Micro - Chlamydiae And Rickettsiae
Review quiz on chlamydiae and rickettsiae
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which of the following describes both chlamydiae and rickettsiae
- A.
Motile
- B.
Gram positive
- C.
Obligate extracellular pathogens
- D.
Biphasic morphology
Correct Answer
D. Biphasic morphologyExplanation
Both chlamydiae and rickettsiae exhibit biphasic morphology. This means that they have two distinct forms in their life cycle - an infectious, non-replicating form called elementary body (EB) and a replicating form called reticulate body (RB). The EB form is small, dense, and resistant to environmental conditions, allowing for transmission between hosts. Once inside the host cell, the EB transforms into the RB form, which is larger and metabolically active, allowing for replication and multiplication within the host cell. This biphasic morphology is a common characteristic shared by both chlamydiae and rickettsiae.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following describes the membranes and cell wall of chlamydiae?
- A.
Contain murein
- B.
Contain mycolic acid
- C.
Has LPS
- D.
No cytoplasmic membrane
Correct Answer
C. Has LPSExplanation
Chlamydiae have LPS (lipopolysaccharide) in their membranes and cell wall. LPS is a component found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, which helps protect the cell and plays a role in immune recognition. This feature distinguishes chlamydiae from other options listed, as they do not contain murein (a component of bacterial cell walls), mycolic acid (found in the cell walls of mycobacteria), or have no cytoplasmic membrane.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following bacteria are auxotropic and need ATP and amino acids from their host
- A.
Rickettsia
- B.
Chlamydia
- C.
Mycoplasma
- D.
A & B
Correct Answer
D. A & BExplanation
Rickettsia and Chlamydia are both intracellular bacteria that are unable to produce ATP and amino acids on their own. They rely on their host cells to provide these essential nutrients for their survival and replication. This makes them auxotrophic bacteria. Mycoplasma, on the other hand, is capable of producing its own ATP and amino acids, so it is not auxotrophic. Therefore, the correct answer is A & B.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Lymphogranuloma venereum can be described as which of the following
- A.
A variant of the rickettsia bacteria
- B.
May be present with N. gonorrhea infection
- C.
Occurs in children and may lead to blindness
- D.
Common cause of pneumonia
Correct Answer
B. May be present with N. gonorrhea infectionExplanation
Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. It is characterized by the formation of genital ulcers and swollen lymph nodes in the groin area. LGV can coexist with N. gonorrhea infection, meaning that a person infected with LGV may also have a concurrent infection with N. gonorrhea. This co-infection can complicate the diagnosis and treatment of both infections.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Trachoma, an ocular disease affecting children and a possible cause of blindness is linked to which of the following bacteria?
- A.
Rickettsia
- B.
Neisseria
- C.
Chlamydiae
- D.
Clostridium
Correct Answer
C. ChlamydiaeExplanation
Trachoma, an ocular disease affecting children and a possible cause of blindness, is caused by the bacteria Chlamydiae. This bacteria is responsible for the infection and inflammation of the conjunctiva, which can lead to scarring and ultimately result in blindness if left untreated. Therefore, Chlamydiae is the correct answer in this case.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A patient presents with coronary artery disease. Which of the following findings may be expected?
- A.
Previous rickettsial infection
- B.
C. trachomatis infection
- C.
M. tuberculosis infection
- D.
Previous C. pneumoniae infection
Correct Answer
D. Previous C. pneumoniae infectionExplanation
Patients with coronary artery disease may have a previous C. pneumoniae infection. This is because C. pneumoniae is a common cause of respiratory infections and has been associated with the development of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is believed that the bacteria may directly infect vascular cells and contribute to the development of plaques in the arteries. Therefore, a previous C. pneumoniae infection may be expected in a patient with coronary artery disease.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following similarities exist between rickettsia and chlamydiae
- A.
Have a 2-form developmental cycle
- B.
Spread by arthropod vectors
- C.
Affect blood vessels
- D.
Murein in cell walls
Correct Answer
C. Affect blood vesselsExplanation
Chlamydia pneumonia linked to CAD while rickettsia have tropism for vascular endothelial cellsRate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following describes an Elementary body?
- A.
Developmental form of Rickettsia
- B.
Noninfectious and found intracellularly in repiratory and GI mucosa
- C.
Metabolically active and does not attach to epithelium
- D.
Forms fused inclusions except for C. pneumonia
Correct Answer
D. Forms fused inclusions except for C. pneumoniaExplanation
An elementary body is a developmental form of Rickettsia that forms fused inclusions, except for C. pneumonia. This means that when Rickettsia is in the elementary body form, it can form clusters or groups within host cells, except in the case of C. pneumonia. This characteristic helps differentiate C. pneumonia from other types of Rickettsia.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following describes a reticulate body?
- A.
Developmental form of rickettsia
- B.
Lives outside of inclusions by binding epithelial cells
- C.
Replicates by binary fission
- D.
Are infectious
Correct Answer
C. Replicates by binary fissionExplanation
A reticulate body is a developmental form of rickettsia that replicates by binary fission. This means that it is a stage in the life cycle of rickettsia where the organism divides into two identical daughter cells. This process allows for the rapid multiplication and spread of the infectious agent. Rickettsia is a type of bacteria that is known to cause various diseases in humans, such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever and typhus.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Chlamydiae obtain nutrients through which of the following methods?
- A.
Straw like appendages similar to type III secretion system
- B.
Transform into elementary body and escape phagosome
- C.
Release siderophores and hydrilipases
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Straw like appendages similar to type III secretion systemExplanation
Chlamydiae obtain nutrients through straw-like appendages similar to a type III secretion system. This means that they use these appendages to extract nutrients from host cells by creating a channel through which they can directly access the host's resources. This method allows Chlamydiae to acquire the necessary nutrients for their survival and replication.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following methods are used by the Chlamydia in persistence phase?
- A.
RBs are smaller and consume less nutrients
- B.
Produce protease to delay cell death
- C.
Intracellular invasion reduces inflammation
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
B. Produce protease to delay cell deathExplanation
During the persistence phase, Chlamydia bacteria produce protease enzymes that help in delaying cell death. This allows the bacteria to survive and persist within the host for a longer period of time. The protease enzymes break down proteins within the host's cells, preventing the cells from undergoing programmed cell death or apoptosis. By delaying cell death, Chlamydia can continue to replicate and cause infection without being eliminated by the host's immune system.Rate this question:
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- 12.
C. trachomatis damage is linked to which of the following?
- A.
Cell mediated host response to serovars
- B.
Bacterial release of protease that cause cell lysis
- C.
Reiter's syndrome in women
- D.
Serovars are immobile and no exudate is present
Correct Answer
A. Cell mediated host response to serovarsExplanation
The correct answer is cell mediated host response to serovars. C. trachomatis is an intracellular bacterium that causes damage through the host's immune response. The immune response involves the activation of T cells, specifically CD4+ T cells, which release cytokines and chemokines to recruit other immune cells to the site of infection. This cell-mediated response leads to inflammation and tissue damage, which can result in various clinical manifestations depending on the serovar involved.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Herpes like lesions are most likely due to which of the followin
- A.
C. pneumoniae
- B.
Rickettsia
- C.
LGV biovariant
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. LGV biovariantExplanation
Herpes-like lesions are most likely due to LGV biovariant. This is because LGV (Lymphogranuloma venereum) is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacteria Chlamydia trachomatis. It primarily affects the lymph nodes and can cause genital ulcers or sores that resemble herpes. The other options, C. pneumoniae and Rickettsia, are not typically associated with causing herpes-like lesions.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which bacteria infects cells involved in atherogenesis?
- A.
C. Trachomatis
- B.
C. Pneumoniae
- C.
Rickettsia
- D.
Q fever
Correct Answer
B. C. PneumoniaeExplanation
C. Pneumoniae is the correct answer because it is a bacteria known to infect cells involved in atherogenesis. Atherogenesis refers to the formation of atherosclerosis, which is the buildup of plaque in the arteries. C. Pneumoniae has been found in atherosclerotic plaques and is believed to contribute to the development and progression of atherosclerosis. This bacteria can infect endothelial cells, smooth muscle cells, and macrophages, leading to inflammation and the formation of plaques.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which of the following methods can sufficiently diagnose C. trachomatis
- A.
Direct fluorescent assay
- B.
Culture from exudate
- C.
Nucleic amplification of urine
- D.
A & C
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. A & CExplanation
The correct answer is A & C, which means that both the direct fluorescent assay and nucleic amplification of urine can sufficiently diagnose C. trachomatis. The direct fluorescent assay is a diagnostic method that uses fluorescently labeled antibodies to detect the presence of C. trachomatis antigens. Nucleic amplification of urine involves amplifying and detecting specific DNA or RNA sequences of C. trachomatis in urine samples. These two methods are effective in diagnosing C. trachomatis infection.Rate this question:
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- 16.
C. Pneumoniae can be distinguished from M. Pneumoniae because M. Pneumoniae is positive for cold agglutinins
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Mycoplasma pneumoniae is positive for cold agglutinins, which means that it can cause the clumping of red blood cells at lower temperatures. On the other hand, Chlamydophila pneumoniae (formerly known as Chlamydia pneumoniae) does not produce cold agglutinins. Therefore, the statement is true as it correctly distinguishes between the two bacteria based on their cold agglutinin test results.Rate this question:
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- 17.
A Pt. with non-flulike symptoms reports to the ER for C. pneumonia. After running routine tests you find out she is pregnant, What is the best drug therapy?
- A.
Azythromizin 7 days
- B.
Doxycycline 7 days
- C.
Erythromycin
- D.
3 weeks of therapy
Correct Answer
C. ErythromycinExplanation
Erythromycin is the best drug therapy in this case because it is considered safe to use during pregnancy. Both azithromycin and doxycycline are contraindicated in pregnancy as they can potentially harm the developing fetus. Erythromycin, on the other hand, is commonly used to treat various infections during pregnancy and is considered safe for both the mother and the baby. The duration of therapy may vary depending on the specific condition and severity of the infection.Rate this question:
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- 18.
After a host is inoculated by a tick bite, which of the following actions are taken by Rickettsia?
- A.
Disseminate via the lymphatic system
- B.
Avoid being engulfed by cells
- C.
Multiply in the lumen of the blood vessels
- D.
Attach to cell membrane of vascular endothelium
Correct Answer
D. Attach to cell membrane of vascular endotheliumExplanation
Rickettsia, after being inoculated by a tick bite, attaches to the cell membrane of the vascular endothelium. This allows the bacteria to establish a foothold and invade the host's cells. By attaching to the cell membrane, Rickettsia can avoid being engulfed by cells and multiply in the lumen of the blood vessels. This attachment also facilitates dissemination via the lymphatic system, allowing the bacteria to spread throughout the host's body.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following describes rickettsia ability to infect endothelial cells?
- A.
Release pore forming toxins
- B.
Type III secretion system
- C.
No cellular damage
- D.
Remain extracellularly
Correct Answer
B. Type III secretion systemExplanation
The correct answer, "type III secretion system," describes rickettsia's ability to infect endothelial cells. This system allows rickettsia to inject effector proteins directly into the host cell, enabling them to manipulate the cellular machinery and establish infection. This mechanism is crucial for rickettsia to invade and survive within endothelial cells, which are a primary target for these bacteria. By utilizing the type III secretion system, rickettsia can evade the host immune response and cause disease.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following separates rickettsia from chlamydia
- A.
Affects the appearance of the skin
- B.
Multiply in phagosomes
- C.
Affects blood vessels
- D.
Can be cleared by strong host defense
Correct Answer
D. Can be cleared by strong host defenseExplanation
Rickettsia can be cleared by strong host defense, meaning that a strong immune response from the host can effectively eliminate the infection caused by Rickettsia. This is in contrast to Chlamydia, which is known to establish chronic infections and is not easily cleared by the host's immune system.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Pt. presents with R. prowazekii infection. Which of the following disease may they develop?
- A.
Lyme disease
- B.
Typhus fever
- C.
Q fever
- D.
Rickettsia
Correct Answer
B. Typhus feverExplanation
Pt. presents with R. prowazekii infection, which is a bacterium that causes epidemic typhus. Therefore, the patient may develop typhus fever as a result of the infection. Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, not R. prowazekii. Q fever is caused by Coxiella burnetii, and rickettsia refers to a group of bacteria including R. prowazekii, but it does not specifically indicate the disease that may develop.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following does not need a living vector for transmission?
- A.
Typhus fever
- B.
Q fever
- C.
Ehrliciosis
- D.
Anaplasmosis
Correct Answer
B. Q feverExplanation
Q fever does not need a living vector for transmission. Q fever is caused by the bacterium Coxiella burnetii, which can survive in the environment for long periods of time. It is primarily transmitted to humans through inhalation of contaminated dust particles, such as those from animal feces, urine, or birth products. Unlike the other options listed, Q fever does not require a living vector, such as ticks or fleas, for its transmission.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following infects neutrophils
- A.
E. chaffeensis
- B.
E. ewingii
- C.
Anaplasma phagocytophilum
- D.
A & B
- E.
B & C
Correct Answer
E. B & CExplanation
Both E. ewingii and Anaplasma phagocytophilum infect neutrophils. E. ewingii is a tick-borne bacterium that causes ewingii ehrlichiosis, a disease characterized by fever, muscle aches, and headache. Anaplasma phagocytophilum is also a tick-borne bacterium that causes anaplasmosis, which leads to symptoms like fever, chills, headache, and muscle aches. Therefore, the correct answer is B & C.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following would rule out Q fever
- A.
Fever
- B.
Rash
- C.
Tick bite
- D.
High titers
Correct Answer
B. RashExplanation
The presence of a rash would rule out Q fever because Q fever is a bacterial infection caused by Coxiella burnetii, which does not typically cause a rash. Common symptoms of Q fever include fever, fatigue, muscle aches, and headache, but a rash is not typically associated with this condition. Therefore, the presence of a rash would indicate a different underlying cause for the symptoms being experienced.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The drug of choice for rickettsial infections is which of the following?
- A.
Tetracylcine
- B.
Doxycycline
- C.
Fluoroquinolones
- D.
Trimethoprim
Correct Answer
B. DoxycyclineExplanation
Doxycycline is the drug of choice for rickettsial infections because it is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that is effective against the bacteria that cause these infections. It is a tetracycline antibiotic and has been shown to be highly effective in treating rickettsial infections such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever and typhus. Doxycycline works by inhibiting the growth and replication of the bacteria, thereby helping to eliminate the infection. It is well-tolerated and has a good safety profile, making it an ideal choice for the treatment of rickettsial infections.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 15, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Nov 28, 2010Quiz Created by
Chinedua
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