Air Force 2T251 Volume 1

110 Questions | Total Attempts: 1407

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2T251 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and answers


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      Air Force specialty code (AFSC)

    • B. 

      Duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC)

    • C. 

      Primary Air Force specialty code (PAFSC)

    • D. 

      Control Air Force specialty code (CAFSC)

  • 2. 
    An Air Force specialty (AFS) is a group of
    • A. 

      People requiring common interests.

    • B. 

      Letters requiring common qualifications

    • C. 

      Positions requiring common qualifications.

    • D. 

      Numbers requiring similar knowledge.

  • 3. 
    A duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC) is the AFSC (Air Force specialty code)
    • A. 

      Used for enlisted Airman assignments, training requirements, and promotions.

    • B. 

      Used to identify the position in which an individual is performing duty.

    • C. 

      In which an individual is best qualified to perform duty.

    • D. 

      Used to identify a specialty.

  • 4. 
    A group of closely related Air Force specialties (AFS) requiring basically the same knowledge and skills is known as a
    • A. 

      Skill level.

    • B. 

      Position.

    • C. 

      Duty.

    • D. 

      Career field.

  • 5. 
    A Senior Airman may use the title Supervisor when he or she
    • A. 

      Is in charge of a work center and has completed his or her upgrade training.

    • B. 

      Supervises multiple flights or squadrons and has graduated ALS.

    • C. 

      Doesn't have a title that accurately reflects his or her day-to-day duties.

    • D. 

      Has graduated ALS and supervises the work of others.

  • 6. 
    Which specialty is not a part of the transportation career field?
    • A. 

      Vehicle Management.

    • B. 

      Traffic Management.

    • C. 

      Air Traffic Control

    • D. 

      Air Transportation.

  • 7. 
    Which is not a component of the Air Force On-the-job Training (AF OJT) Program?
    • A. 

      Job requirement.

    • B. 

      Job proficiency.

    • C. 

      Job knowledge.

    • D. 

      Job experience

  • 8. 
    Who is responsible for conducting and documenting work center orientations and initial qualification evaluations within 60 days of assignment?
    • A. 

      Supervisor.

    • B. 

      Certifier.

    • C. 

      Trainer.

    • D. 

      Trainee.

  • 9. 
    Who is responsible for actively participating in all opportunities for training?
    • A. 

      Supervisor.

    • B. 

      Certifier.

    • C. 

      Trainer.

    • D. 

      Trainee.

  • 10. 
    Which is not a trainee responsibility in the Air Force On-the-job Training (AF OJT) Program?
    • A. 

      Budget on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks within established time limits.

    • B. 

      Obtain and manage knowledge, qualifications, certifications, and appropriate skill levels.

    • C. 

      Identify and certify position qualifications and skill level upgrade training requirements.

    • D. 

      Understand particular deployment and home station training requirements.

  • 11. 
    What is the minimum amount of time a trainee must be in training to be awarded the 7-skill level?
    • A. 

      18 months.

    • B. 

      15 months.

    • C. 

      12 months.

    • D. 

      6 months.

  • 12. 
    Before a trainee can be awarded the 5- or 7- skill levels all core tasks must be identified
    • A. 

      By the supervisor and other duty position tasks identified by the commander.

    • B. 

      By the commander and other duty position tasks identified by the supervisor.

    • C. 

      By the supervisor and other duty position tasks by the CFETP.

    • D. 

      In the CFETP and other duty position tasks identified by the supervisor.

  • 13. 
    Which training document is the foundation for ensuring the completion of all work center job requirements?
    • A. 

      Specialty Training Standard (STS).

    • B. 

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • C. 

      Master Task List (MTL).

    • D. 

      Master Training Plan (MTP).

  • 14. 
    The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is a comprehensive
    • A. 

      Core training package that outlines task evaluation checklists and training assessments.

    • B. 

      Instructional document that lists professional enhancement criteria for a specialty.

    • C. 

      Instructional package that supports and standardizes job knowledge training.

    • D. 

      Core training document that identifies education and training requirements.

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      How much information the trainee will be required to recite back to the supervisor.

    • B. 

      That the task indicated will be taught during wartime and humanitarian operations.

    • C. 

      How well a trainee needs to perform a task or understand a task or subject.

    • D. 

      That training is not required due to limitations in resources.

  • 16. 
    Which form is a continuation of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and is used and annotated the same way as the specialty training standard (STS)?
    • A. 

      AETC Form 156.

    • B. 

      AF IMT 2096.

    • C. 

      AF IMT 623a.

    • D. 

      AF IMT 797.

  • 17. 
    What is the purpose of the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection, and Health (AFOSH) program?
    • A. 

      Decrease situational awareness of resources and protect personnel.

    • B. 

      Increase situational awareness of resources and protect personnel.

    • C. 

      Minimize the loss of Air Force resources and protect personnel.

    • D. 

      Minimize the loss of Air Force property and money.

  • 18. 
    You injured your ankle playing basketball over the weekend. Your responsibility under the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection and Health (AFOSH) program is to promptly
    • A. 

      Write a statement of how the injury occurred.

    • B. 

      Wrap and ice it so you can continue to work.

    • C. 

      Quit the basketball team for the season.

    • D. 

      Report the injury to your supervisor.

  • 19. 
    Your supervisor just conducted very thorough safety training with you that included job hazards, personal protective equipment wear, jewelry safety, manual lifting procedures, and many other areas. Which form will you and your supervisor use to document the training?
    • A. 

      AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard

    • B. 

      AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report

    • C. 

      AF IMT 483, Certificate of Competency

    • D. 

      AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record.

  • 20. 
    You must be mindful of bulky uniform items with cords and strings because
    • A. 

      They can come undone and render you out of dress and appearance regulations.

    • B. 

      They can get caught in conveyor belts or moving parts and machinery

    • C. 

      They get in the way when you are working at the computer.

    • D. 

      Your coworkers can easily yank on them as they walk by.

  • 21. 
    You are entering the warehouse wearing several items. Which of them must be removed before entering the area?
    • A. 

      Jewelry.

    • B. 

      Reflective gear

    • C. 

      Steel-toed boots

    • D. 

      Cold-weather gear.

  • 22. 
    You have finished downloading pallets onto the finger docks. Which is the best way to exit the dock?
    • A. 

      Step onto the K-loader and ask the driver to lower the back end so you can jump off a shorter distance.

    • B. 

      Use the ladder located at the end of the dock.

    • C. 

      Ride the rollers to the end with the pallets

    • D. 

      Jump off the edge.

  • 23. 
    You have acquired a bad safety habit of walking while spotting. It is important for yout to eliminate this poor and unsafe work practice because
    • A. 

      It will increase your reputation.

    • B. 

      The K-loader driver doesn't like it.

    • C. 

      Your supervisor will embarass you in front of your coworkers.

    • D. 

      New people can learn work habits by observing your performance.

  • 24. 
    • A. 

      Detect and control risk while mitigating performance capabilities and enhancing combat assessment.

    • B. 

      Detect, assess, and control risk while enhancing performance and maximizing combat capabilities.

    • C. 

      Detect and assess risk and enhance safety capabilities.

    • D. 

      Detect, assess, and contribute to risks.

  • 25. 
    Which form would you use to report hazards that cannot be eliminated immediately?
    • A. 

      AF IMT 1118, Notice of Hazard

    • B. 

      DD Form 1118, Notice of Hazard

    • C. 

      AF IMT 457, USAF Hazard Report

    • D. 

      DD Form 457, DOD Hazard Report.

  • 26. 
    The Base Weather Station has issued a lightning warning for your location. What does this warning mean, and what should you do?
    • A. 

      Lightning is predicted to occur within the next 30 minutes; continue working on the flight line until told to cease operations.

    • B. 

      Lightning is occurring within a 5-nautical-mile radius; continue working on the flight line until told to cease operations.

    • C. 

      Lightning is predicted to occur within the next 5 minutes; immediately take shelter in a safe place.

    • D. 

      Lightning is occurring within a 5-nautical-mile radius; immediately take shelter in a safe place.

  • 27. 
    You are entering the flight line area in a vehicle. What must you do before entering?
    • A. 

      Stop and collect IDs from all of your passengers to show the gate guard.

    • B. 

      Slow down and look both ways for oncoming traffic.

    • C. 

      Stop and do a foreign object damage (FOD) check.

    • D. 

      Stop and show the gate guard your line badge.

  • 28. 
    You have parked your vehicle on the flight line and need to leave it unattended to board the aircraft. What must you do?
    • A. 

      Leave the vehicle unlocked; turn off the ignition; take the keys with you; place it in park or reverse; and chock one rear wheel.

    • B. 

      Leave the vehicle on and unlocked; the keys in the ignition; place it in park or reverse and chock one rear wheel, in front and behind.

    • C. 

      Leave the keys in the ignition and the vehicle unlocked; turn off the ignition; place it in park or reverse; and chock one rear wheel, in front and behind.

    • D. 

      Leave the keys in the ignition and lock the vehicle; turn off the ignition; place it in neutral; and chock the front driver's side wheel, in front and behind.

  • 29. 
    You are stopped on the flight line at night with your vehicle and its headlights on and an aircraft is approaching your direction. You are not in the aircraft's path. What is your best course of action?
    • A. 

      Turn your vehicle around so you are facing away from the aircraft, turn the ignition off, and set the parking brake until the aircraft is out of range.

    • B. 

      Turn your headlights off and turn your parking lights/emergency flashers on until the aircraft is out of range.

    • C. 

      Flash your high beams at the aircraft to let the pilot know your location

    • D. 

      Exit the flight line area and return when the aircraft has safely blocked.

  • 30. 
    You are crossing the active runway and see a red and green light coming from the control tower. What should you do?
    • A. 

      General Warning. Exercise extreme caution.

    • B. 

      Stop! Your vehicle will not be moved.

    • C. 

      Return to your starting point.

    • D. 

      Clear the active runway.

  • 31. 
    You are crossing the active runway and see a flashing white light coming from the control tower. What should you do?
    • A. 

      General warning. Exercise extreme caution.

    • B. 

      Stop! Your vehicle will not be moved.

    • C. 

      Return to your starting point.

    • D. 

      Clear the active runway.

  • 32. 
    What is the focus of the pollution prevention program?
    • A. 

      Reducing the costs of recycling solid waste that Air Force personnel create in the course of their duties.

    • B. 

      Preventing or reducing the amount of waste Air Force personnel create before it becomes a problem.

    • C. 

      Recycling and treating the waste Air Force personnel create before it ends up in landfills.

    • D. 

      Disposing the waste Air Force personnel create before it becomes a problem.

  • 33. 
    • A. 

      Including solids, liquids, and containerized gases only, which is abandoned, recycled, or considered inherently waste-like.

    • B. 

      Including solids, liquids, and containerized gases only, which is acquired, treated, or considered inherently solid-like.

    • C. 

      Including solids and liquids only, which is purchased, stored, abandoned, or considered inherently waste-like.

    • D. 

      Including liquids and containerized gases only, which is stored, abandoned, or considered inherently solid-like.

  • 34. 
    What are the two main elements of minimizing waste?
    • A. 

      Prevention and management.

    • B. 

      Reduction and management

    • C. 

      Management and control.

    • D. 

      Prevention and control.

  • 35. 
    Pollution control consists of which three activities?
    • A. 

      Storage, acquisition, and recycling.

    • B. 

      Recycling, treatment, and disposal.

    • C. 

      Prevention, purchase, and participation.

    • D. 

      Reduction, recycling, and disintegration.

  • 36. 
    Which is not a benefit of pollution prevention?
    • A. 

      It boosts the Air Force's image as responsible members of society.

    • B. 

      It reduces costs, manpower and equipment requirements.

    • C. 

      It reduces the need for federal standards and regulations.

    • D. 

      It reduces impact on public health and the environment.

  • 37. 
    What can you do each and every day to reduce air emissions at work?
    • A. 

      Incinerate, scrub, or treat solid wastes in accordance with Air Force instructions and local policies.

    • B. 

      Neutralize, evaporate, or reduce hazardous waste products in accordance with federal and state statutes.

    • C. 

      Inspect, operate, refuel, and maintain vehicles in accordance with their applicable TO's and other authorized guidance.

    • D. 

      Reduce, reuse, recycle, and manage your use of solid wastes, ensuring no waste is dumped in any bodies of water, including storm drains.

  • 38. 
    You have knowledge of some North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) SECRET information in which one of your coworkers has asked about. Which United States security clearance level must your coworker possess for access to this information?
    • A. 

      SECRET.

    • B. 

      TOP SECRET

    • C. 

      NATO Confidential

    • D. 

      For official use only (FOUO).

  • 39. 
    Your work center is storing some classified material in the vault, and you have been asked to let a lighting technician in to fix the lighting. He doesn't have the required "need-to-know," but must have access to the room to properly complete his job. What is your best course of action?
    • A. 

      Verify his security clearance and make him sign a non-disclosure agreement (NDA).

    • B. 

      Let him in He's got a job to do.

    • C. 

      Check for his official use only (FOUO) file.

    • D. 

      Escort him in and stay with him in the vault at all times until his work is complete.

  • 40. 
    An aircraft diverted into your station with classified material on it and will remain overnight (RON) for repairs. The material is too large to be placed in an approved container. What is the best course of action?
    • A. 

      Have the aircraft commander lock the aircraft.

    • B. 

      Have the armed courier stay on board until the aircrew returns.

    • C. 

      Download the classified material and store it in an authorized US facility.

    • D. 

      Have the aircraft commander lock the aircraft and sign a release of liability letter.

  • 41. 
    Which one of the following represents an operational security (OPSEC) vulnerability?
    • A. 

      Varying your routine and driving routes to work.

    • B. 

      Blending in with the local crowd while off-base in your deployed location.

    • C. 

      Taking pictures of the helicopters you loaded on the C-5 and posting them on the internet.

    • D. 

      An adversary with possession of a fake military identification card and knowledge of the base.

  • 42. 
    Which type of cargo consists of highly classified national security material and requires an escort?
    • A. 

      Diplomatic clearance cargo.

    • B. 

      Human remains.

    • C. 

      Gold bullion.

    • D. 

      Defense Courier Service (DCS) material.

  • 43. 
    Which type of cargo must you always protect, safeguard, and handle as if it were classified?
    • A. 

      Diplomatic clearance cargo.

    • B. 

      Human remains.

    • C. 

      Registered mail.

    • D. 

      Gold bullion.

  • 44. 
    Which term refers to the movement of personnel, units, supplies and equipment to reinforce or resupply already deployed or employed forces?
    • A. 

      Redeployment.

    • B. 

      Employment.

    • C. 

      Sustainment

    • D. 

      Deployment.

  • 45. 
    Which command provides common-user and commercial air, land, and sea transportation?
    • A. 

      Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC).

    • B. 

      US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).

    • C. 

      Military Sealift Command (MSC).

    • D. 

      Sir Mobility Command (AMD).

  • 46. 
    Which command is not a component of the US Transportation Command?
    • A. 

      Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC).

    • B. 

      Military Traffic and Airlift Command (MTAC).

    • C. 

      Military Sealift Command (MSC).

    • D. 

      Air Mobility Command (AMC).

  • 47. 
    Which command is the link between Department of Defense (DOD) shippers and the commercial transportation carrier industry?
    • A. 

      Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC).

    • B. 

      US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).

    • C. 

      Military Sealift Command (MSC).

    • D. 

      Air Mobility Command (AMC).

  • 48. 
    Which command is the US Transportation Command's (USTRANSCOM) single component command for air mobility and provides airlift, air refueling, special air mission and aeromedical evacuation services?
    • A. 

      Air Deployment and Mobility Command (ADMC).

    • B. 

      Air Transportation Mobility Command (ATMC).

    • C. 

      Mobility Airlift Command (MAC).

    • D. 

      Air Mobility Command (AMC).

  • 49. 
    Which agency serves as Air Mobility Command's (AMC) strategic air operations hub and plans, directs, schedules, and tracks aircraft operations worldwide?
    • A. 

      Aerial Port Operations Center (APOC).

    • B. 

      Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC).

    • C. 

      Wing Airlift Control Center (WACC).

    • D. 

      Wing Operations Center (WOC).

  • 50. 
    Through which system does the Air Force provide rapid global mobility to the defense transportation system (DTS)?
    • A. 

      Global Deployment and Mobility System (GDMS).

    • B. 

      Mobility Traffic Management System (MTMS).

    • C. 

      National Air Mobility System (NAMS).

    • D. 

      Sustainment Mobility System (SMS)

  • 51. 
    In which area is an air terminal located on a prepared airfield that is designated for the sustained air movement of cargo and passengers?
    • A. 

      Landing zone.

    • B. 

      Drop zone.

    • C. 

      Airland field.

    • D. 

      Aerial port.

  • 52. 
    Which is a station that serves as an authorized port to process and clear aircraft and traffic for entrance into the country in which it is located?
    • A. 

      Aerial Port of Embarkation (APOE).

    • B. 

      Aerial Port of Mobility (APOM).

    • C. 

      Aerial Port of Debarkation (APOD).

    • D. 

      Aerial POrt of INspection (APOI).

  • 53. 
    Joint forces can be organized on which basis?
    • A. 

      Geographical or functional.

    • B. 

      Symmetrical or functional.

    • C. 

      Geographical or logical.

    • D. 

      Symmetrical or logical.

  • 54. 
    Which aircraft can hold up to 36 standard pallets and 73 passengers?
    • A. 

      B-747.

    • B. 

      KC-10.

    • C. 

      C-17.

    • D. 

      C-5.

  • 55. 
    Which aircraft is used for both strategic and theater airlift as well as for airdrops and aeromedical evacuations?
    • A. 

      B-747.

    • B. 

      KC-10.

    • C. 

      C-17.

    • D. 

      C-5.

  • 56. 
    Which organic aircraft can hold up to six standard pallets and is capable of landing on dirt strips?
    • A. 

      C-130.

    • B. 

      C-17.

    • C. 

      C-5.

    • D. 

      C-141.

  • 57. 
    Which program is where United States commercial airlines augment Department of Defense's airlift capability in time of war or during a President-declared emergency?
    • A. 

      Defense Transportation Program (DTP).

    • B. 

      National Air Mobility Program (NAMP).

    • C. 

      Operations and Maintenance (O&M) program.

    • D. 

      Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) program.

  • 58. 
    Which stage of Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) activation supports minor regional crises or small-scale contingencies?
    • A. 

      Stage I, Committed Expansion.

    • B. 

      Stage II, Defense Airlift Emergency.

    • C. 

      Stage III, National Emergency.

    • D. 

      Stage IV, Global Expansion.

  • 59. 
    Improperly constructed mission numbers
    • A. 

      Enable the services to double-bill the cargo's user based on weight and cube.

    • B. 

      Make it harder to deploy, employ, sustain, and redeploy the warfighter.

    • C. 

      Interfere with automated data updates between the various C2 systems.

    • D. 

      Duplicate the efforts of the organizations who fly the missions.

  • 60. 
    Which type of mission moves mostly airlift sustainment cargo in which users reimburse the Transportation Working Capital Fund (TWCF)?
    • A. 

      Special Airlift Mission (SAM).

    • B. 

      Air Refueling (AR) mission.

    • C. 

      Contingency mission.

    • D. 

      Channel mission

  • 61. 
    • A. 

      Air carrier that is operating the mission and what the load consists of.

    • B. 

      Julian date on which the mission originated in ZULU or GMT.

    • C. 

      Operational or tactical agency that has control of the mission.

    • D. 

      Geographical point where the mission will turn around.

  • 62. 
    Intransit visibility (ITV) provides commanders with the
    • A. 

      Capability to determine if a force has reached its destination and is ready to perform its mission.

    • B. 

      Capability to interface with X-MAN, Logistics (LOGMOD), and MANPER-B systems.

    • C. 

      Ability to enter data into feeder systems accurately.

    • D. 

      Ability to connect and replicate.

  • 63. 
    The Global Air Transportation and Execution System (GATES) allows users to
    • A. 

      Prepare commercial bills of lading.

    • B. 

      Prepare freight warrants.

    • C. 

      Create airlift schedules and mission numbers

    • D. 

      Process, manifest, and track passengers and cargo.

  • 64. 
    • A. 

      Presence of document identifier codes, mission number and aerial port code.

    • B. 

      Presence of cargo and passenger data, mission number, and aerial port code.

    • C. 

      Presence of bill of lading data, project code, and mission number.

    • D. 

      Transportation account code, project code, and mission number.

  • 65. 
    Who has a responsibility to provide accurate data to the aerial ports or agencies that enter data into the Global Air Transportation Execution System?
    • A. 

      Ramp supervisors.

    • B. 

      Superintendents.

    • C. 

      Individual units.

    • D. 

      Truck drivers

  • 66. 
    Which disk system is not used to import cargo or passenger information into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)?
    • A. 

      X-MAN.

    • B. 

      Logistics module (LOGMOD).

    • C. 

      Manpower and Personnel Module-Base (MANPER-B).

    • D. 

      Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment(DCAPES).

  • 67. 
    Radio frequency identification (RFID) technology consists of what three parts?
    • A. 

      Tag, interrogator, and data server.

    • B. 

      Tag, transponder, and data server.

    • C. 

      Tag, interrogator, and optical memory card.

    • D. 

      Transponder, optical memory card, and data server.

  • 68. 
    The Deployed Global Air Transportation Execution System (DGATES) is set up and used until the
    • A. 

      Capability is outdated and needs to be replaced by a more advanced capability.

    • B. 

      Deploying unit replicates and provides HQ AMC ITV cell e-mail ITV capability.

    • C. 

      Capability is no longer necessary or until fixed R/GAIES systems have been set up in its place.

    • D. 

      Deploying unit requires more capability than DGATES provides or prefers to use another system.

  • 69. 
    You are working in the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) for a mobility movement and want to locate information about mobility movements. In which part of the Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) would you look?
    • A. 

      Part I.

    • B. 

      Part II.

    • C. 

      Part III.

    • D. 

      Part IV.

  • 70. 
    You are helping a customer determine if he and his family are eligible for Depai tment of Defense (DOD) air travel. In which publication would you look?
    • A. 

      DOD 4515.13-R, Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR).

    • B. 

      DTR 4500.9-R, Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR).

    • C. 

      DOD 4500.54-M, Foreign Clearance Manual (FCM).

    • D. 

      DOD 4515.13-R, Air Transportation Eligibility.

  • 71. 
    You want to find out if two pieces of hazardous cargo are compatible with each other. In which publication would you look?
    • A. 

      Air Mobility Command Pamphlet (AMCPAM) 24-204.

    • B. 

      Air Mobility Command Instruction (AMCI) 24-101.

    • C. 

      Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I).

    • D. 

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 24-101.

  • 72. 
    A cargo user has received verified approval to ship its equipment via tactical, contingency, or emergency airlift and you need to look up the hazardous cargo restrictions and requirements for this type of airlift. Which chapter in Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I), Preparing Hazardous Materials for Military Air Shipment, would you go to find this information?
    • A. 

      Chapter 1.

    • B. 

      Chapter 2.

    • C. 

      Chapter 3.

    • D. 

      Chapter 4.

  • 73. 
    You are load planning cargo for a Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) aircraft and want to look up the aircraft specifications to safely plan the load. In which publication series would you look to find the information?
    • A. 

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 24-101.

    • B. 

      Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I).

    • C. 

      Air Mobility Command Instruction (AMCI) 24-101.

    • D. 

      Air Mobility Command Pamphlet (AMCPAM) 24-2.

  • 74. 
    You are loading helicopters on a C-17 aircraft and want to find information on specific procedures for loading the items. Which section number of the 1C-17B-9 technical order (TO) contains that information?
    • A. 

      Section II.

    • B. 

      Section IV.

    • C. 

      Section V.

    • D. 

      Section VI.

  • 75. 
    Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) is both a process and a collection of automated computer systems used to develop
    • A. 

      Joint planning and execution community (JPEC) regulations and deployment work centers.

    • B. 

      Installation deployment officers (IDOs) and Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) tempo bands.

    • C. 

      Operational plans (OPLANS) and time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDDs).

    • D. 

      Joint inspection standards and Global Air Mobility Support System (GAMSS) taskings.

  • 76. 
    The time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) is
    • A. 

      The electronic data that exists within the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) to help execute deployments in phases.

    • B. 

      A situation that involves a significant threat to the US, its territories, citizens, military forces, possessions or vital interests

    • C. 

      A situation that involves military forces in response to natural and man-made disasters, terrorists, or foreign military operations.

    • D. 

      The process within unit type codes (UTCs) required to activate deployment work centers.

  • 77. 
    Which volume of the USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) documents the aircraft activity for each geographical location in support of all regional OPLANs (operation plans) and certain CONPLANs (concept plans)?
    • A. 

      WMP-2, Plans and Listing Summary.

    • B. 

      WMP-3, Combat and Support Forces.

    • C. 

      WMP-4, Wartime Aircraft Activity.

    • D. 

      WMP-5, AF Industrial Mobilization Planning.

  • 78. 
    Which war reserve material (WRM) support is sourced using the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES)?
    • A. 

      Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) taskings.

    • B. 

      Joint, Air Force, and unit exercises.

    • C. 

      Training events and competitions.

    • D. 

      Small scale contingencies.

  • 79. 
    • A. 

      Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

    • B. 

      Global Air Transportation and Execution System (GATES).

    • C. 

      Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • D. 

      Logistics Module (LOGMOD).

  • 80. 
    Which deployment work center is the hub of deployment operations and is responsible for the overall control and supervision of deployments?
    • A. 

      Deployment Vehicle Operations (DVO).

    • B. 

      Deployment Control Center (DCC).

    • C. 

      Transportation Control Unit (TCU).

    • D. 

      Control Deployment Function (CDF).

  • 81. 
    Which deployment work center processes all deploying personnel through stations such as legal and finance and is responsible for processing and manifesting passengers and processing their baggage?
    • A. 

      Passenger Deployment Function (PDF).

    • B. 

      Passenger Operations Function (POF).

    • C. 

      Passenger Control Center (PCC).

    • D. 

      Passenger Control Unit (PCU).

  • 82. 
    In which area of the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) do deploying units have sole responsibility?
    • A. 

      Ready line/loading ramp area

    • B. 

      Alert holding area.

    • C. 

      Call forward area

    • D. 

      Marshalling area.

  • 83. 
    Mobility forces will not start a joint inspection (JI) until
    • A. 

      The Arrival/Departure Airfield Control Group (A/DACG) directs them.

    • B. 

      The first deployed schedule of events (DSOE) is published.

    • C. 

      The first piece of cargo arrives in the call forward area.

    • D. 

      All the cargo for the chalk is present and available

  • 84. 
    To whom does a copy of the Department of Defense (DD) Form 2133 not go?
    • A. 

      The aircraft loadmaster with the cargo manifest and other documentation.

    • B. 

      The troop commander with the consolidated flight package and manifest.

    • C. 

      Retained by the mobility force for inclusion in the station file.

    • D. 

      The deploying unit representative.

  • 85. 
    Satisfactory items are identified on the DD Form 2133 by
    • A. 

      Leaving the block blank.

    • B. 

      A check mark.

    • C. 

      An "X".

    • D. 

      An "*".

  • 86. 
    Which hazardous materials certifications allow personnel to sign the Shipper's Declaration for Dangerous Goods (SDDG)?
    • A. 

      Hazardous materials preparer and technical specialist.

    • B. 

      Hazardous materials handler and technical specialist.

    • C. 

      Hazardous materials inspector and preparer.

    • D. 

      Hazardous materials handler and inspector.

  • 87. 
    Which type of airdrop is used to feed stranded animals in a winter storm?
    • A. 

      Gravity method.

    • B. 

      Low-velocity drop.

    • C. 

      Freedrop.

    • D. 

      High-velocity drop.

  • 88. 
    Which type of airdrop requires large, clear drop zones because they usually consist of large, complex loads?
    • A. 

      High-velocity drop.

    • B. 

      Low-velocity drop.

    • C. 

      Gravity method.

    • D. 

      Freedrop.

  • 89. 
    What is the capacity of the A-21 cargo bag?
    • A. 

      300 pounds.

    • B. 

      400 pounds

    • C. 

      500 pounds.

    • D. 

      1,000 pounds.

  • 90. 
    For what type of drop is the Type V platform used?
    • A. 

      Freedrop.

    • B. 

      Low-velocity drop.

    • C. 

      High-velocity drop.

    • D. 

      All three types of airdrops.

  • 91. 
    Which parachute is the largest?
    • A. 

      G-11.

    • B. 

      G-12

    • C. 

      G-13.

    • D. 

      Extraction.

  • 92. 
    How much weight will the G-12 parachute support?
    • A. 

      500 pounds.

    • B. 

      1,500 pounds.

    • C. 

      2,200 pounds.

    • D. 

      3,500 pounds.

  • 93. 
    When operating the lavatory service truck (LST), how will you know when the waste tank is full?
    • A. 

      Look at the gauge in the control panel.

    • B. 

      Wait until the flow meter zeroes out.

    • C. 

      Look through the sight window.

    • D. 

      Open the tank and look inside.

  • 94. 
    On the AMC Form 249, Fleet Service Equipment Record, to conduct an inventory, which form will be used as a source document to annotate the total number of items out on mission aircraft?
    • A. 

      AF IMT 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer Receipt.

    • B. 

      AMC Form 268, Passenger Service Kit/Inventory List.

    • C. 

      AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist.

    • D. 

      AF IMT 129, Tally In/Out.

  • 95. 
    You have been tasked to load non-expendable supplies on an Air Mobility Command (AMC) C-5. Which form should you use?
    • A. 

      AMC Form 12-1, Comfort Pallet/Portable Lavatory Unit Checklist.

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record.

    • C. 

      AF IMT 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.

    • D. 

      AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist.

  • 96. 
    You are servicing an arriving aircraft and notice a personal item left by a passenger. What action must you take?
    • A. 

      Turn it in to the Customer Service Branch (CSB) so it can be shipped to the passenger.

    • B. 

      Drive the article to the passenger, who will be waiting at the baggage pick-up conveyor.

    • C. 

      Annotate the article in the statement book of the AF IMT 4128 and describe the action you took to recover it.

    • D. 

      Turn it into the passenger terminal's lost and found or Security Forces.

  • 97. 
    Which describes the proper way to clean and service an oven?
    • A. 

      Wipe down the oven racks and oven interior and ensure the oven is operational.

    • B. 

      Remove the dirty racks, clean the oven interior, install clean racks, and ensure the oven is operational.

    • C. 

      Take the oven racks to Fleet supply for cleaning and use a 5% sodium hypochlorite solution to wipe down the oven interior.

    • D. 

      Take the oven racks to the flight kitchen for cleaning and use a 5% sodium hypochlorite solution to wipe down the oven interior.

  • 98. 
    You are picking up clean and filled 5-gallon igloos and coffee jugs from the flight kitchen to take to an aircraft. How must they be when you pick them up so they will stay clean?
    • A. 

      The spouts will be covered in plastic.

    • B. 

      The spouts will be bundled in lots of five.

    • C. 

      Wiped down with spray cleaner and a soft cloth.

    • D. 

      Wiped down with a 5% sodium hypochlorite solution.

  • 99. 
    A flight is leaving with a departure time of 0800. What is the latest time passenger service personnel can call in a firm meal order for that flight?
    • A. 

      0600.

    • B. 

      0645.

    • C. 

      0700.

    • D. 

      0715.

  • 100. 
    What must you do before you print and sign your name on the AF IMT 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer, when picking up meals from the flight kitchen?
    • A. 

      Help the aircrew member stow the meals in the proper storage areas.

    • B. 

      Call in the meal numbers to the passenger terminal.

    • C. 

      Verify you have every item listed on the form.

    • D. 

      Notify the dispatcher of your start time.

  • 101. 
    You have performed final fleet service on a C-17 that blocks out at 0800. Within what timeframe are aircrews required to pick up their own meals?
    • A. 

      0650.

    • B. 

      0700.

    • C. 

      0710.

    • D. 

      0720

  • 102. 
    You have delivered 73 meals to a C-5. Who will stow those meals in the galley or air transportable galley lavatory (ATGL) storage areas?
    • A. 

      The aircrew members and Fleet Service personnel.

    • B. 

      The aircrew members and maintenance personnel.

    • C. 

      Fleet Service and maintenance personnel.

    • D. 

      The aircrew members only.

  • 103. 
    You are stationed at McChord AFB, WA, and a flight just arrived from Kadena AB, Japan that has unused meals onboard. What must you do with these meals?
    • A. 

      After U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) inspection and approval, turn them in to the flight kitchen using the AF 1MT 3516 or AF IMT 129.

    • B. 

      After USDA inspection and approval, place them in two plastic bags and incinerate or sterilize them at an approved facility.

    • C. 

      After USDA inspection and approval, they are free to consume during one of your breaks.

    • D. 

      Turn them in to the flight kitchen using the AF IMT 3516 or AF IMT 129.

  • 104. 
    When servicing an aircraft with potable water you should fill the aircraft water tank until
    • A. 

      The flow meter zeroes out or until water discharges from the overflow fitting.

    • B. 

      Water reaches the requested capacity or 11 gallons, whichever comes first.

    • C. 

      Water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity.

    • D. 

      The flow meter reads 11 gallons.

  • 105. 
    When servicing the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) water tank you should fill it with potable water until
    • A. 

      The flow meter zeroes out or until water discharges from the overflow fitting.

    • B. 

      The gauge indicates that it is full or 39 gallons, whichever comes first.

    • C. 

      Water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity.

    • D. 

      The flow meter reads 11 gallons.

  • 106. 
    You serviced the C-17 with the lavatory service truck (LST); the doughnut seal was faulty, and you came into direct contact with waste from the aircraft. You were wearing all required personal protective equipment (PPE). What actions should you take?
    • A. 

      Change clothes and discontinue latrine service until the doughnut gets fixed.

    • B. 

      Call the ambulance to treat you for contamination.

    • C. 

      Change clothes only; your PPE protected you.

    • D. 

      Wash immediately and change clothes.

  • 107. 
    How much water or solution do you use to rinse and fill the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) waste tank?
    • A. 

      11 liters

    • B. 

      39 liters.

    • C. 

      11 gallons.

    • D. 

      39 gallons.

  • 108. 
    When recording the various Fleet Service activities on an AMC Form 244, such as "latrine serviced by," you should include the initials of the
    • A. 

      Person who serviced the latrine, the Julian date, and start and complete times.

    • B. 

      Person recording the information, the Julian date, and start and complete times.

    • C. 

      Person who serviced the latrine and the start and complete times.

    • D. 

      Dispatcher and the start and complete times.

  • 109. 
    As a Fleet Service dispatcher, you have just completed and signed an AMC Form 244, Fleet Service Arrival/Departure Worksheet. Who else needs to sign it before it can be turned into records?
    • A. 

      An aircrew member.

    • B. 

      The air terminal manager.

    • C. 

      A flight kitchen representative.

    • D. 

      The Fleet Service shift supervisor.

  • 110. 
    How many days are trainees given to complete each volume of their career development course?
    • A. 

      90 days

    • B. 

      60 days

    • C. 

      45 days.

    • D. 

      30 days