Micro - Chlamydiae And Rickettsiae

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  • 1/25 Questions

    Trachoma, an ocular disease affecting children and a possible cause of blindness is linked to which of the following bacteria?

    • Rickettsia
    • Neisseria
    • Chlamydiae
    • Clostridium
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About This Quiz

Explore the unique characteristics and interactions of Chlamydiae and Rickettsiae in this focused quiz. Assess your understanding of their morphology, disease associations, and cellular interactions, enhancing your knowledge in pathogenic microbiology relevant for academic and clinical settings.

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  • 2. 

    C. Pneumoniae can be distinguished from  M. Pneumoniae because M. Pneumoniae is positive for cold agglutinins

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Mycoplasma pneumoniae is positive for cold agglutinins, which means that it can cause the clumping of red blood cells at lower temperatures. On the other hand, Chlamydophila pneumoniae (formerly known as Chlamydia pneumoniae) does not produce cold agglutinins. Therefore, the statement is true as it correctly distinguishes between the two bacteria based on their cold agglutinin test results.

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  • 3. 

    Pt. presents with R. prowazekii infection. Which of the following disease may they develop?

    • Lyme disease

    • Typhus fever

    • Q fever

    • Rickettsia

    Correct Answer
    A. Typhus fever
    Explanation
    Pt. presents with R. prowazekii infection, which is a bacterium that causes epidemic typhus. Therefore, the patient may develop typhus fever as a result of the infection. Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, not R. prowazekii. Q fever is caused by Coxiella burnetii, and rickettsia refers to a group of bacteria including R. prowazekii, but it does not specifically indicate the disease that may develop.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following bacteria are auxotropic and need ATP and amino acids from their host

    • Rickettsia

    • Chlamydia

    • Mycoplasma

    • A & B

    Correct Answer
    A. A & B
    Explanation
    Rickettsia and Chlamydia are both intracellular bacteria that are unable to produce ATP and amino acids on their own. They rely on their host cells to provide these essential nutrients for their survival and replication. This makes them auxotrophic bacteria. Mycoplasma, on the other hand, is capable of producing its own ATP and amino acids, so it is not auxotrophic. Therefore, the correct answer is A & B.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following describes the membranes and cell wall of chlamydiae?

    • Contain murein

    • Contain mycolic acid

    • Has LPS

    • No cytoplasmic membrane

    Correct Answer
    A. Has LPS
    Explanation
    Chlamydiae have LPS (lipopolysaccharide) in their membranes and cell wall. LPS is a component found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, which helps protect the cell and plays a role in immune recognition. This feature distinguishes chlamydiae from other options listed, as they do not contain murein (a component of bacterial cell walls), mycolic acid (found in the cell walls of mycobacteria), or have no cytoplasmic membrane.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following describes a reticulate body?

    • Developmental form of rickettsia

    • Lives outside of inclusions by binding epithelial cells

    • Replicates by binary fission

    • Are infectious

    Correct Answer
    A. Replicates by binary fission
    Explanation
    A reticulate body is a developmental form of rickettsia that replicates by binary fission. This means that it is a stage in the life cycle of rickettsia where the organism divides into two identical daughter cells. This process allows for the rapid multiplication and spread of the infectious agent. Rickettsia is a type of bacteria that is known to cause various diseases in humans, such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever and typhus.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following describes rickettsia ability to infect endothelial cells?

    • Release pore forming toxins

    • Type III secretion system

    • No cellular damage

    • Remain extracellularly

    Correct Answer
    A. Type III secretion system
    Explanation
    The correct answer, "type III secretion system," describes rickettsia's ability to infect endothelial cells. This system allows rickettsia to inject effector proteins directly into the host cell, enabling them to manipulate the cellular machinery and establish infection. This mechanism is crucial for rickettsia to invade and survive within endothelial cells, which are a primary target for these bacteria. By utilizing the type III secretion system, rickettsia can evade the host immune response and cause disease.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following does not need a living vector for transmission?

    • Typhus fever

    • Q fever

    • Ehrliciosis

    • Anaplasmosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Q fever
    Explanation
    Q fever does not need a living vector for transmission. Q fever is caused by the bacterium Coxiella burnetii, which can survive in the environment for long periods of time. It is primarily transmitted to humans through inhalation of contaminated dust particles, such as those from animal feces, urine, or birth products. Unlike the other options listed, Q fever does not require a living vector, such as ticks or fleas, for its transmission.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following describes both chlamydiae and rickettsiae

    • Motile

    • Gram positive

    • Obligate extracellular pathogens

    • Biphasic morphology

    Correct Answer
    A. Biphasic morphology
    Explanation
    Both chlamydiae and rickettsiae exhibit biphasic morphology. This means that they have two distinct forms in their life cycle - an infectious, non-replicating form called elementary body (EB) and a replicating form called reticulate body (RB). The EB form is small, dense, and resistant to environmental conditions, allowing for transmission between hosts. Once inside the host cell, the EB transforms into the RB form, which is larger and metabolically active, allowing for replication and multiplication within the host cell. This biphasic morphology is a common characteristic shared by both chlamydiae and rickettsiae.

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  • 10. 

    After a host is inoculated by a tick bite, which of the following actions are taken by Rickettsia?

    • Disseminate via the lymphatic system

    • Avoid being engulfed by cells

    • Multiply in the lumen of the blood vessels

    • Attach to cell membrane of vascular endothelium

    Correct Answer
    A. Attach to cell membrane of vascular endothelium
    Explanation
    Rickettsia, after being inoculated by a tick bite, attaches to the cell membrane of the vascular endothelium. This allows the bacteria to establish a foothold and invade the host's cells. By attaching to the cell membrane, Rickettsia can avoid being engulfed by cells and multiply in the lumen of the blood vessels. This attachment also facilitates dissemination via the lymphatic system, allowing the bacteria to spread throughout the host's body.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following methods can sufficiently diagnose C. trachomatis

    • Direct fluorescent assay

    • Culture from exudate

    • Nucleic amplification of urine

    • A & C

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A & C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A & C, which means that both the direct fluorescent assay and nucleic amplification of urine can sufficiently diagnose C. trachomatis. The direct fluorescent assay is a diagnostic method that uses fluorescently labeled antibodies to detect the presence of C. trachomatis antigens. Nucleic amplification of urine involves amplifying and detecting specific DNA or RNA sequences of C. trachomatis in urine samples. These two methods are effective in diagnosing C. trachomatis infection.

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  • 12. 

    Lymphogranuloma venereum can be described as which of the following

    • A variant of the rickettsia bacteria

    • May be present with N. gonorrhea infection

    • Occurs in children and may lead to blindness

    • Common cause of pneumonia

    Correct Answer
    A. May be present with N. gonorrhea infection
    Explanation
    Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. It is characterized by the formation of genital ulcers and swollen lymph nodes in the groin area. LGV can coexist with N. gonorrhea infection, meaning that a person infected with LGV may also have a concurrent infection with N. gonorrhea. This co-infection can complicate the diagnosis and treatment of both infections.

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  • 13. 

    The drug of choice for rickettsial infections is which of the following?

    • Tetracylcine

    • Doxycycline

    • Fluoroquinolones

    • Trimethoprim

    Correct Answer
    A. Doxycycline
    Explanation
    Doxycycline is the drug of choice for rickettsial infections because it is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that is effective against the bacteria that cause these infections. It is a tetracycline antibiotic and has been shown to be highly effective in treating rickettsial infections such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever and typhus. Doxycycline works by inhibiting the growth and replication of the bacteria, thereby helping to eliminate the infection. It is well-tolerated and has a good safety profile, making it an ideal choice for the treatment of rickettsial infections.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following describes an Elementary body?

    • Developmental form of Rickettsia

    • Noninfectious and found intracellularly in repiratory and GI mucosa

    • Metabolically active and does not attach to epithelium

    • Forms fused inclusions except for C. pneumonia

    Correct Answer
    A. Forms fused inclusions except for C. pneumonia
    Explanation
    An elementary body is a developmental form of Rickettsia that forms fused inclusions, except for C. pneumonia. This means that when Rickettsia is in the elementary body form, it can form clusters or groups within host cells, except in the case of C. pneumonia. This characteristic helps differentiate C. pneumonia from other types of Rickettsia.

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  • 15. 

    Herpes like lesions are most likely due to which of the followin

    • C. pneumoniae

    • Rickettsia

    • LGV biovariant

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. LGV biovariant
    Explanation
    Herpes-like lesions are most likely due to LGV biovariant. This is because LGV (Lymphogranuloma venereum) is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacteria Chlamydia trachomatis. It primarily affects the lymph nodes and can cause genital ulcers or sores that resemble herpes. The other options, C. pneumoniae and Rickettsia, are not typically associated with causing herpes-like lesions.

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  • 16. 

    A Pt. with non-flulike symptoms reports to the ER for  C. pneumonia. After running routine tests you find out she is pregnant, What is the best drug therapy?

    • Azythromizin 7 days

    • Doxycycline 7 days

    • Erythromycin

    • 3 weeks of therapy

    Correct Answer
    A. Erythromycin
    Explanation
    Erythromycin is the best drug therapy in this case because it is considered safe to use during pregnancy. Both azithromycin and doxycycline are contraindicated in pregnancy as they can potentially harm the developing fetus. Erythromycin, on the other hand, is commonly used to treat various infections during pregnancy and is considered safe for both the mother and the baby. The duration of therapy may vary depending on the specific condition and severity of the infection.

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  • 17. 

    A patient presents with coronary artery disease. Which of the following findings may be expected?

    • Previous rickettsial infection

    • C. trachomatis infection

    • M. tuberculosis infection

    • Previous C. pneumoniae infection

    Correct Answer
    A. Previous C. pneumoniae infection
    Explanation
    Patients with coronary artery disease may have a previous C. pneumoniae infection. This is because C. pneumoniae is a common cause of respiratory infections and has been associated with the development of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is believed that the bacteria may directly infect vascular cells and contribute to the development of plaques in the arteries. Therefore, a previous C. pneumoniae infection may be expected in a patient with coronary artery disease.

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  • 18. 

    C. trachomatis damage is linked  to which of the following?

    • Cell mediated host response to serovars

    • Bacterial release of protease that cause cell lysis

    • Reiter's syndrome in women

    • Serovars are immobile and no exudate is present

    Correct Answer
    A. Cell mediated host response to serovars
    Explanation
    The correct answer is cell mediated host response to serovars. C. trachomatis is an intracellular bacterium that causes damage through the host's immune response. The immune response involves the activation of T cells, specifically CD4+ T cells, which release cytokines and chemokines to recruit other immune cells to the site of infection. This cell-mediated response leads to inflammation and tissue damage, which can result in various clinical manifestations depending on the serovar involved.

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  • 19. 

    Which bacteria infects cells involved in atherogenesis?

    • C. Trachomatis

    • C. Pneumoniae

    • Rickettsia

    • Q fever

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Pneumoniae
    Explanation
    C. Pneumoniae is the correct answer because it is a bacteria known to infect cells involved in atherogenesis. Atherogenesis refers to the formation of atherosclerosis, which is the buildup of plaque in the arteries. C. Pneumoniae has been found in atherosclerotic plaques and is believed to contribute to the development and progression of atherosclerosis. This bacteria can infect endothelial cells, smooth muscle cells, and macrophages, leading to inflammation and the formation of plaques.

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  • 20. 

    Chlamydiae obtain nutrients through which of the following methods?

    • Straw like appendages similar to type III secretion system

    • Transform into elementary body and escape phagosome

    • Release siderophores and hydrilipases

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Straw like appendages similar to type III secretion system
    Explanation
    Chlamydiae obtain nutrients through straw-like appendages similar to a type III secretion system. This means that they use these appendages to extract nutrients from host cells by creating a channel through which they can directly access the host's resources. This method allows Chlamydiae to acquire the necessary nutrients for their survival and replication.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following would rule out Q fever

    • Fever

    • Rash

    • Tick bite

    • High titers

    Correct Answer
    A. Rash
    Explanation
    The presence of a rash would rule out Q fever because Q fever is a bacterial infection caused by Coxiella burnetii, which does not typically cause a rash. Common symptoms of Q fever include fever, fatigue, muscle aches, and headache, but a rash is not typically associated with this condition. Therefore, the presence of a rash would indicate a different underlying cause for the symptoms being experienced.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following similarities exist between rickettsia and chlamydiae

    • Have a 2-form developmental cycle

    • Spread by arthropod vectors

    • Affect blood vessels

    • Murein in cell walls

    Correct Answer
    A. Affect blood vessels
    Explanation
    Chlamydia pneumonia linked to CAD while rickettsia have tropism for vascular endothelial cells

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following methods are used by the Chlamydia in persistence phase?

    • RBs are smaller and consume less nutrients

    • Produce protease to delay cell death

    • Intracellular invasion reduces inflammation

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Produce protease to delay cell death
    Explanation
    During the persistence phase, Chlamydia bacteria produce protease enzymes that help in delaying cell death. This allows the bacteria to survive and persist within the host for a longer period of time. The protease enzymes break down proteins within the host's cells, preventing the cells from undergoing programmed cell death or apoptosis. By delaying cell death, Chlamydia can continue to replicate and cause infection without being eliminated by the host's immune system.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following separates rickettsia from chlamydia

    • Affects the appearance of the skin

    • Multiply in phagosomes

    • Affects blood vessels

    • Can be cleared by strong host defense

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be cleared by strong host defense
    Explanation
    Rickettsia can be cleared by strong host defense, meaning that a strong immune response from the host can effectively eliminate the infection caused by Rickettsia. This is in contrast to Chlamydia, which is known to establish chronic infections and is not easily cleared by the host's immune system.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following infects neutrophils

    • E. chaffeensis

    • E. ewingii

    • Anaplasma phagocytophilum

    • A & B

    • B & C

    Correct Answer
    A. B & C
    Explanation
    Both E. ewingii and Anaplasma phagocytophilum infect neutrophils. E. ewingii is a tick-borne bacterium that causes ewingii ehrlichiosis, a disease characterized by fever, muscle aches, and headache. Anaplasma phagocytophilum is also a tick-borne bacterium that causes anaplasmosis, which leads to symptoms like fever, chills, headache, and muscle aches. Therefore, the correct answer is B & C.

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  • Mar 15, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 28, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Chinedua
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