Air Force EOC 2T251 Sep 2013

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1. Which part of a pintle hook assembly will be used in all pintle hook towing operations?

Explanation

The safety/cotter pin is an essential component of a pintle hook assembly that is used in all pintle hook towing operations. It is responsible for securing the pintle hook to the hitch receiver and preventing it from accidentally disconnecting during towing. Without the safety/cotter pin, there is a risk of the pintle hook becoming detached, leading to a dangerous situation on the road. Therefore, the safety/cotter pin is necessary for the safe and successful operation of pintle hook towing.

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About This Quiz
Air Force EOC 2T251 Sep 2013 - Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge relevant to the Air Force Specialty Code 2T251, focusing on roles in air transportation and logistics. It covers duties, command structures, and systems like... see morethe National Air Mobility System, preparing learners for roles as Air Transportation Journeymen. see less

2. Which type of shipment must you annotate on the manifest and write "O/S" on the righthand margin next to the information you added?

Explanation

When a shipment exceeds the expected quantity or weight, it is considered an over shipment. To keep track of such shipments, it is necessary to annotate them on the manifest. Writing "O/S" on the right-hand margin next to the added information helps to easily identify and differentiate over shipments from other types of shipments. Therefore, the correct answer is over shipment.

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3. If you are stopped on the flight line at night and your headlights are on, what should you do if an aircraft is taxiing towards your area?

Explanation

When stopped on the flight line at night with headlights on, turning the headlights off and emergency flashers on is the correct action to take if an aircraft is taxiing towards your area. This is because the headlights can blind the pilots and interfere with their vision, potentially causing accidents or confusion. By turning off the headlights and using emergency flashers, you can alert the pilots to your presence without compromising their visibility.

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4. When approaching the ramp for final positioning, what feature of the 10K forklift should you use to have smooth, positive control?

Explanation

The inching pedal on the 10K forklift should be used to have smooth, positive control when approaching the ramp for final positioning. The inching pedal allows for precise control of the forklift's speed and allows the operator to inch forward or backward slowly, which is crucial when maneuvering in tight spaces or when making delicate movements. This feature ensures that the forklift can be positioned accurately and safely on the ramp.

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5. You and your team have made every effort to find a qualified driver to operate the construction equipment that you will load on the C–130. Since you cannot find anyone, your ramp supervisor must choose someone from your team. Which of the following must your supervisor choose?

Explanation

The correct answer is "The most qualified load team member." In this scenario, the supervisor must choose someone from the team to operate the construction equipment for loading on the C-130. Since they were unable to find a qualified driver, it is crucial to select the most qualified load team member to ensure safe and efficient operation. This decision ensures that the equipment is handled properly and reduces the risk of accidents or damage during the loading process.

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6. When a passenger is too large to be safely restrained in a single aircraft seat using a single seatbelt, handle him or her as you would

Explanation

The correct answer is a differently-abled passenger. This means that when a passenger is too large to be safely restrained in a single aircraft seat using a single seatbelt, they should be treated with the same care and consideration as a passenger with a disability. This may involve providing additional accommodations or assistance to ensure their safety and comfort during the flight.

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7. When assigning personnel to work crews, which of the following is not a consideration?

Explanation

Assigning personnel to the same duties every day is not a consideration when assigning work crews. This implies that the work crews should not be limited to performing the same tasks repeatedly, but instead, their assignments should vary based on the work center's current and future needs. By assigning different duties, the personnel can gain a broader skill set and adapt to different tasks, leading to a more efficient and flexible workforce.

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8. The purpose of the before-operation vehicle inspection is to ensure

Explanation

The purpose of the before-operation vehicle inspection is to ensure that the vehicle is safe and in commission before you operate it. This inspection is conducted to identify any potential issues or malfunctions that may affect the vehicle's performance or safety. By conducting this inspection, you can address any problems before operating the vehicle, ensuring that it is in a suitable condition for use. It is important to prioritize safety and ensure that the vehicle is in proper working order before operating it.

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9. Which forklift is handy when working in tight spaces because its short wheelbase allows you to make tight turns?

Explanation

The 4K forklift is handy when working in tight spaces because its short wheelbase allows for tight turns.

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10. . A short shipment is a shipment that

Explanation

The correct answer is "is listed on the manifest, but did not arrive at the air terminal." This means that the shipment was supposed to be included in the manifest, but for some reason, it did not reach the air terminal. It could have been lost, misplaced, or there could have been an error in the documentation.

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11. When loadmasters sign the hazardous brief sheet, below their signature they must legibly print

Explanation

Loadmasters are required to sign the hazardous brief sheet, indicating that they have received and understood the information provided. Below their signature, loadmasters must legibly print their names. This is important for identification purposes and to ensure that there is a clear record of who has acknowledged the briefing. The other options listed (units, mission number, certification statement) may also be important for record-keeping, but the question specifically asks for what loadmasters must print below their signature, and their names are the correct answer.

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12. If you are crossing the active runway and see a steady red light signal, what action should you take?

Explanation

When crossing an active runway and encountering a steady red light signal, the correct action to take is to stop. This signal indicates that your vehicle should not be moved, emphasizing the importance of halting any further movement. It is crucial to comply with this signal to ensure the safety of all individuals and aircraft in the vicinity.

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13. How do you know when the waste tank on the lavatory service truck (LST) is full?

Explanation

The correct answer is to look through the sight window. This is because the sight window allows you to visually inspect the waste tank and determine if it is full or not. It provides a clear view of the contents inside the tank, allowing you to assess its level and decide if it needs to be emptied. The other options, such as opening the tank and looking inside or looking at the gauge in the control panel, do not provide a direct visual confirmation of the tank's fullness. Waiting until the flow meter zeroes out may not be a reliable method as it depends on the accuracy of the meter.

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14. How often will security cage cargo be inventoried?

Explanation

The correct answer is "At the beginning and end of each shift." This means that the security cage cargo will be inventoried both at the start and at the end of each shift. This ensures that any discrepancies or missing items can be identified and addressed promptly. By conducting inventories at these specific times, it helps maintain the security and accountability of the cargo throughout the day.

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15. Before passengers walk through the magnetometer, they must

Explanation

Passengers are required to empty their pockets into a small tray before walking through the magnetometer. This is done to ensure that no prohibited items or objects that may trigger the alarm are present in their pockets. By emptying their pockets, it allows for a more accurate screening process and reduces the chances of false alarms or the need for additional pat-downs.

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16. What is the first thing you should do when operating the hand-held metal detectors to inspect passengers?

Explanation

When operating hand-held metal detectors to inspect passengers, it is important to inform the passenger about the purpose and procedure of the inspection. This helps to establish trust and cooperation between the security personnel and the passenger. It also ensures that the passenger understands the process and is prepared for the inspection. By explaining why and how the inspection will be conducted, it reduces any potential confusion or resistance from the passenger, making the overall process smoother and more efficient.

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17. If you are wearing eyeglasses and bulky uniform items with cords and strings, what must you do before working around moving parts and machinery?

Explanation

When working around moving parts and machinery, it is important to secure any eyeglasses and bulky uniform items with cords and strings to minimize the hazard. This is because loose items can get caught in the machinery, causing accidents and injuries. By securing them, the risk of entanglement and potential harm is reduced, ensuring a safer working environment.

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18. In which part of a vehicle inspection will you clean and refuel the bus, if necessary, and ensure passengers did not damage any part of the bus interior?

Explanation

After operation, during the vehicle inspection, the bus will be cleaned and refueled if necessary. This is also the time to ensure that passengers did not damage any part of the bus interior. This step is important to maintain the cleanliness and functionality of the bus, as well as to identify any potential damages caused by passengers.

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19. Which command provides common-user and commercial air, land, and sea transportation?

Explanation

The correct answer is US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM). USTRANSCOM is responsible for providing common-user and commercial air, land, and sea transportation. They coordinate and execute the transportation of personnel, equipment, and supplies for the Department of Defense. This command plays a crucial role in supporting military operations and maintaining the logistical capabilities of the armed forces.

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20. You are within 10 feet of an aircraft. In which zone are you?

Explanation

Being within 10 feet of an aircraft puts you in the spotter zone. This zone is designated for individuals who are responsible for observing and ensuring the safety of the aircraft during various operations. They are typically positioned close to the aircraft to provide visual guidance and assist in preventing any potential hazards or accidents.

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21. What must you do before you print and sign your name on the AF IMT 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer, when picking up meals from the flight kitchen?

Explanation

Before printing and signing your name on the AF IMT 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer, when picking up meals from the flight kitchen, you must verify that you have every item listed on the form. This ensures that you have received all the meals that are supposed to be transferred and helps in maintaining accurate inventory records.

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22. Before a manually completed mission's Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, is forwarded to the Records, Reports, and Analysis section, the shift supervisor will

Explanation

The shift supervisor is responsible for reviewing the completed AMC Form 77 for accuracy and content before it is forwarded to the Records, Reports, and Analysis section. This ensures that all the necessary information is included and that there are no errors or discrepancies. Additionally, the shift supervisor signs the form to indicate that they have reviewed it and found it to be accurate. This step is important in maintaining the integrity of the form and ensuring that all necessary information is properly documented.

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23. If you are performing duties in Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 2T251, which title describes you best?

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Air Transportation Journeyman. This is the best title that describes someone performing duties in AFSC 2T251 because it indicates a higher level of skill and experience than an apprentice. A journeyman is someone who has completed their training and is considered proficient in their field. Therefore, if you are in AFSC 2T251, the title of Air Transportation Journeyman would be the most appropriate description for your role.

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24. Which method of airdrop begins with a 15-foot drogue parachute deploying and ends with the main cargo parachute deploying after the platform exits the aircraft?

Explanation

The method of airdrop described in the question is Extraction. In this method, a 15-foot drogue parachute is deployed first to stabilize the load. Once the load is stable, the main cargo parachute is deployed after the platform exits the aircraft. This method is commonly used for delivering heavy or large cargo that cannot be easily dropped from the aircraft without a stabilizing drogue parachute.

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25. When receiving a shipment into the air terminal, you do not have to inspect for

Explanation

When receiving a shipment into the air terminal, it is important to inspect for matching documentation to ensure that the shipment corresponds to the accompanying paperwork. It is also crucial to inspect for signs of damage or pilferage to assess the condition of the shipment. Additionally, appropriate markings and labels need to be checked to ensure that the shipment is properly identified and handled. However, the only item that does not need to be inspected is the correct NSNs (National Stock Numbers), as they are already assumed to be accurate.

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26. You must correct a discrepancy with a shipment received at your terminal        

Explanation

When the discrepancy is minor and can be corrected on the spot, it is necessary to correct it immediately. This ensures that the shipment is accurate and meets the required standards. By addressing minor discrepancies promptly, it helps maintain efficiency in the terminal operations and prevents any further issues or delays in the shipment process.

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27. When you attach the RFID tag to a pallet, ensure it is attached where?

Explanation

The RFID tag should be attached outside of any plastic or over wrapping when you attach it to a pallet. This is because the plastic or over wrapping may interfere with the RFID signal and prevent it from being read accurately. Attaching the tag outside of any plastic or over wrapping ensures that it is easily accessible and can be read by RFID readers without any obstruction.

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28. What is the minimum number of fire extinguishers that a vehicle must contain while transporting explosives?

Explanation

When transporting explosives, it is crucial to have a sufficient number of fire extinguishers to mitigate any potential fire hazards. Having only one fire extinguisher may not be enough to effectively suppress a fire, especially if it is a large or spreading fire. Therefore, the minimum number of fire extinguishers required for a vehicle transporting explosives is two, ensuring that there is an additional extinguisher available in case the first one is not sufficient or becomes unusable.

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29.  Before performing any concurrent servicing operations, who is required to ground themselves to a suitable grounding point or a bare, unpainted portion of the aircraft?

Explanation

All personnel involved in the operation are required to ground themselves to a suitable grounding point or a bare, unpainted portion of the aircraft. This ensures that any static electricity is discharged safely and prevents potential damage to sensitive equipment or the aircraft itself. Grounding is a standard safety procedure in aviation maintenance and servicing operations to minimize the risk of electrostatic discharge and protect both personnel and equipment.

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30. When preparing an in-flight meal request, how many meals would you offer passengers if the flight is eight hours long and covers one meal period?

Explanation

The correct answer is "One meal" because the question states that the flight covers one meal period, which implies that only one meal will be offered. The other options, such as snacks and beverages only, three meals, or two meals, are not applicable in this scenario as they go against the given information.

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31. The coordinated use, synchronization, and sharing of two or more military departments' logistics forces is called

Explanation

Joint logistics refers to the coordinated use, synchronization, and sharing of two or more military departments' logistics forces. It involves the integration of resources, capabilities, and processes to support joint military operations. Joint logistics ensures efficient and effective logistics support to all participating military departments, enabling them to work together seamlessly and achieve their mission objectives. Joint logistics is essential for enhancing interoperability, reducing redundancies, and maximizing the overall effectiveness of military operations.

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32. After reviewing Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 56, Rehandled Workload, section leadership will forward it to the

Explanation

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33. If you are tasked to manifest, transport, and load passengers, to which deployment work center would you be assigned?

Explanation

If you are tasked with manifesting, transporting, and loading passengers, you would be assigned to the Personnel Deployment Function (PDF). This is because the PDF is responsible for managing and coordinating the deployment of personnel, which includes tasks such as manifesting (keeping track of the passengers), transportation, and loading of passengers. The other options, such as the Deployment Control Center (DCC), Cargo Deployment Function (CDF), and Arrival/Departure Airfield Control Group (A/DACG), are not directly related to passenger transportation and would not be the correct assignment for this task.

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34. When is a shipment, other than TP–4 cargo, considered cleared by the ACA?

Explanation

A shipment, other than TP–4 cargo, is considered cleared by the ACA when the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the ATCMD date shipped field.

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35. What are the two types of customers?

Explanation

The two types of customers are internal and external. Internal customers refer to individuals or departments within the same organization who rely on the products or services provided by another department. External customers, on the other hand, are individuals or organizations outside of the company who purchase or use the products or services offered by the company. This categorization helps businesses understand and differentiate between the different types of customers they interact with in order to tailor their strategies and approaches accordingly.

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36. During a joint inspection, after the deploying unit corrects an item previously found to have discrepancies, you will identify that on the DD Form 2133, Joint Airlift Inspection Record, by

Explanation

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37. An 8,000-pound piece of cargo is built on a pallet and you are responsible for adding enough restraint to get the pallet to the aircraft. How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain?

Explanation

Each ring on a 463L pallet can restrain up to 7,500 pounds of cargo.

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38. Operating the starter continuously on the Tunner for longer than a minimum of how many seconds will cause it to overheat?

Explanation

Operating the starter continuously on the Tunner for longer than 30 seconds will cause it to overheat.

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39. When checking the travel category to determine travel eligibility, one way dependents and family members are authorized to travel in space-required status is when they are

Explanation

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40. Which TP is considered "deferred air freight" and is moved as a last priority, only if there is room on a given aircraft?

Explanation

TP-4 is considered "deferred air freight" and is moved as a last priority, only if there is room on a given aircraft. This means that TP-4 is the lowest priority among the given options and will only be transported by air if there is space available after all other higher priority shipments have been accommodated.

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41. You must obtain a signature from everyone who picks up terminating cargo, except

Explanation

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42. In the hazardous materials compatibility tables, the letter "O" means these articles

Explanation

The correct answer states that articles with the letter "O" in the hazardous materials compatibility tables must not be loaded, transported, or stored together unless separated by at least 88 inches in all directions. This means that these articles are incompatible and should be kept separate to prevent any potential hazards or reactions.

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43. If active duty Air Force SSgt James Curtis is traveling with emergency status annotated on his leave form, which of the following Continental United States (CONUS) or overseas unfunded travel options is SSgt Curtis eligible for?

Explanation

If SSgt James Curtis is traveling with emergency status annotated on his leave form, he is only eligible for CONUS to CONUS travel. This means he can only travel within the continental United States and cannot travel overseas or from overseas to CONUS.

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44. Which describes the proper way to clean and service an oven?

Explanation

The proper way to clean and service an oven is to remove the dirty racks, clean the oven interior, install clean racks, and ensure the oven is operational. This process ensures that both the interior and racks are cleaned effectively, and that the oven is in proper working condition after cleaning.

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45. What is the capacity of the A–22 cargo bag?

Explanation

The capacity of the A-22 cargo bag is 2,200 pounds.

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46. Using manual procedures, when you annotate the GMT hour code and last two digits of the Julian date of arrival on the TCMD, what does it represent?

Explanation

When annotating the GMT hour code and last two digits of the Julian date of arrival on the TCMD, it represents the SET. The SET stands for Scheduled Equipment Time, which is the estimated time of arrival for the aircraft. This annotation helps in tracking and managing the arrival and departure times of the aircraft.

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47. You are loading a heavy piece of cargo on an aircraft between the treadways. Which type of shoring will allow you to place it on supporting beams that span to the treadways?

Explanation

Bridge shoring is the correct answer because it allows you to place the heavy cargo on supporting beams that span to the treadways. This type of shoring is specifically designed to create a bridge-like structure that can support the weight of the cargo and distribute it evenly across the treadways. Sleeper shoring, parking shoring, and approach shoring are not suitable for this scenario as they do not provide the necessary support and structure needed for loading heavy cargo between the treadways.

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48. Through which system does the Air Force provide rapid global mobility to the defense transportation system (DTS)?

Explanation

The Air Force provides rapid global mobility to the defense transportation system through the National Air Mobility System (NAMS). This system is responsible for coordinating and executing the transportation of personnel and cargo for the military. It ensures that resources are efficiently and effectively transported to support military operations worldwide. The NAMS plays a crucial role in maintaining the Air Force's ability to rapidly respond to any global contingency or crisis.

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49. After you have completed your final headcount on the aircraft and discover you are missing one passenger who is listed on the manifest, what is your next step?

Explanation

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50. Non-unitized warehouse skids or individual containers of explosives will be secured to forklifts for movement. When is the exemption for this is when

Explanation

When container skids/pallets have integral 360 degree tine enclosures, there is an exemption for securing them to forklifts for movement. This means that these containers are already designed to securely hold the explosives in place and prevent them from shifting or falling off during transportation. Therefore, there is no need to further secure them to the forklifts.

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51. Up to how many angles does tie down provide restraint for when applied properly?

Explanation

When applied properly, a tie down provides restraint for up to three angles. This means that it can effectively secure and stabilize an object or structure in three different directions, preventing it from moving or shifting.

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52. While updating and maintaining the space-available standby listing on 23 Apr 09, which passenger with the following date and time of sign-up will you purge from the listing?

Explanation

The correct answer is 22 Feb 09/0800. This is because the question asks for the passenger with the earliest date and time of sign-up to be purged from the listing. Among the given options, 22 Feb 09/0800 is the earliest sign-up date and time.

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53. Which is not a function of capability forecasting?

Explanation

The function of capability forecasting involves monitoring and clearing explosives shipments, accomplishing aircraft capability schedules, and coordinating Special Assignment Airlift/Air Missions (SAAM/SAM). However, delivering documentation to and from the aircraft is not directly related to forecasting capabilities.

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54. During a joint inspection (JI), if the deploying unit cannot correct discrepancies with their cargo right away, to what area will you send the cargo until it is corrected?

Explanation

During a joint inspection (JI), if the deploying unit cannot correct discrepancies with their cargo right away, the cargo will be sent to the frustrated cargo area until it is corrected.

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55. If the deploying unit can no longer make changes to the cargo, in which Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) area of activity is it located?

Explanation

The ready line/loading ramp area is where the cargo is prepared for deployment and loaded onto the aircraft. Once the cargo is in this area, the deploying unit can no longer make changes to it. Therefore, if the deploying unit can no longer make changes to the cargo, it is located in the ready line/loading ramp area.

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56. Before a vehicle with an accompanying load can be accepted for airlift during a joint inspection (JI), its cargo must be restrained with a minimum of

Explanation

The correct answer is ½-inch diameter rope. This is because before a vehicle with an accompanying load can be accepted for airlift during a joint inspection (JI), its cargo must be restrained. The most appropriate and effective way to restrain the cargo is by using a minimum of ½-inch diameter rope. This ensures that the cargo is securely held in place during the airlift operation. Nylon rope, bungee cords, and straps of any size from a commercial source may not provide the same level of strength and reliability as the ½-inch diameter rope.

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57. A cargo user has returned 60 empty 463L pallets to your unit, which you will be shipping to another location via air. How many of these pallets maximum can you ship in one stack, provided adequate dunnage is appropriately placed, and excluding the base support pallet?

Explanation

The maximum number of pallets that can be shipped in one stack is 20. This is because the question states that adequate dunnage is appropriately placed, which means that the pallets can be stacked on top of each other. Since there are 60 pallets in total, and the base support pallet is excluded, the maximum number of pallets in one stack would be 20.

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58. If you are a part of the traffic management specialty in the transportation career field, which duties would you perform?

Explanation

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59. If an authorized distinguished visitor (DV) will be going directly to the aircraft and not through the passenger terminal for travel, how will this passenger receive an antihijack inspection?

Explanation

Passengers are not allowed to bypass the passenger terminal and go directly to the aircraft. Therefore, an authorized distinguished visitor (DV) who will be going directly to the aircraft will receive an antihijack inspection from the aircraft commander. The aircraft commander will conduct the inspection and provide the necessary documentation to the passenger service personnel.

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60. When you are downloading passengers off of a C–5, the first passenger you would allow to deplane first would be a

Explanation

The correct answer is "space-available distinguished visitor traveling on ordinary leave." This is because, when downloading passengers off of a C-5 aircraft, the priority is given to passengers based on their category and status. Distinguished visitors are typically given priority over other passengers, and if they are traveling on ordinary leave, they would be considered space-available. Therefore, they would be the first passenger allowed to deplane.

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61. If you are at the station where a passenger reported a lost bag on 23 April 12, how much time do you have to find the lost baggage and update the remarks section on Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 134, Mishandled Baggage Report before only the Baggage Service Center (BSC) will assume responsibility for the claim?

Explanation

The correct answer is 5 days. The Baggage Service Center (BSC) will assume responsibility for the claim if the lost baggage is not found and the remarks section on the AMC Form 134, Mishandled Baggage Report is not updated within 5 days. This means that the passenger must report the lost bag to the station on 23 April 12 and the station has until 28 April 12 to find the bag and update the report. After 5 days, the BSC will handle the claim.

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62. What hazardous materials qualification must load planners have?

Explanation

Load planners must have the qualification of an inspector in order to handle hazardous materials. This is because inspectors are trained and knowledgeable in identifying and assessing hazardous materials, ensuring that proper handling and transportation procedures are followed to prevent accidents and protect public safety. Inspectors are responsible for inspecting and verifying the packaging, labeling, and documentation of hazardous materials to ensure compliance with regulations and standards. Their expertise is crucial in preventing potential risks and ensuring the safe transport of hazardous materials.

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63. How many pallets can the C–17 hold in its aerial delivery system and its logistics rail system, respectively?

Explanation

The C-17 can hold 11 pallets in its aerial delivery system and 18 pallets in its logistics rail system.

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64. When you are unable to detect the source that set off the alarm on the hand-held magnetometer, passengers have the choice of

Explanation

Passengers who are unable to detect the source that set off the alarm on the hand-held magnetometer have the option of either consenting to a frisk by security forces personnel or being denied boarding. This means that if they refuse to undergo a frisk, they will not be allowed to board the transportation.

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65. When you are tasked to load non-expendable supplies on an Air Mobility Command (AMC) C–5, which form should you use?

Explanation

The correct answer is AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist. This form is used when loading non-expendable supplies on an AMC C-5 aircraft. It serves as a checklist to ensure that all necessary supplies are loaded and accounted for before the aircraft takes off. This form helps maintain proper inventory and ensures that the necessary supplies are available for the mission.

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66. Before a vehicle can be accepted for airlift on a KC–10 with ¾ tank of fuel, the deploying unit must have

Explanation

The given correct answer states that vehicles on KC-10s are never allowed to carry ¾ tank of fuel. This implies that before a vehicle can be accepted for airlift on a KC-10, it must not have ¾ tank of fuel. This suggests that there are restrictions or regulations in place regarding the amount of fuel that can be carried on KC-10s.

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67. You can readily identify a unit move TCN because a zero is in what position?

Explanation

A unit move TCN is identified by a zero in the 15th position. The question implies that there is a specific pattern or arrangement in a unit move TCN, and the presence of a zero in the 15th position is a distinguishing characteristic. This suggests that the other positions do not contain zeros in a unit move TCN.

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68. The Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 253 and AMC IMT 19 are used for passengers to

Explanation

The correct answer is "comment on the service they received while traveling within AMC." This is because the AMC Form 253 and AMC IMT 19 are used for passengers to provide feedback or comments on the service they received while traveling within the Air Mobility Command. These forms allow passengers to express their opinions and experiences regarding the quality of service provided during their journey within AMC.

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69. How much water or solution do you use to rinse and fill the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) waste tank?

Explanation

The correct answer is 11 gallons. This is the amount of water or solution that is used to rinse and fill the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) waste tank.

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70. The ATCMD is not used to

Explanation

The ATCMD is not used to allow cargo processors to calculate critical leg ACL information. The ATCMD stands for Air Terminal Cargo Movement Data and it is a system used to provide notification to the APOE (Aerial Port of Embarkation) that a shipment is inbound and requires further transfer. It helps in coordinating the movement of cargo and ensures efficient processing of shipments through the ACA (Aerial Port of Debarkation).

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71. You are building a pallet destined for Aviano AB, Italy and only have space for one more piece of cargo on the pallet. All of the available pieces have the same destination and transportation priority. Which other two factors will you use to consider which piece to build?

Explanation

When building a pallet with limited space for one more piece of cargo, the two factors to consider are the movement indicator and SET. The movement indicator indicates the urgency or time sensitivity of the cargo, helping prioritize items that need to be delivered quickly. SET (Special Equipment Code) refers to any special handling requirements or equipment needed for the cargo. By considering both the movement indicator and SET, you can ensure that the piece of cargo chosen is both time-sensitive and can be handled properly during transportation.

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72. Which category of hazard is considered a distinct and separate hazardous item that is a component of a larger item and does not require a hazardous materials label?

Explanation

A secondary hazard is considered a distinct and separate hazardous item that is a component of a larger item and does not require a hazardous materials label. This means that even though the secondary hazard may be hazardous on its own, it does not need to be labeled separately because it is already included in the labeling of the larger item.

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73. At a minimum, seal consolidated registered mail containers with

Explanation

This answer is correct because it includes all the necessary items to seal consolidated registered mail containers. Packing tape is commonly used to seal boxes, while plastic or metal bands provide additional security. Boxcar seals are specifically designed for sealing containers and are typically required for registered mail. The combination of packing tape, plastic or metal bands, and boxcar seals ensures a secure seal for the containers.

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74. If using a pry bar to assist with loading, how much can you load on the pry bar?

Explanation

The correct answer is "It depends on the aircraft." This is because the amount of weight that can be loaded on a pry bar will vary depending on the specific aircraft being used. Different aircraft have different weight limits and specifications, so the maximum load that can be placed on a pry bar will vary accordingly.

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75. Which pallet positions on a C–130J (stretch) require safety aisles?

Explanation

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76. War reserve material (WRM) is equipment and other resources, authorized for wartime to maximize war-fighting capability, that are positioned as

Explanation

War reserve material (WRM) refers to equipment and resources that are authorized for wartime use in order to enhance war-fighting capability. These materials are strategically positioned as swing stock and starter stock, or a combination of both. Swing stock refers to items that are readily available to replace damaged or depleted equipment during combat operations. Starter stock, on the other hand, consists of essential items needed to initiate operations or establish a new base. By having a combination of swing stock and starter stock, the military can ensure that they have the necessary resources to sustain and initiate operations during wartime.

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77. When preparing the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 148/2, Boarding Pass/Ticket/Receipt, how many copies will you complete and how are they distributed?

Explanation

When preparing the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 148/2, Boarding Pass/Ticket/Receipt, two copies are completed. One copy is given to the passenger, and the other copy is kept for passenger service records. There is no need to provide a copy to the in-flight kitchen.

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78. What is the first step in determining pet shipping charges?              

Explanation

The first step in determining pet shipping charges is to determine the total pieces to charge. This means calculating the number of items or pets that are being shipped and will be charged for. This step is important as it helps in accurately calculating the charges based on the quantity of items being shipped.

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79. When preparing the AMC Form 162, In-flight Meal Supplemental Worksheet, from which source document will you get the information to enter the line numbers, type of meal, and passenger costs in section V?

Explanation

The correct answer is Passengers' AMC Form 148/2s. This source document contains the necessary information such as line numbers, type of meal, and passenger costs, which are required to be entered in section V of the AMC Form 162, In-flight Meal Supplemental Worksheet.

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80. When using nets to secure multi-pallet trains, what is the maximum load on two and three pallet trains measuring 96 inches or less?

Explanation

The maximum load on two and three pallet trains measuring 96 inches or less is 26,000 lbs. This means that the nets used to secure these trains must be able to withstand a weight of 26,000 lbs to ensure the safety and stability of the cargo.

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81. Which class requires a placard for 1,001 pounds or more aggregate gross weight of

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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82. At a minimum, how many copies of each manifest must load planning produce?

Explanation

Planning must produce at least 6 copies of each manifest. This is because there are 3 loading docks, and each dock requires 2 copies of the manifest. Therefore, 3 docks multiplied by 2 copies per dock equals 6 copies in total.

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83. Before operating the water pump on the potable water truck, you must ensure the tank contains at least how many gallons?

Explanation

Before operating the water pump on the potable water truck, it is necessary to ensure that the tank contains at least 40 gallons. This minimum requirement ensures that there is an adequate amount of water available for use. Operating the pump without enough water could cause damage to the pump or result in insufficient water supply for the intended purpose. Therefore, it is important to check the tank's water level before operating the pump.

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84. How long do you maintain transportation documentation that pertains to military originating, terminating, and intransit airlift?

Explanation

Transportation documentation that pertains to military originating, terminating, and intransit airlift is maintained for one current year plus one inactive fiscal year as permanent at the base staging area. This means that the documentation is kept for the current year and the previous fiscal year, even if it is no longer active.

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85. A passenger has just reported a lost bag to you and you are preparing an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 134, Mishandled Baggage Report. In how many copies will you prepare the form and to whom does the original go?

Explanation

The correct answer is 3; retain in the AMC Form 136 or forward to the Baggage Service Center (BSC) after five days. This means that three copies of the AMC Form 134, Mishandled Baggage Report, will be prepared. The original copy will be retained in the AMC Form 136 or forwarded to the Baggage Service Center (BSC) after five days.

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86. Before space-available passengers can be entered into the space-available register, which form must they complete?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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87. All personnel performing what functions are required to complete the NWRM fundamentals course?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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88. When briefing passengers on travel restrictions, documents you will ensure they possess if required include a valid photo identification (ID) card,

Explanation

The correct answer is a leave form or pass, official military orders, a passport, visas, and vaccination records only. This means that when briefing passengers on travel restrictions, they must ensure that passengers possess these documents if required. The other options include additional documents that are not necessary for travel restrictions.

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89. Before a deploying unit can claim their cargo is exempt from inspection due to sightsensitivity, they must first receive approval from

Explanation

The correct answer is the service or major command having operational control of the aircraft. This means that before a deploying unit can claim their cargo is exempt from inspection due to sightsensitivity, they need to obtain approval from the service or major command that has operational control over the aircraft. This ensures that the decision to exempt the cargo from inspection is made at a higher level of authority and is in compliance with the established protocols and regulations.

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90. Which hazardous materials class consists of flammable liquids?

Explanation

Class 3 consists of flammable liquids. Flammable liquids are substances that have a flash point below 100 degrees Fahrenheit and can easily catch fire. These liquids can pose a significant risk if not handled properly, as they can ignite and cause fires or explosions. It is important to properly label and handle flammable liquids to ensure the safety of individuals and the environment.

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91. If a bag is excessively damaged and articles from it have become lost or missing, what must you do after annotating the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 134 with the necessary statement?

Explanation

After annotating the AMC Form 134 with the necessary statement, the correct action to take is to list all articles reported missing and the estimated value of each. This is important for record-keeping and to provide documentation for any potential claims or investigations related to the lost or missing items. It helps in establishing the value of the lost items and provides a clear account of what was in the bag before it became damaged.

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92. After a joint inspection (JI) is complete, who signs the DD Form 2133, Joint Airlift Inspection Record?

Explanation

After a joint inspection (JI) is complete, the deploying unit representative and the qualified mobility force inspector sign the DD Form 2133, Joint Airlift Inspection Record.

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93. Which parachute will support between a 501 and 2,200 pound drop weight?

Explanation

The correct answer is G–12E. This parachute is designed to support a drop weight between 501 and 2,200 pounds. The other options, G–11B and G–14, do not specify the weight range they can support. Extraction is not a parachute option.

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94. You are loading tanks on a C–17 aircraft and want to find specific loading procedures for these items. Which section of the 1C–17A–9 technical order (TO) would you refer to first?

Explanation

Section VI of the 1C-17A-9 technical order (TO) would be the first section to refer to when looking for specific loading procedures for tanks on a C-17 aircraft.

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95. What is/are the source document(s) for completing the MSL?

Explanation

The source document(s) for completing the MSL is DD Form 1384.

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96. Which form must shippers complete for security or classified shipments?

Explanation

Shippers must complete DD Form 1387–2 for security or classified shipments.

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97. You have received three blood shipments that require refrigeration and re-icing before they are airlifted. On which form would you document the re-icing and refrigeration?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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98. Which form do inspectors use to inspect and frustrate hazardous materials shipments?

Explanation

Inspectors use AMC Form 1015 to inspect and frustrate hazardous materials shipments.

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99. When aircraft arrive without cargo manifests and ATOC personnel attempt to acquire them, you must

Explanation

When aircraft arrive without cargo manifests, it's essential to take proactive steps to maintain operational efficiency and address time-sensitive cargo. Preparing a substitute manifest allows for the immediate processing of urgent shipments, such as medical supplies or perishable goods, while efforts are made to obtain the official manifests. This approach ensures that critical cargo is handled promptly, minimizing delays and potential disruptions.

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100. You are working in the passenger terminal helping a customer determine if he and his family are allowed to fly space-available on a DOD aircraft. In which publication would you look?

Explanation

The correct answer is DOD 4500.54-M, Foreign Clearance Guide (FCG). This publication provides information on eligibility and procedures for foreign clearance, which includes determining if individuals are allowed to fly space-available on a DOD aircraft. The other options, DOD 4515.13-R and DTR 4500.9-R, are not specifically related to eligibility for flying space-available on a DOD aircraft.

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The coordinated use, synchronization, and sharing of two or more...
After reviewing Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 56, Rehandled...
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War reserve material (WRM) is equipment and other resources,...
When preparing the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 148/2, Boarding ...
What is the first step in determining pet shipping...
When preparing the AMC Form 162, In-flight Meal Supplemental...
When using nets to secure multi-pallet trains, what is the maximum...
Which class requires a placard for 1,001 pounds or more aggregate...
At a minimum, how many copies of each manifest must load planning...
Before operating the water pump on the potable water truck, you must...
How long do you maintain transportation documentation that pertains to...
A passenger has just reported a lost bag to you and you are preparing...
Before space-available passengers can be entered into the...
All personnel performing what functions are required to complete the...
When briefing passengers on travel restrictions, documents you will...
Before a deploying unit can claim their cargo is exempt from...
Which hazardous materials class consists of flammable liquids?
If a bag is excessively damaged and articles from it have become lost...
After a joint inspection (JI) is complete, who signs the DD Form 2133,...
Which parachute will support between a 501 and 2,200 pound drop...
You are loading tanks on a C–17 aircraft and want to find...
What is/are the source document(s) for completing the MSL?
Which form must shippers complete for security or classified...
You have received three blood shipments that require refrigeration and...
Which form do inspectors use to inspect and frustrate hazardous...
When aircraft arrive without cargo manifests and ATOC personnel...
You are working in the passenger terminal helping a customer determine...
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