Pathology Spring Review

108 Questions | Attempts: 130
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Pathology Quizzes & Trivia

From Leanne's reviews.  Derm:15-25,61-63,69,73,77,81,  Kidney/urogenital:1-14,54-60,64,67,71,72,78,80,82,83  CNS/pns:29-40,66,68,74,75,79,85,94-114  Heart:44,65,115  Lung:26-28,41-43,45-53,70,76,84,86-93  Infectious:46,47,50,51,117-119  ? :41,94,116
trade 76 and 8581 and 79 with 64 and 67.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1. Which is not seen with nephrotic syndrome?

    • A.

      Proteinuria

    • B.

      Hypolipidemia

    • C.

      Hypoalbuminemia

    • D.

      Hematuria

    Correct Answer
    D. Hematuria
  • 2. 

    2. Wilm's tumor is also known as what?

    • A.

      Hypernephroma

    • B.

      Nephroblastoma

    • C.

      Renal cell carcinoma

    • D.

      Adenocarcinoma

    Correct Answer
    B. Nephroblastoma
  • 3. 

    3. 90% of the time a horseshoe kidney fuses at the lower pole.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
  • 4. 

    4. Polycystic kindeys show an _______ in mass?

    • A.

      Increase

    • B.

      Decrease

    • C.

      No change

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase
  • 5. 

    5. Cellular proliferation within Bowman's capsule, associated with RPGN, produces what type of microscopic lesion?

    • A.

      Diffuse thickening of capillary wall

    • B.

      Crescent formation

    • C.

      Hyalinization

    Correct Answer
    B. Crescent formation
  • 6. 

    6. A hypertrophied kidney with a granular cortical surface is indicative of what disease?

    • A.

      SBE

    • B.

      Acute glomerulonephritis

    • C.

      Chronic glomerulonephritis

    • D.

      RPGN

    Correct Answer
    C. Chronic glomerulonephritis
  • 7. 

    7. A focal nodular glomerulosclerotic lesion in a diabetic patient is seen with what disease?

    • A.

      Kimmelsteil-Wilson disease

    • B.

      Alport syndrome

    • C.

      Focal-Segmental glomurulosclerosis

    • D.

      Amyloidosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Kimmelsteil-Wilson disease
  • 8. 

    8. Acute tubular necrosis leads to ?

    • A.

      Medullary sponge kidney

    • B.

      Wegener granulomatosis

    • C.

      Chronic renal failure

    • D.

      Acute renal failure

    Correct Answer
    D. Acute renal failure
  • 9. 

    9. The most common cause of acute pyelonephritis is infection with what etiological agent?

    • A.

      E. coli

    • B.

      Proteus

    • C.

      Klebsiella

    • D.

      Enterobacter

    • E.

      Staphylococcus

    Correct Answer
    A. E. coli
  • 10. 

    10. Fibrinoid necrosis is an important attribute in distinguishing the malignant degree of what disease?

    • A.

      RPGN

    • B.

      Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis

    • C.

      IgA nephropathy (berger disease)

    • D.

      Nephrosclerosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Nephrosclerosis
  • 11. 

    11. Fibrinoid necrosis associated with hyperplastic arteriolitis (onion-skinning) is associated with what cardiovascular condition?

    • A.

      Right sided heart failure

    • B.

      Congestive heart failure

    • C.

      Malignant hypertension

    Correct Answer
    C. Malignant hypertension
  • 12. 

    12. A homogenous, tan, well-encapsulated renal tumor is most often which?

    • A.

      Angiomyelolipoma

    • B.

      Renal fibroma

    • C.

      Oncocytoma

    • D.

      Renal papillary adenoma

    Correct Answer
    C. Oncocytoma
  • 13. 

    13. Acute proliferative glomerulonephritis often presents with______ syndrome?

    • A.

      Nephrotic

    • B.

      Nephritic

    Correct Answer
    B. Nephritic
  • 14. 

    14. The commonest component of urinary calculi is what?

    • A.

      Calcium oxalate

    • B.

      Struvite

    • C.

      Uric acid

    • D.

      Cystine

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium oxalate
  • 15. 

    15. Melanocytic hyperplasia leading to pigmented macules are:

    • A.

      Lentigos

    • B.

      Nevus

    • C.

      Melanoma

    • D.

      Melasma

    • E.

      Ephelis

    Correct Answer
    A. Lentigos
  • 16. 

    16. a congenital skin lesion is called a:

    • A.

      Freckle

    • B.

      Nevus

    Correct Answer
    B. Nevus
  • 17. 

    17. The commonest type of melanoma is?

    • A.

      Lentigo maligna

    • B.

      Nodular

    • C.

      Acral lentiginous

    • D.

      Superficial spreading

    Correct Answer
    D. Superficial spreading
  • 18. 

    18. Exophytic lesion, appearing "stuck on"

    • A.

      Keratoacanthoma

    • B.

      Seborrheic keratosis

    • C.

      Acrochordon

    • D.

      WEN

    Correct Answer
    B. Seborrheic keratosis
  • 19. 

    19. Moveable, dermal nodule w/ keratin core:

    • A.

      Epidermal inclusion cyst

    • B.

      Acanthosis nigricans

    • C.

      Dermatofibroma

    • D.

      Xanthoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Epidermal inclusion cyst
  • 20. 

    20. Commonest malignant skin tumor:

    • A.

      SCC

    • B.

      BCC

    • C.

      Melanoma

    • D.

      Merkel cell ca

    Correct Answer
    B. BCC
  • 21. 

    21. Of the Xanthomas, which one is a yellow plaque occurring on the eyelids?

    • A.

      Eruptive xanthoma

    • B.

      Tuberous xanthoma

    • C.

      Xanthalasma

    Correct Answer
    C. Xanthalasma
  • 22. 

    22. Munro microabscesses, PMN infliltrate, and parakeratosis within the stratum corneum is:

    • A.

      Eczema

    • B.

      Psoriasis

    • C.

      Urticaria

    • D.

      Pruritis

    • E.

      Ichthyosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Psoriasis
  • 23. 

    23. Bullous disease associate with the protein gluten?

    • A.

      Dermatitis herpetiformes

    • B.

      Psoriasis

    • C.

      Eczema

    • D.

      Pemphigus

    • E.

      Bullous pemphigoid

    Correct Answer
    A. Dermatitis herpetiformes
  • 24. 

    24. Depigmentation due to loss of melanocytes:

    • A.

      Lentigo

    • B.

      Vitiligo

    • C.

      Ephelis

    • D.

      Melasma

    Correct Answer
    B. Vitiligo
  • 25. 

    25. A freckle is a:

    • A.

      Lentigo

    • B.

      Nevus

    • C.

      Ephelis

    Correct Answer
    C. Ephelis
  • 26. 

    27. Lobar pneumonia is commonly caused by infection with what microogranism?

    • A.

      S. pneumonia

    • B.

      Influenza

    • C.

      Haemopholus

    • D.

      Staph

    Correct Answer
    A. S. pneumonia
  • 27. 

    28. Calcified nodules found within the lung parenchyma and mediastinum is usually referred to as what?

    • A.

      Ghon complex

    • B.

      Psamomma bodies

    • C.

      Concretions

    • D.

      Gumma

    Correct Answer
    A. Ghon complex
  • 28. 

    29. TNM system for brain tumors is used for what?

    • A.

      Staging

    • B.

      Staging

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Staging
    B. Staging
  • 29. 

    30. Commonest complaint associated with brain tumors is what?

    • A.

      Headache

    • B.

      Blurry Vision

    • C.

      Hearing loss

    • D.

      Depression

    Correct Answer
    A. Headache
  • 30. 

    32. A cerebellar tumor usually presents with what signs?

    • A.

      Seizures

    • B.

      Vision disturbances

    • C.

      Ataxia

    Correct Answer
    C. Ataxia
  • 31. 

    33. A frontal lobe tumor usually presents with what signs?

    • A.

      Vision disturbances

    • B.

      Impaired sense of smell/vision

    • C.

      Ataxia

    • D.

      Hearing loss

    Correct Answer
    B. Impaired sense of smell/vision
  • 32. 

    34. Commonest sign associated with temporal tumors is what?

    • A.

      Seizures

    • B.

      Vision disturbances

    • C.

      Ataxia

    Correct Answer
    A. Seizures
  • 33. 

    35. Unilateral paralysis is the commonest sign of a tumor in what region of the brain?

    • A.

      Basal ganglia

    • B.

      Temporal lobe

    • C.

      Frontal lobe

    • D.

      Cerebellum

    Correct Answer
    A. Basal ganglia
  • 34. 

    36. Commonest primary brain tumor is what?

    • A.

      Astrocytoma

    • B.

      Meningioma

    • C.

      Medulloblastoma

    • D.

      Oligodendrogliomas

    • E.

      Metastatic

    Correct Answer
    A. Astrocytoma
  • 35. 

    37. An acoustic neuroma affects what cranial nerve?

    • A.

      CN VIII

    • B.

      CN IX

    • C.

      CN V

    • D.

      CN VII

    Correct Answer
    A. CN VIII
  • 36. 

    38. Treatment of brain tumors depends on what single factor?

    • A.

      Location

    • B.

      Age

    • C.

      Grade

    Correct Answer
    A. Location
  • 37. 

    39. Malignancy of what tumor is indicated by necrosis, vessel invasion, and the presence of large irregular cells?

    • A.

      Chordoma

    • B.

      Medulloblastoma

    • C.

      Meningioma

    • D.

      Glioblastoma multiforme

    Correct Answer
    D. Glioblastoma multiforme
  • 38. 

    41. Lymphomas arise within which of the four areas of the gastrointestinal wall?

    • A.

      Submucosa

    • B.

      Muscularis

    • C.

      Mucosa

    • D.

      Adventitia/serosa

    Correct Answer
    A. Submucosa
  • 39. 

    42. Peribronchial dilation is seen with what?

    • A.

      Interstitial Pnuemonia

    • B.

      Atelectasis

    • C.

      Bronchiectasis

    Correct Answer
    C. Bronchiectasis
  • 40. 

    43. Hemorrhagic pneumonia is associated with infection with what microorganism?

    • A.

      Pneumocystis carinii

    • B.

      Staph.

    • C.

      Pseudomonas

    • D.

      Strep

    Correct Answer
    C. Pseudomonas
  • 41. 

    44. Commonest cause of sudden death?

    • A.

      Arrhythmia

    • B.

      Pulmonary embolism

    Correct Answer
    A. Arrhythmia
  • 42. 

    45. Emphysema is seen within what pulmonary structures?

    • A.

      Alveoli

    • B.

      Acini

    • C.

      Tertiary segments

    • D.

      Broncheolo-alveoli

    Correct Answer
    D. Broncheolo-alveoli
  • 43. 

    46. Abscess formation is not associated with which of the following infections?

    • A.

      Staphylococcus

    • B.

      Streptococcus

    • C.

      Klebsiella

    • D.

      Mycobacteria

    Correct Answer
    B. Streptococcus
  • 44. 

    47. A microorganism commonly seen to colonize a preformed cavity is what?

    • A.

      Aspergillus

    • B.

      Mycoplasma

    Correct Answer
    A. Aspergillus
  • 45. 

    48. Second commonest type of lung cancer usually showing late metasteses is what?

    • A.

      SCC

    • B.

      Small cell

    • C.

      Large cell

    • D.

      Adenoca

    Correct Answer
    A. SCC
  • 46. 

    49. A localized bronchial obstruction leads to what type of pneumonia?

    • A.

      Golden pneumonia

    • B.

      Interstitial

    • C.

      Alveolar

    • D.

      Lobar

    Correct Answer
    A. Golden pneumonia
  • 47. 

    An acid fast bacilli infection predominately seen within the apex of the lung is indicative of what?

    • A.

      Mycoplasma

    • B.

      Secondary TB

    Correct Answer
    B. Secondary TB
  • 48. 

    51. Which of the following are not associated with infection by mycobacteria:

    • A.

      Ghon Complex

    • B.

      Gaffky count

    • C.

      Horner's syndrome

    • D.

      Langerhans giant cells?

    Correct Answer
    C. Horner's syndrome
  • 49. 

    52. A cavitating bronchogenic carcinoma is usually what type?

    • A.

      Large Cell

    • B.

      Small Cell

    • C.

      SCC

    • D.

      AdenoCa

    Correct Answer
    C. SCC
  • 50. 

    53. What increases the risk of developing centrilobular emphysema?

    • A.

      Chronic bronchitis

    • B.

      Asthma

    • C.

      Smoking

    Correct Answer
    C. Smoking

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Dec 20, 2012
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 09, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Ajsellner
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