Pharmacology Quinolones
Quinolones
not too short anymore eh?
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Quinolones work on which mechanism to kill bacteria?
- A.
Inhibit topoisomerase II
- B.
Inhibit topoisomerase IV
- C.
Inhibit DNA gyrase
- D.
Inhibit cell wall production
- E.
Inhibit cell membrane permeability
Correct Answer(s)
B. Inhibit topoisomerase IV
C. Inhibit DNA gyraseExplanation
Quinolones are a class of antibiotics that work by inhibiting the enzymes topoisomerase IV and DNA gyrase. These enzymes are involved in the replication and repair of bacterial DNA. By inhibiting these enzymes, quinolones prevent the bacteria from properly replicating their DNA, leading to cell death. This mechanism of action makes quinolones effective in killing bacteria.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Where are FQNs concentrated/what systems are they used to treat?
- A.
Liver/hepatosepsis
- B.
GI tract infection
- C.
Urinary tract infections
- D.
Lungs infection
- E.
Kidney infection
Correct Answer(s)
B. GI tract infection
C. Urinary tract infections
D. Lungs infection
E. Kidney infectionExplanation
The FQNs, or fluoroquinolones, are concentrated and used to treat GI tract infections, urinary tract infections, lung infections, and kidney infections. These antibiotics are effective against a wide range of bacterial infections in these specific systems.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following quinolones has a halflife longer than 6 hours? OR are all of the halflives for FQNs the same?
- A.
Ciprofloxacin
- B.
Lomefloxacin
- C.
Sparfloxacin
- D.
Moxifloxacin
- E.
Nalidixic acid
Correct Answer(s)
B. Lomefloxacin
C. SparfloxacinExplanation
Lomefloxacin and sparfloxacin have a longer half-life than 6 hours compared to the other quinolones listed. Half-life refers to the time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body. A longer half-life indicates that the drug stays in the body for a longer duration, allowing for less frequent dosing. In contrast, ciprofloxacin, moxifloxacin, and nalidixic acid have shorter half-lives.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which groups on the FQN molecule add potency or extended spectrum?
- A.
Fluorine
- B.
Pipirizine ring adds gram negative action
- C.
COOH group adds gram negative action
- D.
Other side chains
Correct Answer(s)
A. Fluorine
B. Pipirizine ring adds gram negative actionExplanation
The fluorine group on the FQN molecule adds potency or extended spectrum. Additionally, the pipirizine ring adds gram negative action. The COOH group also adds gram negative action. Other side chains may also contribute to potency or extended spectrum, but the specific details are not provided in the given information.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Metal binding and chelation are caused by which structure on a flouroquinolone?
- A.
N group
- B.
Fluorine
- C.
Pipirizine ring
- D.
Keto group
- E.
COOH
Correct Answer(s)
D. Keto group
E. COOHExplanation
The correct answer is the keto group and COOH. Metal binding and chelation in a fluoroquinolone are caused by the presence of the keto group and the COOH (carboxyl) group. These functional groups have the ability to bind with metal ions, forming complexes that are important for the antimicrobial activity of fluoroquinolones. The keto group and COOH group are responsible for the coordination of metal ions, which can enhance the effectiveness of the drug in treating bacterial infections.Rate this question:
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- 6.
FQNs interact with what drugs?
- A.
Theophylline
- B.
NSAIDs
- C.
Polyvalent cations
- D.
APAP
- E.
Penicillin
Correct Answer(s)
A. TheopHylline
B. NSAIDs
C. Polyvalent cationsExplanation
FQNs, or fluoroquinolones, interact with theophylline, NSAIDs, and polyvalent cations. Theophylline is a medication used to treat asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and when taken with FQNs, it can lead to increased theophylline levels in the blood, potentially causing toxicity. NSAIDs, which are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, can also interact with FQNs and increase the risk of seizures. Polyvalent cations, such as magnesium, aluminum, calcium, and iron, can bind to FQNs and reduce their absorption, leading to decreased effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What are important adverse effects for FQNs?
- A.
Phototoxicity
- B.
Genetic toxicity (contra'd in pregnancy)
- C.
Ototoxicity
- D.
Renal toxicity
- E.
Liver toxicity
Correct Answer(s)
A. pHototoxicity
B. Genetic toxicity (contra'd in pregnancy)Explanation
The important adverse effects for FQNs include phototoxicity, which refers to the increased sensitivity of the skin to sunlight, and genetic toxicity, which is contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential harm to the developing fetus. Other adverse effects mentioned, such as ototoxicity (harm to the ears), renal toxicity (harm to the kidneys), and liver toxicity (harm to the liver), are not specifically listed as important adverse effects for FQNs in the given options.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following are particularly sensitive to FQNs?
- A.
Mycoplasma pneumonia
- B.
Legionella
- C.
Chlamydia
- D.
Staphylococcus
- E.
Mycobacterium
Correct Answer(s)
A. Mycoplasma pneumonia
B. Legionella
C. Chlamydia
E. MycobacteriumExplanation
Mycoplasma pneumonia, Legionella, Chlamydia, and Mycobacterium are particularly sensitive to FQNs (Fluoroquinolones). FQNs are a class of antibiotics that are effective against a wide range of bacteria, including these specific pathogens. These bacteria are known to be susceptible to the action of FQNs, making them an appropriate choice for treatment in infections caused by these organisms. Staphylococcus, on the other hand, is not particularly sensitive to FQNs and may require alternative antibiotics for effective treatment.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which are of the following are sensitive to fluoroquinolones in general?
- A.
Salmonella and E Coli
- B.
Neisseria gonorrhea
- C.
Klebsiella
- D.
MRSA
- E.
Haemophilus
Correct Answer(s)
A. Salmonella and E Coli
B. Neisseria gonorrhea
C. Klebsiella
E. HaemopHilusExplanation
Fluoroquinolones are a class of antibiotics that inhibit the activity of DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, enzymes necessary for bacterial DNA replication, transcription, repair, and recombination. Salmonella and E. coli, Neisseria gonorrhea, Klebsiella, and Haemophilus are all sensitive to fluoroquinolones because these bacteria rely on the activity of DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV for their survival and growth. MRSA, on the other hand, is not sensitive to fluoroquinolones as it possesses a different mechanism of resistance.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which FQN is used more to treat Pseudomonis aeruginosa?
- A.
Moxifloxacin
- B.
Levofloxacin
- C.
Nalidixic Acid
- D.
Ciprofloxacin
- E.
Sprafloxacin
Correct Answer
D. CiprofloxacinExplanation
Ciprofloxacin is used more to treat Pseudomonas aeruginosa because it is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that is highly effective against this particular bacteria. It belongs to the fluoroquinolone class of antibiotics and has been found to have good activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa strains. Ciprofloxacin works by inhibiting the DNA gyrase enzyme, which is essential for bacterial DNA replication and repair. Its effectiveness, along with its relatively low resistance rates, makes ciprofloxacin a preferred choice for treating infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which FQN is preferred to treat Enterococci?
- A.
Ciprofloxacin
- B.
Moxifloxacin
- C.
Sparfloxacin
- D.
Levofloxacin
- E.
Nalidixic acid
Correct Answer
C. SparfloxacinExplanation
Sparfloxacin is the preferred FQN (fluoroquinolone) to treat Enterococci. Enterococci are bacteria that can cause infections in the urinary tract, bloodstream, and other parts of the body. Sparfloxacin is effective against Enterococci due to its broad-spectrum activity against gram-positive bacteria, including Enterococci. It has been found to have higher efficacy and lower rates of resistance compared to other fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin, moxifloxacin, levofloxacin, and nalidixic acid. Therefore, sparfloxacin is the recommended choice for treating Enterococci infections.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which FQN is preferred to treat bacteroides?
- A.
Moxifloxacin
- B.
Levofloxacin
- C.
Ciprofloxacin
- D.
Nalidixic acid
- E.
Sprafloxacin
Correct Answer
A. MoxifloxacinExplanation
Moxifloxacin is the preferred FQN (fluoroquinolone) to treat bacteroides. This is because moxifloxacin has a broad spectrum of activity against anaerobic bacteria, including bacteroides. It has excellent penetration into tissues, making it effective in treating various infections caused by bacteroides. Additionally, moxifloxacin has a low resistance rate compared to other fluoroquinolones, making it a preferred choice for treating bacteroides infections.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which FQN is preferred to treat Streptococci/
- A.
Ciprofloxacin
- B.
Nalidixic acid
- C.
Moxifloxacin
- D.
Levofloxacin
- E.
Sparfloxacin
Correct Answer(s)
C. Moxifloxacin
D. LevofloxacinExplanation
Moxifloxacin and levofloxacin are the preferred FQNs (fluoroquinolones) for treating Streptococci because they have a broader spectrum of activity against gram-positive bacteria, including Streptococci, compared to ciprofloxacin and nalidixic acid. Sparfloxacin is also effective against Streptococci, but it is not commonly used due to its association with serious side effects. Therefore, moxifloxacin and levofloxacin are the preferred choices for treating Streptococci infections.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following are indications for FQNs?
- A.
UTIs
- B.
Bacterial gastroenteritis
- C.
Skin infection
- D.
Pneumonia
- E.
Oral infection
Correct Answer(s)
A. UTIs
B. Bacterial gastroenteritis
D. PneumoniaExplanation
FQNs, or Fluoroquinolones, are a class of antibiotics that are commonly used to treat various types of infections. UTIs (Urinary Tract Infections), bacterial gastroenteritis, and pneumonia are all indications for FQNs because these antibiotics are effective against the bacteria that commonly cause these infections. However, FQNs may not be the first-line treatment for skin infections or oral infections, as there are often other antibiotics that are more effective for these specific types of infections.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which FQNs are likely to cause long QT syndrome?
- A.
Moxifloxacin
- B.
Moxifloxacin
- C.
Ciprofloxacin
- D.
Sprafloxacin
- E.
Nalidixic acid
Correct Answer(s)
B. Moxifloxacin
D. SprafloxacinExplanation
Moxifloxacin and sprafloxacin are likely to cause long QT syndrome.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which effects are most common for FQs?
- A.
GI disturbances
- B.
Photosensitivity
- C.
CNS toxicity
- D.
Myalgia
Correct Answer(s)
A. GI disturbances
B. pHotosensitivity
C. CNS toxicityExplanation
The most common effects for FQs are gastrointestinal (GI) disturbances, photosensitivity, and CNS toxicity. GI disturbances refer to side effects such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea that can occur when taking FQs. Photosensitivity is a reaction of the skin to sunlight or ultraviolet (UV) light, causing increased sensitivity and potential skin damage. CNS toxicity refers to adverse effects on the central nervous system, such as dizziness, confusion, and seizures. Myalgia, which refers to muscle pain, is not listed as one of the most common effects for FQs.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What do Nalidixic acid, Methenamine, and nitrofurantoin have in common?
- A.
They are all FQNs
- B.
They concentrate in the urine
- C.
They are wide spectrum antibiotics
- D.
They are mainly used to combat UTIs
- E.
They all damage the DNA of invading bacteria
Correct Answer(s)
B. They concentrate in the urine
D. They are mainly used to combat UTIs
E. They all damage the DNA of invading bacteriaExplanation
Nalidixic acid, Methenamine, and nitrofurantoin have several common characteristics. Firstly, they all concentrate in the urine, which makes them effective in treating urinary tract infections (UTIs). Additionally, they are mainly used to combat UTIs, further highlighting their shared purpose. Lastly, these antibiotics all damage the DNA of invading bacteria, which contributes to their bactericidal effects.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which of the following are more active in lower pH?
- A.
Methenamine
- B.
NAlidixic Acid
- C.
Nitrofurantoin
- D.
Ciprofloxacin
- E.
Moxifloxacin
Correct Answer(s)
A. Methenamine
C. NitrofurantoinExplanation
Methenamine and nitrofurantoin are more active in lower pH because they are weak acids that become ionized and more soluble in acidic environments. In lower pH, the concentration of hydrogen ions increases, causing these drugs to dissociate into their active forms more readily. This increased solubility allows for better absorption and enhanced antimicrobial activity. On the other hand, nalidixic acid, ciprofloxacin, and moxifloxacin are fluoroquinolone antibiotics that are not significantly affected by pH and maintain their activity across a wide range of pH levels.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which drugs are affected by Metronidazole and why?
- A.
Only aerobic are affected because they activate nitroreductase
- B.
Only gram negative are affected because they allow penetration of the cell much easier
- C.
Only anaerobic species are affected because they activate nitroreductase
- D.
Only gram positive are affected because they allow penetration of cell much easier
Correct Answer
C. Only anaerobic species are affected because they activate nitroreductaseExplanation
Metronidazole is a drug that is specifically effective against anaerobic species because they activate nitroreductase. Nitroreductase is an enzyme that helps in the activation of metronidazole, making it toxic to anaerobic bacteria. This drug is not effective against aerobic species because they do not activate nitroreductase. Therefore, only anaerobic species are affected by metronidazole due to their ability to activate the necessary enzyme for the drug's action.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following are affected by metronidazole?
- A.
Anaerobic bacteria
- B.
Aerobic bacteria
- C.
Bacteroides
- D.
Gram positive bacteria
- E.
Parasites
Correct Answer(s)
A. Anaerobic bacteria
C. Bacteroides
D. Gram positive bacteria
E. ParasitesExplanation
Metronidazole is an antibiotic that primarily targets anaerobic bacteria. It is effective against a wide range of anaerobic bacteria, including Bacteroides and some gram-positive bacteria. Additionally, metronidazole is also used to treat parasitic infections caused by certain parasites. Therefore, the correct answer includes anaerobic bacteria, Bacteroides, gram-positive bacteria, and parasites.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What are common side effects of metronidazole?
- A.
Reddish brown urine
- B.
Cramping and GI effects
- C.
Cartialge damage
- D.
Thrush and Yeast infection
- E.
Hepatitis
Correct Answer(s)
A. Reddish brown urine
B. Cramping and GI effects
D. Thrush and Yeast infectionExplanation
Common side effects of metronidazole include reddish brown urine, cramping and gastrointestinal effects, and thrush and yeast infections. These side effects are commonly reported by individuals taking metronidazole.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following are specialized non-FQNs used for UTIs exclusively?
- A.
Metronidazole
- B.
Moxifloxacin
- C.
Nalidixic acid
- D.
Nitrofurantoin
- E.
Methenzmine
Correct Answer(s)
C. Nalidixic acid
D. Nitrofurantoin
E. MethenzmineExplanation
The correct answer options, nalidixic acid, nitrofurantoin, and methenzmine, are all specialized non-FQNs (fluoroquinolones) that are used exclusively for treating UTIs (urinary tract infections). These medications have specific mechanisms of action that target and kill the bacteria causing the infection in the urinary tract. Metronidazole and moxifloxacin are not specialized non-FQNs used exclusively for UTIs, so they are not the correct answer options.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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