Air Force 2T251 Volume 1

1. You must be mindful of bulky uniform items with cords and strings because

They can come undone and render you out of dress and appearance regulations.

They can get caught in conveyor belts or moving parts and machinery

They get in the way when you are working at the computer.

Your coworkers can easily yank on them as they walk by.

Bulky uniform items with cords and strings can get caught in conveyor belts or moving parts and machinery, which can be dangerous and cause accidents. This is why it is important to be mindful of these items and ensure they are properly secured to prevent any mishaps.

Explanation

Bulky uniform items with cords and strings can get caught in conveyor belts or moving parts and machinery, which can be dangerous and cause accidents. This is why it is important to be mindful of these items and ensure they are properly secured to prevent any mishaps.

2. You are entering the warehouse wearing several items. Which of them must be removed before entering the area?

Jewelry.

Reflective gear

Steel-toed boots

Cold-weather gear.

Jewelry must be removed before entering the warehouse because it can pose a safety hazard. Loose jewelry such as rings, bracelets, or necklaces can get caught in machinery or equipment, causing injury to the wearer. Additionally, jewelry can scratch or damage delicate surfaces or products in the warehouse. Therefore, it is important to remove jewelry to ensure the safety of oneself and the items in the warehouse.

Explanation

Jewelry must be removed before entering the warehouse because it can pose a safety hazard. Loose jewelry such as rings, bracelets, or necklaces can get caught in machinery or equipment, causing injury to the wearer. Additionally, jewelry can scratch or damage delicate surfaces or products in the warehouse. Therefore, it is important to remove jewelry to ensure the safety of oneself and the items in the warehouse.

3. You have finished downloading pallets onto the finger docks. Which is the best way to exit the dock?

Step onto the K-loader and ask the driver to lower the back end so you can jump off a shorter distance.

Use the ladder located at the end of the dock.

Ride the rollers to the end with the pallets

Jump off the edge.

The best way to exit the dock is to use the ladder located at the end of the dock. This is the safest and most appropriate method as it allows for a controlled and stable descent from the dock. Stepping onto the K-loader and asking the driver to lower the back end or jumping off the edge can be dangerous and may result in injuries. Riding the rollers with the pallets can also be risky and may cause accidents. Therefore, using the ladder is the most suitable option for a safe exit.

Explanation

The best way to exit the dock is to use the ladder located at the end of the dock. This is the safest and most appropriate method as it allows for a controlled and stable descent from the dock. Stepping onto the K-loader and asking the driver to lower the back end or jumping off the edge can be dangerous and may result in injuries. Riding the rollers with the pallets can also be risky and may cause accidents. Therefore, using the ladder is the most suitable option for a safe exit.

4. You have acquired a bad safety habit of walking while spotting. It is important for yout to eliminate this poor and unsafe work practice because

It will increase your reputation.

The K-loader driver doesn't like it.

Your supervisor will embarass you in front of your coworkers.

New people can learn work habits by observing your performance.

Acquiring a bad safety habit of walking while spotting can be detrimental to workplace safety. By eliminating this poor and unsafe work practice, new people observing your performance can learn good work habits instead. This is important as it helps maintain a safe working environment and promotes a positive safety culture within the organization.

Explanation

Acquiring a bad safety habit of walking while spotting can be detrimental to workplace safety. By eliminating this poor and unsafe work practice, new people observing your performance can learn good work habits instead. This is important as it helps maintain a safe working environment and promotes a positive safety culture within the organization.

5. Which organic aircraft can hold up to six standard pallets and is capable of landing on dirt strips?

C-130.

C-17.

C-5.

C-141.

The C-130 is the correct answer because it is an organic aircraft that has the capability to hold up to six standard pallets and can land on dirt strips. The other options, C-17, C-5, and C-141, may have their own unique features and capabilities, but they do not specifically mention the ability to land on dirt strips or hold six standard pallets. Therefore, the C-130 is the most suitable choice for this scenario.

Explanation

The C-130 is the correct answer because it is an organic aircraft that has the capability to hold up to six standard pallets and can land on dirt strips. The other options, C-17, C-5, and C-141, may have their own unique features and capabilities, but they do not specifically mention the ability to land on dirt strips or hold six standard pallets. Therefore, the C-130 is the most suitable choice for this scenario.

6. Who is responsible for actively participating in all opportunities for training?

Supervisor.

Certifier.

Trainer.

Trainee.

The trainee is responsible for actively participating in all opportunities for training. As the person undergoing the training, it is their duty to engage in the learning process, attend training sessions, and take advantage of any training opportunities provided to them. The trainee plays an active role in their own development and growth by actively participating and making the most of the training opportunities presented to them.

Explanation

The trainee is responsible for actively participating in all opportunities for training. As the person undergoing the training, it is their duty to engage in the learning process, attend training sessions, and take advantage of any training opportunities provided to them. The trainee plays an active role in their own development and growth by actively participating and making the most of the training opportunities presented to them.

7. The Global Air Transportation and Execution System (GATES) allows users to

Prepare commercial bills of lading.

Prepare freight warrants.

Create airlift schedules and mission numbers

Process, manifest, and track passengers and cargo.

The Global Air Transportation and Execution System (GATES) is a system that enables users to efficiently process, manifest, and track passengers and cargo. It provides a centralized platform for managing all aspects of air transportation, including passenger information, cargo tracking, and manifest generation. With GATES, users can easily input and update data related to passengers and cargo, ensuring smooth operations and effective tracking throughout the transportation process. This functionality makes GATES a valuable tool for airlines and other organizations involved in air transportation.

Explanation

The Global Air Transportation and Execution System (GATES) is a system that enables users to efficiently process, manifest, and track passengers and cargo. It provides a centralized platform for managing all aspects of air transportation, including passenger information, cargo tracking, and manifest generation. With GATES, users can easily input and update data related to passengers and cargo, ensuring smooth operations and effective tracking throughout the transportation process. This functionality makes GATES a valuable tool for airlines and other organizations involved in air transportation.

8. You injured your ankle playing basketball over the weekend. Your responsibility under the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection and Health (AFOSH) program is to promptly

Write a statement of how the injury occurred.

Wrap and ice it so you can continue to work.

Quit the basketball team for the season.

Report the injury to your supervisor.

The correct answer is to report the injury to your supervisor. This is because under the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection and Health (AFOSH) program, it is important to promptly report any injuries that occur in the workplace. By reporting the injury to your supervisor, they can take the necessary steps to ensure that you receive proper medical attention and that any necessary documentation is completed. This helps to ensure that the injury is properly addressed and that any potential hazards or risks in the workplace can be identified and mitigated.

Explanation

The correct answer is to report the injury to your supervisor. This is because under the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection and Health (AFOSH) program, it is important to promptly report any injuries that occur in the workplace. By reporting the injury to your supervisor, they can take the necessary steps to ensure that you receive proper medical attention and that any necessary documentation is completed. This helps to ensure that the injury is properly addressed and that any potential hazards or risks in the workplace can be identified and mitigated.

9. You are stopped on the flight line at night with your vehicle and its headlights on and an aircraft is approaching your direction. You are not in the aircraft's path. What is your best course of action?

Turn your vehicle around so you are facing away from the aircraft, turn the ignition off, and set the parking brakeuntil the aircraft is out of range.

Turn your headlights off and turn your parking lights/emergency flashers on until the aircraft is out of range.

Flash your high beams at the aircraft to let the pilot know your location

Exit the flight line area and return when the aircraft has safely blocked.

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Explanation

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10. Which specialty is not a part of the transportation career field?

Vehicle Management.

Traffic Management.

Air Traffic Control

Air Transportation.

Air Traffic Control is not a part of the transportation career field because it primarily focuses on the management and control of air traffic, ensuring the safe and efficient movement of aircraft in the airspace. While it is related to transportation in the sense that it deals with the movement of aircraft, it is considered a separate specialty within the aviation industry rather than a part of the broader transportation career field, which typically includes areas such as vehicle management, traffic management, and air transportation.

Explanation

Air Traffic Control is not a part of the transportation career field because it primarily focuses on the management and control of air traffic, ensuring the safe and efficient movement of aircraft in the airspace. While it is related to transportation in the sense that it deals with the movement of aircraft, it is considered a separate specialty within the aviation industry rather than a part of the broader transportation career field, which typically includes areas such as vehicle management, traffic management, and air transportation.

11. You are entering the flight line area in a vehicle. What must you do before entering?

Stop and collect IDs from all of your passengers to show the gate guard.

Slow down and look both ways for oncoming traffic.

Stop and do a foreign object damage (FOD) check.

Stop and show the gate guard your line badge.

Before entering the flight line area in a vehicle, it is important to stop and do a foreign object damage (FOD) check. This is necessary to ensure that there are no loose objects or debris on the ground that could potentially cause damage to aircraft or pose a safety hazard. By performing a FOD check, the individual can help maintain a safe and clean environment on the flight line, reducing the risk of accidents or damage to equipment.

Explanation

Before entering the flight line area in a vehicle, it is important to stop and do a foreign object damage (FOD) check. This is necessary to ensure that there are no loose objects or debris on the ground that could potentially cause damage to aircraft or pose a safety hazard. By performing a FOD check, the individual can help maintain a safe and clean environment on the flight line, reducing the risk of accidents or damage to equipment.

12. Which command is the US Transportation Command's (USTRANSCOM) single component command for air mobility and provides airlift, air refueling, special air mission and aeromedical evacuation services?

Air Deployment and Mobility Command (ADMC).

Air Transportation Mobility Command (ATMC).

Mobility Airlift Command (MAC).

Air Mobility Command (AMC).

Air Mobility Command (AMC) is the correct answer because it is the single component command for air mobility within the US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM). AMC is responsible for providing airlift, air refueling, special air mission, and aeromedical evacuation services.

Explanation

Air Mobility Command (AMC) is the correct answer because it is the single component command for air mobility within the US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM). AMC is responsible for providing airlift, air refueling, special air mission, and aeromedical evacuation services.

13. You are crossing the active runway and see a red and green light coming from the control tower. What should you do?

General Warning. Exercise extreme caution.

Stop! Your vehicle will not be moved.

Return to your starting point.

Clear the active runway.

When crossing an active runway and seeing a red and green light coming from the control tower, the correct action to take is to exercise extreme caution. This is because the red and green lights indicate a general warning, signaling that there may be potential hazards or dangers ahead. It is important to proceed with caution and be aware of any approaching aircraft or other potential risks while crossing the runway.

Explanation

When crossing an active runway and seeing a red and green light coming from the control tower, the correct action to take is to exercise extreme caution. This is because the red and green lights indicate a general warning, signaling that there may be potential hazards or dangers ahead. It is important to proceed with caution and be aware of any approaching aircraft or other potential risks while crossing the runway.

14. Your work center is storing some classified material in the vault, and you have been asked to let a lighting technician in to fix the lighting. He doesn't have the required "need-to-know," but must have access to the room to properly complete his job. What is your best course of action?

Verify his security clearance and make him sign a non-disclosure agreement (NDA).

Let him in He's got a job to do.

Check for his official use only (FOUO) file.

Escort him in and stay with him in the vault at all times until his work is complete.

The best course of action in this situation is to escort the lighting technician into the vault and stay with him at all times until his work is complete. This ensures that the classified material remains secure and protected, while still allowing the technician to perform his job. By staying with him, you can monitor his actions and prevent any unauthorized access or disclosure of the classified material. This approach balances the need for security with the need to fix the lighting issue.

Explanation

The best course of action in this situation is to escort the lighting technician into the vault and stay with him at all times until his work is complete. This ensures that the classified material remains secure and protected, while still allowing the technician to perform his job. By staying with him, you can monitor his actions and prevent any unauthorized access or disclosure of the classified material. This approach balances the need for security with the need to fix the lighting issue.

15. The scale values on the proficiency code key indicate

How much information the trainee will be required to recite back to the supervisor.

That the task indicated will be taught during wartime and humanitarian operations.

How well a trainee needs to perform a task or understand a task or subject.

That training is not required due to limitations in resources.

The scale values on the proficiency code key indicate how well a trainee needs to perform a task or understand a task or subject. This means that the scale values provide a measure of the level of proficiency or competence expected from the trainee in relation to the task or subject at hand. It helps in determining the level of knowledge, skills, and abilities required for successful completion of the task or understanding of the subject.

Explanation

The scale values on the proficiency code key indicate how well a trainee needs to perform a task or understand a task or subject. This means that the scale values provide a measure of the level of proficiency or competence expected from the trainee in relation to the task or subject at hand. It helps in determining the level of knowledge, skills, and abilities required for successful completion of the task or understanding of the subject.

16. An Air Force specialty (AFS) is a group of

People requiring common interests.

Letters requiring common qualifications

Positions requiring common qualifications.

Numbers requiring similar knowledge.

The correct answer is "positions requiring common qualifications." This means that an Air Force specialty (AFS) refers to specific positions within the Air Force that require individuals to possess similar qualifications or skills. It suggests that individuals in the same AFS have common requirements and qualifications needed to perform their duties effectively.

Explanation

The correct answer is "positions requiring common qualifications." This means that an Air Force specialty (AFS) refers to specific positions within the Air Force that require individuals to possess similar qualifications or skills. It suggests that individuals in the same AFS have common requirements and qualifications needed to perform their duties effectively.

17. The last three digits of a mission number represents the

Air carrier that is operating the mission and what the load consists of.

Julian date on which the mission originated in ZULU or GMT.

Operational or tactical agency that has control of the mission.

Geographical point where the mission will turn around.

The last three digits of a mission number represents the Julian date on which the mission originated in ZULU or GMT. This means that the three digits indicate the specific date (in Julian format) when the mission started, based on either ZULU or GMT time. This information is important for tracking and organizing missions, as it provides a reference point for when the mission began.

Explanation

The last three digits of a mission number represents the Julian date on which the mission originated in ZULU or GMT. This means that the three digits indicate the specific date (in Julian format) when the mission started, based on either ZULU or GMT time. This information is important for tracking and organizing missions, as it provides a reference point for when the mission began.

18. Which program is where United States commercial airlines augment Department of Defense's airlift capability in time of war or during a President-declared emergency?

Defense Transportation Program (DTP).

National Air Mobility Program (NAMP).

Operations and Maintenance (O&M) program.

Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) program.

The correct answer is the Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) program. This program allows United States commercial airlines to provide additional airlift capability to the Department of Defense during times of war or when there is a President-declared emergency. By utilizing commercial airlines, the CRAF program helps to augment the military's airlift capacity and support logistical operations in critical situations.

Explanation

The correct answer is the Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) program. This program allows United States commercial airlines to provide additional airlift capability to the Department of Defense during times of war or when there is a President-declared emergency. By utilizing commercial airlines, the CRAF program helps to augment the military's airlift capacity and support logistical operations in critical situations.

19. When operating the lavatory service truck (LST), how will you know when the waste tank is full?

Look at the gauge in the control panel.

Wait until the flow meter zeroes out.

Look through the sight window.

Open the tank and look inside.

To determine when the waste tank is full while operating the lavatory service truck (LST), one should look through the sight window. This implies that there is a transparent window on the tank that allows the operator to visually inspect the level of waste inside. By checking the sight window, the operator can easily determine if the tank needs to be emptied.

Explanation

To determine when the waste tank is full while operating the lavatory service truck (LST), one should look through the sight window. This implies that there is a transparent window on the tank that allows the operator to visually inspect the level of waste inside. By checking the sight window, the operator can easily determine if the tank needs to be emptied.

20. You are picking up clean and filled 5-gallon igloos and coffee jugs from the flight kitchen to take to an aircraft. How must they be when you pick them up so they will stay clean?

The spouts will be covered in plastic.

The spouts will be bundled in lots of five.

Wiped down with spray cleaner and a soft cloth.

Wiped down with a 5% sodium hypochlorite solution.

The correct answer is that the spouts will be covered in plastic. This is because covering the spouts with plastic will prevent any dirt or contaminants from entering the igloos and coffee jugs, keeping them clean during transportation.

Explanation

The correct answer is that the spouts will be covered in plastic. This is because covering the spouts with plastic will prevent any dirt or contaminants from entering the igloos and coffee jugs, keeping them clean during transportation.

21. Which agency serves as Air Mobility Command's (AMC) strategic air operations hub and plans, directs, schedules, and tracks aircraft operations worldwide?

Aerial Port Operations Center (APOC).

Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC).

Wing Airlift Control Center (WACC).

Wing Operations Center (WOC).

The Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) serves as Air Mobility Command's (AMC) strategic air operations hub and is responsible for planning, directing, scheduling, and tracking aircraft operations worldwide. It coordinates and manages the movement of tanker and airlift assets, ensuring efficient and effective transportation of personnel and cargo. The TACC plays a crucial role in supporting AMC's mission of providing global reach and power projection capabilities for the United States military.

Explanation

The Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) serves as Air Mobility Command's (AMC) strategic air operations hub and is responsible for planning, directing, scheduling, and tracking aircraft operations worldwide. It coordinates and manages the movement of tanker and airlift assets, ensuring efficient and effective transportation of personnel and cargo. The TACC plays a crucial role in supporting AMC's mission of providing global reach and power projection capabilities for the United States military.

22. In which area is an air terminal located on a prepared airfield that is designated for the sustained air movement of cargo and passengers?

Landing zone.

Drop zone.

Airland field.

Aerial port.

An aerial port is an area on a prepared airfield that is specifically designated for the sustained air movement of cargo and passengers. It is where aircraft land and take off, and it serves as a hub for the transportation of goods and people via air. The other options, such as landing zone and drop zone, refer to specific areas for aircraft to land or drop off cargo, while airland field is not a commonly used term in aviation. Therefore, the correct answer is aerial port.

Explanation

An aerial port is an area on a prepared airfield that is specifically designated for the sustained air movement of cargo and passengers. It is where aircraft land and take off, and it serves as a hub for the transportation of goods and people via air. The other options, such as landing zone and drop zone, refer to specific areas for aircraft to land or drop off cargo, while airland field is not a commonly used term in aviation. Therefore, the correct answer is aerial port.

23. You are crossing the active runway and see a flashing white light coming from the control tower. What should you do?

General warning. Exercise extreme caution.

Stop! Your vehicle will not be moved.

Return to your starting point.

Clear the active runway.

If you are crossing an active runway and see a flashing white light coming from the control tower, you should immediately return to your starting point. This flashing white light is a signal from the control tower indicating that there is a potential danger or hazard on the runway. By returning to your starting point, you are ensuring your safety and avoiding any potential collisions or accidents.

Explanation

If you are crossing an active runway and see a flashing white light coming from the control tower, you should immediately return to your starting point. This flashing white light is a signal from the control tower indicating that there is a potential danger or hazard on the runway. By returning to your starting point, you are ensuring your safety and avoiding any potential collisions or accidents.

24. Which aircraft is used for both strategic and theater airlift as well as for airdrops and aeromedical evacuations?

B-747.

KC-10.

C-17.

C-5.

The C-17 aircraft is used for both strategic and theater airlift, meaning it can transport cargo and personnel over long distances and within a specific theater of operations. It is also capable of conducting airdrops, which involve delivering supplies or personnel by parachute, and aeromedical evacuations, which involve transporting injured or ill individuals by air. The B-747, KC-10, and C-5 are not specifically designed for these purposes, making the C-17 the correct answer.

Explanation

The C-17 aircraft is used for both strategic and theater airlift, meaning it can transport cargo and personnel over long distances and within a specific theater of operations. It is also capable of conducting airdrops, which involve delivering supplies or personnel by parachute, and aeromedical evacuations, which involve transporting injured or ill individuals by air. The B-747, KC-10, and C-5 are not specifically designed for these purposes, making the C-17 the correct answer.

25. Which one of the following represents an operational security (OPSEC) vulnerability?

Varying your routine and driving routes to work.

Blending in with the local crowd while off-base in your deployed location.

Taking pictures of the helicopters you loaded on the C-5 and posting them on the internet.

An adversary with possession of a fake military identification card and knowledge of the base.

Taking pictures of the helicopters you loaded on the C-5 and posting them on the internet represents an operational security (OPSEC) vulnerability because it provides potential adversaries with information about military assets and their capabilities. This can be used by adversaries to gather intelligence and potentially exploit vulnerabilities.

Explanation

Taking pictures of the helicopters you loaded on the C-5 and posting them on the internet represents an operational security (OPSEC) vulnerability because it provides potential adversaries with information about military assets and their capabilities. This can be used by adversaries to gather intelligence and potentially exploit vulnerabilities.

26. How many days are trainees given to complete each volume of their career development course?

90 days

60 days

45 days.

30 days

Trainees are given 30 days to complete each volume of their career development course. This time frame allows trainees to pace themselves and ensures that they have enough time to thoroughly study and understand the content of each volume. It also helps in maintaining a structured learning schedule and allows for proper assessment and progress tracking.

Explanation

Trainees are given 30 days to complete each volume of their career development course. This time frame allows trainees to pace themselves and ensures that they have enough time to thoroughly study and understand the content of each volume. It also helps in maintaining a structured learning schedule and allows for proper assessment and progress tracking.

27. A group of closely related Air Force specialties (AFS) requiring basically the same knowledge and skills is known as a

Skill level.

Position.

Duty.

Career field.

A career field refers to a group of closely related Air Force specialties (AFS) that require the same knowledge and skills. It encompasses a range of positions and duties within a specific area of expertise. This term is used to categorize and organize the various AFS and allows for specialization and advancement within a particular field.

Explanation

A career field refers to a group of closely related Air Force specialties (AFS) that require the same knowledge and skills. It encompasses a range of positions and duties within a specific area of expertise. This term is used to categorize and organize the various AFS and allows for specialization and advancement within a particular field.

28. A Senior Airman may use the title Supervisor when he or she

Is in charge of a work center and has completed his or her upgrade training.

Supervises multiple flights or squadrons and has graduated ALS.

Doesn't have a title that accurately reflects his or her day-to-day duties.

Has graduated ALS and supervises the work of others.

A Senior Airman may use the title Supervisor when he or she has graduated ALS and supervises the work of others. This means that after completing the required Airman Leadership School (ALS) training, a Senior Airman is eligible to be designated as a Supervisor if they are responsible for overseeing and managing the work of other individuals. This title is given to acknowledge their leadership role and the authority they have in directing and guiding their subordinates.

Explanation

A Senior Airman may use the title Supervisor when he or she has graduated ALS and supervises the work of others. This means that after completing the required Airman Leadership School (ALS) training, a Senior Airman is eligible to be designated as a Supervisor if they are responsible for overseeing and managing the work of other individuals. This title is given to acknowledge their leadership role and the authority they have in directing and guiding their subordinates.

29. A duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC) is the AFSC (Air Force specialty code)

Used for enlisted Airman assignments, training requirements, and promotions.

Used to identify the position in which an individual is performing duty.

In which an individual is best qualified to perform duty.

Used to identify a specialty.

The correct answer is "used to identify the position in which an individual is performing duty." This means that a duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC) is used to designate the specific job or position that an enlisted Airman is currently assigned to. It helps to identify and categorize the various roles and responsibilities within the Air Force, ensuring that individuals are appropriately trained and qualified for their assigned duties.

Explanation

The correct answer is "used to identify the position in which an individual is performing duty." This means that a duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC) is used to designate the specific job or position that an enlisted Airman is currently assigned to. It helps to identify and categorize the various roles and responsibilities within the Air Force, ensuring that individuals are appropriately trained and qualified for their assigned duties.

30. What must you do before you print and sign your name on the AF IMT 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer, when picking up meals from the flight kitchen?

Help the aircrew member stow the meals in the proper storage areas.

Call in the meal numbers to the passenger terminal.

Verify you have every item listed on the form.

Notify the dispatcher of your start time.

Before printing and signing your name on the AF IMT 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer, when picking up meals from the flight kitchen, you must verify that you have every item listed on the form. This ensures that you have received all the meals that were requested and prevents any discrepancies or missing items.

Explanation

Before printing and signing your name on the AF IMT 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer, when picking up meals from the flight kitchen, you must verify that you have every item listed on the form. This ensures that you have received all the meals that were requested and prevents any discrepancies or missing items.

31. Which command provides common-user and commercial air, land, and sea transportation?

Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC).

US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).

Military Sealift Command (MSC).

Sir Mobility Command (AMD).

The US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) is the command that provides common-user and commercial air, land, and sea transportation. It is responsible for the transportation of personnel, equipment, and supplies for the Department of Defense. USTRANSCOM coordinates and executes global transportation operations, ensuring the mobility and readiness of the US military forces. The Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC) is responsible for the deployment and distribution of military cargo, while the Military Sealift Command (MSC) is responsible for the sealift transportation of military equipment and supplies. Sir Mobility Command (AMD) is not a recognized command and does not provide transportation services.

Explanation

The US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) is the command that provides common-user and commercial air, land, and sea transportation. It is responsible for the transportation of personnel, equipment, and supplies for the Department of Defense. USTRANSCOM coordinates and executes global transportation operations, ensuring the mobility and readiness of the US military forces. The Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC) is responsible for the deployment and distribution of military cargo, while the Military Sealift Command (MSC) is responsible for the sealift transportation of military equipment and supplies. Sir Mobility Command (AMD) is not a recognized command and does not provide transportation services.

32. You are stationed at McChord AFB, WA, and a flight just arrived from Kadena AB, Japan that has unused meals onboard. What must you do with these meals?

After U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) inspection and approval, turn them in to the flight kitchen using theAF 1MT 3516 or AF IMT 129.

After USDA inspection and approval, place them in two plastic bags and incinerate or sterilize them at an approvedfacility.

After USDA inspection and approval, they are free to consume during one of your breaks.

Turn them in to the flight kitchen using the AF IMT 3516 or AF IMT 129.

After USDA inspection and approval, the unused meals from the flight must be placed in two plastic bags and incinerated or sterilized at an approved facility. This ensures that any potential health risks are eliminated and the meals are properly disposed of.

Explanation

After USDA inspection and approval, the unused meals from the flight must be placed in two plastic bags and incinerated or sterilized at an approved facility. This ensures that any potential health risks are eliminated and the meals are properly disposed of.

33. Which deployment work center processes all deploying personnel through stations such as legal and finance and is responsible for processing and manifesting passengers and processing their baggage?

Passenger Deployment Function (PDF).

Passenger Operations Function (POF).

Passenger Control Center (PCC).

Passenger Control Unit (PCU).

The Passenger Deployment Function (PDF) is responsible for processing and manifesting passengers and processing their baggage. This work center handles all deploying personnel through stations such as legal and finance. The PDF ensures that all necessary paperwork and documentation are completed for the passengers and their baggage before they are deployed.

Explanation

The Passenger Deployment Function (PDF) is responsible for processing and manifesting passengers and processing their baggage. This work center handles all deploying personnel through stations such as legal and finance. The PDF ensures that all necessary paperwork and documentation are completed for the passengers and their baggage before they are deployed.

34. Which aircraft can hold up to 36 standard pallets and 73 passengers?

B-747.

KC-10.

C-17.

C-5.

The C-5 aircraft is capable of holding up to 36 standard pallets and 73 passengers. The other options, B-747, KC-10, and C-17, do not have the same capacity as the C-5. Therefore, the correct answer is C-5.

Explanation

The C-5 aircraft is capable of holding up to 36 standard pallets and 73 passengers. The other options, B-747, KC-10, and C-17, do not have the same capacity as the C-5. Therefore, the correct answer is C-5.

35. You have knowledge of some North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) SECRET information in which one of your coworkers has asked about. Which United States security clearance level must your coworker possess for access to this information?

SECRET.

TOP SECRET

NATO Confidential

For official use only (FOUO).

The correct answer is SECRET. In order to access the NATO SECRET information, your coworker must possess a security clearance level of SECRET. This level of clearance allows individuals to access classified information that could cause serious damage to national security if disclosed without authorization. The other options, TOP SECRET, NATO Confidential, and For official use only (FOUO), do not provide the necessary clearance level for accessing the specific information mentioned.

Explanation

The correct answer is SECRET. In order to access the NATO SECRET information, your coworker must possess a security clearance level of SECRET. This level of clearance allows individuals to access classified information that could cause serious damage to national security if disclosed without authorization. The other options, TOP SECRET, NATO Confidential, and For official use only (FOUO), do not provide the necessary clearance level for accessing the specific information mentioned.

36. Which type of cargo consists of highly classified national security material and requires an escort?

Diplomatic clearance cargo.

Human remains.

Gold bullion.

Defense Courier Service (DCS) material.

Defense Courier Service (DCS) material consists of highly classified national security material and requires an escort. This type of cargo is specifically designated for the transportation of sensitive and classified materials related to defense and national security. It is important to ensure the security and protection of these materials, hence the requirement for an escort during transportation.

Explanation

Defense Courier Service (DCS) material consists of highly classified national security material and requires an escort. This type of cargo is specifically designated for the transportation of sensitive and classified materials related to defense and national security. It is important to ensure the security and protection of these materials, hence the requirement for an escort during transportation.

37. Who is responsible for conducting and documenting work center orientations and initial qualification evaluations within 60 days of assignment?

Supervisor.

Certifier.

Trainer.

Trainee.

The supervisor is responsible for conducting and documenting work center orientations and initial qualification evaluations within 60 days of assignment. This means that the supervisor is in charge of ensuring that new employees are properly oriented to their work center and that their qualifications are assessed within the given timeframe. The supervisor plays a crucial role in ensuring that new employees are adequately trained and qualified for their assigned tasks.

Explanation

The supervisor is responsible for conducting and documenting work center orientations and initial qualification evaluations within 60 days of assignment. This means that the supervisor is in charge of ensuring that new employees are properly oriented to their work center and that their qualifications are assessed within the given timeframe. The supervisor plays a crucial role in ensuring that new employees are adequately trained and qualified for their assigned tasks.

38. Intransit visibility (ITV) provides commanders with the

Capability to determine if a force has reached its destination and is ready to perform its mission.

Capability to interface with X-MAN, Logistics (LOGMOD), and MANPER-B systems.

Ability to enter data into feeder systems accurately.

Ability to connect and replicate.

Intransit visibility (ITV) is a system that allows commanders to track and monitor the movement of forces and supplies during transit. It provides the capability to determine if a force has reached its destination and is ready to perform its mission. This means that commanders can have real-time visibility into the location and status of their forces, ensuring that they are where they need to be and prepared for their assigned tasks. This information is crucial for effective mission planning and decision-making.

Explanation

Intransit visibility (ITV) is a system that allows commanders to track and monitor the movement of forces and supplies during transit. It provides the capability to determine if a force has reached its destination and is ready to perform its mission. This means that commanders can have real-time visibility into the location and status of their forces, ensuring that they are where they need to be and prepared for their assigned tasks. This information is crucial for effective mission planning and decision-making.

39. You are servicing an arriving aircraft and notice a personal item left by a passenger. What action must you take?

Turn it in to the Customer Service Branch (CSB) so it can be shipped to the passenger.

Drive the article to the passenger, who will be waiting at the baggage pick-up conveyor.

Annotate the article in the statement book of the AF IMT 4128 and describe the action you took to recover it.

Turn it into the passenger terminal's lost and found or Security Forces.

When a personal item is left by a passenger, the correct action to take is to turn it into the passenger terminal's lost and found or Security Forces. These are the designated authorities responsible for handling lost items and ensuring their safekeeping until they can be returned to the rightful owner. This ensures that the item is properly documented and stored, increasing the chances of reuniting it with the passenger.

Explanation

When a personal item is left by a passenger, the correct action to take is to turn it into the passenger terminal's lost and found or Security Forces. These are the designated authorities responsible for handling lost items and ensuring their safekeeping until they can be returned to the rightful owner. This ensures that the item is properly documented and stored, increasing the chances of reuniting it with the passenger.

40. You have delivered 73 meals to a C-5. Who will stow those meals in the galley or air transportable galley lavatory (ATGL) storage areas?

The aircrew members and Fleet Service personnel.

The aircrew members and maintenance personnel.

Fleet Service and maintenance personnel.

The aircrew members only.

The correct answer is "The aircrew members and Fleet Service personnel." Aircrew members are responsible for the safe transportation of meals to the aircraft, while Fleet Service personnel are responsible for the storage and handling of the meals in the galley or ATGL storage areas. Both groups work together to ensure that meals are properly stowed and accessible during the flight.

Explanation

The correct answer is "The aircrew members and Fleet Service personnel." Aircrew members are responsible for the safe transportation of meals to the aircraft, while Fleet Service personnel are responsible for the storage and handling of the meals in the galley or ATGL storage areas. Both groups work together to ensure that meals are properly stowed and accessible during the flight.

41. The Base Weather Station has issued a lightning warning for your location. What does this warning mean, and what should you do?

Lightning is predicted to occur within the next 30 minutes; continue working on the flight line until told to ceaseoperations.

Lightning is occurring within a 5-nautical-mile radius; continue working on the flight line until told to ceaseoperations.

Lightning is predicted to occur within the next 5 minutes; immediately take shelter in a safe place.

Lightning is occurring within a 5-nautical-mile radius; immediately take shelter in a safe place.

The correct answer states that if a lightning warning is issued for your location, it means that lightning is occurring within a 5-nautical-mile radius. In this situation, it is important to immediately take shelter in a safe place to avoid the risk of being struck by lightning.

Explanation

The correct answer states that if a lightning warning is issued for your location, it means that lightning is occurring within a 5-nautical-mile radius. In this situation, it is important to immediately take shelter in a safe place to avoid the risk of being struck by lightning.

42. You are helping a customer determine if he and his family are eligible for Depai tment of Defense (DOD) air travel. In which publication would you look?

DOD 4515.13-R, Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR).

DTR 4500.9-R, Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR).

DOD 4500.54-M, Foreign Clearance Manual (FCM).

DOD 4515.13-R, Air Transportation Eligibility.

The correct answer is DOD 4515.13-R, Air Transportation Eligibility. This publication specifically addresses air transportation eligibility within the Department of Defense (DOD). It would provide the necessary information and guidelines for determining if the customer and his family are eligible for DOD air travel. The other options either do not mention air transportation eligibility or refer to different publications that may not be relevant to this specific inquiry.

Explanation

The correct answer is DOD 4515.13-R, Air Transportation Eligibility. This publication specifically addresses air transportation eligibility within the Department of Defense (DOD). It would provide the necessary information and guidelines for determining if the customer and his family are eligible for DOD air travel. The other options either do not mention air transportation eligibility or refer to different publications that may not be relevant to this specific inquiry.

43. Operational risk management (ORM) is a continuous process designed to do what?

Detect and control risk while mitigating performance capabilities and enhancing combat assessment.

Detect, assess, and control risk while enhancing performance and maximizing combat capabilities.

Detect and assess risk and enhance safety capabilities.

Detect, assess, and contribute to risks.

ORM is a continuous process that aims to detect and assess risks while also controlling them. Additionally, it seeks to enhance performance and maximize combat capabilities. This means that ORM is not only focused on identifying and evaluating risks but also on taking measures to mitigate and manage them effectively. By doing so, ORM helps to improve overall performance and ensure that combat capabilities are optimized.

Explanation

ORM is a continuous process that aims to detect and assess risks while also controlling them. Additionally, it seeks to enhance performance and maximize combat capabilities. This means that ORM is not only focused on identifying and evaluating risks but also on taking measures to mitigate and manage them effectively. By doing so, ORM helps to improve overall performance and ensure that combat capabilities are optimized.

44. Which is a station that serves as an authorized port to process and clear aircraft and traffic for entrance into the country in which it is located?

Aerial Port of Embarkation (APOE).

Aerial Port of Mobility (APOM).

Aerial Port of Debarkation (APOD).

Aerial POrt of INspection (APOI).

An Aerial Port of Debarkation (APOD) is a station that serves as an authorized port to process and clear aircraft and traffic for entrance into the country in which it is located. This means that it is responsible for handling the arrival of aircraft and passengers, ensuring that all necessary customs and immigration procedures are followed. The APOD plays a crucial role in facilitating the smooth entry of aircraft and traffic into the country, ensuring compliance with all necessary regulations and security measures.

Explanation

An Aerial Port of Debarkation (APOD) is a station that serves as an authorized port to process and clear aircraft and traffic for entrance into the country in which it is located. This means that it is responsible for handling the arrival of aircraft and passengers, ensuring that all necessary customs and immigration procedures are followed. The APOD plays a crucial role in facilitating the smooth entry of aircraft and traffic into the country, ensuring compliance with all necessary regulations and security measures.

45. An Airman is qualified in two Air Force specialty codes (AFSC). Which type of AFSC identifies the one in which the Airman is currently performing duty?

Air Force specialty code (AFSC)

Duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC)

Primary Air Force specialty code (PAFSC)

Control Air Force specialty code (CAFSC)

The correct answer is Duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC). This type of AFSC identifies the one in which the Airman is currently performing duty. It distinguishes the specific job or role that the Airman is currently assigned to within the Air Force. The other options, such as Primary AFSC, Control AFSC, and AFSC, may refer to different classifications or categories of specialty codes, but they do not specifically indicate the current duty of the Airman.

Explanation

The correct answer is Duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC). This type of AFSC identifies the one in which the Airman is currently performing duty. It distinguishes the specific job or role that the Airman is currently assigned to within the Air Force. The other options, such as Primary AFSC, Control AFSC, and AFSC, may refer to different classifications or categories of specialty codes, but they do not specifically indicate the current duty of the Airman.

46. Which type of cargo must you always protect, safeguard, and handle as if it were classified?

Diplomatic clearance cargo.

Human remains.

Registered mail.

Gold bullion.

Registered mail must always be protected, safeguarded, and handled as if it were classified because it contains sensitive and important documents or valuable items. This type of cargo often requires special handling procedures to ensure its security and integrity throughout the transportation process. Mishandling or loss of registered mail can have serious consequences, including potential legal and financial implications. Therefore, it is crucial to handle registered mail with the utmost care and follow strict protocols to maintain its confidentiality and protect it from theft or damage.

Explanation

Registered mail must always be protected, safeguarded, and handled as if it were classified because it contains sensitive and important documents or valuable items. This type of cargo often requires special handling procedures to ensure its security and integrity throughout the transportation process. Mishandling or loss of registered mail can have serious consequences, including potential legal and financial implications. Therefore, it is crucial to handle registered mail with the utmost care and follow strict protocols to maintain its confidentiality and protect it from theft or damage.

47. As a Fleet Service dispatcher, you have just completed and signed an AMC Form 244, Fleet Service Arrival/Departure Worksheet. Who else needs to sign it before it can be turned into records?

An aircrew member.

The air terminal manager.

A flight kitchen representative.

The Fleet Service shift supervisor.

The Fleet Service shift supervisor needs to sign the AMC Form 244 before it can be turned into records. This is because the form is related to fleet service operations, and the shift supervisor is responsible for overseeing and managing these operations. Their signature indicates that they have reviewed and approved the information on the form, ensuring its accuracy before it is submitted for record-keeping purposes.

Explanation

The Fleet Service shift supervisor needs to sign the AMC Form 244 before it can be turned into records. This is because the form is related to fleet service operations, and the shift supervisor is responsible for overseeing and managing these operations. Their signature indicates that they have reviewed and approved the information on the form, ensuring its accuracy before it is submitted for record-keeping purposes.

48. What is the focus of the pollution prevention program?

Reducing the costs of recycling solid waste that Air Force personnel create in the course of their duties.

Preventing or reducing the amount of waste Air Force personnel create before it becomes a problem.

Recycling and treating the waste Air Force personnel create before it ends up in landfills.

Disposing the waste Air Force personnel create before it becomes a problem.

The focus of the pollution prevention program is to prevent or reduce the amount of waste Air Force personnel create before it becomes a problem. This means that the program aims to address the issue at its source by implementing measures to minimize waste generation, rather than solely focusing on recycling or treating the waste after it has already been created. By doing so, the program aims to proactively tackle the problem of waste and its potential environmental impacts.

Explanation

The focus of the pollution prevention program is to prevent or reduce the amount of waste Air Force personnel create before it becomes a problem. This means that the program aims to address the issue at its source by implementing measures to minimize waste generation, rather than solely focusing on recycling or treating the waste after it has already been created. By doing so, the program aims to proactively tackle the problem of waste and its potential environmental impacts.

49. An aircraft diverted into your station with classified material on it and will remain overnight (RON) for repairs. The material is too large to be placed in an approved container. What is the best course of action?

Have the aircraft commander lock the aircraft.

Have the armed courier stay on board until the aircrew returns.

Download the classified material and store it in an authorized US facility.

Have the aircraft commander lock the aircraft and sign a release of liability letter.

The best course of action is to download the classified material and store it in an authorized US facility. This ensures the security of the classified material while the aircraft is being repaired overnight. Locking the aircraft or having the armed courier stay on board may not provide adequate security. Signing a release of liability letter does not address the issue of securing the classified material.

Explanation

The best course of action is to download the classified material and store it in an authorized US facility. This ensures the security of the classified material while the aircraft is being repaired overnight. Locking the aircraft or having the armed courier stay on board may not provide adequate security. Signing a release of liability letter does not address the issue of securing the classified material.

50. Which is not a component of the Air Force On-the-job Training (AF OJT) Program?

Job requirement.

Job proficiency.

Job knowledge.

Job experience

The Air Force On-the-job Training (AF OJT) Program is designed to enhance job proficiency, knowledge, and experience. It focuses on providing practical training to personnel in order to develop their skills and expertise in their specific job roles. Job requirement, on the other hand, refers to the qualifications and skills needed to perform a particular job. It is not a component of the AF OJT Program as it is a prerequisite for entering the program, rather than a part of the training itself.

Explanation

The Air Force On-the-job Training (AF OJT) Program is designed to enhance job proficiency, knowledge, and experience. It focuses on providing practical training to personnel in order to develop their skills and expertise in their specific job roles. Job requirement, on the other hand, refers to the qualifications and skills needed to perform a particular job. It is not a component of the AF OJT Program as it is a prerequisite for entering the program, rather than a part of the training itself.

51. Which describes the proper way to clean and service an oven?

Wipe down the oven racks and oven interior and ensure the oven is operational.

Remove the dirty racks, clean the oven interior, install clean racks, and ensure the oven is operational.

Take the oven racks to Fleet supply for cleaning and use a 5% sodium hypochlorite solution to wipe down the oveninterior.

Take the oven racks to the flight kitchen for cleaning and use a 5% sodium hypochlorite solution to wipe down theoven interior.

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Explanation

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52. Which command is the link between Department of Defense (DOD) shippers and the commercial transportation carrier industry?

Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC).

US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).

Military Sealift Command (MSC).

Air Mobility Command (AMC).

The Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC) serves as the link between the Department of Defense (DOD) shippers and the commercial transportation carrier industry. It is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the movement of DOD personnel and equipment by land, sea, and air. SDDC ensures that the DOD's transportation needs are met efficiently and effectively, working closely with commercial carriers to facilitate the transportation process.

Explanation

The Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC) serves as the link between the Department of Defense (DOD) shippers and the commercial transportation carrier industry. It is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the movement of DOD personnel and equipment by land, sea, and air. SDDC ensures that the DOD's transportation needs are met efficiently and effectively, working closely with commercial carriers to facilitate the transportation process.

53. On the AMC Form 249, Fleet Service Equipment Record, to conduct an inventory, which form will be used as a source document to annotate the total number of items out on mission aircraft?

AF IMT 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer Receipt.

AMC Form 268, Passenger Service Kit/Inventory List.

AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist.

AF IMT 129, Tally In/Out.

The correct answer is AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist. This form is used to conduct an inventory and annotate the total number of items out on mission aircraft. It is specifically designed for fleet service purposes and includes a checklist to ensure that all necessary equipment is accounted for. The other options, such as AF IMT 3516 and AMC Form 268, are not directly related to fleet service or conducting an inventory on mission aircraft. AF IMT 129, Tally In/Out, may be used for tracking items, but it is not specifically designed for fleet service inventory purposes.

Explanation

The correct answer is AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist. This form is used to conduct an inventory and annotate the total number of items out on mission aircraft. It is specifically designed for fleet service purposes and includes a checklist to ensure that all necessary equipment is accounted for. The other options, such as AF IMT 3516 and AMC Form 268, are not directly related to fleet service or conducting an inventory on mission aircraft. AF IMT 129, Tally In/Out, may be used for tracking items, but it is not specifically designed for fleet service inventory purposes.

54. Your supervisor just conducted very thorough safety training with you that included job hazards, personal protective equipment wear, jewelry safety, manual lifting procedures, and many other areas. Which form will you and your supervisor use to document the training?

AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard

AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report

AF IMT 483, Certificate of Competency

AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record.

The AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record, is the appropriate form to document the safety training conducted by the supervisor. This form is specifically designed to record and track an employee's safety and health training, including information on job hazards, personal protective equipment wear, and other relevant areas covered in the training. It serves as a comprehensive record that can be used for future reference and to ensure compliance with safety regulations.

Explanation

The AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record, is the appropriate form to document the safety training conducted by the supervisor. This form is specifically designed to record and track an employee's safety and health training, including information on job hazards, personal protective equipment wear, and other relevant areas covered in the training. It serves as a comprehensive record that can be used for future reference and to ensure compliance with safety regulations.

55. You have parked your vehicle on the flight line and need to leave it unattended to board the aircraft. What must you do?

Leave the vehicle unlocked; turn off the ignition; take the keys with you; place it in park or reverse; and chock onerear wheel.

Leave the vehicle on and unlocked; the keys in the ignition; place it in park or reverse and chock one rear wheel, infront and behind.

Leave the keys in the ignition and the vehicle unlocked; turn off the ignition; place it in park or reverse; and chockone rear wheel, in front and behind.

Leave the keys in the ignition and lock the vehicle; turn off the ignition; place it in neutral; and chock the frontdriver's side wheel, in front and behind.

To ensure safety and prevent unauthorized use of the vehicle, it is important to leave the keys in the ignition and the vehicle unlocked. However, the ignition should be turned off to avoid any accidental starting of the vehicle. The vehicle should be placed in park or reverse to prevent it from rolling. Chocking one rear wheel, both in front and behind, further ensures that the vehicle remains stationary and does not move.

Explanation

To ensure safety and prevent unauthorized use of the vehicle, it is important to leave the keys in the ignition and the vehicle unlocked. However, the ignition should be turned off to avoid any accidental starting of the vehicle. The vehicle should be placed in park or reverse to prevent it from rolling. Chocking one rear wheel, both in front and behind, further ensures that the vehicle remains stationary and does not move.

56. Who has a responsibility to provide accurate data to the aerial ports or agencies that enter data into the Global Air Transportation Execution System?

Ramp supervisors.

Superintendents.

Individual units.

Truck drivers

Individual units have the responsibility to provide accurate data to the aerial ports or agencies that enter data into the Global Air Transportation Execution System. This is because individual units are responsible for gathering and organizing the necessary information related to air transportation, such as cargo details, flight schedules, and other relevant data. They are the primary source of accurate data that is needed for the smooth execution of air transportation operations.

Explanation

Individual units have the responsibility to provide accurate data to the aerial ports or agencies that enter data into the Global Air Transportation Execution System. This is because individual units are responsible for gathering and organizing the necessary information related to air transportation, such as cargo details, flight schedules, and other relevant data. They are the primary source of accurate data that is needed for the smooth execution of air transportation operations.

57. What is the purpose of the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection, and Health (AFOSH) program?

Decrease situational awareness of resources and protect personnel.

Increase situational awareness of resources and protect personnel.

Minimize the loss of Air Force resources and protect personnel.

Minimize the loss of Air Force property and money.

The purpose of the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection, and Health (AFOSH) program is to minimize the loss of Air Force resources and protect personnel. This program aims to ensure the safety and well-being of Air Force personnel by implementing measures to prevent accidents, injuries, and damage to resources. It focuses on identifying and mitigating potential hazards, promoting safe practices, and maintaining a healthy and secure work environment. By minimizing losses and protecting personnel, the AFOSH program helps to maintain operational readiness and effectiveness in the Air Force.

Explanation

The purpose of the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection, and Health (AFOSH) program is to minimize the loss of Air Force resources and protect personnel. This program aims to ensure the safety and well-being of Air Force personnel by implementing measures to prevent accidents, injuries, and damage to resources. It focuses on identifying and mitigating potential hazards, promoting safe practices, and maintaining a healthy and secure work environment. By minimizing losses and protecting personnel, the AFOSH program helps to maintain operational readiness and effectiveness in the Air Force.

58. Which deployment work center is the hub of deployment operations and is responsible for the overall control and supervision of deployments?

Deployment Vehicle Operations (DVO).

Deployment Control Center (DCC).

Transportation Control Unit (TCU).

Control Deployment Function (CDF).

The Deployment Control Center (DCC) is the hub of deployment operations and is responsible for the overall control and supervision of deployments. It is the central command center where all deployment activities are coordinated and monitored. The DCC ensures that resources are allocated effectively, schedules are adhered to, and any issues or delays are addressed promptly. It serves as a communication hub between various departments and units involved in the deployment process, allowing for efficient and streamlined operations.

Explanation

The Deployment Control Center (DCC) is the hub of deployment operations and is responsible for the overall control and supervision of deployments. It is the central command center where all deployment activities are coordinated and monitored. The DCC ensures that resources are allocated effectively, schedules are adhered to, and any issues or delays are addressed promptly. It serves as a communication hub between various departments and units involved in the deployment process, allowing for efficient and streamlined operations.

59. Which term refers to the movement of personnel, units, supplies and equipment to reinforce or resupply already deployed or employed forces?

Redeployment.

Employment.

Sustainment

Deployment.

Sustainment refers to the movement of personnel, units, supplies, and equipment to reinforce or resupply already deployed or employed forces. It involves the logistical support needed to maintain and sustain the operational capabilities of the forces in the field. This includes activities such as transportation, maintenance, supply, and medical support. Sustainment ensures that the forces have the necessary resources to continue their mission effectively and efficiently.

Explanation

Sustainment refers to the movement of personnel, units, supplies, and equipment to reinforce or resupply already deployed or employed forces. It involves the logistical support needed to maintain and sustain the operational capabilities of the forces in the field. This includes activities such as transportation, maintenance, supply, and medical support. Sustainment ensures that the forces have the necessary resources to continue their mission effectively and efficiently.

60. What is the minimum amount of time a trainee must be in training to be awarded the 7-skill level?

18 months.

15 months.

12 months.

6 months.

The minimum amount of time a trainee must be in training to be awarded the 7-skill level is 12 months.

Explanation

The minimum amount of time a trainee must be in training to be awarded the 7-skill level is 12 months.

61. Through which system does the Air Force provide rapid global mobility to the defense transportation system (DTS)?

Global Deployment and Mobility System (GDMS).

Mobility Traffic Management System (MTMS).

National Air Mobility System (NAMS).

Sustainment Mobility System (SMS)

The Air Force provides rapid global mobility to the defense transportation system through the National Air Mobility System (NAMS). This system is specifically designed to ensure the efficient movement of personnel and equipment across the globe. It coordinates and manages the transportation assets of the Air Force, enabling them to respond quickly and effectively to any global mobility requirements. The NAMS plays a critical role in supporting military operations and maintaining readiness.

Explanation

The Air Force provides rapid global mobility to the defense transportation system through the National Air Mobility System (NAMS). This system is specifically designed to ensure the efficient movement of personnel and equipment across the globe. It coordinates and manages the transportation assets of the Air Force, enabling them to respond quickly and effectively to any global mobility requirements. The NAMS plays a critical role in supporting military operations and maintaining readiness.

62. You serviced the C-17 with the lavatory service truck (LST); the doughnut seal was faulty, and you came into direct contact with waste from the aircraft. You were wearing all required personal protective equipment (PPE). What actions should you take?

Change clothes and discontinue latrine service until the doughnut gets fixed.

Call the ambulance to treat you for contamination.

Change clothes only; your PPE protected you.

Wash immediately and change clothes.

After coming into direct contact with waste from the aircraft, the correct action to take is to wash immediately and change clothes. Although the individual was wearing all required personal protective equipment (PPE), it is still important to wash off any potential contaminants to prevent any further exposure or spread of bacteria. Changing clothes is also necessary to remove any potential traces of waste that may have transferred onto the clothing. Discontinuing latrine service and fixing the faulty doughnut seal should also be addressed, but it is not the immediate action required in this situation.

Explanation

After coming into direct contact with waste from the aircraft, the correct action to take is to wash immediately and change clothes. Although the individual was wearing all required personal protective equipment (PPE), it is still important to wash off any potential contaminants to prevent any further exposure or spread of bacteria. Changing clothes is also necessary to remove any potential traces of waste that may have transferred onto the clothing. Discontinuing latrine service and fixing the faulty doughnut seal should also be addressed, but it is not the immediate action required in this situation.

63. When recording the various Fleet Service activities on an AMC Form 244, such as "latrine serviced by," you should include the initials of the

Person who serviced the latrine, the Julian date, and start and complete times.

Person recording the information, the Julian date, and start and complete times.

Person who serviced the latrine and the start and complete times.

Dispatcher and the start and complete times.

When recording the various Fleet Service activities on an AMC Form 244, it is important to include the initials of the person who serviced the latrine, the Julian date, and start and complete times. This information helps to accurately track and document the maintenance and servicing of the latrine. Including the initials of the person ensures accountability and allows for easy identification of who performed the service. The Julian date helps to establish the date of the service, while the start and complete times provide a record of the duration of the service.

Explanation

When recording the various Fleet Service activities on an AMC Form 244, it is important to include the initials of the person who serviced the latrine, the Julian date, and start and complete times. This information helps to accurately track and document the maintenance and servicing of the latrine. Including the initials of the person ensures accountability and allows for easy identification of who performed the service. The Julian date helps to establish the date of the service, while the start and complete times provide a record of the duration of the service.

64. Mobility forces will not start a joint inspection (JI) until

The Arrival/Departure Airfield Control Group (A/DACG) directs them.

The first deployed schedule of events (DSOE) is published.

The first piece of cargo arrives in the call forward area.

All the cargo for the chalk is present and available

The correct answer is "all the cargo for the chalk is present and available." This means that the mobility forces will not start a joint inspection (JI) until all the cargo that is assigned to a specific group or "chalk" is present and ready for inspection. This ensures that the inspection process is efficient and can be carried out effectively without any delays or missing items. The other options, such as the A/DACG directing them or the DSOE being published, may be important factors in coordinating the inspection, but the actual start of the inspection is dependent on the availability of all the cargo for the chalk.

Explanation

The correct answer is "all the cargo for the chalk is present and available." This means that the mobility forces will not start a joint inspection (JI) until all the cargo that is assigned to a specific group or "chalk" is present and ready for inspection. This ensures that the inspection process is efficient and can be carried out effectively without any delays or missing items. The other options, such as the A/DACG directing them or the DSOE being published, may be important factors in coordinating the inspection, but the actual start of the inspection is dependent on the availability of all the cargo for the chalk.

65. Which type of airdrop is used to feed stranded animals in a winter storm?

Gravity method.

Low-velocity drop.

Freedrop.

High-velocity drop.

Freedrop is the correct answer because it refers to an airdrop method where supplies or food are dropped from an aircraft without the use of parachutes or any other deceleration devices. This method is commonly used to deliver aid to stranded animals during a winter storm as it allows for a quick and efficient distribution of resources. The other options, such as gravity method, low-velocity drop, and high-velocity drop, do not specifically pertain to the situation of feeding stranded animals in a winter storm.

Explanation

Freedrop is the correct answer because it refers to an airdrop method where supplies or food are dropped from an aircraft without the use of parachutes or any other deceleration devices. This method is commonly used to deliver aid to stranded animals during a winter storm as it allows for a quick and efficient distribution of resources. The other options, such as gravity method, low-velocity drop, and high-velocity drop, do not specifically pertain to the situation of feeding stranded animals in a winter storm.

66. Which command is not a component of the US Transportation Command?

Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC).

Military Traffic and Airlift Command (MTAC).

Military Sealift Command (MSC).

Air Mobility Command (AMC).

The question asks for a command that is not a component of the US Transportation Command. The Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC), Military Sealift Command (MSC), and Air Mobility Command (AMC) are all components of the US Transportation Command. Therefore, the correct answer is Military Traffic and Airlift Command (MTAC), as it is not a component of the US Transportation Command.

Explanation

The question asks for a command that is not a component of the US Transportation Command. The Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC), Military Sealift Command (MSC), and Air Mobility Command (AMC) are all components of the US Transportation Command. Therefore, the correct answer is Military Traffic and Airlift Command (MTAC), as it is not a component of the US Transportation Command.

67. Joint forces can be organized on which basis?

Geographical or functional.

Symmetrical or functional.

Geographical or logical.

Symmetrical or logical.

Joint forces can be organized on a geographical basis, where they are grouped according to their physical location or area of responsibility. This allows for efficient coordination and utilization of resources within a specific geographic region. Alternatively, joint forces can be organized on a functional basis, where they are grouped according to their specific capabilities or roles. This allows for specialization and expertise in specific areas, regardless of their physical location. Both geographical and functional organization methods are commonly used to effectively deploy and employ joint forces in military operations.

Explanation

Joint forces can be organized on a geographical basis, where they are grouped according to their physical location or area of responsibility. This allows for efficient coordination and utilization of resources within a specific geographic region. Alternatively, joint forces can be organized on a functional basis, where they are grouped according to their specific capabilities or roles. This allows for specialization and expertise in specific areas, regardless of their physical location. Both geographical and functional organization methods are commonly used to effectively deploy and employ joint forces in military operations.

68. What can you do each and every day to reduce air emissions at work?

Incinerate, scrub, or treat solid wastes in accordance with Air Force instructions and local policies.

Neutralize, evaporate, or reduce hazardous waste products in accordance with federal and state statutes.

Inspect, operate, refuel, and maintain vehicles in accordance with their applicable TO's and other authorizedguidance.

Reduce, reuse, recycle, and manage your use of solid wastes, ensuring no waste is dumped in any bodies of water,including storm drains.

By inspecting, operating, refueling, and maintaining vehicles in accordance with their applicable technical orders (TO's) and other authorized guidance, you can ensure that they are running efficiently and emitting fewer air pollutants. Regular maintenance and proper operation of vehicles can help reduce emissions and improve air quality at the workplace.

Explanation

By inspecting, operating, refueling, and maintaining vehicles in accordance with their applicable technical orders (TO's) and other authorized guidance, you can ensure that they are running efficiently and emitting fewer air pollutants. Regular maintenance and proper operation of vehicles can help reduce emissions and improve air quality at the workplace.

69. Pollution control consists of which three activities?

Storage, acquisition, and recycling.

Recycling, treatment, and disposal.

Prevention, purchase, and participation.

Reduction, recycling, and disintegration.

The correct answer is recycling, treatment, and disposal. Pollution control involves these three activities to mitigate the harmful effects of pollution. Recycling involves the conversion of waste materials into reusable products, reducing the need for resource extraction and waste generation. Treatment refers to the process of removing pollutants from wastewater, air, or soil to make it safe for release into the environment. Disposal involves the proper management and disposal of waste materials in a way that minimizes environmental impact. Together, these activities contribute to pollution control and environmental sustainability.

Explanation

The correct answer is recycling, treatment, and disposal. Pollution control involves these three activities to mitigate the harmful effects of pollution. Recycling involves the conversion of waste materials into reusable products, reducing the need for resource extraction and waste generation. Treatment refers to the process of removing pollutants from wastewater, air, or soil to make it safe for release into the environment. Disposal involves the proper management and disposal of waste materials in a way that minimizes environmental impact. Together, these activities contribute to pollution control and environmental sustainability.

70. Which is not a benefit of pollution prevention?

It boosts the Air Force's image as responsible members of society.

It reduces costs, manpower and equipment requirements.

It reduces the need for federal standards and regulations.

It reduces impact on public health and the environment.

Pollution prevention is a proactive approach to reduce or eliminate pollution at its source, rather than managing it after it has been created. It focuses on finding ways to prevent pollution from occurring in the first place. The given answer, "It reduces the need for federal standards and regulations," is not a benefit of pollution prevention because federal standards and regulations are necessary to ensure that industries and individuals comply with environmental laws and regulations. These standards and regulations help to protect public health and the environment by setting guidelines and requirements that must be met. Therefore, reducing the need for federal standards and regulations would not be considered a benefit of pollution prevention.

Explanation

Pollution prevention is a proactive approach to reduce or eliminate pollution at its source, rather than managing it after it has been created. It focuses on finding ways to prevent pollution from occurring in the first place. The given answer, "It reduces the need for federal standards and regulations," is not a benefit of pollution prevention because federal standards and regulations are necessary to ensure that industries and individuals comply with environmental laws and regulations. These standards and regulations help to protect public health and the environment by setting guidelines and requirements that must be met. Therefore, reducing the need for federal standards and regulations would not be considered a benefit of pollution prevention.

71. Which is not a trainee responsibility in the Air Force On-the-job Training (AF OJT) Program?

Budget on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks within established time limits.

Obtain and manage knowledge, qualifications, certifications, and appropriate skill levels.

Identify and certify position qualifications and skill level upgrade training requirements.

Understand particular deployment and home station training requirements.

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Explanation

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72. The time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) is

The electronic data that exists within the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) to help executedeployments in phases.

A situation that involves a significant threat to the US, its territories, citizens, military forces, possessions or vitalinterests

A situation that involves military forces in response to natural and man-made disasters, terrorists, or foreign militaryoperations.

The process within unit type codes (UTCs) required to activate deployment work centers.

The time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) refers to the electronic data within the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) that aids in the execution of deployments in phases. This data helps in the planning, coordination, and execution of military deployments by providing information on the required forces, equipment, and supplies, as well as the timeline for their deployment. The TPFDD ensures that the right resources are available at the right time and place to support military operations effectively.

Explanation

The time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) refers to the electronic data within the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) that aids in the execution of deployments in phases. This data helps in the planning, coordination, and execution of military deployments by providing information on the required forces, equipment, and supplies, as well as the timeline for their deployment. The TPFDD ensures that the right resources are available at the right time and place to support military operations effectively.

73. You want to find out if two pieces of hazardous cargo are compatible with each other. In which publication would you look?

Air Mobility Command Pamphlet (AMCPAM) 24-204.

Air Mobility Command Instruction (AMCI) 24-101.

Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I).

Air Force Instruction (AFI) 24-101.

The Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I) would be the publication to consult in order to determine if two pieces of hazardous cargo are compatible with each other.

Explanation

The Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I) would be the publication to consult in order to determine if two pieces of hazardous cargo are compatible with each other.

74. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) is both a process and a collection of automated computer systems used to develop

Joint planning and execution community (JPEC) regulations and deployment work centers.

Installation deployment officers (IDOs) and Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) tempo bands.

Operational plans (OPLANS) and time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDDs).

Joint inspection standards and Global Air Mobility Support System (GAMSS) taskings.

JOPES is a process and a collection of computer systems used to develop operational plans (OPLANS) and time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDDs). This means that JOPES is responsible for creating and organizing the plans and data related to military operations. It helps in coordinating and managing the deployment of forces in a time-phased manner, ensuring that the necessary resources are available when and where they are needed.

Explanation

JOPES is a process and a collection of computer systems used to develop operational plans (OPLANS) and time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDDs). This means that JOPES is responsible for creating and organizing the plans and data related to military operations. It helps in coordinating and managing the deployment of forces in a time-phased manner, ensuring that the necessary resources are available when and where they are needed.

75. How much weight will the G-12 parachute support?

500 pounds.

1,500 pounds.

2,200 pounds.

3,500 pounds.

The G-12 parachute is designed to support a weight of 2,200 pounds. This means that it is capable of safely carrying and slowing down a load weighing up to 2,200 pounds when it is deployed.

Explanation

The G-12 parachute is designed to support a weight of 2,200 pounds. This means that it is capable of safely carrying and slowing down a load weighing up to 2,200 pounds when it is deployed.

76. Which volume of the USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) documents the aircraft activity for each geographical location in support of all regional OPLANs (operation plans) and certain CONPLANs (concept plans)?

WMP-2, Plans and Listing Summary.

WMP-3, Combat and Support Forces.

WMP-4, Wartime Aircraft Activity.

WMP-5, AF Industrial Mobilization Planning.

WMP-4, Wartime Aircraft Activity, is the correct answer because this volume of the USAF War and Mobilization Plan documents the aircraft activity for each geographical location in support of all regional OPLANs and certain CONPLANs. It provides information on the deployment and utilization of aircraft during wartime operations, ensuring effective coordination and support for military missions.

Explanation

WMP-4, Wartime Aircraft Activity, is the correct answer because this volume of the USAF War and Mobilization Plan documents the aircraft activity for each geographical location in support of all regional OPLANs and certain CONPLANs. It provides information on the deployment and utilization of aircraft during wartime operations, ensuring effective coordination and support for military missions.

77. How much water or solution do you use to rinse and fill the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) waste tank?

11 liters

39 liters.

11 gallons.

39 gallons.

The correct answer is 11 gallons. This is the amount of water or solution that is used to rinse and fill the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) waste tank. Using 11 gallons ensures that the tank is properly cleaned and ready for use.

Explanation

The correct answer is 11 gallons. This is the amount of water or solution that is used to rinse and fill the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) waste tank. Using 11 gallons ensures that the tank is properly cleaned and ready for use.

78. Satisfactory items are identified on the DD Form 2133 by

Leaving the block blank.

A check mark.

An "X".

An "*".

The correct answer is a check mark. Satisfactory items are identified on the DD Form 2133 by marking a check mark in the corresponding block. This indicates that the item has met the required standards and is considered satisfactory.

Explanation

The correct answer is a check mark. Satisfactory items are identified on the DD Form 2133 by marking a check mark in the corresponding block. This indicates that the item has met the required standards and is considered satisfactory.

79. Which type of airdrop requires large, clear drop zones because they usually consist of large, complex loads?

High-velocity drop.

Low-velocity drop.

Gravity method.

Freedrop.

Low-velocity drop requires large, clear drop zones because it usually consists of large, complex loads. The term "low-velocity" refers to the slower descent of the load compared to other airdrop methods. This slower descent allows for more precise and controlled delivery of the load, which is especially important when dealing with large and complex loads. To ensure the safety and accuracy of the airdrop, a large, clear drop zone is necessary to accommodate the size and complexity of the load.

Explanation

Low-velocity drop requires large, clear drop zones because it usually consists of large, complex loads. The term "low-velocity" refers to the slower descent of the load compared to other airdrop methods. This slower descent allows for more precise and controlled delivery of the load, which is especially important when dealing with large and complex loads. To ensure the safety and accuracy of the airdrop, a large, clear drop zone is necessary to accommodate the size and complexity of the load.

80. Radio frequency identification (RFID) technology consists of what three parts?

Tag, interrogator, and data server.

Tag, transponder, and data server.

Tag, interrogator, and optical memory card.

Transponder, optical memory card, and data server.

RFID technology consists of three main components: a tag, an interrogator, and a data server. The tag is a small electronic device that contains a unique identifier and can store and transmit data. The interrogator, also known as a reader, is used to communicate with the tag and retrieve information. The data server is responsible for storing and managing the collected data from the tags. Therefore, the correct answer is "Tag, interrogator, and data server."

Explanation

RFID technology consists of three main components: a tag, an interrogator, and a data server. The tag is a small electronic device that contains a unique identifier and can store and transmit data. The interrogator, also known as a reader, is used to communicate with the tag and retrieve information. The data server is responsible for storing and managing the collected data from the tags. Therefore, the correct answer is "Tag, interrogator, and data server."

81. You are working in the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) for a mobility movement and want to locate information about mobility movements. In which part of the Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) would you look?

Part I.

Part II.

Part III.

Part IV.

In the given question, the correct answer is Part III. The Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) is a comprehensive document that provides guidance and regulations for the transportation of goods and personnel within the Department of Defense. Part III of the DTR specifically focuses on mobility movements, which would include information related to the transportation of cargo in the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF). Therefore, if you are looking for information about mobility movements, you would refer to Part III of the DTR.

Explanation

In the given question, the correct answer is Part III. The Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) is a comprehensive document that provides guidance and regulations for the transportation of goods and personnel within the Department of Defense. Part III of the DTR specifically focuses on mobility movements, which would include information related to the transportation of cargo in the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF). Therefore, if you are looking for information about mobility movements, you would refer to Part III of the DTR.

82. Before a trainee can be awarded the 5- or 7- skill levels all core tasks must be identified

By the supervisor and other duty position tasks identified by the commander.

By the commander and other duty position tasks identified by the supervisor.

By the supervisor and other duty position tasks by the CFETP.

In the CFETP and other duty position tasks identified by the supervisor.

The correct answer is "in the CFETP and other duty position tasks identified by the supervisor." This answer is correct because it states that before a trainee can be awarded the 5- or 7- skill levels, all core tasks must be identified in the CFETP (Career Field Education and Training Plan) and other duty position tasks must be identified by the supervisor. This means that the trainee must complete all the required tasks outlined in the CFETP and any additional tasks assigned by the supervisor in order to achieve the desired skill levels.

Explanation

The correct answer is "in the CFETP and other duty position tasks identified by the supervisor." This answer is correct because it states that before a trainee can be awarded the 5- or 7- skill levels, all core tasks must be identified in the CFETP (Career Field Education and Training Plan) and other duty position tasks must be identified by the supervisor. This means that the trainee must complete all the required tasks outlined in the CFETP and any additional tasks assigned by the supervisor in order to achieve the desired skill levels.

83. Which stage of Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) activation supports minor regional crises or small-scale contingencies?

Stage I, Committed Expansion.

Stage II, Defense Airlift Emergency.

Stage III, National Emergency.

Stage IV, Global Expansion.

Stage I, Committed Expansion of Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) activation supports minor regional crises or small-scale contingencies. This stage involves the voluntary augmentation of military airlift forces by activating pre-planned agreements with commercial airlines. These agreements allow the military to access additional aircraft and crews from the civil sector to meet the increased demand for airlift during such crises or contingencies.

Explanation

Stage I, Committed Expansion of Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) activation supports minor regional crises or small-scale contingencies. This stage involves the voluntary augmentation of military airlift forces by activating pre-planned agreements with commercial airlines. These agreements allow the military to access additional aircraft and crews from the civil sector to meet the increased demand for airlift during such crises or contingencies.

84. What is the capacity of the A-21 cargo bag?

300 pounds.

400 pounds

500 pounds.

1,000 pounds.

The capacity of the A-21 cargo bag is 500 pounds.

Explanation

The capacity of the A-21 cargo bag is 500 pounds.

85. Which parachute is the largest?

G-11.

G-12

G-13.

Extraction.

The correct answer is G-11. This suggests that out of the given options, G-11 parachute is the largest.

Explanation

The correct answer is G-11. This suggests that out of the given options, G-11 parachute is the largest.

86. When servicing the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) water tank you should fill it with potable water until

The flow meter zeroes out or until water discharges from the overflow fitting.

The gauge indicates that it is full or 39 gallons, whichever comes first.

Water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity.

The flow meter reads 11 gallons.

When servicing the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) water tank, the correct procedure is to fill it with potable water until the gauge indicates that it is full or until it reaches a capacity of 39 gallons, whichever comes first. This ensures that the tank is properly filled without overfilling it, which could lead to water leakage or other issues.

Explanation

When servicing the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) water tank, the correct procedure is to fill it with potable water until the gauge indicates that it is full or until it reaches a capacity of 39 gallons, whichever comes first. This ensures that the tank is properly filled without overfilling it, which could lead to water leakage or other issues.

87. You have performed final fleet service on a C-17 that blocks out at 0800. Within what timeframe are aircrews required to pick up their own meals?

0650.

0700.

0710.

0720

Aircrews are required to pick up their own meals within a specific timeframe before the aircraft blocks out. The correct answer is 0720, indicating that the aircrews must pick up their meals 20 minutes before the aircraft's scheduled departure time of 0800.

Explanation

Aircrews are required to pick up their own meals within a specific timeframe before the aircraft blocks out. The correct answer is 0720, indicating that the aircrews must pick up their meals 20 minutes before the aircraft's scheduled departure time of 0800.

88. The Deployed Global Air Transportation Execution System (DGATES) is set up and used until the

Capability is outdated and needs to be replaced by a more advanced capability.

Deploying unit replicates and provides HQ AMC ITV cell e-mail ITV capability.

Capability is no longer necessary or until fixed R/GAIES systems have been set up in its place.

Deploying unit requires more capability than DGATES provides or prefers to use another system.

The correct answer states that the Deployed Global Air Transportation Execution System (DGATES) is used until the capability is no longer necessary or until fixed R/GAIES systems have been set up in its place. This suggests that DGATES is a temporary system that is used until it is no longer needed or until a more advanced system, such as the fixed R/GAIES systems, can be implemented. This implies that DGATES is not a permanent solution and will eventually be replaced by a more advanced capability.

Explanation

The correct answer states that the Deployed Global Air Transportation Execution System (DGATES) is used until the capability is no longer necessary or until fixed R/GAIES systems have been set up in its place. This suggests that DGATES is a temporary system that is used until it is no longer needed or until a more advanced system, such as the fixed R/GAIES systems, can be implemented. This implies that DGATES is not a permanent solution and will eventually be replaced by a more advanced capability.

89. At a minimum, aerial port personnel should verify in the Global Transportation Network (GTN) the

Presence of document identifier codes, mission number and aerial port code.

Presence of cargo and passenger data, mission number, and aerial port code.

Presence of bill of lading data, project code, and mission number.

Transportation account code, project code, and mission number.

The correct answer is the presence of cargo and passenger data, mission number, and aerial port code. This is because aerial port personnel need to verify these specific details in the Global Transportation Network (GTN) to ensure the smooth and accurate transportation of cargo and passengers. The cargo and passenger data helps in identifying the specific items being transported, the mission number helps in tracking and organizing the transportation process, and the aerial port code ensures that the cargo and passengers are being sent to the correct destination.

Explanation

The correct answer is the presence of cargo and passenger data, mission number, and aerial port code. This is because aerial port personnel need to verify these specific details in the Global Transportation Network (GTN) to ensure the smooth and accurate transportation of cargo and passengers. The cargo and passenger data helps in identifying the specific items being transported, the mission number helps in tracking and organizing the transportation process, and the aerial port code ensures that the cargo and passengers are being sent to the correct destination.

90. A solid waste is any discarded material,

Including solids, liquids, and containerized gases only, which is abandoned, recycled, or considered inherentlywaste-like.

Including solids, liquids, and containerized gases only, which is acquired, treated, or considered inherentlysolid-like.

Including solids and liquids only, which is purchased, stored, abandoned, or considered inherently waste-like.

Including liquids and containerized gases only, which is stored, abandoned, or considered inherently solid-like.

The correct answer states that a solid waste is any discarded material, including solids, liquids, and containerized gases only, which is abandoned, recycled, or considered inherently waste-like. This means that any material that is discarded and falls under the categories of solids, liquids, and containerized gases can be considered a solid waste if it is abandoned, recycled, or inherently waste-like.

Explanation

The correct answer states that a solid waste is any discarded material, including solids, liquids, and containerized gases only, which is abandoned, recycled, or considered inherently waste-like. This means that any material that is discarded and falls under the categories of solids, liquids, and containerized gases can be considered a solid waste if it is abandoned, recycled, or inherently waste-like.

91. Which type of mission moves mostly airlift sustainment cargo in which users reimburse the Transportation Working Capital Fund (TWCF)?

Special Airlift Mission (SAM).

Air Refueling (AR) mission.

Contingency mission.

Channel mission

A channel mission refers to a type of mission where airlift sustainment cargo is primarily moved, and the users reimburse the Transportation Working Capital Fund (TWCF). This means that the cost of transportation is covered by the users themselves, rather than being funded by the government or other sources.

Explanation

A channel mission refers to a type of mission where airlift sustainment cargo is primarily moved, and the users reimburse the Transportation Working Capital Fund (TWCF). This means that the cost of transportation is covered by the users themselves, rather than being funded by the government or other sources.

92. Which form would you use to report hazards that cannot be eliminated immediately?

AF IMT 1118, Notice of Hazard

DD Form 1118, Notice of Hazard

AF IMT 457, USAF Hazard Report

DD Form 457, DOD Hazard Report.

The correct answer is AF IMT 457, USAF Hazard Report. This form is specifically designed for reporting hazards in the United States Air Force (USAF) that cannot be eliminated immediately. It is likely that this form is used to ensure that the hazard is properly documented and reported to the appropriate authorities within the USAF for further action and resolution.

Explanation

The correct answer is AF IMT 457, USAF Hazard Report. This form is specifically designed for reporting hazards in the United States Air Force (USAF) that cannot be eliminated immediately. It is likely that this form is used to ensure that the hazard is properly documented and reported to the appropriate authorities within the USAF for further action and resolution.

93. You have been tasked to load non-expendable supplies on an Air Mobility Command (AMC) C-5. Which form should you use?

AMC Form 12-1, Comfort Pallet/Portable Lavatory Unit Checklist.

AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record.

AF IMT 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.

AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist.

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Explanation

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94. Which training document is the foundation for ensuring the completion of all work center job requirements?

Specialty Training Standard (STS).

Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

Master Task List (MTL).

Master Training Plan (MTP).

The Master Training Plan (MTP) is the training document that serves as the foundation for ensuring the completion of all work center job requirements. It outlines the specific tasks and skills that need to be mastered in order to successfully perform the job. The MTP provides a comprehensive roadmap for training and development, allowing individuals to track their progress and ensure that all necessary training is completed. By following the MTP, individuals can ensure that they have the knowledge and skills necessary to fulfill their job requirements effectively.

Explanation

The Master Training Plan (MTP) is the training document that serves as the foundation for ensuring the completion of all work center job requirements. It outlines the specific tasks and skills that need to be mastered in order to successfully perform the job. The MTP provides a comprehensive roadmap for training and development, allowing individuals to track their progress and ensure that all necessary training is completed. By following the MTP, individuals can ensure that they have the knowledge and skills necessary to fulfill their job requirements effectively.

95. In which area of the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) do deploying units have sole responsibility?

Ready line/loading ramp area

Alert holding area.

Call forward area

Marshalling area.

In the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF), deploying units have sole responsibility in the marshalling area. This area is where units gather and organize before deployment, ensuring that all personnel and equipment are properly accounted for and prepared for transportation. It serves as a centralized location for coordination and readiness, allowing units to efficiently move and deploy to their designated destinations.

Explanation

In the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF), deploying units have sole responsibility in the marshalling area. This area is where units gather and organize before deployment, ensuring that all personnel and equipment are properly accounted for and prepared for transportation. It serves as a centralized location for coordination and readiness, allowing units to efficiently move and deploy to their designated destinations.

96. Improperly constructed mission numbers

Enable the services to double-bill the cargo's user based on weight and cube.

Make it harder to deploy, employ, sustain, and redeploy the warfighter.

Interfere with automated data updates between the various C2 systems.

Duplicate the efforts of the organizations who fly the missions.

The given correct answer states that improperly constructed mission numbers interfere with automated data updates between the various C2 systems. This means that when mission numbers are not constructed correctly, it creates problems in updating and sharing data between different command and control (C2) systems. This can lead to inefficiencies and errors in the communication and coordination of military operations.

Explanation

The given correct answer states that improperly constructed mission numbers interfere with automated data updates between the various C2 systems. This means that when mission numbers are not constructed correctly, it creates problems in updating and sharing data between different command and control (C2) systems. This can lead to inefficiencies and errors in the communication and coordination of military operations.

97. Which form is a continuation of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and is used and annotated the same way as the specialty training standard (STS)?

AETC Form 156.

AF IMT 2096.

AF IMT 623a.

AF IMT 797.

AF IMT 797 is the correct answer because it is a continuation of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and is used and annotated the same way as the specialty training standard (STS). This form is specifically designed for documenting and tracking training requirements and qualifications for individuals in a particular career field. It allows for easy reference and assessment of an individual's progress and proficiency in their career field.

Explanation

AF IMT 797 is the correct answer because it is a continuation of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and is used and annotated the same way as the specialty training standard (STS). This form is specifically designed for documenting and tracking training requirements and qualifications for individuals in a particular career field. It allows for easy reference and assessment of an individual's progress and proficiency in their career field.

98. The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is a comprehensive

Core training package that outlines task evaluation checklists and training assessments.

Instructional document that lists professional enhancement criteria for a specialty.

Instructional package that supports and standardizes job knowledge training.

Core training document that identifies education and training requirements.

The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is a core training document that identifies education and training requirements. It serves as a comprehensive guide for individuals in a specific career field, outlining the necessary knowledge and skills they need to acquire. The CFETP includes task evaluation checklists and training assessments, helping individuals track their progress and ensure they meet the required standards. By providing a standardized framework, the CFETP supports consistency and uniformity in job knowledge training within a specialty.

Explanation

The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is a core training document that identifies education and training requirements. It serves as a comprehensive guide for individuals in a specific career field, outlining the necessary knowledge and skills they need to acquire. The CFETP includes task evaluation checklists and training assessments, helping individuals track their progress and ensure they meet the required standards. By providing a standardized framework, the CFETP supports consistency and uniformity in job knowledge training within a specialty.

99. A cargo user has received verified approval to ship its equipment via tactical, contingency, or emergency airlift and you need to look up the hazardous cargo restrictions and requirements for this type of airlift. Which chapter in Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I), Preparing Hazardous Materials for Military Air Shipment, would you go to find this information?

Chapter 1.

Chapter 2.

Chapter 3.

Chapter 4.

Chapter 3 of Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I), Preparing Hazardous Materials for Military Air Shipment, would contain the information regarding hazardous cargo restrictions and requirements for tactical, contingency, or emergency airlift.

Explanation

Chapter 3 of Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I), Preparing Hazardous Materials for Military Air Shipment, would contain the information regarding hazardous cargo restrictions and requirements for tactical, contingency, or emergency airlift.

100. You are loading helicopters on a C-17 aircraft and want to find information on specific procedures for loading the items. Which section number of the 1C-17B-9 technical order (TO) contains that information?

Section II.

Section IV.

Section V.

Section VI.

The correct answer is Section VI. The question asks for the section number of the 1C-17B-9 technical order (TO) that contains information on specific procedures for loading helicopters on a C-17 aircraft. Therefore, the correct section would be Section VI, as it is likely to contain detailed instructions and guidelines for the loading process.

Explanation

The correct answer is Section VI. The question asks for the section number of the 1C-17B-9 technical order (TO) that contains information on specific procedures for loading helicopters on a C-17 aircraft. Therefore, the correct section would be Section VI, as it is likely to contain detailed instructions and guidelines for the loading process.

101. To whom does a copy of the Department of Defense (DD) Form 2133 not go?

The aircraft loadmaster with the cargo manifest and other documentation.

The troop commander with the consolidated flight package and manifest.

Retained by the mobility force for inclusion in the station file.

The deploying unit representative.

A copy of the Department of Defense (DD) Form 2133 does not go to the troop commander with the consolidated flight package and manifest. This form is retained by the mobility force for inclusion in the station file. The DD Form 2133 is used for documenting and authorizing the movement of cargo and personnel on military aircraft. It includes information such as the type and quantity of cargo, the names of personnel, and the destination. The troop commander would already have access to the consolidated flight package and manifest, so they do not need an additional copy of the DD Form 2133.

Explanation

A copy of the Department of Defense (DD) Form 2133 does not go to the troop commander with the consolidated flight package and manifest. This form is retained by the mobility force for inclusion in the station file. The DD Form 2133 is used for documenting and authorizing the movement of cargo and personnel on military aircraft. It includes information such as the type and quantity of cargo, the names of personnel, and the destination. The troop commander would already have access to the consolidated flight package and manifest, so they do not need an additional copy of the DD Form 2133.

102. When servicing an aircraft with potable water you should fill the aircraft water tank until

The flow meter zeroes out or until water discharges from the overflow fitting.

Water reaches the requested capacity or 11 gallons, whichever comes first.

Water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity.

The flow meter reads 11 gallons.

When servicing an aircraft with potable water, it is necessary to fill the aircraft water tank either until water discharges from the overflow fitting or until it reaches the requested capacity. This ensures that the tank is properly filled and not overfilled, preventing any potential damage or overflow. The answer option correctly combines both conditions, providing a comprehensive guideline for filling the water tank.

Explanation

When servicing an aircraft with potable water, it is necessary to fill the aircraft water tank either until water discharges from the overflow fitting or until it reaches the requested capacity. This ensures that the tank is properly filled and not overfilled, preventing any potential damage or overflow. The answer option correctly combines both conditions, providing a comprehensive guideline for filling the water tank.

103. Which disk system is not used to import cargo or passenger information into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)?

X-MAN.

Logistics module (LOGMOD).

Manpower and Personnel Module-Base (MANPER-B).

Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment(DCAPES).

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Explanation

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104. What are the two main elements of minimizing waste?

Prevention and management.

Reduction and management

Management and control.

Prevention and control.

The two main elements of minimizing waste are prevention and control. Prevention refers to taking actions to reduce or eliminate waste generation at the source, such as implementing efficient production processes or using less packaging. Control, on the other hand, involves managing and handling waste in a responsible and sustainable manner, such as through recycling, composting, or proper disposal. By combining prevention and control strategies, waste can be minimized effectively, leading to environmental and economic benefits.

Explanation

The two main elements of minimizing waste are prevention and control. Prevention refers to taking actions to reduce or eliminate waste generation at the source, such as implementing efficient production processes or using less packaging. Control, on the other hand, involves managing and handling waste in a responsible and sustainable manner, such as through recycling, composting, or proper disposal. By combining prevention and control strategies, waste can be minimized effectively, leading to environmental and economic benefits.

105. Which war reserve material (WRM) support is sourced using the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES)?

Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) taskings.

Joint, Air Force, and unit exercises.

Training events and competitions.

Small scale contingencies.

Small scale contingencies are the war reserve materials (WRM) support that is sourced using the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES). JOPES is a system used by the military to plan and execute joint operations, and it is specifically used for small scale contingencies. This means that in situations where there is a need for WRM support for small scale contingencies, JOPES is utilized to source and allocate the necessary resources.

Explanation

Small scale contingencies are the war reserve materials (WRM) support that is sourced using the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES). JOPES is a system used by the military to plan and execute joint operations, and it is specifically used for small scale contingencies. This means that in situations where there is a need for WRM support for small scale contingencies, JOPES is utilized to source and allocate the necessary resources.

106. A flight is leaving with a departure time of 0800. What is the latest time passenger service personnel can call in a firm meal order for that flight?

0600.

0645.

0700.

0715.

Passenger service personnel need to call in a firm meal order for the flight before the departure time. Since the flight is leaving at 0800, the latest time they can call in the order would be 0700, as it allows for enough time to process the order and have the meals ready before the flight takes off.

Explanation

Passenger service personnel need to call in a firm meal order for the flight before the departure time. Since the flight is leaving at 0800, the latest time they can call in the order would be 0700, as it allows for enough time to process the order and have the meals ready before the flight takes off.

107. For what type of drop is the Type V platform used?

Freedrop.

Low-velocity drop.

High-velocity drop.

All three types of airdrops.

The Type V platform is used for low-velocity drops. This means that it is specifically designed to handle drops where the velocity is relatively low. It may not be suitable for high-velocity drops or other types of airdrops.

Explanation

The Type V platform is used for low-velocity drops. This means that it is specifically designed to handle drops where the velocity is relatively low. It may not be suitable for high-velocity drops or other types of airdrops.

108. You are load planning cargo for a Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) aircraft and want to look up the aircraft specifications to safely plan the load. In which publication series would you look to find the information?

Air Force Instruction (AFI) 24-101.

Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I).

Air Mobility Command Instruction (AMCI) 24-101.

Air Mobility Command Pamphlet (AMCPAM) 24-2.

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Explanation

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109. Which automated system schedules, controls, and monitors the movement of passengers and cargo via air or surface transportation using tasking information?

Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

Global Air Transportation and Execution System (GATES).

Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

Logistics Module (LOGMOD).

The correct answer is Logistics Module (LOGMOD). LOGMOD is an automated system that is responsible for scheduling, controlling, and monitoring the movement of passengers and cargo via air or surface transportation using tasking information. It helps in efficiently managing logistics operations and ensuring timely transportation of goods and people.

Explanation

The correct answer is Logistics Module (LOGMOD). LOGMOD is an automated system that is responsible for scheduling, controlling, and monitoring the movement of passengers and cargo via air or surface transportation using tasking information. It helps in efficiently managing logistics operations and ensuring timely transportation of goods and people.

110. Which hazardous materials certifications allow personnel to sign the Shipper's Declaration for Dangerous Goods (SDDG)?

Hazardous materials preparer and technical specialist.

Hazardous materials handler and technical specialist.

Hazardous materials inspector and preparer.

Hazardous materials handler and inspector.

The hazardous materials preparer and technical specialist certifications allow personnel to sign the Shipper's Declaration for Dangerous Goods (SDDG). This means that individuals with these certifications are qualified to prepare and handle hazardous materials and have the necessary knowledge and expertise to accurately complete the required documentation for shipping dangerous goods. The other options, hazardous materials handler and technical specialist, hazardous materials inspector and preparer, and hazardous materials handler and inspector, do not specifically mention the ability to sign the SDDG, therefore they are not the correct answer.

Explanation

The hazardous materials preparer and technical specialist certifications allow personnel to sign the Shipper's Declaration for Dangerous Goods (SDDG). This means that individuals with these certifications are qualified to prepare and handle hazardous materials and have the necessary knowledge and expertise to accurately complete the required documentation for shipping dangerous goods. The other options, hazardous materials handler and technical specialist, hazardous materials inspector and preparer, and hazardous materials handler and inspector, do not specifically mention the ability to sign the SDDG, therefore they are not the correct answer.