Organ Pathology - Handout 2-6

27 Questions | Total Attempts: 78

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Pathology Quizzes & Trivia

Pathology is the causal study of pathogens, their consequences, and the treatment as a result. The quiz below tests your knowledge on organ pathology. Do you think you have what it takes to take it up? Find out below.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following is not a characteristic of benign tumors?
    • A. 

      Slow growing

    • B. 

      Non encapsulated

    • C. 

      Expansile growth

    • D. 

      Well differentiated

  • 2. 
    A cell has become cancerous, which phase of the cell cycle will it never again enter?
    • A. 

      S

    • B. 

      G1

    • C. 

      M

    • D. 

      G0

  • 3. 
    Overproduction of which of the following will cause a decrease in apoptosis?
    • A. 

      Bcl2

    • B. 

      BAX

    • C. 

      P53

  • 4. 
    The more well differentiated a tumor cell is, the more aggressive it will most likely be.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 5. 
    A well differentiated tumor will most likely be given a low grade (G1) rating on the TNM scale
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 6. 
    Your patient explains that their breast cancer is stage 3, you know this means...
    • A. 

      The cancer may have spread to the liver (distant organ)

    • B. 

      The cancer has not metastasized

    • C. 

      The cancer is benign

    • D. 

      The cancer may have spread to the lymph nodes (nearby site)

  • 7. 
    Breast Cancer in men
    • A. 

      Is much less aggressive than breast cancer in women

    • B. 

      Is diagnosed about half as much as breast cancer in women

    • C. 

      Is equally as aggressive as breast cancer in women

    • D. 

      Is much more aggressive than breast cancer in women

  • 8. 
    Which of the following conditions would increase a patient's risk for developing breast cancer? (Select 2)
    • A. 

      Taking oral contraceptives

    • B. 

      Early menopause

    • C. 

      Early menarche

    • D. 

      Late menarche

  • 9. 
    A patient presents with a Roth Spot. Which of the following should you, as a clinician, rule out before proceeding with any other diagnosis?
    • A. 

      Lymphoma

    • B. 

      Aplastic anemia

    • C. 

      Polycythemia

    • D. 

      Leukemia

  • 10. 
    In a prostate screening, which blood PSA levels would be considered normal?
    • A. 

      6 ng/ml

    • B. 

      10 ng/ml

    • C. 

      12 ng/ml

    • D. 

      3 ng/ml

  • 11. 
    Which of the following are true regarding osteoblastic tumors? (Select 2)
    • A. 

      They are bone forming tumors

    • B. 

      They are bone destruction tumors

    • C. 

      They are associated with breast cancer

    • D. 

      They are associated with prostate cancer

  • 12. 
    After moving to a higher elevation city, you would expect which of the following changes? (Select 2)
    • A. 

      An increase in hematocrit

    • B. 

      A decrease in hematocrit

    • C. 

      An increase in erythropoietin production

    • D. 

      A decrease in erythropoietin production

  • 13. 
    A patient with low blood iron, high transferrin, and low ferritin most likely has  (Select 2)
    • A. 

      Iron deficiency anemia

    • B. 

      Megaloblastic anemia

    • C. 

      Anemia of chronic disease

    • D. 

      Koilonychia

  • 14. 
    Your patient has megaloblastic anemia due to a B12 deficiency. You incorrectly assume its a folate deficiency and increase their dosage. Which of the following is true? 
    • A. 

      The megaloblastic anemia will be cured as folate compensates for Vit B12

    • B. 

      They will still develop irreversible neurological issues

    • C. 

      The patients tongue will probably be red and painful

    • D. 

      Increased folate does not mask Vit B12 deficiency induced hematological symptoms

  • 15. 
    Which of the following is NOT true of anemia of chronic disease?
    • A. 

      May be caused by excessive cytokine release

    • B. 

      Can be treated with iron therapy

    • C. 

      Erythroid precursors are unable to properly use iron

    • D. 

      May have an increase in ferritin deposit

  • 16. 
    Which of the following is not an anemia caused by an issue at the level of the stem cell?
    • A. 

      MDS

    • B. 

      Pure red cell aplasia

    • C. 

      PNH

    • D. 

      Aplastic anemia

  • 17. 
    If you have one alpha globin chain, what would be the disease?
    • A. 

      Beta thalassemia minor

    • B. 

      Hb h disease

    • C. 

      Barts hydrops fetalis

    • D. 

      Alpha thalassemia Major

  • 18. 
    Which of the following is true of sickle cell anemia?
    • A. 

      The substitution occurs on the alpha gene

    • B. 

      All cells sickle at the same time

    • C. 

      It is due to an amino acid substitution (valine replaces glutamate)

    • D. 

      Patients with sickle cell are at an increased risk for malaria

  • 19. 
    Which of the following is true of acute lymphoblastic leukemia?
    • A. 

      It is the most common leukemia in adults

    • B. 

      It may involve translocation of chromosomes (22 --> 9)

    • C. 

      It is associated with Auer rods

    • D. 

      Hairy cell leukemia falls under this category

  • 20. 
    What MUST be present in order to diagnose AML?
    • A. 

      Auer Rods

    • B. 

      Reed-Sternberg cells

    • C. 

      Bence Jones protein

    • D. 

      Philadelphia Chromosome

  • 21. 
    How would you classify a NHL that is in the axillary nodes, the cervical nodes, and the lung?
    • A. 

      Stage IIE

    • B. 

      Stage IV

    • C. 

      Stage IIIB

    • D. 

      Stage IIA

    • E. 

      Stage I

    • F. 

      Stage IIIE

  • 22. 
    In terms of the coagulation process, which of the following are true regarding platelets. (Select 2)
    • A. 

      Platelet adhesion occurs on exposed collagen with the help of von Willebrand's factor

    • B. 

      Once adhesion occurs, platelets release ADP and Thromboxane A2

    • C. 

      Once adhesion occurs, platelets release PgI2

    • D. 

      Platelet adhesion occurs on endothelial cells due to increased plasmin

  • 23. 
    The extrinsic coagulation pathway
    • A. 

      Slower acting than the intrinsic pathway

    • B. 

      The primary pathway for creating thrombin

    • C. 

      Inhibited by Tissue Factor

    • D. 

      Is less important (quantitatively) than the intrinsic pathway

  • 24. 
    You want to decrease coagulation, which of the following would you increase? (Select 2)
    • A. 

      Thrombin

    • B. 

      Tissue Factor

    • C. 

      PGI2

    • D. 

      Thromboxane A2

    • E. 

      Plasmin

  • 25. 
    Prothrombin time (PT) test 
    • A. 

      Is normal if it is 25-30 seconds

    • B. 

      Tests the extrinsic coagulation pathway

    • C. 

      Tests both intrinsic and extrinsic pathway

    • D. 

      Is abnormal is less than 15 seconds