Micro - Pathogenic Bacteria II

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  • 1/30 Questions

    Pneumococcus are best described as

    • Lancet shaped gram positive cocci in pairs
    • Alpha hemolytic strep
    • Has polysaccharide capsule that inhibits phagocytosis
    • All of the above
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About This Quiz

This quiz titled 'Micro - Pathogenic Bacteria II' focuses on Pneumococcus, exploring its characteristics, infection stages, and impacts on human health. It assesses understanding of its pathogenicity, particularly in causing pneumonia and meningitis, and evaluates knowledge on infection mechanisms and clinical implications.

Micro - Pathogenic Bacteria II - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Pneumococcus' capsule is responsible for all of the following except

    • Mucoid appearance on agar

    • Survival in bloodstream

    • Permanent/ constant antigenicity

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Permanent/ constant antigenicity
    Explanation
    The capsule of Pneumococcus is responsible for its mucoid appearance on agar, as well as its ability to survive in the bloodstream. However, it is not responsible for permanent/ constant antigenicity. This means that the antigenicity of the capsule can change over time, making it less effective in providing long-term immunity.

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  • 3. 

    Streptococcus pneumoniae causes bacterial pneumonia and meningitis

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Streptococcus pneumoniae is a bacteria that can cause both bacterial pneumonia and meningitis. Bacterial pneumonia is an infection of the lungs caused by the bacteria, while meningitis is an infection of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of both of these infections, particularly in children and older adults. Therefore, the statement that Streptococcus pneumoniae causes bacterial pneumonia and meningitis is true.

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  • 4. 

    A patient presents with pneumonia cause by streptococcus pneumoniae which of the following conclusions are least likely to be true

    • They were infected by person to person contact

    • They were infected by contact with secretions on an inanimate object

    • By taking a though history you can easily find the origin of the infection

    • The patient was colonized in their nasopharynx prior to infection

    Correct Answer
    A. By taking a though history you can easily find the origin of the infection
    Explanation
    because you can be an asymptomatic carrier of pneumococcus it would be very difficult to find the origin of infection

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  • 5. 

    A patient presents with a pneumonia infection which of the following may have contributed to the bacteria's ability to overcome the normal mechanisms of lung protection

    • Cigarette smoking

    • Recent viral infection

    • Excess fluid in the lungs

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the above factors may have contributed to the bacteria's ability to overcome the normal mechanisms of lung protection in a patient with pneumonia. Cigarette smoking can weaken the lungs' defense mechanisms and make them more susceptible to infections. A recent viral infection can impair the immune system and weaken the lung's ability to fight off bacteria. Excess fluid in the lungs can provide a favorable environment for bacteria to grow and thrive. Therefore, all of these factors together may have contributed to the bacteria's ability to overcome normal lung protection mechanisms in this patient.

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  • 6. 

    Which stage of Pneumococcus infection features the filling of alveoli with serous fluid that contains few inflammatory cells but numerous organisms

    • First stage

    • 2- early consolidation

    • 3- late consolidation

    • 4- resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. First stage
    Explanation
    The correct answer is first stage. In the first stage of Pneumococcus infection, the alveoli are filled with serous fluid that contains few inflammatory cells but numerous organisms. This stage is characterized by the initial invasion of the bacteria into the lungs and the beginning of the inflammatory response. As the infection progresses, the inflammatory response becomes more pronounced, leading to the subsequent stages of early and late consolidation, followed by resolution.

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  • 7. 

    Which stage of pneumococcal infection involves an acute inflammatory response that attracts neutrophils and RBC  and initiates the  alternative pathway of complement activation

    • 1st stage

    • 2nd stage- early consolidation

    • 3rd stage- late consolidation

    • 4th stage- resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. 2nd stage- early consolidation
    Explanation
    The second stage of pneumococcal infection, known as early consolidation, involves an acute inflammatory response. This response attracts neutrophils and red blood cells (RBC) to the site of infection. Additionally, it initiates the alternative pathway of complement activation, which is an important part of the immune response against the infection.

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  • 8. 

    During the resolution stage of pneumococcal infection, the C substance of bacteria reacts with serum component C-reactive protein and activates complement through the classical pathway

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    this occurs during the 2nd stage- early consolidation

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  • 9. 

    This stage of pneumococcal infections features more neutrophils than pathogens and leads to the hepatization of the lungs

    • 1st stage

    • 2nd stage- early consolidation

    • 3rds stage- late consolidation

    • 4th stage- resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. 3rds stage- late consolidation
    Explanation
    In the late consolidation stage of pneumococcal infections, there is an increase in the number of neutrophils compared to pathogens. This stage is characterized by the hepatization of the lungs, which refers to the solidification of the lung tissue due to the accumulation of inflammatory cells, fibrin, and edema fluid. The presence of more neutrophils indicates an ongoing immune response to the infection.

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  • 10. 

    During this stage of pneumococcal infection macrophages take over and clear the inflammatory debris and the lung tissue is restored to its normal condition

    • 1st stage

    • 2nd stage- early consolidation

    • 3rd stage- late consolidation

    • 4th stage- resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. 4th stage- resolution
    Explanation
    During the resolution stage of pneumococcal infection, macrophages become dominant and effectively remove the inflammatory debris, leading to the restoration of the lung tissue to its normal condition. This stage marks the end of the infection and the healing process begins.

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  • 11. 

    A complication of pneumococcal lung infection is the pouring of fluid into the pleural space this is called___________ if the fluid is infected however, it is called _______________

    • Pleural effusion; empyema

    • Empyema; pleural effusion

    • Pericarditis; pulmonary embolism

    • Pleural effusion; pleural effacement

    Correct Answer
    A. Pleural effusion; empyema
    Explanation
    When there is a pneumococcal lung infection, it can lead to the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which is known as pleural effusion. If this fluid becomes infected, it is called empyema. Therefore, the correct answer is pleural effusion; empyema.

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  • 12. 

    Pneumococcus can be differentiated from other strep bacteria because of its sensitivity to Optochin and its solubility in bile salts. This should be used as a confirmation of a diagnosis based on clinical presentation because cultures can sometimes be negative.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Pneumococcus can be differentiated from other strep bacteria based on its sensitivity to Optochin and its solubility in bile salts. This information can be used to confirm a diagnosis based on clinical presentation, especially when cultures may yield negative results.

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  • 13. 

    If a sputum is cultured and the gram stains shows neutrophils with >10 gram positive diplococci / oil immersion field you should assume pneumococcal pneumonia

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    If a sputum culture shows neutrophils with more than 10 gram-positive diplococci per oil immersion field, it is highly indicative of pneumococcal pneumonia. This is because Streptococcus pneumoniae, the bacteria responsible for pneumococcal pneumonia, appears as gram-positive diplococci under a microscope. The presence of a large number of these bacteria in the sputum, along with the presence of neutrophils (a type of white blood cell associated with infection), strongly suggests a diagnosis of pneumococcal pneumonia. Therefore, the statement "True" is the correct answer.

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  • 14. 

    A 30 y/o male  with NKDA presents with pneumococcal CNS  infection; C&S tests reveal bacteria is susceptible to penicillin. Which of the following would you use to treat them

    • Penicillin VK

    • Amoxicillin / Augmentin

    • (Ampicillin + Sulbactam) Unasyn

    • Any of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
    Explanation
    Penicillins aren't used when the infection is in the CNS

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  • 15. 

    Gram negative diplococci include

    • N. Gonorrhea

    • S. Pneumoniae

    • N. Meningitidis

    • A & C

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A & C
    Explanation
    Gram-negative diplococci include Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Neisseria meningitidis. These bacteria are both gram-negative and typically arrange themselves in pairs or diplococci. Streptococcus pneumoniae, on the other hand, is a gram-positive bacterium and does not fall under the category of gram-negative diplococci. Therefore, the correct answer is A & C, which means Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Neisseria meningitidis.

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  • 16. 

    Gonorrhea cases must be reported to the Public Health Service

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Gonorrhea cases must be reported to the Public Health Service because it is a sexually transmitted infection that can have serious health consequences if left untreated. Reporting cases to the Public Health Service allows for better monitoring and tracking of the disease, which helps in identifying outbreaks, implementing preventive measures, and providing appropriate treatment and counseling to affected individuals. This helps in controlling the spread of the infection and protecting public health.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is true about the ascent of N. gonorrhea

    • It is more common in males

    • Causes urethritis, cervicitis, epididymitis, PID and possible infertility

    • Doesnt cause disseminated infections

    • Resistant to effects of complement system

    Correct Answer
    A. Causes urethritis, cervicitis, epididymitis, PID and possible infertility
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that N. gonorrhea causes urethritis, cervicitis, epididymitis, PID, and possible infertility. This means that the infection can lead to inflammation of the urethra, cervix, and epididymis, as well as pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). If left untreated, it can also potentially cause infertility.

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  • 18. 

    25 y/o female patient present s with cervical discharge, pelvic pain, dispareunia and bleeding, which of the following is a plausible assumption

    • Infection is caused by S. Pneumonia

    • Infection is not caused by N. Gonorrhea

    • Infection is caused by B. Fragilis

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
    Explanation
    The given symptoms of cervical discharge, pelvic pain, dispareunia, and bleeding are commonly associated with sexually transmitted infections (STIs) such as chlamydia, gonorrhea, or trichomoniasis. None of the options provided in the question (S. Pneumonia, N. Gonorrhea, B. Fragilis) are known to cause these specific symptoms. Therefore, the correct answer is "none of the above" as none of the options provided are plausible assumptions for the patient's infection.

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  • 19. 

    N. meningitidis normally colonize respiratory mucosal epithelia but are capable of infecting the blood stream or CSF

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    N. meningitidis is a bacterium that typically resides in the respiratory mucosal epithelia, which refers to the lining of the respiratory tract. However, it has the ability to invade and infect the bloodstream or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). This means that while its normal colonization site is the respiratory mucosa, it can also cause systemic infections by spreading to the bloodstream or CSF. Therefore, the statement "N. meningitidis normally colonize respiratory mucosal epithelia but are capable of infecting the blood stream or CSF" is true.

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  • 20. 

    Which quality of neisseria spp. makes them poor targets for opsonization

    • They are obligate parasites of humans

    • Women are usually asymptomatic carries

    • Adhere to epithelium and multiply by use of pili

    • Phase variation and variability of structures

    • Normally colonize upper respiratory mucosal epithelia

    Correct Answer
    A. Phase variation and variability of structures
    Explanation
    Neisseria spp. are poor targets for opsonization because of their ability to undergo phase variation and exhibit variability of structures. This means that they can change their surface antigens and structures, making it difficult for the immune system to recognize and target them effectively. This allows Neisseria spp. to evade opsonization, which is a process where pathogens are marked for destruction by immune cells. As a result, Neisseria spp. can persist and cause infections in the host.

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  • 21. 

    Which best describes Colony Opacity-associated proteins (Opa) 

    • Found on the inner membrane of some species of Neisseria

    • Responsible for the dark chocolate color of B. Fragilis when cultured on agar

    • Found on outer membrane of S. Pneumoniae bacteria

    • Lack of Opa causes complicated infections and inhibits uptake of bacteria by neutrophils

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Lack of Opa causes complicated infections and inhibits uptake of bacteria by neutrophils
    Explanation
    The lack of Opa proteins causes complicated infections and inhibits the uptake of bacteria by neutrophils. This suggests that Opa proteins play a role in the pathogenicity of certain bacteria, possibly by aiding in bacterial evasion of the immune system. The other options do not accurately describe the function or location of Opa proteins.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following test results would rule out a neisseria infection

    • Culture (also susceptibility) on Thayer- Martin or Martin-Lewis media and chocolate agar

    • Oxidase test Negative

    • Positive clinical presentation

    • Gram stain reveals gram negative diplococci within neutrophils of secretion

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxidase test Negative
    Explanation
    An oxidase test is used to determine the presence of cytochrome oxidase, an enzyme found in many bacteria including Neisseria species. A negative result on the oxidase test would indicate the absence of cytochrome oxidase and thus rule out a Neisseria infection.

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  • 23. 

    Close contacts of patients with meningococcus infections should be treated prophylactically

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Close contacts of patients with meningococcus infections should be treated prophylactically to prevent the spread of the infection. Meningococcus is a highly contagious bacterium that can cause meningitis and sepsis. Treating close contacts with antibiotics can help eradicate the bacteria from their system and prevent them from becoming carriers or developing the infection themselves. This is especially important in settings such as schools, dormitories, or military barracks where close contact is common and the risk of transmission is high. Prophylactic treatment is an effective measure to control the spread of meningococcus infections.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is not included in the treatment regimen for neiserria infection

    • Gonoccus treated with cefixime or ceftriaxone

    • Anti-chlamydial agent administered

    • For meningococcus give ceftriaxone or penicillin

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "none of the above". This means that all of the options mentioned in the question are included in the treatment regimen for Neisseria infection. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is treated with cefixime or ceftriaxone, an anti-chlamydial agent is administered, and for Neisseria meningitidis, ceftriaxone or penicillin is given. Therefore, none of the options are excluded from the treatment regimen.

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  • 25. 

    Bacteriodes are anaerobic gram negative rods that can cause abdominal abscesses

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Bacteriodes are anaerobic gram negative rods that can cause abdominal abscesses. This statement is true. Bacteriodes is a genus of bacteria that are commonly found in the human gastrointestinal tract. They are anaerobic, meaning they do not require oxygen to survive. Bacteriodes can cause infections, particularly in the abdomen, leading to the formation of abscesses. These abscesses can cause symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, and swelling. Therefore, the statement is correct.

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  • 26. 

    Which property of B. Fragilis allows it to form abscesses

    • PSA in capsular polysaccharide complex

    • Aids in digestion

    • Can breakdown glycans from host

    • A & C

    • none of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A & C
    Explanation
    B. Fragilis is able to form abscesses due to its property of producing PSA in the capsular polysaccharide complex. This polysaccharide helps the bacterium to adhere to host tissues and evade the immune system. Additionally, B. Fragilis can breakdown glycans from the host, which further contributes to the formation of abscesses. Therefore, both options A and C are correct.

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  • 27. 

    Abscess formation requires the presence of strict anaerobes and facultative anaerobes entering the peritoneal cavity

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Abscess formation occurs when strict anaerobes (organisms that cannot survive in the presence of oxygen) and facultative anaerobes (organisms that can survive with or without oxygen) enter the peritoneal cavity. These microorganisms thrive in environments with limited oxygen supply, such as abscesses. Therefore, the statement is true as the presence of both strict anaerobes and facultative anaerobes is necessary for abscess formation in the peritoneal cavity.

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  • 28. 

    Infection of the peritoneum is contained and limited by intestinal loops and the omentum

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The peritoneum is a membrane that lines the abdominal cavity and covers the organs within it. In the case of an infection in the peritoneum, the intestinal loops and the omentum play a crucial role in containing and limiting the spread of the infection. Intestinal loops act as a physical barrier, preventing the infection from spreading to other areas of the abdomen. The omentum, a fatty tissue that hangs down from the stomach, also helps by forming a protective barrier around the infected area. Therefore, the statement that infection of the peritoneum is contained and limited by intestinal loops and the omentum is true.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following  is not recommended for treatment of B. Fragilis

    • Broad spectrum antibiotics

    • Metronidazole

    • Drainage if necessary

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
    Explanation
    All the options mentioned are recommended for the treatment of B. Fragilis. Broad spectrum antibiotics are commonly used to target a wide range of bacteria, including B. Fragilis. Metronidazole is specifically effective against B. Fragilis and is often the drug of choice. Drainage is recommended if necessary to remove any abscess or infected fluid. Therefore, none of the above options are not recommended for the treatment of B. Fragilis.

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  • 30. 

    During abscess formation, increased vascular permeability of the peritoneum leads to fibrin build ups

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    During abscess formation, increased vascular permeability of the peritoneum allows for the leakage of fluid and proteins into the surrounding tissue. This increased permeability leads to the accumulation of fibrin, a protein involved in blood clotting, in the affected area. The fibrin build-up helps to contain the infection and promote the formation of an abscess, which is a localized collection of pus. Therefore, the statement "increased vascular permeability of the peritoneum leads to fibrin build-ups" is true.

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  • Current Version
  • Jan 18, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 23, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Chinedua

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