CDC Z3dx7x Volume 1

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test? 

    • Computer Systems Programming
    • Cyber Systems Operations
    • Cyber Transport Systems
    • Cyber Surety
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About This Quiz

This CDC Z3DX7X Volume 1 quiz evaluates knowledge essential for specific Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs), focusing on systems programming, skill level advancements, and manpower planning. It's designed for Air Force personnel aiming to understand operational and staffing functions effectively.

CDC Z3dx7x Volume 1 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level? 

    • Minimum rank of SSgt

    • 6 months OJT for retrainees

    • Completion of AFSC specific requirements

    • Completion of AETC supplemental training course

    Correct Answer
    A. Completion of AETC supplemental training course
    Explanation
    The completion of AETC supplemental training course is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level. The other options, such as minimum rank of SSgt, 6 months OJT for retrainees, and completion of AFSC specific requirements, are all mandatory requirements for advancement.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission? 

    • CFP

    • UDM

    • ESD

    • QA

    Correct Answer
    A. CFP
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CFP. The CFP function is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel, who are responsible for providing technical support to users and managing computer systems. However, the specific AFSCs within the CFP function may vary depending on the unit's mission, as different specialties may be required to fulfill specific tasks or roles within the function.

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  • 4. 

    What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?

    • TO 00-5-15

    • MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA

    • AF Enlisted Classification Directory

    • CFETP Part II

    Correct Answer
    A. MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA. This document directs the Communications Focal point key processes.

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  • 5. 

    Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized a. at major command functional managers. 

    • At major command functional managers.

    • At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)

    • At the Air Force Personnel Center.

    • With career field managers.

    Correct Answer
    A. At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)". This means that the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at the Headquarters Air Force. This suggests that the decision-making and coordination for manpower planning and programming activities are carried out at the highest level of the Air Force organization.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function? 

    • Program Element Code (PEC)

    • Special Experience Identified (SEI)

    • Authorization Change Request (ACR)

    • Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Program Element Code (PEC)
    Explanation
    A Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. It is used to track and manage the costs associated with specific program elements within a larger project or system. The PEC helps to allocate resources, track expenses, and analyze the financial performance of the program. It provides a standardized way to categorize and organize costs, making it easier to budget and manage the overall program.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)? 

    • Construct career paths.

    • Manage skill-level training requirements.

    • Establish requirements for entry into the career field.

    • Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).
    Explanation
    The responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is to oversee and manage various aspects of the career field. This includes constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM. This task is typically handled by other personnel management offices within the Air Force.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions? 

    • Program Element Code (PEC)

    • Unit Manpower Document (UMD)

    • Authorization Change Request (ACR)

    • Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Manpower Document (UMD)
    Explanation
    The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions. It provides detailed information about the authorized positions within the organization, including the position title, grade, and skill requirements. The UMD is used to track and manage personnel assignments, ensure that the organization has the necessary manpower to carry out its mission, and make informed decisions regarding manpower allocation and utilization. It serves as a key resource for workforce planning and management within the organization.

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  • 9. 

    Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)? a. MAJCOM director of Communications (A6). 

    • MAJCOM director of Communications (A6)

    • MAJCOM Functional Manager

    • Career Field Manager (CFM)

    • SAF/CIO A6

    Correct Answer
    A. MAJCOM Functional Manager
    Explanation
    The MAJCOM Functional Manager serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This individual is responsible for representing the MAJCOM's interests and ensuring that the career field's training requirements and utilization are aligned with the command's needs and objectives. They play a crucial role in decision-making and ensuring that the career field's training and utilization plans are in line with the MAJCOM's overall strategy.

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  • 10. 

    Which segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/ Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing? 

    • Segment 1

    • Segment 2

    • Segment 3

    • Segment 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Segment 2
    Explanation
    Segment 2 of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process focuses on training proficiency levels and training resourcing. This segment is likely to involve assessing the proficiency levels of individuals or teams and determining the resources required for their training. It may involve analyzing the current training programs and identifying any gaps or areas for improvement. By concentrating on training proficiency levels and training resourcing, Segment 2 aims to ensure that the necessary resources are allocated effectively to enhance training outcomes.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)? 

    • Draft and sign minutes

    • Finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)

    • Finalize Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description

    • Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses

    Correct Answer
    A. Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses
    Explanation
    The Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) is responsible for various actions related to training and education plans, including drafting and signing minutes, finalizing part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and finalizing the Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description. However, they are not responsible for finalizing Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)? 

    • Air Education and Training Command (AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).

    • AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer.

    • Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM).

    • MAJCOM Functional Manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer.
    Explanation
    The AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This suggests that their presence at the workshop is not mandatory but can be beneficial. The other options, such as the Air Education and Training Command (AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM), Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM), and MAJCOM Functional Manager, are not mentioned as optional attendees, implying that their attendance is required or expected.

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  • 13. 

    What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)? 

    • Occupational Analysis Report (OAR)

    • Quality Training Package (QTP)

    • Subject Matter Experts (SME)

    • Job Quality Standards (JQS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR)
    Explanation
    The Occupational Analysis Report (OAR) is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). The OAR provides a comprehensive analysis of the occupation, including the knowledge, skills, and abilities required for the job. This information is then used to develop the CFETP and STS, which outline the training and education requirements for individuals in the career field. The OAR serves as a foundation for the development of these documents, ensuring that they accurately reflect the needs of the occupation.

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  • 14. 

    What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD) 

    • Remedy

    • Situational Report (SITREP)

    • Telephone Management System (TMS)

    • Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)
    Explanation
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). IMDS is an automated information system that allows users to track and manage maintenance activities for various equipment and systems. It provides a centralized database for recording and storing maintenance data, including actions taken, parts used, and labor hours. By using IMDS, organizations can effectively document and track maintenance actions on items with SRDs, ensuring proper maintenance and accountability.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor? 

    • Review Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly.

    • Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)

    • Match reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL).

    • Schedule and distribute daily maintenance actions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)
    Explanation
    The MDC monitor is responsible for reviewing IMDS reports to ensure job status is reflected properly, matching reports with OIL, and scheduling and distributing daily maintenance actions. However, ensuring equipment status is entered into ESR is not mentioned as a common duty of the MDC monitor.

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  • 16. 

    Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished? 

    • Communications Focal Point

    • Flight Commander/Chief

    • Production Controller

    • Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight Commander/Chief
    Explanation
    The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. They oversee the maintenance operations and ensure that all inspections are conducted on time and according to the established procedures. They coordinate with the maintenance personnel, production controller, and other relevant parties to ensure that inspections are properly scheduled and carried out. This role is crucial in maintaining the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center? 

    • MTL

    • JQS

    • Current CFETP

    • Milestones for tasks and CDC completion

    Correct Answer
    A. JQS
    Explanation
    The Master Training Plan includes the JQS only if it is applicable to the work center. This means that if the work center requires the Job Qualification Standard (JQS) for their training, it will be included in the Master Training Plan. However, if the work center does not require the JQS, it will not be included in the plan. Therefore, the inclusion of the JQS in the Master Training Plan is dependent on its relevance to the specific work center.

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  • 18. 

    Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance? 

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    • 120

    Correct Answer
    A. 120
    Explanation
    Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within 120 days of new equipment/system acceptance. This means that within 120 days of accepting new equipment or a new system, a certain number of ARC personnel will be evaluated to ensure their proficiency and readiness in operating the equipment or system. This evaluation helps to identify any training needs or deficiencies and ensures that the personnel are fully prepared to use the new equipment or system effectively.

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  • 19. 

    Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)? 

    • Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.

    • Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission.

    • Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities.

    • Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.
    Explanation
    The statement "Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost" is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM) because ORM aims to enhance mission effectiveness, integrate ORM into mission processes, and train and motivate leaders, Airmen, and employees to manage risk. The given statement suggests actively seeking ways to decrease effectiveness, which is contradictory to the purpose of ORM.

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  • 20. 

    How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)? 

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    Operational Risk Management (ORM) typically involves six steps. These steps include identifying risks, assessing risks, developing risk management strategies, implementing risk controls, monitoring and reviewing risks, and finally, communicating and reporting risks. Each step is crucial in managing operational risks effectively and ensuring the organization's smooth functioning. Therefore, the correct answer is 6.

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  • 21. 

    Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on 

    • AF Form 55

    • AF Form 971

    • AF Form 623A

    • AF Form 623 A and AF Form 55

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 55
    Explanation
    Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is specifically designed for documenting and tracking safety training completion. It allows supervisors to record the details of the training, including the date, location, and type of training. By using AF Form 55, supervisors can easily keep track of which employees have completed their safety training and ensure that all necessary training is being documented and maintained properly.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis? 

    • Job Safety Training (JST)

    • Job Hazard Analysis (JHA)

    • Task Hazard Analysis (THA)

    • Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Job Safety Training (JST)
    Explanation
    The term "Job Safety Training (JST)" is not a term for Job Safety Analysis. Job Safety Analysis (JSA) is a systematic process that identifies potential hazards and risks associated with a specific job or task. It involves breaking down the job into individual steps, identifying potential hazards at each step, and implementing controls to mitigate those hazards. On the other hand, Job Safety Training (JST) refers to the training provided to employees to ensure they have the knowledge and skills to perform their jobs safely. While training is an essential component of job safety, it is not a term used specifically for Job Safety Analysis.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00–5–1? 

    • Time Compliance Technical Oder (TCTO) procedures

    • Resources required to manage and use TOs

    • Infrastructure to manage and use TOs

    • Training to manage and use TOs

    Correct Answer
    A. Time Compliance Technical Oder (TCTO) procedures
    Explanation
    The information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1 is the Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures. The other options, such as resources required to manage and use TOs, infrastructure to manage and use TOs, and training to manage and use TOs, are all mentioned as information contained in TO 00-5-1.

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  • 24. 

    Recommended technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on 

    • AFTO Form 673

    • AFTO Form 22

    • AF Form 673

    • AF Form 22

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO Form 22
  • 25. 

    Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment? 

    • Library Custodian

    • Flight commander/chief

    • Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)

    • Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight commander/chief
    Explanation
    The flight commander/chief determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment. They are responsible for overseeing and managing the operations of the flight and have the authority to make decisions regarding the necessary documentation and procedures for equipment maintenance and operation.

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  • 26. 

    Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)? 

    • Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).

    • American National Standard Institute (ANSI).

    • Information and Communications Technology (ICT).

    • Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

    Correct Answer
    A. American National Standard Institute (ANSI).
    Explanation
    The American National Standard Institute (ANSI) provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA). ANSI is a non-profit organization that oversees the development of voluntary consensus standards for various industries, including telecommunications. TIA is a trade association that represents the telecommunications industry and develops standards for telecommunications equipment and systems. By receiving accreditation from ANSI, TIA's standards are recognized as meeting certain criteria for quality, reliability, and interoperability. This accreditation helps ensure that TIA's standards are widely accepted and adopted by industry stakeholders.

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  • 27. 

    Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards? 

    • Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).

    • American National Standard Institute (ANSI).

    • Information and Communications Technology (ICT).

    • Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). The ECIA develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the ANSI designation of EIA standards. This association is responsible for setting industry standards and promoting the growth and success of the electronic components industry.

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  • 28. 

    Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official? 

    • The authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR).

    • Commander/director responsible for the guidance.

    • The authoring OPR’s supervisor.

    • Publications Manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. The authoring OPR’s supervisor.
    Explanation
    The authoring OPR's supervisor should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official because they are responsible for overseeing the work of the authoring OPR and ensuring its accuracy and compliance with guidelines.

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  • 29. 

    What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems? 

    • Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI).

    • Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).

    • Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).

    • Military only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).
    Explanation
    Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems are commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable across all federal and non-federal systems. These systems are pre-built and commercially available, making them widely recognized and easily understandable. They are also designed to be easily maintained and updated, ensuring their longevity and usability. Additionally, COTS systems are often subjected to rigorous testing and evaluation, making them defendable against potential vulnerabilities or threats. Therefore, COTS systems provide a standardized and reliable solution for creating a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain across various systems.

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  • 30. 

    The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title 

    • 10

    • 15

    • 37

    • 50

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10. The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title 10. This means that the establishment and functioning of the Department of Defense is outlined and authorized by the laws and regulations specified in Title 10 of the United States Code. This code provides the legal basis for the existence and operations of the DOD as a key component of the executive branch of the US government.

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  • 31. 

    Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title 15

    • 15

    • 18

    • 32

    • 37

    Correct Answer
    A. 32
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 32 because Title 32 of the United States Code (USC) outlines the procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty. This title specifically deals with the National Guard and provides guidance on when and how they can be activated for federal service.

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  • 32. 

    Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites? 

    • Wing Commander

    • Numbered Air Force Commander

    • Communications Squadron Commander

    • Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing Commander
    Explanation
    The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites. This individual holds the authority to select and assign individuals to these positions within the Air Force.

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  • 33. 

    When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called 

    • Misuse of position

    • A covered relationships

    • Non-public information

    • Personal conflict of interest

    Correct Answer
    A. Misuse of position
    Explanation
    When a person uses their position for private or personal gain, it is considered as a misuse of position. This means that the individual is taking advantage of their authority or influence for their own personal benefit, rather than acting in the best interest of their organization or the public. This behavior is unethical and can lead to negative consequences such as corruption or a breach of trust.

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  • 34. 

    Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities? 

    • Military Personnel (MILPERS)

    • Military Construction (MILCON)

    • Operation and Maintenance (O&M)

    • Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E)

    Correct Answer
    A. Military Construction (MILCON)
    Explanation
    MILCON funds are used for the construction, expansion, or relocation of military facilities. This includes the cost of relocating facilities. MILPERS funds cover the cost of military personnel, O&M funds cover the day-to-day operations and maintenance of facilities, and RDT&E funds cover research, development, test, and evaluation activities. Therefore, MILCON is the correct answer for covering the cost of relocating facilities.

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  • 35. 

    What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions? 

    • $100,000

    • $250,000

    • $750,000

    • $1,000,000

    Correct Answer
    A. $750,000
    Explanation
    Under normal conditions, the maximum amount that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover for minor construction projects is $750,000.

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  • 36. 

    In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 

    • 10-401

    • 33-360

    • 38-101

    • 64-117

    Correct Answer
    A. 64-117
  • 37. 

    At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program? 

    • Approval Official (AO).

    • Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).

    • DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO).

    • Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).
    Explanation
    The Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC) is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring of the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program at the installation level. They ensure that the program is effectively managed and adheres to the relevant policies and regulations. The A/OPC acts as a liaison between the installation and the higher-level program management offices, coordinating activities and providing guidance to cardholders and approving officials. They play a crucial role in ensuring the program's success and compliance at the installation level.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders? 

    • Making authorized transactions.

    • Reconciling transactions.

    • Logging transactions.

    • Funds accountability.

    Correct Answer
    A. Funds accountability.
    Explanation
    Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders have several responsibilities, including making authorized transactions, reconciling transactions, and logging transactions. However, funds accountability is not one of their responsibilities. This means that GPC cardholders are not responsible for tracking and managing the funds allocated for purchases made with the card. This responsibility typically falls on the government agency or department that issued the GPC.

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  • 39. 

    Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in 

    • Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10–201.

    • Joint Publication 1–02.

    • Joint Publication 1–03.

    • AFI 10-401

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 10-401
    Explanation
    The given correct answer, AFI 10-401, is the specific Air Force Instruction that provides detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request. This instruction is likely to contain the necessary guidelines, procedures, and forms required for individuals or organizations to request a reclama or report a shortfall in the Air Force. The other options, Joint Publication 1-02 and Joint Publication 1-03, are not specific Air Force instructions and may not provide the relevant information needed for reclama or shortfall requests.

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  • 40. 

    Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year? 

    • Air Force Chief of Staff

    • Secretary of the Air Force

    • Selected major command Command Chiefs

    • Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Chief of Staff
    Explanation
    After the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year, the selections are reviewed by the Air Force Chief of Staff. This individual holds the highest-ranking position in the United States Air Force and is responsible for overseeing the entire organization. Their review ensures that the selection process was fair and that the chosen individuals truly exemplify the qualities and achievements expected of an Outstanding Airman of the Year.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented? 

    • Wing

    • Group

    • Squadron

    • Major command

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing
    Explanation
    The highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is the Wing.

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  • 42. 

    Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction 

    • 36-2604

    • 36-2803

    • 36-2805

    • 36-2845

    Correct Answer
    A. 36-2845
    Explanation
    Air Force instruction 36-2845 provides guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community. This instruction likely outlines the criteria, eligibility, and procedures for awarding individuals within the Cyber community for their exceptional performance or contributions. It is a resource that individuals within the Air Force can refer to in order to understand the specific awards available to them in the Cyber field.

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  • 43. 

    What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards? 

    • 1 Oct - 30 Sep

    • 1 Jan - 31 Dec

    • 1 Apr - 31 Mar

    • 1 Jul - 30 Jun

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 Oct - 30 Sep
    Explanation
    The inclusive dates for the Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 1 October to 30 September.

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  • 44. 

    The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to 

    • 53

    • 63

    • 73

    • 83

    Correct Answer
    A. 63
    Explanation
    The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is 63.

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  • 45. 

    What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board? 

    • Monitor

    • Scanner

    • Keyboard

    • Graphics card

    Correct Answer
    A. Keyboard
    Explanation
    A keyboard is a device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board. These switches are responsible for registering the input of each key press and transmitting the corresponding signal to the computer. Keyboards are essential input devices for computers and other electronic devices, allowing users to input text, commands, and various other functions.

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  • 46. 

    A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers? 

    • At least 5

    • No more than 10

    • No more than 20

    • 20 or more

    Correct Answer
    A. No more than 20
    Explanation
    A workgroup is a simple grouping of computers, and it can consist of any number of computers as long as it does not exceed 20.

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  • 47. 

    Which is not a type of UNIX pathname? 

    • Simple

    • Relative

    • Positive

    • Absolute

    Correct Answer
    A. Positive
  • 48. 

    Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure? 

    • Norton Utilities

    • Acrobat Reader

    • Virus Scan

    • WinZip

    Correct Answer
    A. Norton Utilities
    Explanation
    Norton Utilities is the correct answer because it is a software application that provides tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure. It includes features such as disk optimization, file recovery, system diagnostics, and data backup. These tools can help users recover accidentally deleted files, fix disk errors, and optimize system performance. Norton Utilities is specifically designed to address common computer issues and provide solutions for data recovery and system protection.

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  • 49. 

    The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers? 

    • High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).

    • Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).

    • Distance Vector and Link State.

    • RS–232 and RS–530.

    Correct Answer
    A. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The IEEE divides the OSI Data Link Layer into these two sublayers. The Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer is responsible for error control and flow control, while the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical media and handling data transmission. These two sublayers work together to ensure reliable and efficient data communication within a network.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jan 20, 2025 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 20, 2025
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 22, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Apaweng

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