CDC 2T251 Volume 2: Hardest Trivia Quiz On U.S Air Force!

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 1484

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2T251 Quizzes & Trivia

The United States Air Force is the youngest branch of the U. S. Armed Forces, founded in 1907. It concerns itself with all aerial matters that the United States comes across in terms of warfare, and even now includes problems related to space. Do you know enough about the U. S. Air Force to pass the next exam? It’s a tough one! Let’s see how well you perform!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      Planning, assembling, consolidating, and documenting a shipment and arranging for its movement

    • B. 

      Ensuring a shipment is complete and removing RFID tags

    • C. 

      Clearing shipments and initiating TDR as necessary

    • D. 

      Challenging shipments that do not meet applicable airlift requirements

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      Provide a way to process a shipment through the ACA.

    • B. 

      Allow cargo processors to calculate critical leg ACL information.

    • C. 

      Allow the APOE to easily and efficiently manifest the shipment.

    • D. 

      Provide notification to the APOE that a shipment is inbound and requires further transfer.

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      Determine the information necessary to complete the shipping documentation enlisting the help of the ACA

    • B. 

      Pack and prepare the shipment for movement, applying any required markings, labels, or RFID tags

    • C. 

      Use all information gathered to prepare the DD Form 1384.

    • D. 

      Make necessary arrangements for delivery of the shipment to the transshipment point, referred to in the DTR as “making the shipment”.

  • 4. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring a shipment is complete and removing any RFID tags?
    • A. 

      The shipper

    • B. 

      The receiver

    • C. 

      The transhipper

    • D. 

      The CSB

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      When the direct delivery vendor prepares the invoice

    • B. 

      When you have scanned the bar-coded label and determined it is not in the DTS

    • C. 

      When the CCP has delivered an airlift-ready pallet to the APOE

    • D. 

      When the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the ATCMD date shipped field

  • 6. 
    What type of code represents the consignor/consignee blocks of the TCMD?
    • A. 

      The air dimension code.

    • B. 

      The DI code.

    • C. 

      The air commodity and special handling code?

    • D. 

      The DODAAC.

  • 7. 
    You can use the sponsoring service code followed by five zeros for a DODAAC when
    • A. 

      You cannot gain access to the DODAAC website.

    • B. 

      You do not have a clear-text address to send the shipment.

    • C. 

      The consignor or consignee does not have an assigned DODAAC.

    • D. 

      You are in a deployed location and do not know how to query the location.

  • 8. 
    You can readily identify a unit move TCN because a zero is in what position?
    • A. 

      1st

    • B. 

      3rd

    • C. 

      15th

    • D. 

      Last

  • 9. 
    • A. 

      1st

    • B. 

      16th

    • C. 

      17th

    • D. 

      Last

  • 10. 
    Which TP includes shipments requiring routine transportation?
    • A. 

      TP-1

    • B. 

      TP-2

    • C. 

      TP-3

    • D. 

      TP-4

  • 11. 
    Which TP is considered “deferred air freight” and is moved as a last priority, only if there is
    • A. 

      TP-1

    • B. 

      TP-2

    • C. 

      TP-3

    • D. 

      TP-4

  • 12. 
    • A. 

      Three-digit Julian date.

    • B. 

      ETA code and the last two digits of the Julian date.

    • C. 

      GMT hour code and the last two digits of the Julian date.

    • D. 

      GMT hour code and the ETA code.

  • 13. 
    • A. 

      Identify shipments that require special recognition.

    • B. 

      Identify the nature of the shipment and how to treat the shipment.

    • C. 

      Link movement authority, funding approval, and accounting data for shipments.

    • D. 

      Indicate the number of days a shipment will be in transit from the consignor to the APOE.

  • 14. 
    • A. 

      Matching documentation.

    • B. 

      Signs of damage or pilferage.

    • C. 

      Appropriate markings and labels.

    • D. 

      Correct NSNs.

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      The pieces, weight and cube blocks.

    • B. 

      The TAC, the TP, and the charges blocks.

    • C. 

      The FMS case number, RDD, and date shipped blocks.

    • D. 

      The TCN, the DODAAC, and the piece number blocks.

  • 16. 
    • A. 

      Anytime; there are no restrictions.

    • B. 

      When the loadmaster/boom operator requests it.

    • C. 

      For contingency operations or where manual entry is the only way to document shipments.

    • D. 

      When automated label printers run out of label paper or shippers are untrained in completing the automated form.

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      AF Form 4080.

    • B. 

      Shipper’s Declaration for Dangerous Goods (SDDG).

    • C. 

      DD Form 1384.

    • D. 

      SF 361and SF 364.

  • 18. 
    You place two MSLs on any item over how many cubic feet?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      20

  • 19. 
    • A. 

      Anytime; there are no restrictions.

    • B. 

      When the shipper delivers the shipment.

    • C. 

      When an intermediate carrier delivers the shipment.

    • D. 

      When an AMC aircraft delivers the shipment.

  • 20. 
    • A. 

      Always; no exceptions.

    • B. 

      When the shipper delivers the cargo.

    • C. 

      When the discrepancy is minor and you can correct it on the spot.

    • D. 

      When the discrepancy is major and requires significant repacking.

  • 21. 
    Which form do you use to frustrate a shipment?
    • A. 

      SF Form 361.

    • B. 

      SF Form 364.

    • C. 

      AMC Form 33.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1387.

  • 22. 
    Which agency is responsible for correcting shipments you frustrate?
    • A. 

      AD/CD section.

    • B. 

      ATOC/Load planning section.

    • C. 

      CSS/records and reports section.

    • D. 

      CSB/ ACA.

  • 23. 
    Using manual procedures, when you annotate the GMT hour code and last two digits of the Julian date of arrival on the TCMD, what does it represent?
    • A. 

      The block time of the aircraft.

    • B. 

      The SET.

    • C. 

      The RDD.

    • D. 

      The time the shipment was frustrated.

  • 24. 
    Which criteria do you use to determine which cargo to process first?
    • A. 

      Split/partial shipment code, air dimension code and receipt time.

    • B. 

      Destination, transportation priority, and SET.

    • C. 

      Warehouse location, cargo size and TAC.

    • D. 

      Air commodity and special handling code and GMT.

  • 25. 
    • A. 

      Air commodity and special handling code.

    • B. 

      Expedited handling indicators and the RDD.

    • C. 

      TAC, project code, and type pack code.

    • D. 

      Split/partial shipment code, air dimension code, and DI code.

  • 26. 
    • A. 

      GMT and Julian date of the aircraft block time in the top left-hand corner.

    • B. 

      SET and Julian date of the aircraft block time in the top left hand corner.

    • C. 

      GMT and Julian date of the aircraft block time in the top right-hand corner.

    • D. 

      SET and Julian date of the aircraft block time in the top right hand corner.

  • 27. 
    • A. 

      Break all the pallets down and process them immediately.

    • B. 

      Wait until you receive the manifests to start processing all the cargo.

    • C. 

      Prepare a substitute manifest and start processing anything that requires immediate action.

    • D. 

      Store the cargo out of the way until you receive the manifests and process other shipments instead.

  • 28. 
    • A. 

      Break each pallet down and take the appropriate information from the shipping labels.

    • B. 

      Store the pallets out of the way until the originating station can reproduce the manifests.

    • C. 

      Process all TP– 1 and 2 cargo, but leave TP–3 and –4 cargo until you receive the manifests.

    • D. 

      Process all TP–1 cargo with “999” expedited handling indicators, but leave all other cargo until you receive the manifests.

  • 29. 
    • A. 

      Arrived at the air terminal open, torn, or cut.

    • B. 

      Arrived at the air terminal, but is not listed on the manifest.

    • C. 

      Is listed on the manifest, but did not arrive at the air terminal.

    • D. 

      Arrived at the air terminal but removed due to suspicion of pilferage.

  • 30. 
    Which type of shipment is annotated by circling the line item on the manifest and handwriting “S/S” on the right-hand margin next to the line item?
    • A. 

      Short.

    • B. 

      Over

    • C. 

      Pilfered

    • D. 

      Confiscated

  • 31. 
    • A. 

      Arrived at the air terminal open, torn, or cut.

    • B. 

      Arrived at the air terminal, but is not listed on the manifest.

    • C. 

      Is listed on the manifest, but did not arrive at the air terminal.

    • D. 

      Arrived at the air terminal but removed due to suspicion of pilferage.

  • 32. 
    Which type of shipment must you annotate on the manifest and write “O/S” on the right and margin next to the information you added?
    • A. 

      Short shipment.

    • B. 

      Over shipment.

    • C. 

      Pilfered shipment.

    • D. 

      Confiscated shipment.

  • 33. 
    Who is responsible for initiating an immediate investigation to determine if pilferage has occurred for a shipment?
    • A. 

      SF duty officer.

    • B. 

      TMO/air freight.

    • C. 

      ATOC duty officer.

    • D. 

      CSB/ACA.

  • 34. 
    • Which cargo may be turned over to the owning unit without an authorization letter?
    • A. 

      Registered mail.

    • B. 

      Classified cargo.

    • C. 

      Unit mobility cargo.

    • D. 

      Signature service cargo.

  • 35. 
    • A. 

      Postal authorities, when picking up registered mail.

    • B. 

      Aircrew members, when using a cargo manifest.

    • C. 

      Truck drivers, who have shown their IDs at the front gate.

    • D. 

      TMO personnel, when under operational control of AMC and located in the same facility.

  • 36. 
    1. How many cargo applications do the GATES HHTs provide access to?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      17

    • D. 

      18

  • 37. 
    1. You do not perform a soft reset when the HHT is
    • A. 

      Active

    • B. 

      Awake

    • C. 

      Hidden

    • D. 

      Suspended

  • 38. 
    An 8,000-pound piece of cargo is built on a pallet and you are responsible for adding enough restraint to get the pallet to the aircraft. How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain?
    • A. 

      5,000

    • B. 

      7,500

    • C. 

      10,000

    • D. 

      25,000

  • 39. 
    You are loading an aircraft and must winch a heavy pallet into position. As a minimum, how many attaching points will you use to safely winch this pallet on the aircraft?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Winching pallets is not authorized.

  • 40. 
    • A. 

      A thin film of road dust.

    • B. 

      Chunks of mud under a vehicle.

    • C. 

      No amount of dirt is acceptable.

    • D. 

      Dirt and sand that you can pinch with your fingers.

  • 41. 
    A cargo user has returned 60 empty 463L pallets to your unit, which you will be shipping to another location via air. How many of these pallets maximum can you ship in one stack, provided adequate dunnage is appropriately placed, and excluding the base support pallet?
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      40

    • D. 

      50

  • 42. 
    You are building a multi-pallet train using one-inch couplers. Which aircraft can this train be loaded on, assuming it is properly configured?
    • A. 

      C–5.

    • B. 

      C–17

    • C. 

      C–130

    • D. 

      DC–10

  • 43. 
    • A. 

      Return them to the shipper for repair.

    • B. 

      Leave them on the nets for the next consignee to return.

    • C. 

      Return them to the Defense Logistics Agency for repair.

    • D. 

      Throw them away and log them on the 463L asset report.

  • 44. 
    • A. 

      Weight and SET.

    • B. 

      Movement indicator and type pack.

    • C. 

      Movement indicator and SET.

    • D. 

      Aircraft fuselage station and movement indicator.

  • 45. 
    1. You must break down an originating pallet and individually weigh each piece of cargo if there is a difference of how many pounds between the documented and actual weight?
    • A. 

      100

    • B. 

      150

    • C. 

      200

    • D. 

      355

  • 46. 
    What must be considered when building a multi-pallet train?
    • A. 

      Immigrations clearance.

    • B. 

      Supply of pallet covers.

    • C. 

      Multi-pallets in back log.

    • D. 

      MHE required to handle the pallet train.

  • 47. 
    1. When using nets to secure multi-pallet trains, what is the maximum load on two and three pallet trains measuring 96 inches or less?
    • A. 

      20,000 lbs.

    • B. 

      20,710 lbs.

    • C. 

      21,000 lbs.

    • D. 

      26,000 lbs.

  • 48. 
    You received several shipments in for airlift; which one will you not mark with a C/B?
    • A. 

      A small piece of rolling stock weighing 500 pounds.

    • B. 

      A shipment of pipes that are 13 feet long.

    • C. 

      A three-pallet train.

    • D. 

      A single pallet.

  • 49. 
    • A. 

      Near one axle on one side of the vehicle.

    • B. 

      Above one axle on one side of the vehicle.

    • C. 

      Near each axle on both sides of the vehicle.

    • D. 

      Above each axle on both sides of the vehicle.

  • 50. 
    • A. 

      The clear text GMT and Julian date of the oldest piece on the pallet.

    • B. 

      The TCN of the oldest piece on the pallet.

    • C. 

      The GMT hour/code of the first piece you placed on the pallet.

    • D. 

      The GMT hour/code of the oldest piece on the pallet.

  • 51. 
    Which two manual forms must both be placed on a completed 463L pallet after it is built?
    • A. 

      AMC Form 39 and DD Form 2775.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1907 and AMC Form 39.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1907 and DD Form 2775.

    • D. 

      AMC Form 1015 and DD Form 2275.

  • 52. 
    When you attach the RFID tag to a pallet, ensure it is attached where?
    • A. 

      Inside the pallet cover.

    • B. 

      Bottom right corner of the pallet.

    • C. 

      Outside of any plastic or over wrapping.

    • D. 

      Near the highest priority piece of cargo.

  • 53. 
    Which best describes the role of a hazardous materials handler?
    • A. 

      Inspects hazardous materials internally and externally.

    • B. 

      Packages hazardous materials to prepare for shipment.

    • C. 

      Loads or transports hazardous materials to/on an aircraft.

    • D. 

      Accomplishes the SDDG.

  • 54. 
    1. Which hazardous materials class consists of explosive materials?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 55. 
    Which hazardous materials class consists of flammable liquids?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 56. 
    1. Which hazardous materials class consists of infectious and toxic materials?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      7

  • 57. 
    Which category of hazard is considered a distinct and separate hazardous item that is a component of a larger item and does not require a hazardous materials label?
    • A. 

      Primary.

    • B. 

      Secondary.

    • C. 

      Subsidiary.

    • D. 

      Tertiary.

  • 58. 
    What form do shippers use to certify their hazardous materials shipments?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1385.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1387–2

    • C. 

      AMC Form 1033.

    • D. 

      AMC Form 1015.

  • 59. 
    Which form do inspectors use to inspect and frustrate hazardous materials shipments?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1385.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1387–2.

    • C. 

      AMC Form 1033.

    • D. 

      AMC Form 1015.

  • 60. 
    How many fire extinguishers minimum must be available for use at any location where explosives are handled?
    • A. 

      None

    • B. 

      One

    • C. 

      Two

    • D. 

      Three

  • 61. 
    • A. 

      Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together.

    • B. 

      Have notes you must refer to, to determine compatibility.

    • C. 

      Have no restrictions for being loaded, transported, or stored together.

    • D. 

      Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together unless separated by at least 88 inches in all directions.

  • 62. 
    • A. 

      Must not be loaded, transported or stored together.

    • B. 

      Have notes you must refer to, to determine compatibility.

    • C. 

      Have no restrictions for being loaded, transported or stored together.

    • D. 

      Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together unless separated by at least 88 inches in all directions.

  • 63. 
    • A. 

      Front only and at entry points.

    • B. 

      Front and rear only and at entry points.

    • C. 

      Front, rear, both sides and at entry points.

    • D. 

      Cargo loading end and both sides only.

  • 64. 
    Which class requires a placard for any amount of hazard?
    • A. 

      1.3

    • B. 

      1.6

    • C. 

      2.1

    • D. 

      2.2

  • 65. 
    Which class requires a placard for 1,001 pounds or more aggregate gross weight of material?
    • A. 

      1.1

    • B. 

      1.2

    • C. 

      2.1

    • D. 

      4.3

  • 66. 
    When a load contains class 2.1, class 2.2, and class 3 materials that total 1,500 pounds, which placard will you use?
    • A. 

      Class 2.1

    • B. 

      Class 2.2

    • C. 

      Class 3

    • D. 

      DANGEROUS

  • 67. 
    What is the minimum number of fire extinguishers that a vehicle must contain while transporting explosives?
    • A. 

      None

    • B. 

      One

    • C. 

      Two

    • D. 

      Three

  • 68. 
    1. Where on the aircraft should hazardous materials be loaded?
    • A. 

      Aft of non-jettisonable cargo.

    • B. 

      Forward on non-jettisonable cargo.

    • C. 

      Anywhere, as long as it is compatible.

    • D. 

      On the right side only, as long as it is compatible.

  • 69. 
    1. Which form must shippers complete for security or classified shipments?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1387–2.

    • B. 

      AMC Form 1015.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1497–2.

    • D. 

      AMC Form 1033.

  • 70. 
    • A. 

      DD Form 1387–2 only.

    • B. 

      AMC Form 1033 only.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1387–2 and AMC Form 1033.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1387–2, AMC Form 1033 and AMC Form 1015

  • 71. 
    When using manual procedures, you will transfer custody of a shipment requiring security precautions by using the
    • A. 

      AMC Form 214.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1907 or manual manifest.

    • C. 

      GATES manifest.

    • D. 

      AMC Form 1015.

  • 72. 
    How often will security cage cargo be inventoried?
    • A. 

      Not less than once per day.

    • B. 

      Not less than every other day.

    • C. 

      At the beginning of each day at 0001.

    • D. 

      At the beginning and end of each shift.

  • 73. 
    What is the maximum number of HR transfer cases that can be safely transported on one 463L pallet if absolutely necessary?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      12

  • 74. 
    1. You received a vaccine shipment that can be removed from refrigeration for short periods of time. Which form must be on the shipment to identify this requirement?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1502.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1502–1.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1502–2

    • D. 

      DD Form 1502–3

  • 75. 
    You have received three blood shipments that require refrigeration and re-icing before they are airlifted. On which form would you document the re-icing and refrigeration?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1033.

    • B. 

      AMC Form 36.

    • C. 

      AMC Form 106.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1532–1.

  • 76. 
    1. When receiving registered mail, the two pieces of information you must check against the manifest are the
    • A. 

      Register number and the TP.

    • B. 

      Register number and the RDD.

    • C. 

      TCN, weight, and cube.

    • D. 

      TCN and register number.

  • 77. 
    • A. 

      Packing tape and boxcar seals

    • B. 

      Packing tape and plastic or metal bands.

    • C. 

      Packing tape, plastic or metal bands, and boxcar seals.

    • D. 

      Metal or plastic bands, spray adhesive, and boxcar seals.

  • 78. 
    • A. 

      The air freight officer.

    • B. 

      The squadron commander.

    • C. 

      The air terminal operations officer.

    • D. 

      The ATOC outbound controller.

  • 79. 
    • A. 

      Nuclear Material.

    • B. 

      Nuclear Surety Material.

    • C. 

      Special Nuclear Materials.

    • D. 

      Nuclear Weapons Related Material.

  • 80. 
    • A. 

      Passenger service, ATOC, and load planning.

    • B. 

      Special handling, freight, ramp services, and load planning.

    • C. 

      Special handling, freight, ramp services, ATOC, security cage, and load planning.

    • D. 

      Special handling, freight, ramp services, passenger service, ATOC, and load planning.

  • 81. 
    • A. 

      If you need to for training.

    • B. 

      When the loadmaster authorizes it.

    • C. 

      When servicing “other than USAF” aircraft.

    • D. 

      When rollerized tines are available, but not currently attached.

  • 82. 
    If using a pry bar to assist with loading, how much can you load on the pry bar?
    • A. 

      250 lbs.

    • B. 

      355 lbs

    • C. 

      It depends on the aircraft.

    • D. 

      It depends on the applicable pry bar TO.

  • 83. 
    • A. 

      Diameter2 x 0.785.

    • B. 

      Length x width (of each skid).

    • C. 

      Length x width (of each skid) x 0.785.

    • D. 

      Length x width (of each skid) x the number of skids.

  • 84. 
    You are loading a heavy piece of cargo on an aircraft between the treadways. Which type of shoring will allow you to place it on supporting beams that span to the treadways?
    • A. 

      Bridge shoring.

    • B. 

      Sleeper shoring.

    • C. 

      Parking shoring.

    • D. 

      Approach shoring.

  • 85. 
    As a load team member, you are responsible for matching which information on the pallet and load plan?
    • A. 

      Pieces, weight, and cube

    • B. 

      Pallet ID, destination, and height.

    • C. 

      Pallet ID, destination, and weight

    • D. 

      Tie-down information, height, and weight

  • 86. 
    Which types of loading aids are used to pull cargo slowly into the aircraft?
    • A. 

      The rollers, locks and rails.

    • B. 

      The cargo winch and snatch blocks.

    • C. 

      Load team personnel and stabilizer struts

    • D. 

      The bridge plates and auxiliary loading ramps.

  • 87. 
    1. You are within 10 feet of an aircraft. In which zone are you?
    • A. 

      Clear

    • B. 

      Spotter

    • C. 

      Loading

    • D. 

      Engine Operations

  • 88. 
    1. How do you secure rolling stock to a K-loader?
    • A. 

      Forward and aft with straps.

    • B. 

      Forward and aft with chains and devices.

    • C. 

      Forward, aft and lateral with chains and devices.

    • D. 

      Forward and aft with pallet locks, stops and supplemental restraint.

  • 89. 
    • A. 

      Bumped cargo requires expeditious movement.

    • B. 

      Movement is within the 25 feet circle of safety parameter.

    • C. 

      Container skids/pallets have integral 360 degree tine enclosures.

    • D. 

      Shift supervisor declares supplemental restraint to be in “relaxed” conditions.

  • 90. 
    You are loading passengers on a C–17 in which several pallets are loaded. How many inches away must your passengers sit from the palletized cargo at a minimum?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      40

  • 91. 
    • A. 

      Load team personnel pulling them.

    • B. 

      Load team personnel pushing them.

    • C. 

      Gravity feeding them from the K-loader.

    • D. 

      Pushing the pallets out of control at excessive speeds.

  • 92. 
    • A. 

      The senior-ranking load team member.

    • B. 

      The most qualified load team member.

    • C. 

      The ramp supervisor will load the rolling stock.

    • D. 

      The lowest-ranking load team member who needs the training.

  • 93. 
    • A. 

      Load team members initially secure the vehicle aft only.

    • B. 

      Load team members initially secure the vehicle forward only.

    • C. 

      Load team members initially secure the vehicle forward and aft.

    • D. 

      The driver may exit once the vehicle is in position and the driver engages the parking brake

  • 94. 
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      6

  • 95. 
    Up to how many angles does tie down provide restraint for when applied properly?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 96. 
    During engine running on/offload operations, the load team positions themselves at least how far aft of C–130 and C–17 aircraft?
    • A. 

      C–130: 50 feet/C–17: 25 feet.

    • B. 

      C–130: 25 feet/C–17: 50 feet.

    • C. 

      C–130: 150 feet/C–17: 50 feet.

    • D. 

      C–130: 25 feet/C–17: 150 feet.

  • 97. 
    During ERO operations, in all cases, the load team can approach the aircraft once
    • A. 

      The engines shut down.

    • B. 

      The aircraft chocks are in place.

    • C. 

      The crew entrance door has opened.

    • D. 

      An aircrew member signals to do so.

  • 98. 
    During ERO operations, when are passengers loaded on the aircraft?
    • A. 

      After the ramp cargo is loaded.

    • B. 

      After all of the cargo is loaded.

    • C. 

      Before all of the cargo is loaded.

    • D. 

      Before the ramp cargo is loaded.

  • 99. 
    If concurrent operations are already in progress, load team chiefs and other personnel must report to whom prior to entering the area?
    • A. 

      The loadmaster.

    • B. 

      The ramp coordinator.

    • C. 

      The CSS.

    • D. 

      The ATOC senior controller.

  • 100. 
    Before performing any concurrent servicing operations, who is required to ground themselves to a suitable grounding point or a bare, unpainted portion of the aircraft?
    • A. 

      The loadmaster only

    • B. 

      All personnel involved in the operation.

    • C. 

      The loadmaster and load team chief only.

    • D. 

      The CSS only.