Air Force 2T251 Volume 1

Approved & Edited by ProProfs Editorial Team
The editorial team at ProProfs Quizzes consists of a select group of subject experts, trivia writers, and quiz masters who have authored over 10,000 quizzes taken by more than 100 million users. This team includes our in-house seasoned quiz moderators and subject matter experts. Our editorial experts, spread across the world, are rigorously trained using our comprehensive guidelines to ensure that you receive the highest quality quizzes.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By HKSCHICO
H
HKSCHICO
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 52,508
Questions: 110 | Attempts: 1,619

SettingsSettingsSettings
2T251 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and answers


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    An Airman is qualified in two Air Force specialty codes (AFSC). Which type of AFSC identifies the one in which the Airman is currently performing duty?

    • A.

      Air Force specialty code (AFSC)

    • B.

      Duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC)

    • C.

      Primary Air Force specialty code (PAFSC)

    • D.

      Control Air Force specialty code (CAFSC)

    Correct Answer
    B. Duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC). This type of AFSC identifies the one in which the Airman is currently performing duty. It distinguishes the specific job or role that the Airman is currently assigned to within the Air Force. The other options, such as Primary AFSC, Control AFSC, and AFSC, may refer to different classifications or categories of specialty codes, but they do not specifically indicate the current duty of the Airman.

    Rate this question:

  • 2. 

    An Air Force specialty (AFS) is a group of

    • A.

      People requiring common interests.

    • B.

      Letters requiring common qualifications

    • C.

      Positions requiring common qualifications.

    • D.

      Numbers requiring similar knowledge.

    Correct Answer
    C. Positions requiring common qualifications.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "positions requiring common qualifications." This means that an Air Force specialty (AFS) refers to specific positions within the Air Force that require individuals to possess similar qualifications or skills. It suggests that individuals in the same AFS have common requirements and qualifications needed to perform their duties effectively.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    A duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC) is the AFSC (Air Force specialty code)

    • A.

      Used for enlisted Airman assignments, training requirements, and promotions.

    • B.

      Used to identify the position in which an individual is performing duty.

    • C.

      In which an individual is best qualified to perform duty.

    • D.

      Used to identify a specialty.

    Correct Answer
    B. Used to identify the position in which an individual is performing duty.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "used to identify the position in which an individual is performing duty." This means that a duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC) is used to designate the specific job or position that an enlisted Airman is currently assigned to. It helps to identify and categorize the various roles and responsibilities within the Air Force, ensuring that individuals are appropriately trained and qualified for their assigned duties.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    A group of closely related Air Force specialties (AFS) requiring basically the same knowledge and skills is known as a

    • A.

      Skill level.

    • B.

      Position.

    • C.

      Duty.

    • D.

      Career field.

    Correct Answer
    D. Career field.
    Explanation
    A career field refers to a group of closely related Air Force specialties (AFS) that require the same knowledge and skills. It encompasses a range of positions and duties within a specific area of expertise. This term is used to categorize and organize the various AFS and allows for specialization and advancement within a particular field.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    A Senior Airman may use the title Supervisor when he or she

    • A.

      Is in charge of a work center and has completed his or her upgrade training.

    • B.

      Supervises multiple flights or squadrons and has graduated ALS.

    • C.

      Doesn't have a title that accurately reflects his or her day-to-day duties.

    • D.

      Has graduated ALS and supervises the work of others.

    Correct Answer
    D. Has graduated ALS and supervises the work of others.
    Explanation
    A Senior Airman may use the title Supervisor when he or she has graduated ALS and supervises the work of others. This means that after completing the required Airman Leadership School (ALS) training, a Senior Airman is eligible to be designated as a Supervisor if they are responsible for overseeing and managing the work of other individuals. This title is given to acknowledge their leadership role and the authority they have in directing and guiding their subordinates.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    Which specialty is not a part of the transportation career field?

    • A.

      Vehicle Management.

    • B.

      Traffic Management.

    • C.

      Air Traffic Control

    • D.

      Air Transportation.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Traffic Control
    Explanation
    Air Traffic Control is not a part of the transportation career field because it primarily focuses on the management and control of air traffic, ensuring the safe and efficient movement of aircraft in the airspace. While it is related to transportation in the sense that it deals with the movement of aircraft, it is considered a separate specialty within the aviation industry rather than a part of the broader transportation career field, which typically includes areas such as vehicle management, traffic management, and air transportation.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    Which is not a component of the Air Force On-the-job Training (AF OJT) Program?

    • A.

      Job requirement.

    • B.

      Job proficiency.

    • C.

      Job knowledge.

    • D.

      Job experience

    Correct Answer
    A. Job requirement.
    Explanation
    The Air Force On-the-job Training (AF OJT) Program is designed to enhance job proficiency, knowledge, and experience. It focuses on providing practical training to personnel in order to develop their skills and expertise in their specific job roles. Job requirement, on the other hand, refers to the qualifications and skills needed to perform a particular job. It is not a component of the AF OJT Program as it is a prerequisite for entering the program, rather than a part of the training itself.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    Who is responsible for conducting and documenting work center orientations and initial qualification evaluations within 60 days of assignment?

    • A.

      Supervisor.

    • B.

      Certifier.

    • C.

      Trainer.

    • D.

      Trainee.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor.
    Explanation
    The supervisor is responsible for conducting and documenting work center orientations and initial qualification evaluations within 60 days of assignment. This means that the supervisor is in charge of ensuring that new employees are properly oriented to their work center and that their qualifications are assessed within the given timeframe. The supervisor plays a crucial role in ensuring that new employees are adequately trained and qualified for their assigned tasks.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    Who is responsible for actively participating in all opportunities for training?

    • A.

      Supervisor.

    • B.

      Certifier.

    • C.

      Trainer.

    • D.

      Trainee.

    Correct Answer
    D. Trainee.
    Explanation
    The trainee is responsible for actively participating in all opportunities for training. As the person undergoing the training, it is their duty to engage in the learning process, attend training sessions, and take advantage of any training opportunities provided to them. The trainee plays an active role in their own development and growth by actively participating and making the most of the training opportunities presented to them.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    Which is not a trainee responsibility in the Air Force On-the-job Training (AF OJT) Program?

    • A.

      Budget on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks within established time limits.

    • B.

      Obtain and manage knowledge, qualifications, certifications, and appropriate skill levels.

    • C.

      Identify and certify position qualifications and skill level upgrade training requirements.

    • D.

      Understand particular deployment and home station training requirements.

    Correct Answer
    C. Identify and certify position qualifications and skill level upgrade training requirements.
  • 11. 

    What is the minimum amount of time a trainee must be in training to be awarded the 7-skill level?

    • A.

      18 months.

    • B.

      15 months.

    • C.

      12 months.

    • D.

      6 months.

    Correct Answer
    C. 12 months.
    Explanation
    The minimum amount of time a trainee must be in training to be awarded the 7-skill level is 12 months.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    Before a trainee can be awarded the 5- or 7- skill levels all core tasks must be identified

    • A.

      By the supervisor and other duty position tasks identified by the commander.

    • B.

      By the commander and other duty position tasks identified by the supervisor.

    • C.

      By the supervisor and other duty position tasks by the CFETP.

    • D.

      In the CFETP and other duty position tasks identified by the supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    D. In the CFETP and other duty position tasks identified by the supervisor.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "in the CFETP and other duty position tasks identified by the supervisor." This answer is correct because it states that before a trainee can be awarded the 5- or 7- skill levels, all core tasks must be identified in the CFETP (Career Field Education and Training Plan) and other duty position tasks must be identified by the supervisor. This means that the trainee must complete all the required tasks outlined in the CFETP and any additional tasks assigned by the supervisor in order to achieve the desired skill levels.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    Which training document is the foundation for ensuring the completion of all work center job requirements?

    • A.

      Specialty Training Standard (STS).

    • B.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • C.

      Master Task List (MTL).

    • D.

      Master Training Plan (MTP).

    Correct Answer
    D. Master Training Plan (MTP).
    Explanation
    The Master Training Plan (MTP) is the training document that serves as the foundation for ensuring the completion of all work center job requirements. It outlines the specific tasks and skills that need to be mastered in order to successfully perform the job. The MTP provides a comprehensive roadmap for training and development, allowing individuals to track their progress and ensure that all necessary training is completed. By following the MTP, individuals can ensure that they have the knowledge and skills necessary to fulfill their job requirements effectively.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is a comprehensive

    • A.

      Core training package that outlines task evaluation checklists and training assessments.

    • B.

      Instructional document that lists professional enhancement criteria for a specialty.

    • C.

      Instructional package that supports and standardizes job knowledge training.

    • D.

      Core training document that identifies education and training requirements.

    Correct Answer
    D. Core training document that identifies education and training requirements.
    Explanation
    The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is a core training document that identifies education and training requirements. It serves as a comprehensive guide for individuals in a specific career field, outlining the necessary knowledge and skills they need to acquire. The CFETP includes task evaluation checklists and training assessments, helping individuals track their progress and ensure they meet the required standards. By providing a standardized framework, the CFETP supports consistency and uniformity in job knowledge training within a specialty.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    The scale values on the proficiency code key indicate

    • A.

      How much information the trainee will be required to recite back to the supervisor.

    • B.

      That the task indicated will be taught during wartime and humanitarian operations.

    • C.

      How well a trainee needs to perform a task or understand a task or subject.

    • D.

      That training is not required due to limitations in resources.

    Correct Answer
    C. How well a trainee needs to perform a task or understand a task or subject.
    Explanation
    The scale values on the proficiency code key indicate how well a trainee needs to perform a task or understand a task or subject. This means that the scale values provide a measure of the level of proficiency or competence expected from the trainee in relation to the task or subject at hand. It helps in determining the level of knowledge, skills, and abilities required for successful completion of the task or understanding of the subject.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    Which form is a continuation of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and is used and annotated the same way as the specialty training standard (STS)?

    • A.

      AETC Form 156.

    • B.

      AF IMT 2096.

    • C.

      AF IMT 623a.

    • D.

      AF IMT 797.

    Correct Answer
    D. AF IMT 797.
    Explanation
    AF IMT 797 is the correct answer because it is a continuation of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and is used and annotated the same way as the specialty training standard (STS). This form is specifically designed for documenting and tracking training requirements and qualifications for individuals in a particular career field. It allows for easy reference and assessment of an individual's progress and proficiency in their career field.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    What is the purpose of the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection, and Health (AFOSH) program?

    • A.

      Decrease situational awareness of resources and protect personnel.

    • B.

      Increase situational awareness of resources and protect personnel.

    • C.

      Minimize the loss of Air Force resources and protect personnel.

    • D.

      Minimize the loss of Air Force property and money.

    Correct Answer
    C. Minimize the loss of Air Force resources and protect personnel.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection, and Health (AFOSH) program is to minimize the loss of Air Force resources and protect personnel. This program aims to ensure the safety and well-being of Air Force personnel by implementing measures to prevent accidents, injuries, and damage to resources. It focuses on identifying and mitigating potential hazards, promoting safe practices, and maintaining a healthy and secure work environment. By minimizing losses and protecting personnel, the AFOSH program helps to maintain operational readiness and effectiveness in the Air Force.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    You injured your ankle playing basketball over the weekend. Your responsibility under the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection and Health (AFOSH) program is to promptly

    • A.

      Write a statement of how the injury occurred.

    • B.

      Wrap and ice it so you can continue to work.

    • C.

      Quit the basketball team for the season.

    • D.

      Report the injury to your supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    D. Report the injury to your supervisor.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to report the injury to your supervisor. This is because under the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection and Health (AFOSH) program, it is important to promptly report any injuries that occur in the workplace. By reporting the injury to your supervisor, they can take the necessary steps to ensure that you receive proper medical attention and that any necessary documentation is completed. This helps to ensure that the injury is properly addressed and that any potential hazards or risks in the workplace can be identified and mitigated.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    Your supervisor just conducted very thorough safety training with you that included job hazards, personal protective equipment wear, jewelry safety, manual lifting procedures, and many other areas. Which form will you and your supervisor use to document the training?

    • A.

      AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard

    • B.

      AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report

    • C.

      AF IMT 483, Certificate of Competency

    • D.

      AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record.

    Correct Answer
    D. AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record.
    Explanation
    The AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record, is the appropriate form to document the safety training conducted by the supervisor. This form is specifically designed to record and track an employee's safety and health training, including information on job hazards, personal protective equipment wear, and other relevant areas covered in the training. It serves as a comprehensive record that can be used for future reference and to ensure compliance with safety regulations.

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    You must be mindful of bulky uniform items with cords and strings because

    • A.

      They can come undone and render you out of dress and appearance regulations.

    • B.

      They can get caught in conveyor belts or moving parts and machinery

    • C.

      They get in the way when you are working at the computer.

    • D.

      Your coworkers can easily yank on them as they walk by.

    Correct Answer
    B. They can get caught in conveyor belts or moving parts and machinery
    Explanation
    Bulky uniform items with cords and strings can get caught in conveyor belts or moving parts and machinery, which can be dangerous and cause accidents. This is why it is important to be mindful of these items and ensure they are properly secured to prevent any mishaps.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    You are entering the warehouse wearing several items. Which of them must be removed before entering the area?

    • A.

      Jewelry.

    • B.

      Reflective gear

    • C.

      Steel-toed boots

    • D.

      Cold-weather gear.

    Correct Answer
    A. Jewelry.
    Explanation
    Jewelry must be removed before entering the warehouse because it can pose a safety hazard. Loose jewelry such as rings, bracelets, or necklaces can get caught in machinery or equipment, causing injury to the wearer. Additionally, jewelry can scratch or damage delicate surfaces or products in the warehouse. Therefore, it is important to remove jewelry to ensure the safety of oneself and the items in the warehouse.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    You have finished downloading pallets onto the finger docks. Which is the best way to exit the dock?

    • A.

      Step onto the K-loader and ask the driver to lower the back end so you can jump off a shorter distance.

    • B.

      Use the ladder located at the end of the dock.

    • C.

      Ride the rollers to the end with the pallets

    • D.

      Jump off the edge.

    Correct Answer
    B. Use the ladder located at the end of the dock.
    Explanation
    The best way to exit the dock is to use the ladder located at the end of the dock. This is the safest and most appropriate method as it allows for a controlled and stable descent from the dock. Stepping onto the K-loader and asking the driver to lower the back end or jumping off the edge can be dangerous and may result in injuries. Riding the rollers with the pallets can also be risky and may cause accidents. Therefore, using the ladder is the most suitable option for a safe exit.

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    You have acquired a bad safety habit of walking while spotting. It is important for yout to eliminate this poor and unsafe work practice because

    • A.

      It will increase your reputation.

    • B.

      The K-loader driver doesn't like it.

    • C.

      Your supervisor will embarass you in front of your coworkers.

    • D.

      New people can learn work habits by observing your performance.

    Correct Answer
    D. New people can learn work habits by observing your performance.
    Explanation
    Acquiring a bad safety habit of walking while spotting can be detrimental to workplace safety. By eliminating this poor and unsafe work practice, new people observing your performance can learn good work habits instead. This is important as it helps maintain a safe working environment and promotes a positive safety culture within the organization.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    Operational risk management (ORM) is a continuous process designed to do what?

    • A.

      Detect and control risk while mitigating performance capabilities and enhancing combat assessment.

    • B.

      Detect, assess, and control risk while enhancing performance and maximizing combat capabilities.

    • C.

      Detect and assess risk and enhance safety capabilities.

    • D.

      Detect, assess, and contribute to risks.

    Correct Answer
    B. Detect, assess, and control risk while enhancing performance and maximizing combat capabilities.
    Explanation
    ORM is a continuous process that aims to detect and assess risks while also controlling them. Additionally, it seeks to enhance performance and maximize combat capabilities. This means that ORM is not only focused on identifying and evaluating risks but also on taking measures to mitigate and manage them effectively. By doing so, ORM helps to improve overall performance and ensure that combat capabilities are optimized.

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    Which form would you use to report hazards that cannot be eliminated immediately?

    • A.

      AF IMT 1118, Notice of Hazard

    • B.

      DD Form 1118, Notice of Hazard

    • C.

      AF IMT 457, USAF Hazard Report

    • D.

      DD Form 457, DOD Hazard Report.

    Correct Answer
    C. AF IMT 457, USAF Hazard Report
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF IMT 457, USAF Hazard Report. This form is specifically designed for reporting hazards in the United States Air Force (USAF) that cannot be eliminated immediately. It is likely that this form is used to ensure that the hazard is properly documented and reported to the appropriate authorities within the USAF for further action and resolution.

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    The Base Weather Station has issued a lightning warning for your location. What does this warning mean, and what should you do?

    • A.

      Lightning is predicted to occur within the next 30 minutes; continue working on the flight line until told to cease operations.

    • B.

      Lightning is occurring within a 5-nautical-mile radius; continue working on the flight line until told to cease operations.

    • C.

      Lightning is predicted to occur within the next 5 minutes; immediately take shelter in a safe place.

    • D.

      Lightning is occurring within a 5-nautical-mile radius; immediately take shelter in a safe place.

    Correct Answer
    D. Lightning is occurring within a 5-nautical-mile radius; immediately take shelter in a safe place.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that if a lightning warning is issued for your location, it means that lightning is occurring within a 5-nautical-mile radius. In this situation, it is important to immediately take shelter in a safe place to avoid the risk of being struck by lightning.

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    You are entering the flight line area in a vehicle. What must you do before entering?

    • A.

      Stop and collect IDs from all of your passengers to show the gate guard.

    • B.

      Slow down and look both ways for oncoming traffic.

    • C.

      Stop and do a foreign object damage (FOD) check.

    • D.

      Stop and show the gate guard your line badge.

    Correct Answer
    C. Stop and do a foreign object damage (FOD) check.
    Explanation
    Before entering the flight line area in a vehicle, it is important to stop and do a foreign object damage (FOD) check. This is necessary to ensure that there are no loose objects or debris on the ground that could potentially cause damage to aircraft or pose a safety hazard. By performing a FOD check, the individual can help maintain a safe and clean environment on the flight line, reducing the risk of accidents or damage to equipment.

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    You have parked your vehicle on the flight line and need to leave it unattended to board the aircraft. What must you do?

    • A.

      Leave the vehicle unlocked; turn off the ignition; take the keys with you; place it in park or reverse; and chock one rear wheel.

    • B.

      Leave the vehicle on and unlocked; the keys in the ignition; place it in park or reverse and chock one rear wheel, in front and behind.

    • C.

      Leave the keys in the ignition and the vehicle unlocked; turn off the ignition; place it in park or reverse; and chock one rear wheel, in front and behind.

    • D.

      Leave the keys in the ignition and lock the vehicle; turn off the ignition; place it in neutral; and chock the front driver's side wheel, in front and behind.

    Correct Answer
    C. Leave the keys in the ignition and the vehicle unlocked; turn off the ignition; place it in park or reverse; and chock one rear wheel, in front and behind.
    Explanation
    To ensure safety and prevent unauthorized use of the vehicle, it is important to leave the keys in the ignition and the vehicle unlocked. However, the ignition should be turned off to avoid any accidental starting of the vehicle. The vehicle should be placed in park or reverse to prevent it from rolling. Chocking one rear wheel, both in front and behind, further ensures that the vehicle remains stationary and does not move.

    Rate this question:

  • 29. 

    You are stopped on the flight line at night with your vehicle and its headlights on and an aircraft is approaching your direction. You are not in the aircraft's path. What is your best course of action?

    • A.

      Turn your vehicle around so you are facing away from the aircraft, turn the ignition off, and set the parking brake until the aircraft is out of range.

    • B.

      Turn your headlights off and turn your parking lights/emergency flashers on until the aircraft is out of range.

    • C.

      Flash your high beams at the aircraft to let the pilot know your location

    • D.

      Exit the flight line area and return when the aircraft has safely blocked.

    Correct Answer
    B. Turn your headlights off and turn your parking lights/emergency flashers on until the aircraft is out of range.
  • 30. 

    You are crossing the active runway and see a red and green light coming from the control tower. What should you do?

    • A.

      General Warning. Exercise extreme caution.

    • B.

      Stop! Your vehicle will not be moved.

    • C.

      Return to your starting point.

    • D.

      Clear the active runway.

    Correct Answer
    A. General Warning. Exercise extreme caution.
    Explanation
    When crossing an active runway and seeing a red and green light coming from the control tower, the correct action to take is to exercise extreme caution. This is because the red and green lights indicate a general warning, signaling that there may be potential hazards or dangers ahead. It is important to proceed with caution and be aware of any approaching aircraft or other potential risks while crossing the runway.

    Rate this question:

  • 31. 

    You are crossing the active runway and see a flashing white light coming from the control tower. What should you do?

    • A.

      General warning. Exercise extreme caution.

    • B.

      Stop! Your vehicle will not be moved.

    • C.

      Return to your starting point.

    • D.

      Clear the active runway.

    Correct Answer
    C. Return to your starting point.
    Explanation
    If you are crossing an active runway and see a flashing white light coming from the control tower, you should immediately return to your starting point. This flashing white light is a signal from the control tower indicating that there is a potential danger or hazard on the runway. By returning to your starting point, you are ensuring your safety and avoiding any potential collisions or accidents.

    Rate this question:

  • 32. 

    What is the focus of the pollution prevention program?

    • A.

      Reducing the costs of recycling solid waste that Air Force personnel create in the course of their duties.

    • B.

      Preventing or reducing the amount of waste Air Force personnel create before it becomes a problem.

    • C.

      Recycling and treating the waste Air Force personnel create before it ends up in landfills.

    • D.

      Disposing the waste Air Force personnel create before it becomes a problem.

    Correct Answer
    B. Preventing or reducing the amount of waste Air Force personnel create before it becomes a problem.
    Explanation
    The focus of the pollution prevention program is to prevent or reduce the amount of waste Air Force personnel create before it becomes a problem. This means that the program aims to address the issue at its source by implementing measures to minimize waste generation, rather than solely focusing on recycling or treating the waste after it has already been created. By doing so, the program aims to proactively tackle the problem of waste and its potential environmental impacts.

    Rate this question:

  • 33. 

    A solid waste is any discarded material,

    • A.

      Including solids, liquids, and containerized gases only, which is abandoned, recycled, or considered inherently waste-like.

    • B.

      Including solids, liquids, and containerized gases only, which is acquired, treated, or considered inherently solid-like.

    • C.

      Including solids and liquids only, which is purchased, stored, abandoned, or considered inherently waste-like.

    • D.

      Including liquids and containerized gases only, which is stored, abandoned, or considered inherently solid-like.

    Correct Answer
    A. Including solids, liquids, and containerized gases only, which is abandoned, recycled, or considered inherently waste-like.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that a solid waste is any discarded material, including solids, liquids, and containerized gases only, which is abandoned, recycled, or considered inherently waste-like. This means that any material that is discarded and falls under the categories of solids, liquids, and containerized gases can be considered a solid waste if it is abandoned, recycled, or inherently waste-like.

    Rate this question:

  • 34. 

    What are the two main elements of minimizing waste?

    • A.

      Prevention and management.

    • B.

      Reduction and management

    • C.

      Management and control.

    • D.

      Prevention and control.

    Correct Answer
    D. Prevention and control.
    Explanation
    The two main elements of minimizing waste are prevention and control. Prevention refers to taking actions to reduce or eliminate waste generation at the source, such as implementing efficient production processes or using less packaging. Control, on the other hand, involves managing and handling waste in a responsible and sustainable manner, such as through recycling, composting, or proper disposal. By combining prevention and control strategies, waste can be minimized effectively, leading to environmental and economic benefits.

    Rate this question:

  • 35. 

    Pollution control consists of which three activities?

    • A.

      Storage, acquisition, and recycling.

    • B.

      Recycling, treatment, and disposal.

    • C.

      Prevention, purchase, and participation.

    • D.

      Reduction, recycling, and disintegration.

    Correct Answer
    B. Recycling, treatment, and disposal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is recycling, treatment, and disposal. Pollution control involves these three activities to mitigate the harmful effects of pollution. Recycling involves the conversion of waste materials into reusable products, reducing the need for resource extraction and waste generation. Treatment refers to the process of removing pollutants from wastewater, air, or soil to make it safe for release into the environment. Disposal involves the proper management and disposal of waste materials in a way that minimizes environmental impact. Together, these activities contribute to pollution control and environmental sustainability.

    Rate this question:

  • 36. 

    Which is not a benefit of pollution prevention?

    • A.

      It boosts the Air Force's image as responsible members of society.

    • B.

      It reduces costs, manpower and equipment requirements.

    • C.

      It reduces the need for federal standards and regulations.

    • D.

      It reduces impact on public health and the environment.

    Correct Answer
    C. It reduces the need for federal standards and regulations.
    Explanation
    Pollution prevention is a proactive approach to reduce or eliminate pollution at its source, rather than managing it after it has been created. It focuses on finding ways to prevent pollution from occurring in the first place. The given answer, "It reduces the need for federal standards and regulations," is not a benefit of pollution prevention because federal standards and regulations are necessary to ensure that industries and individuals comply with environmental laws and regulations. These standards and regulations help to protect public health and the environment by setting guidelines and requirements that must be met. Therefore, reducing the need for federal standards and regulations would not be considered a benefit of pollution prevention.

    Rate this question:

  • 37. 

    What can you do each and every day to reduce air emissions at work?

    • A.

      Incinerate, scrub, or treat solid wastes in accordance with Air Force instructions and local policies.

    • B.

      Neutralize, evaporate, or reduce hazardous waste products in accordance with federal and state statutes.

    • C.

      Inspect, operate, refuel, and maintain vehicles in accordance with their applicable TO's and other authorized guidance.

    • D.

      Reduce, reuse, recycle, and manage your use of solid wastes, ensuring no waste is dumped in any bodies of water, including storm drains.

    Correct Answer
    C. Inspect, operate, refuel, and maintain vehicles in accordance with their applicable TO's and other authorized guidance.
    Explanation
    By inspecting, operating, refueling, and maintaining vehicles in accordance with their applicable technical orders (TO's) and other authorized guidance, you can ensure that they are running efficiently and emitting fewer air pollutants. Regular maintenance and proper operation of vehicles can help reduce emissions and improve air quality at the workplace.

    Rate this question:

  • 38. 

    You have knowledge of some North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) SECRET information in which one of your coworkers has asked about. Which United States security clearance level must your coworker possess for access to this information?

    • A.

      SECRET.

    • B.

      TOP SECRET

    • C.

      NATO Confidential

    • D.

      For official use only (FOUO).

    Correct Answer
    A. SECRET.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SECRET. In order to access the NATO SECRET information, your coworker must possess a security clearance level of SECRET. This level of clearance allows individuals to access classified information that could cause serious damage to national security if disclosed without authorization. The other options, TOP SECRET, NATO Confidential, and For official use only (FOUO), do not provide the necessary clearance level for accessing the specific information mentioned.

    Rate this question:

  • 39. 

    Your work center is storing some classified material in the vault, and you have been asked to let a lighting technician in to fix the lighting. He doesn't have the required "need-to-know," but must have access to the room to properly complete his job. What is your best course of action?

    • A.

      Verify his security clearance and make him sign a non-disclosure agreement (NDA).

    • B.

      Let him in He's got a job to do.

    • C.

      Check for his official use only (FOUO) file.

    • D.

      Escort him in and stay with him in the vault at all times until his work is complete.

    Correct Answer
    D. Escort him in and stay with him in the vault at all times until his work is complete.
    Explanation
    The best course of action in this situation is to escort the lighting technician into the vault and stay with him at all times until his work is complete. This ensures that the classified material remains secure and protected, while still allowing the technician to perform his job. By staying with him, you can monitor his actions and prevent any unauthorized access or disclosure of the classified material. This approach balances the need for security with the need to fix the lighting issue.

    Rate this question:

  • 40. 

    An aircraft diverted into your station with classified material on it and will remain overnight (RON) for repairs. The material is too large to be placed in an approved container. What is the best course of action?

    • A.

      Have the aircraft commander lock the aircraft.

    • B.

      Have the armed courier stay on board until the aircrew returns.

    • C.

      Download the classified material and store it in an authorized US facility.

    • D.

      Have the aircraft commander lock the aircraft and sign a release of liability letter.

    Correct Answer
    C. Download the classified material and store it in an authorized US facility.
    Explanation
    The best course of action is to download the classified material and store it in an authorized US facility. This ensures the security of the classified material while the aircraft is being repaired overnight. Locking the aircraft or having the armed courier stay on board may not provide adequate security. Signing a release of liability letter does not address the issue of securing the classified material.

    Rate this question:

  • 41. 

    Which one of the following represents an operational security (OPSEC) vulnerability?

    • A.

      Varying your routine and driving routes to work.

    • B.

      Blending in with the local crowd while off-base in your deployed location.

    • C.

      Taking pictures of the helicopters you loaded on the C-5 and posting them on the internet.

    • D.

      An adversary with possession of a fake military identification card and knowledge of the base.

    Correct Answer
    C. Taking pictures of the helicopters you loaded on the C-5 and posting them on the internet.
    Explanation
    Taking pictures of the helicopters you loaded on the C-5 and posting them on the internet represents an operational security (OPSEC) vulnerability because it provides potential adversaries with information about military assets and their capabilities. This can be used by adversaries to gather intelligence and potentially exploit vulnerabilities.

    Rate this question:

  • 42. 

    Which type of cargo consists of highly classified national security material and requires an escort?

    • A.

      Diplomatic clearance cargo.

    • B.

      Human remains.

    • C.

      Gold bullion.

    • D.

      Defense Courier Service (DCS) material.

    Correct Answer
    D. Defense Courier Service (DCS) material.
    Explanation
    Defense Courier Service (DCS) material consists of highly classified national security material and requires an escort. This type of cargo is specifically designated for the transportation of sensitive and classified materials related to defense and national security. It is important to ensure the security and protection of these materials, hence the requirement for an escort during transportation.

    Rate this question:

  • 43. 

    Which type of cargo must you always protect, safeguard, and handle as if it were classified?

    • A.

      Diplomatic clearance cargo.

    • B.

      Human remains.

    • C.

      Registered mail.

    • D.

      Gold bullion.

    Correct Answer
    C. Registered mail.
    Explanation
    Registered mail must always be protected, safeguarded, and handled as if it were classified because it contains sensitive and important documents or valuable items. This type of cargo often requires special handling procedures to ensure its security and integrity throughout the transportation process. Mishandling or loss of registered mail can have serious consequences, including potential legal and financial implications. Therefore, it is crucial to handle registered mail with the utmost care and follow strict protocols to maintain its confidentiality and protect it from theft or damage.

    Rate this question:

  • 44. 

    Which term refers to the movement of personnel, units, supplies and equipment to reinforce or resupply already deployed or employed forces?

    • A.

      Redeployment.

    • B.

      Employment.

    • C.

      Sustainment

    • D.

      Deployment.

    Correct Answer
    C. Sustainment
    Explanation
    Sustainment refers to the movement of personnel, units, supplies, and equipment to reinforce or resupply already deployed or employed forces. It involves the logistical support needed to maintain and sustain the operational capabilities of the forces in the field. This includes activities such as transportation, maintenance, supply, and medical support. Sustainment ensures that the forces have the necessary resources to continue their mission effectively and efficiently.

    Rate this question:

  • 45. 

    Which command provides common-user and commercial air, land, and sea transportation?

    • A.

      Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC).

    • B.

      US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).

    • C.

      Military Sealift Command (MSC).

    • D.

      Sir Mobility Command (AMD).

    Correct Answer
    B. US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).
    Explanation
    The US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) is the command that provides common-user and commercial air, land, and sea transportation. It is responsible for the transportation of personnel, equipment, and supplies for the Department of Defense. USTRANSCOM coordinates and executes global transportation operations, ensuring the mobility and readiness of the US military forces. The Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC) is responsible for the deployment and distribution of military cargo, while the Military Sealift Command (MSC) is responsible for the sealift transportation of military equipment and supplies. Sir Mobility Command (AMD) is not a recognized command and does not provide transportation services.

    Rate this question:

  • 46. 

    Which command is not a component of the US Transportation Command?

    • A.

      Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC).

    • B.

      Military Traffic and Airlift Command (MTAC).

    • C.

      Military Sealift Command (MSC).

    • D.

      Air Mobility Command (AMC).

    Correct Answer
    B. Military Traffic and Airlift Command (MTAC).
    Explanation
    The question asks for a command that is not a component of the US Transportation Command. The Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC), Military Sealift Command (MSC), and Air Mobility Command (AMC) are all components of the US Transportation Command. Therefore, the correct answer is Military Traffic and Airlift Command (MTAC), as it is not a component of the US Transportation Command.

    Rate this question:

  • 47. 

    Which command is the link between Department of Defense (DOD) shippers and the commercial transportation carrier industry?

    • A.

      Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC).

    • B.

      US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).

    • C.

      Military Sealift Command (MSC).

    • D.

      Air Mobility Command (AMC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC).
    Explanation
    The Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC) serves as the link between the Department of Defense (DOD) shippers and the commercial transportation carrier industry. It is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the movement of DOD personnel and equipment by land, sea, and air. SDDC ensures that the DOD's transportation needs are met efficiently and effectively, working closely with commercial carriers to facilitate the transportation process.

    Rate this question:

  • 48. 

    Which command is the US Transportation Command's (USTRANSCOM) single component command for air mobility and provides airlift, air refueling, special air mission and aeromedical evacuation services?

    • A.

      Air Deployment and Mobility Command (ADMC).

    • B.

      Air Transportation Mobility Command (ATMC).

    • C.

      Mobility Airlift Command (MAC).

    • D.

      Air Mobility Command (AMC).

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Mobility Command (AMC).
    Explanation
    Air Mobility Command (AMC) is the correct answer because it is the single component command for air mobility within the US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM). AMC is responsible for providing airlift, air refueling, special air mission, and aeromedical evacuation services.

    Rate this question:

  • 49. 

    Which agency serves as Air Mobility Command's (AMC) strategic air operations hub and plans, directs, schedules, and tracks aircraft operations worldwide?

    • A.

      Aerial Port Operations Center (APOC).

    • B.

      Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC).

    • C.

      Wing Airlift Control Center (WACC).

    • D.

      Wing Operations Center (WOC).

    Correct Answer
    B. Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC).
    Explanation
    The Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) serves as Air Mobility Command's (AMC) strategic air operations hub and is responsible for planning, directing, scheduling, and tracking aircraft operations worldwide. It coordinates and manages the movement of tanker and airlift assets, ensuring efficient and effective transportation of personnel and cargo. The TACC plays a crucial role in supporting AMC's mission of providing global reach and power projection capabilities for the United States military.

    Rate this question:

  • 50. 

    Through which system does the Air Force provide rapid global mobility to the defense transportation system (DTS)?

    • A.

      Global Deployment and Mobility System (GDMS).

    • B.

      Mobility Traffic Management System (MTMS).

    • C.

      National Air Mobility System (NAMS).

    • D.

      Sustainment Mobility System (SMS)

    Correct Answer
    C. National Air Mobility System (NAMS).
    Explanation
    The Air Force provides rapid global mobility to the defense transportation system through the National Air Mobility System (NAMS). This system is specifically designed to ensure the efficient movement of personnel and equipment across the globe. It coordinates and manages the transportation assets of the Air Force, enabling them to respond quickly and effectively to any global mobility requirements. The NAMS plays a critical role in supporting military operations and maintaining readiness.

    Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 23, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    HKSCHICO
Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.