Let's Test Your Pharmacology Knowledge With This Quiz

50 Questions

Settings
Please wait...
Pharmacology Quizzes & Trivia

This includes the 2009 Exam, quizzes, and some of the 2007 Exam. Each year had almost all repeats. . . So let's hope it stays that way


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Beta-antagonists treat glaucoma by _________
    • A. 

      Inhibiting aqueous formation by blocking beta2 receptors on nonpigmented ciliary epithelium

    • B. 

      Contraction of the ciliary muscle and pupillary constriction, thus increase aqueous humor drainage

    • C. 

      Vasoconstriction to blood vessels that increase aqueous humor production

    • D. 

      Dilation of the pupil and cycloplegia

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 2. 
    Hypertension treatment with an alpha2 agonist, such as clonidine, works by _______________
    • A. 

      Decreasing vasular resistance by directly blocking adrenergic receptors

    • B. 

      Acting at autoreceptors to decrease sympathetic outflow

    • C. 

      Reducing heart rate and contractility

    • D. 

      Displacement of NE from vesicular storage with a non-efficacious substitute

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 3. 
    Cholinomimetics relieve symptoms of Sjogrens syndrome by ______________.
    • A. 

      Relaxation of the smooth muscle in the bladder neck and urethra

    • B. 

      Dilating bronchial airways

    • C. 

      Increasing secretions of salivary and tear glands

    • D. 

      Enhancing release of DA and NE

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 4. 
    The purpose of treating Alzheimer's Disease symptoms with cholinomimetics is to _______________.
    • A. 

      Increase blood flow to cognitive brain areas

    • B. 

      Block memory-inhibiting effects of sympathomimetics

    • C. 

      Enhance ACh-associated memory processes

    • D. 

      Prevent neuronal degeneration

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 5. 
    Muscarinic antagonists treat peptic ulcer by __________.
    • A. 

      Reducing gastric motility and gastric acid secretion

    • B. 

      Increasing secretions of gastric epithelium

    • C. 

      Inhibition of cholinesterase enzymes in the stomach

    • D. 

      Vasoconstriction to decrease blood flow to the esophagus

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 6. 
    Alpha-1 selective agonists include ________________.
    • A. 

      Phenylephrine [Neosynephrine]

    • B. 

      Mephentermine [Wyamine Sulfate]

    • C. 

      Meteraminol [Aramine]

    • D. 

      Methoxamine [Vasoxyl]

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 7. 
    Darifenacin is used to ________________.                
    • A. 

      Block cholinergic tachycardia

    • B. 

      Treat COPD

    • C. 

      Treat nerve gas poisoning

    • D. 

      Enhance epithelial secretions

    • E. 

      Decrease cholinergic drug side effects

  • 8. 
    Indirect-acting sympatholytics include:
    • A. 

      Alpha-methyldopa

    • B. 

      Guanadrel [Hylorel]

    • C. 

      Carbidopa

    • D. 

      Three of these is correct...

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 9. 
    The following drugs activate alpha2 receptors:
    • A. 

      Apraclonidine [Iopidine] and Clonidine [Catapres]

    • B. 

      Epinephrine

    • C. 

      Terbutaline

    • D. 

      Dobutamine

    • E. 

      Two are correct

  • 10. 
    Direct-acting cholinomimetics include _________
    • A. 

      Bethanecol and cevimeline

    • B. 

      Physostigmine and neostigmine

    • C. 

      Pilocarpine and carbachol

    • D. 

      Ecothiophate and isofluophate

    • E. 

      Two of these choices is correct

  • 11. 
    Biperidin [Akineton] is a ________________.
    • A. 

      Indirect-acting sympathomimetic

    • B. 

      M2 selective agonist

    • C. 

      Reversible AChE inhibitor

    • D. 

      Direct-acting adrenergic agonist

    • E. 

      Muscarinic/nicotinic antagonist

  • 12. 
    Tolterodine tartrate [Detrol LA] is a ____________ used as a treatment for ______________.
    • A. 

      Muscarinic antagonist; chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

    • B. 

      Reversible AChE inhibitor; secretions

    • C. 

      Muscarinic antagonist; overactive bladder

    • D. 

      Non-selective alpha-antagonist, hypertension

    • E. 

      M1 selective antagonist; peptic ulcer

  • 13. 
    Parathion and malathion are ______________.
    • A. 

      Parasympatholytics

    • B. 

      Irreversible AChE inhibitors

    • C. 

      Indirect-acting cholinomimetics

    • D. 

      Direct-acting cholinomimetics

    • E. 

      Two of these choices is correct

  • 14. 
    Non-selective beta-antagonists, such as ________ are used to treat __________.
    • A. 

      Nadolol [Corgard] and Pindolol [Visken]; bradycardia

    • B. 

      Timolol [Timoptic] and Levobunolol [Betagan]; glaucoma

    • C. 

      Acebutolol [Sectral], Atenolol [Tenormin]; ADHD

    • D. 

      Isoproterenol [Isuprel] and Dobutamine [Dobutrex]; hypertension

    • E. 

      Apraclonidine [Iopidine] and Clonidine [Catapres]; intraocular pressure

  • 15. 
    Dextroamphetamine [Dexadrine] is a(n) ________________.
    • A. 

      Non-selective beta-antagonist

    • B. 

      Indirect-acting sympathomimetic

    • C. 

      M1 selective antagonist

    • D. 

      M3 selective antagonist

    • E. 

      Direct-acting sympatholytic

  • 16. 
    Sarin, soman and tabun are ________________.
    • A. 

      Parasympatholytics

    • B. 

      Direct-acting cholinomimetics

    • C. 

      Reversible AChE Inhibitors

    • D. 

      Indirect-acting cholinomimetics

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 17. 
    _______would be an example of a Beta2-selective agonist.
    • A. 

      Propranolol

    • B. 

      Epinephrine

    • C. 

      Terbutaline [Brethine]

    • D. 

      Isoproterenol

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 18. 
    Methylphenidate [Ritalin] is an example of a(n) ________.
    • A. 

      Indirect-acting sympathomimetic

    • B. 

      Beta2 selective agonist

    • C. 

      Direct-acting sympathomimetic

    • D. 

      Alpha1-selective agonist

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 19. 
    Edophonium and ambenonium are _______________.
    • A. 

      Direct-acting cholinomimetics

    • B. 

      Indirect-acting cholinomimetics

    • C. 

      Irreversible AChE inhibitors

    • D. 

      Parasympatholytics

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 20. 
    Propranolol [Inderal] is used to treat ___________.
    • A. 

      COPD

    • B. 

      Peptic ulcer

    • C. 

      Stuff nose

    • D. 

      Benign prostate hyperplasia

    • E. 

      Hypertension

  • 21. 
    _______________ is an alpha2-selective antagonist.
    • A. 

      Clonidine [Catapres]

    • B. 

      Yohimbine [Yocon]

    • C. 

      Metoprolol [Lopressor]

    • D. 

      Esmolol [Brevibloc]

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 22. 
    Tacrine is a _____________.
    • A. 

      M3 selective antagonist

    • B. 

      Direct-acting sympathomimetic

    • C. 

      Indirect-acting cholinomimetic

    • D. 

      Non-selective muscarinic agaonist

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 23. 
    Alpha1-selective antagonists include:
    • A. 

      Timolol [Blocadren]

    • B. 

      Carteolol [Occupress]

    • C. 

      Yohimbine [Yocon]

    • D. 

      Tamsulosin HCl [Flomax]

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 24. 
    Scopolamine is a ___________ and a(n) _____________ that is used for _____________.
    • A. 

      M1; M3 selective antagonists, COPD treatment

    • B. 

      M1; M4 selective antagonist; peptic ulcer

    • C. 

      Muscarinic antagonist; antispasmodic; bladder-specific actions

    • D. 

      Muscarinic antagonist; belladonna alkaloid; motion sickness

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 25. 
    Isoproterenol [Isuprel] is an example of a(n)_________.
    • A. 

      Direct-acting sympathomimetic

    • B. 

      Alpha1-selective agonist

    • C. 

      Non-selective alpha-agonist

    • D. 

      M3-selective antagonist

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 26. 
    _________ is an example of a non-selective sympathomimetic drug
    • A. 

      Phenylephrine

    • B. 

      Apraclonidine

    • C. 

      Epinephrine

    • D. 

      Mephentermine

    • E. 

      Methoxamine

  • 27. 
    Flavoxate hydrochoride [Urispas] and Dicyclomine hydrochloride [Bentyl] are _______________.
    • A. 

      Beta-agonists

    • B. 

      Muscarinic agonists

    • C. 

      Indirect-acting cholinomimetics

    • D. 

      Reversible AChE inhibitors

    • E. 

      Muscarinic antagonists

  • 28. 
    ______________ is a(n) M2 selective antagonist.
    • A. 

      Homatropine

    • B. 

      Telenzepine

    • C. 

      Pirenzepine

    • D. 

      Darifenacine

    • E. 

      Tripitamine

  • 29. 
    Irreversible AChE inhibitors include:
    • A. 

      Isoflurophate and malathion

    • B. 

      Ecothiophate and parathion

    • C. 

      Darifenacine and tripitamine

    • D. 

      Carbachol and cevimeline

    • E. 

      Two of these choices is correct

  • 30. 
    Tiotropium bromide [Spiriva] is a ___________ used as a treatment for _____________.
    • A. 

      Muscarinic antagonist; eye examinations

    • B. 

      Indirect-acting sympathomimetic; inattention

    • C. 

      M1/M3 selective antagonist; cholinergic-induced bradycardia

    • D. 

      Direct-acting cholinomimetics; Sjogren's syndrome

    • E. 

      M1/M3 selective antagonist; COPD

  • 31. 
    Prazosin [Minipress] is a(n)_______________.
    • A. 

      Alpha1-selective agonist

    • B. 

      Non-selective beta-antagonist

    • C. 

      Alpha1-selective antagonist

    • D. 

      Beta-agonist

    • E. 

      Parasympatholytic

  • 32. 
    Carteolol [Occupress] is a(n) ________________.
    • A. 

      Alpha1-selective antagonist

    • B. 

      Alpha1-selective agonist

    • C. 

      Non-selective beta-antagonist

    • D. 

      Non-selective alpha-agonist

    • E. 

      Alpha2-selective antagonist

  • 33. 
    Ritodrine is a beta2-selective agonist
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 34. 
    Telenzepine is a M1-selective antagonist  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 35. 
    Fusaric acid is a neurotransmitter synthesis inhibitor  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 36. 
    Albuterol [Ventolin, Proventil] treats bronchospasm by relaxing bronchial smooth muscle
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 37. 
    Alpha1-antagonists treat benign prostatic hyperplasia via relaxing smooth muscle in bladder neck, prostate and urethra, which result in increased urinary flow.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 38. 
    CLD 11090 is an example of a beta3-selective agonist  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 39. 
    Physostigmine and revastigmine are reversible AChE inhibitors
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 40. 
    Nicotinic and/or muscarinic receptors are located in
    • A. 

      Postganglionic parasympathetic nervous system

    • B. 

      Sweat glands

    • C. 

      Brain

    • D. 

      Neuromuscular junction

    • E. 

      All of these are correct

  • 41. 
    The acetylcholinesterase enzyme ____________________.
    • A. 

      Is a very small molecule

    • B. 

      Prolongs cholinergic signal transmission

    • C. 

      Causes rapid hydrolysis of acetylcholine

    • D. 

      Enters a gorge in the large ACh molecule

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 42. 
    Muscarinic antagonists constrict pupils (miosis) and decrease heart rate
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 43. 
    Based on the Atropine Sensitivity Curve, ___________ are most sensitive to the effects of muscarinic antagonism, while the  _____________ is least sensitive.
    • A. 

      Salivary glands; gastrointestinal tract

    • B. 

      Pupillary muscles, heart

    • C. 

      Urinary tracts, lungs

    • D. 

      Cardiac events, ciliary muscles

    • E. 

      All

  • 44. 
    The actions of a1- antagonists that decrease hypertension include _____________. 
    • A. 

      Relaxing smooth muscle in bladder neck, prostate and urethra

    • B. 

      Reducing peripheral resistance in vasculature

    • C. 

      Slowing down heart rate

    • D. 

      Intracavernous vasodilation

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 45. 
    The alphas-antagonist, yohimbine, increases blood pressure and heart rate by an action on:
    • A. 

      Pre-synaptic autoreceptors

    • B. 

      Post-synaptic receptors on the heart muscle

    • C. 

      Peripheral nicotinic receptors

    • D. 

      Sympathetic uptake inhibitors

    • E. 

      All are correct

  • 46. 
    B1-antagonists are most selective for receptors located  ________________.
    • A. 

      In the respiratory system

    • B. 

      On cardiac muscle

    • C. 

      On lipid cells

    • D. 

      In the liver

    • E. 

      On muscle tissue

  • 47. 
    Non-selective beta-antagonists have utility in treating _______________
    • A. 

      Cardiac arrhythmias

    • B. 

      Acute dissection aortic aneurysm

    • C. 

      Migraine prevention

    • D. 

      Hyperthyroidism

    • E. 

      All are correct

  • 48. 
    Reversible AChE inhibitors include:
    • A. 

      Physostigmine and rivastigmine

    • B. 

      Pilocarpine and bethanecol

    • C. 

      Tropicamide and homatropine

    • D. 

      Carbachol and isoflurophate

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 49. 
    Fusaric acid is a(n) ____________.
    • A. 

      M1 selective antagonist

    • B. 

      M3 selective antagonist

    • C. 

      Direct-acting sympatholytic

    • D. 

      Non-selective beta-antagonist

    • E. 

      Indirect-acting sympatholytic

  • 50. 
    ___________  is an example of a b3-selective agonist.
    • A. 

      ICI 118551

    • B. 

      CGP 20712A

    • C. 

      BRL 37344

    • D. 

      CLD 11090

    • E. 

      RAG 15192