Pathogenesis Of Microbial Disease

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| By Erika.anderson
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Erika.anderson
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 6 | Total Attempts: 10,251
Questions: 24 | Attempts: 1,921

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Disease Quizzes & Trivia

Quiz on microbials that cause disease and how they do so


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is a competitive advantage of virulence mechanisms?

    • A.

      Perpetuation

    • B.

      Survival with in the body

    • C.

      Dispersal

    • D.

      A and C

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    The competitive advantage of virulence mechanisms includes perpetuation, survival within the body, and dispersal. Perpetuation refers to the ability of the pathogen to reproduce and maintain its population within a host. Survival within the body allows the pathogen to evade the host's immune system and continue to cause harm. Dispersal refers to the pathogen's ability to spread to new hosts and establish new infections. All of these advantages contribute to the pathogen's ability to successfully infect and cause disease, making "All of the above" the correct answer.

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  • 2. 

    Which is a genetic disposition that gives humans an advantage versus disease causing microbes?

    • A.

      Sickle cell anemia

    • B.

      Duffy Antigen

    • C.

      HIV

    • D.

      A and B

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. A and B
    Explanation
    The genetic disposition that gives humans an advantage versus disease-causing microbes is a combination of A and B. Sickle cell anemia and the Duffy antigen are both genetic traits that have been found to provide some level of protection against certain diseases. Sickle cell anemia is known to provide resistance against malaria, while the Duffy antigen can make individuals less susceptible to certain strains of the malaria parasite. Therefore, having both A and B genetic traits can give humans an advantage in fighting off disease-causing microbes.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following would an opportunistic pathogen take advantage of?

    • A.

      AIDS patient

    • B.

      Athlete

    • C.

      Child

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. AIDS patient
    Explanation
    An opportunistic pathogen would take advantage of an AIDS patient because their weakened immune system makes them more susceptible to infections and diseases. Opportunistic pathogens are typically harmless to individuals with a healthy immune system, but they can cause severe illnesses in individuals with compromised immune systems, such as AIDS patients. These pathogens exploit the weakened immune response to establish infections and cause opportunistic diseases.

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  • 4. 

    Which is the correct order of Koch's postulate?

    • A.

      Recover, inoculate, isolate, observe

    • B.

      Isolate, inoculate, recover, observe

    • C.

      Observe, isolate, recover, inoculate

    • D.

      Isolate, observe, inoculate, recover

    • E.

      Observe, isolate, inoculate, recover

    Correct Answer
    E. Observe, isolate, inoculate, recover
    Explanation
    Koch's postulates are a set of guidelines used to determine the causative agent of a disease. The correct order of Koch's postulates is as follows: observe, isolate, inoculate, recover. This means that first, the pathogen causing the disease is observed in all cases of the disease. Then, the pathogen is isolated and grown in pure culture. Next, the isolated pathogen is inoculated into a healthy host, causing the same disease. Finally, the pathogen is recovered from the newly infected host, and identified as the causative agent of the disease.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission?

    • A.

      STD

    • B.

      Arthropod bite

    • C.

      STD

    • D.

      Inhalation

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. None of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "None of the above." This means that all of the options listed (STD, arthropod bite, STD, inhalation) are modes of transmission. Therefore, there is no option that is NOT a mode of transmission.

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  • 6. 

    Botulism is a communicable disease.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Botulism is not a communicable disease. It is caused by a toxin produced by the bacteria Clostridium botulinum, which can contaminate food and lead to illness when ingested. However, it is not spread from person to person like a communicable disease. Instead, it is typically contracted by consuming contaminated food or through wound infections. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 7. 

    You can catch many microbial pathogens from a pet.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    It is true that you can catch many microbial pathogens from a pet. Pets, such as dogs and cats, can carry various bacteria, viruses, and parasites that can be transmitted to humans. These pathogens can cause diseases like salmonellosis, ringworm, and toxoplasmosis. It is important to practice good hygiene, such as washing hands after handling pets and keeping their living areas clean, to reduce the risk of contracting any illnesses from them.

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  • 8. 

    Pathogenicity refers to the host that is infected

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Pathogenicity refers to the ability of a microorganism to cause disease in a host, not to the host itself. Therefore, the statement "Pathogenicity refers to the host that is infected" is incorrect.

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  • 9. 

    What is defined as the number of microbes required to produce a disease?

    • A.

      Infectious Dose

    • B.

      Pathogen

    • C.

      Pathogenesis

    • D.

      Infection

    • E.

      Disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Infectious Dose
    Explanation
    The term "Infectious Dose" refers to the number of microbes that are needed to enter the body in order to cause a disease. It is a measure of the infectivity or potency of a pathogen. Different pathogens have different infectious doses, and some may require a higher number of microbes to cause an infection compared to others. The infectious dose can vary depending on various factors such as the virulence of the pathogen, the route of entry into the body, and the host's immune system.

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  • 10. 

    I patient comes in and says that they have been feeling light headed.  Is this a sign or a symptom?

    • A.

      Sign

    • B.

      Symptom

    Correct Answer
    B. Symptom
    Explanation
    The patient feeling light-headed is a symptom rather than a sign. Signs are objective and can be observed or measured by healthcare professionals, while symptoms are subjective experiences reported by the patient. In this case, the patient's feeling of light-headedness is a personal sensation that cannot be directly observed or measured by others. Therefore, it is considered a symptom.

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  • 11. 

    During which stage of disease do you begin to have clinical manifestations?

    • A.

      Convalescent

    • B.

      Incubation

    • C.

      Acute

    • D.

      Prodromal

    • E.

      Decline

    Correct Answer
    D. Prodromal
    Explanation
    During the prodromal stage of a disease, individuals start to experience the initial symptoms or signs of the illness. These symptoms are often mild and non-specific, but they indicate the onset of the disease and serve as a warning sign. The prodromal stage occurs after the incubation period, during which the pathogen multiplies and establishes itself within the body. Therefore, the prodromal stage is the first phase where clinical manifestations become apparent, making it the correct answer in this case.

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  • 12. 

    During which stage of disease may the microbial become dormant and stay in the host asymptomatically?

    • A.

      Decline

    • B.

      Incubation

    • C.

      Acute

    • D.

      Covalescent

    • E.

      Prodromal

    Correct Answer
    A. Decline
    Explanation
    During the decline stage of a disease, the number of microbes in the host's body decreases, and the symptoms start to subside. At this stage, the immune system is successfully fighting off the infection, and the microbial load decreases to a level where it may become dormant. The host may not experience any symptoms during this dormant phase, and the disease appears to be resolved. However, the microbial can still be present in the host's body, ready to reactivate if the immune system weakens or if certain conditions trigger its reemergence.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is a strict pathogen?

    • A.

      Clostridium difficile

    • B.

      Escherichia coli

    • C.

      Candida albicans

    • D.

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • E.

      Mycobacterium tuberculosis

    Correct Answer
    E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    Explanation
    Mycobacterium tuberculosis is considered a strict pathogen because it causes tuberculosis, a highly contagious and potentially life-threatening disease. It is an obligate pathogen, meaning it can only survive and cause disease within a host organism. It is transmitted through the air when an infected individual coughs or sneezes, making it highly infectious. Other options like Clostridium difficile, Escherichia coli, Candida albicans, and Staphylococcus aureus can also cause infections, but they are not considered strict pathogens as they can exist as commensal organisms in the human body without causing disease.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of microbial adherence?

    • A.

      Enzyme mediated tissue damage

    • B.

      Evasion of host immune system

    • C.

      Normal flora in the GI tract

    • D.

      Toxigenicity

    • E.

      Adherence

    Correct Answer
    C. Normal flora in the GI tract
    Explanation
    Normal flora in the GI tract is not a mechanism of microbial adherence. Microbial adherence refers to the ability of microorganisms to attach to host tissues or surfaces. Enzyme mediated tissue damage, evasion of the host immune system, toxigenicity, and adherence itself are all mechanisms that contribute to microbial adherence. However, the presence of normal flora in the GI tract is a natural colonization of microorganisms that do not necessarily adhere to host tissues in the same way that pathogenic microorganisms do.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is considered a adherence factor?

    • A.

      Fimbriae

    • B.

      Capsule

    • C.

      Slime layer

    • D.

      A and C

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the options listed (Fimbriae, Capsule, Slime layer) are considered adherence factors. Adherence factors are structures or molecules produced by bacteria that enable them to attach to surfaces, such as host tissues or medical devices. Fimbriae are hair-like appendages on the bacterial surface that aid in attachment. Capsules are protective layers surrounding bacteria that can also facilitate adherence. Slime layers are similar to capsules and can help bacteria adhere to surfaces. Therefore, all of these options are considered adherence factors.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following does Klebsiella contain?

    • A.

      Slime layer

    • B.

      Somatic pili

    • C.

      Sex pili

    • D.

      Capsule

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Slime layer
    Explanation
    Klebsiella is a type of bacteria that is known to contain a slime layer. The slime layer is a protective outer covering that helps the bacteria adhere to surfaces and form biofilms. It also provides protection against the host's immune system and helps in the colonization of tissues. While Klebsiella may also possess other structures such as somatic pili, sex pili, and a capsule, the given question specifically asks about what Klebsiella contains, and the correct answer is the slime layer.

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  • 17. 

    Glucosyltransferase is most likey to be found in the following

    • A.

      Eye

    • B.

      Ear

    • C.

      Nose

    • D.

      Mouth

    • E.

      Urethra

    Correct Answer
    D. Mouth
    Explanation
    Glucosyltransferase is an enzyme responsible for catalyzing the transfer of glucose molecules. It is commonly found in the mouth, specifically in the saliva and on the surface of teeth. This enzyme plays a crucial role in the formation of dental plaque and the initiation of dental caries. It helps convert dietary sugars into sticky substances that adhere to the teeth, providing a favorable environment for bacteria to grow and produce acids that can damage tooth enamel. Therefore, the correct answer is "Mouth."

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following does not have the ability to invade a hosts tissue?

    • A.

      Rhizopus

    • B.

      Shigella

    • C.

      Yersinia

    • D.

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae

    • E.

      Chlamydia trachomatis

    Correct Answer
    A. Rhizopus
    Explanation
    Rhizopus does not have the ability to invade a host's tissue. Rhizopus is a type of fungus commonly found in soil, decaying organic matter, and plants. It is known to cause infections in humans, particularly in individuals with weakened immune systems, but it mainly affects the skin and mucous membranes rather than invading deeper tissues. Unlike bacteria such as Shigella, Yersinia, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and Chlamydia trachomatis, which are known to invade host tissues and cause various infections, Rhizopus primarily causes superficial infections.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following acts as an adherence component in A-B exotoxins?  May be more than one answer.

    • A.

      A subunit

    • B.

      B subunit

    • C.

      Protective Antigen (PA)

    • D.

      Edema Factor (EF)

    • E.

      Lethal Factor (LF)

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. B subunit
    C. Protective Antigen (PA)
    Explanation
    The adherence component in A-B exotoxins is responsible for attaching the toxin to host cells. The B subunit of the exotoxin binds to specific receptors on the surface of the host cell, allowing the toxin to enter and exert its toxic effects. Protective Antigen (PA) also acts as an adherence component in A-B exotoxins by binding to host cell receptors. Both the B subunit and PA play crucial roles in facilitating the attachment and entry of the A-B exotoxins into host cells.

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  • 20. 

    Botulism causes spastic paralysis

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Tetanus causes spastic paralysis

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is an enterotoxin?  May be more than one

    • A.

      Rotavirus

    • B.

      Candida albicans

    • C.

      E. Coli

    • D.

      S. aureus

    • E.

      Mucor

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Rotavirus
    C. E. Coli
    D. S. aureus
    Explanation
    Rotavirus, E. Coli, and S. aureus are all examples of enterotoxins. Enterotoxins are toxins that specifically target the intestines and cause symptoms such as diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Rotavirus is a common cause of viral gastroenteritis in infants and young children. E. Coli, specifically certain strains like E. Coli O157:H7, can produce enterotoxins that cause severe foodborne illnesses. S. aureus can produce enterotoxins that cause food poisoning when contaminated food is consumed. Candida albicans and Mucor are not known to produce enterotoxins, so they are not the correct answer.

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  • 22. 

    Which part of a microbial cell causes an endotoxin?

    • A.

      Cell membrane

    • B.

      Pili

    • C.

      Cell wall

    • D.

      Flagella

    • E.

      Mitochondria

    Correct Answer
    C. Cell wall
    Explanation
    The cell wall of a microbial cell is responsible for causing an endotoxin. Endotoxins are toxic substances released by certain bacteria when they are destroyed or undergo lysis. These toxins are part of the outer membrane of the cell wall and are released into the surrounding environment. They can cause various harmful effects on the host organism, including inflammation, fever, and damage to tissues and organs. Therefore, the cell wall is the correct answer as it is the specific part of the microbial cell that produces endotoxins.

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  • 23. 

    Hyaluronidase causes damage to which of the following?

    • A.

      Connective Tissue

    • B.

      Nails

    • C.

      Collagen

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Connective Tissue
    Explanation
    Hyaluronidase causes damage to connective tissue. Connective tissue is a type of tissue that provides support and structure to the body. Hyaluronidase is an enzyme that breaks down hyaluronic acid, a major component of connective tissue. When hyaluronidase breaks down hyaluronic acid, it weakens the connective tissue, leading to damage. This can result in various complications and conditions related to connective tissue, such as joint problems and skin disorders.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is NOT encapsulated?

    • A.

      S. pneumoniae

    • B.

      N. memingitidis

    • C.

      Mucor

    • D.

      H. influenzae

    • E.

      Cryptococcus

    Correct Answer
    C. Mucor
    Explanation
    Mucor is the correct answer because it is a type of fungus that does not have a capsule. Encapsulation refers to the presence of a protective outer layer or capsule around certain bacteria and fungi. S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, H. influenzae, and Cryptococcus are all encapsulated organisms, meaning they have a capsule that helps protect them from the immune system and enhances their ability to cause disease. However, Mucor is a non-encapsulated fungus, meaning it lacks this protective capsule.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 04, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Erika.anderson
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