Dextroamphetamine [Dexadrine] is a(n) ________________.
Methylphenidate [Ritalin] is an example of a(n) ________.
Edophonium and ambenonium are _______________.
Muscarinic antagonists constrict pupils (miosis) and decrease heart...
___________  is an example of a b3-selective agonist.
Alpha-1 selective agonists include ________________.
Darifenacin is used to ________________.        ...
Prazosin [Minipress] is a(n)_______________.
Based on the Atropine Sensitivity Curve, ___________ are most...
Sarin, soman and tabun are ________________.
Tacrine is a _____________.
Carteolol [Occupress] is a(n) ________________.
CLD 11090 is an example of a beta3-selective agonist...
The actions of a1- antagonists that decrease hypertension include...
Beta-antagonists treat glaucoma by _________
Hypertension treatment with an alpha2 agonist, such as clonidine,...
Fusaric acid is a(n) ____________.
_______would be an example of a Beta2-selective agonist.
Flavoxate hydrochoride [Urispas] and Dicyclomine hydrochloride...
Parathion and malathion are ______________.
Biperidin [Akineton] is a ________________.
The alphas-antagonist, yohimbine, increases blood pressure and heart...
______________ is a(n) M2 selective antagonist.
Isoproterenol [Isuprel] is an example of a(n)_________.
The following drugs activate alpha2 receptors:
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