CDC Z3dx7x Volume 1

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1. Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user

Explanation

Biometrics is the correct answer because it is the identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometrics refers to the measurement and analysis of unique physical or behavioral characteristics, such as fingerprints, iris patterns, or voiceprints, to verify an individual's identity. In this case, the fingerprint is used as a biometric identifier to authenticate and grant access to the user.

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About This Quiz
CDC Z3dx7x Volume 1 - Quiz

This CDC Z3DX7X Volume 1 quiz evaluates knowledge essential for specific Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs), focusing on systems programming, skill level advancements, and manpower planning. It's designed... see morefor Air Force personnel aiming to understand operational and staffing functions effectively. see less

2. What is the most common wireless networking standard? 

Explanation

802.11 is the most common wireless networking standard because it is widely used for Wi-Fi networks. It provides high-speed wireless connectivity and is compatible with various devices such as laptops, smartphones, and IoT devices. The 802.11 standard offers different versions, such as 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n, and 802.11ac, each with its own specifications and capabilities. This standard has become the industry standard for wireless networking due to its reliability, compatibility, and widespread adoption.

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3. Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack

Explanation

Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves the unsolicited sending of bulk messages, typically advertising or promotional content, to a large number of recipients. While spam can be disruptive and time-consuming to deal with, it does not directly harm or compromise the security of a computer system or personal information in the same way that viruses, spyware, or phishing attacks do.

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4. Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program? 

Explanation

Patches are a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program. They are used to fix vulnerabilities and improve the security of the software. Patches are typically released by the software vendor and can be applied to the existing software installation to update and enhance its functionality.

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5. When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called 

Explanation

When a person uses their position for private or personal gain, it is considered as a misuse of position. This means that the individual is taking advantage of their authority or influence for their own personal benefit, rather than acting in the best interest of their organization or the public. This behavior is unethical and can lead to negative consequences such as corruption or a breach of trust.

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6. Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one's favor? 

Explanation

Information Superiority refers to the advantage or imbalance in one's favor within the information environment. It implies having access to and control over superior information resources, technologies, and capabilities compared to one's adversaries. This advantage allows for better decision-making, situational awareness, and the ability to exploit and disrupt enemy information systems effectively. Information Superiority is crucial in modern warfare, as it enables military forces to gain a significant edge over their opponents by leveraging the power of information and technology.

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7. Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user

Explanation

The knowledge-based identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user. This process involves the user providing a unique password that they have previously set up and is known only to them. The system then verifies the password to determine if the user is authorized to access the system or resources. This method is commonly used in various systems and platforms to ensure secure access and protect sensitive information.

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8. What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) reserved address is used for loop back

Explanation

The loopback address is a reserved IP address used to test network software on a local machine. It is commonly represented as 127.0.0.1 in IPv4. This address allows a computer to send network traffic to itself, allowing software to communicate with itself without the need for an external network connection.

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9. The design of communications network is known as 

Explanation

The design of communications network is known as network architecture. Network architecture refers to the framework or structure that defines how a network is organized, including the layout of components, protocols, and technologies used. It involves planning and designing the overall structure, connectivity, and functionality of a network, taking into consideration factors such as scalability, reliability, and performance. Network architecture is crucial in determining how data is transmitted, routed, and processed within a network, and it plays a key role in ensuring efficient and effective communication between devices and systems.

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10. What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board? 

Explanation

A keyboard is a device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board. These switches are responsible for registering the input of each key press and transmitting the corresponding signal to the computer. Keyboards are essential input devices for computers and other electronic devices, allowing users to input text, commands, and various other functions.

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11. A modem is a device that 

Explanation

A modem is a device that modulates and demodulates data signals. Modulation is the process of converting digital data into analog signals that can be transmitted over a communication channel, while demodulation is the process of converting the received analog signals back into digital data. Therefore, a modem enables the transmission of data over various communication links by converting the data signals into a format that can be transmitted and received effectively.

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12. Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure? 

Explanation

Norton Utilities is the correct answer because it is a software application that provides tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure. It includes features such as disk optimization, file recovery, system diagnostics, and data backup. These tools can help users recover accidentally deleted files, fix disk errors, and optimize system performance. Norton Utilities is specifically designed to address common computer issues and provide solutions for data recovery and system protection.

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13. Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity? 

Explanation

The Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC) is responsible for monitoring and controlling Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity. It provides situational awareness by constantly monitoring the network for suspicious or malicious activity. The I-NOSC is tasked with reporting any suspicious or malicious activity to ensure the security and integrity of the Air Force network.

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14. Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission? 

Explanation

The correct answer is CFP. The CFP function is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel, who are responsible for providing technical support to users and managing computer systems. However, the specific AFSCs within the CFP function may vary depending on the unit's mission, as different specialties may be required to fulfill specific tasks or roles within the function.

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15. What class uses a range of 1–126 in the first octet of an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)

Explanation

Class A uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address. This class is used for large networks, as it provides a large number of host addresses. The remaining three octets can be used to address hosts within the network.

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16. Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on 

Explanation

Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is specifically designed for documenting and tracking safety training completion. It allows supervisors to record the details of the training, including the date, location, and type of training. By using AF Form 55, supervisors can easily keep track of which employees have completed their safety training and ensure that all necessary training is being documented and maintained properly.

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17. What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component? 

Explanation

A star topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component, usually a switch or hub. In this topology, all communication between computers is routed through the centralized component, which acts as a central point of control. This allows for easy management and troubleshooting, as each computer can be individually connected or disconnected without affecting the rest of the network.

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18. Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented? 

Explanation

The highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is the Wing.

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19. What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards? 

Explanation

The inclusive dates for the Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 1 October to 30 September.

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20. Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)? 

Explanation

The statement "Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost" is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM) because ORM aims to enhance mission effectiveness, integrate ORM into mission processes, and train and motivate leaders, Airmen, and employees to manage risk. The given statement suggests actively seeking ways to decrease effectiveness, which is contradictory to the purpose of ORM.

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21. What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area? 

Explanation

A Local Area Network (LAN) is a network that connects a group of computers and associated devices within a small geographic area, such as an office building or a campus. LANs typically use a common communications line, such as Ethernet cables or Wi-Fi, to enable communication and resource sharing among the connected devices. Unlike Wide Area Networks (WANs) that cover larger areas, LANs are limited to a specific location and are commonly used in homes, schools, and small businesses.

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22. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers

Explanation

The correct answer is Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The IEEE divides the OSI Data Link Layer into these two sublayers. The Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer is responsible for error control and flow control, while the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical media and handling data transmission. These two sublayers work together to ensure reliable and efficient data communication within a network.

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23. Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level? 

Explanation

The completion of AETC supplemental training course is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level. The other options, such as minimum rank of SSgt, 6 months OJT for retrainees, and completion of AFSC specific requirements, are all mandatory requirements for advancement.

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24. What are the two classifications of transport protocols

Explanation

The correct answer is Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented. These are the two classifications of transport protocols. Connection-oriented protocols establish a dedicated connection between the sender and receiver before data transmission, ensuring reliable and ordered delivery of data. Connectionless-oriented protocols, on the other hand, do not establish a dedicated connection and do not guarantee reliable delivery, but they offer faster and more efficient data transmission.

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25. How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)? 

Explanation

Operational Risk Management (ORM) typically involves six steps. These steps include identifying risks, assessing risks, developing risk management strategies, implementing risk controls, monitoring and reviewing risks, and finally, communicating and reporting risks. Each step is crucial in managing operational risks effectively and ensuring the organization's smooth functioning. Therefore, the correct answer is 6.

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26. Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes? 

Explanation

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes. It analyzes various factors such as network congestion, link quality, and routing metrics to determine the most efficient route for data transmission. By constantly monitoring the network and adjusting routing tables, dynamic routing protocols ensure that data is sent through the most optimal path, improving network efficiency and reliability.

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27. What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoD called? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency. The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the Department of Defense (DoD). DISA provides IT and communication support to the military services, combatant commands, and other DoD organizations. It is responsible for managing and operating the DoD Information Network (DoDIN), which is the global enterprise network that supports DoD operations and missions. DISA plays a critical role in ensuring secure and reliable communication and information systems for the DoD.

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28. What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations? 

Explanation

National Guard Guardsmen must be in Title 10 status to execute cyber operations. Title 10 refers to the section of the United States Code that governs the role and organization of the military. Being in Title 10 status means that Guardsmen are operating under federal authority and can be deployed for cyber operations as part of their duties.

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29. Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities

Explanation

MILCON funds are used for the construction, expansion, or relocation of military facilities. This includes the cost of relocating facilities. MILPERS funds cover the cost of military personnel, O&M funds cover the day-to-day operations and maintenance of facilities, and RDT&E funds cover research, development, test, and evaluation activities. Therefore, MILCON is the correct answer for covering the cost of relocating facilities.

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30. What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?

Explanation

The correct answer is MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA. This document directs the Communications Focal point key processes.

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31. What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD) 

Explanation

The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). IMDS is an automated information system that allows users to track and manage maintenance activities for various equipment and systems. It provides a centralized database for recording and storing maintenance data, including actions taken, parts used, and labor hours. By using IMDS, organizations can effectively document and track maintenance actions on items with SRDs, ensuring proper maintenance and accountability.

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32. What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region like a city? 

Explanation

A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a network that interconnects users with computer resources in a specific geographic area or region, such as a city. It covers a larger area than a Local Area Network (LAN) but smaller than a Wide Area Network (WAN). MANs are typically used by organizations or institutions that need to connect multiple locations within a city or metropolitan area, allowing them to share resources and communicate efficiently.

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33. Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Computer Systems Programming because this specialty code involves programming and developing computer systems. In order to excel in this field, members must possess the necessary skills and knowledge in electronic data processing. Therefore, passing the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test is a requirement for this AFSC.

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34. Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)? 

Explanation

The responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is to oversee and manage various aspects of the career field. This includes constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM. This task is typically handled by other personnel management offices within the Air Force.

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35. Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions? 

Explanation

The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions. It provides detailed information about the authorized positions within the organization, including the position title, grade, and skill requirements. The UMD is used to track and manage personnel assignments, ensure that the organization has the necessary manpower to carry out its mission, and make informed decisions regarding manpower allocation and utilization. It serves as a key resource for workforce planning and management within the organization.

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36. Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished? 

Explanation

The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. They oversee the maintenance operations and ensure that all inspections are conducted on time and according to the established procedures. They coordinate with the maintenance personnel, production controller, and other relevant parties to ensure that inspections are properly scheduled and carried out. This role is crucial in maintaining the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft.

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37. What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems? 

Explanation

Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems are commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable across all federal and non-federal systems. These systems are pre-built and commercially available, making them widely recognized and easily understandable. They are also designed to be easily maintained and updated, ensuring their longevity and usability. Additionally, COTS systems are often subjected to rigorous testing and evaluation, making them defendable against potential vulnerabilities or threats. Therefore, COTS systems provide a standardized and reliable solution for creating a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain across various systems.

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38. Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service? 

Explanation

The customer must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service. This means that it is the responsibility of the customer to ensure that they have the necessary encryption devices in order to connect to the service securely. The other options, such as the Security Manager, National Security Agency, and Communications Squadron, are not responsible for providing these encryption devices.

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39. What regulates how much information passes over a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Sliding Window. In TCP, the sliding window is a mechanism that regulates the amount of data that can be sent before receiving an acknowledgment from the receiving host. It allows for efficient flow control by adjusting the window size based on network conditions and the receiver's ability to process data. The sender can continuously send data up to the window size, and the receiver acknowledges the received data, allowing the sender to send more. This helps in optimizing the throughput and reliability of the TCP connection.

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40. The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to 

Explanation

The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is 63.

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41. Which common port contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies? 

Explanation

Port 8080 is commonly used for HTTP servers and proxies. While the default port for HTTP is 80, port 8080 is often used as an alternative to avoid conflicts with other applications that may be using port 80. It allows for the hosting of multiple web servers on the same machine, each using a different port. Therefore, port 8080 is a common choice for HTTP servers and proxies.

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42. What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Physical. Physical topology refers to the physical layout of devices and media in a network. It defines how the devices are connected and the physical arrangement of cables, wires, and other network components. This includes the placement of routers, switches, hubs, and other network devices, as well as the physical connections between them.

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43. Which transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications

Explanation

Twisted pair cable is the primary carrier of voice communications because it is a widely used and cost-effective transmission medium. It consists of two insulated copper wires twisted together, which helps to reduce interference and crosstalk. Twisted pair cables are commonly used for telephone lines and can transmit voice signals effectively over long distances. While fiber optic cable can also carry voice communications, it is primarily used for high-speed data transmission. Coaxial and twinax cables are typically used for video and data transmission, rather than voice communications.

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44. Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites

Explanation

The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites. This individual holds the authority to select and assign individuals to these positions within the Air Force.

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45. What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions? 

Explanation

Under normal conditions, the maximum amount that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover for minor construction projects is $750,000.

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46. Which Electronic Warfare capability uses jamming to reduce the adversary's use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)? 

Explanation

Electronic attack is the correct answer because it refers to the use of jamming techniques to disrupt or degrade the adversary's ability to use the electromagnetic spectrum. By jamming their communications or radar systems, electronic attack reduces the effectiveness of their electronic warfare capabilities and hinders their ability to operate in the electromagnetic spectrum.

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47. Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized a. at major command functional managers. 

Explanation

The correct answer is "At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)". This means that the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at the Headquarters Air Force. This suggests that the decision-making and coordination for manpower planning and programming activities are carried out at the highest level of the Air Force organization.

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48. Which of the following is a true statement about Electronic Warfare (EW) and Computer Network Operations (CNO)? 

Explanation

Electronic Warfare (EW) involves the use of electromagnetic energy to control the electromagnetic spectrum, including radar, radio, and other communication systems. It encompasses activities such as electronic jamming, electronic deception, and electronic warfare support. Therefore, the statement that EW concerns radiated energy is correct. However, the answer does not specify that CNO also concerns radiated energy. Therefore, it cannot be concluded from the given options whether CNO concerns radiated energy or not.

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49. Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders? 

Explanation

Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders have several responsibilities, including making authorized transactions, reconciling transactions, and logging transactions. However, funds accountability is not one of their responsibilities. This means that GPC cardholders are not responsible for tracking and managing the funds allocated for purchases made with the card. This responsibility typically falls on the government agency or department that issued the GPC.

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50. Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function? 

Explanation

A Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. It is used to track and manage the costs associated with specific program elements within a larger project or system. The PEC helps to allocate resources, track expenses, and analyze the financial performance of the program. It provides a standardized way to categorize and organize costs, making it easier to budget and manage the overall program.

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51. Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00–5–1? 

Explanation

The information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1 is the Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures. The other options, such as resources required to manage and use TOs, infrastructure to manage and use TOs, and training to manage and use TOs, are all mentioned as information contained in TO 00-5-1.

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52. A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers? 

Explanation

A workgroup is a simple grouping of computers, and it can consist of any number of computers as long as it does not exceed 20.

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53. The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title 

Explanation

The correct answer is 10. The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title 10. This means that the establishment and functioning of the Department of Defense is outlined and authorized by the laws and regulations specified in Title 10 of the United States Code. This code provides the legal basis for the existence and operations of the DOD as a key component of the executive branch of the US government.

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54. What is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects, on either our behalf or the adversary's, and maximizing cyberspace superiority? 

Explanation

Careful planning is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects and maximizing cyberspace superiority. It allows for the identification of potential risks and vulnerabilities, enabling proactive measures to be taken to prevent or minimize their impact. By carefully planning cybersecurity strategies and defenses, organizations can anticipate and counter potential threats effectively. This approach also helps in developing robust incident response plans and ensuring the efficient allocation of resources. Overall, careful planning plays a crucial role in maintaining a secure and dominant position in cyberspace.

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55. Which of these lists the fields in the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data. The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a connectionless protocol that operates at the transport layer of the internet protocol suite. The UDP segment contains several fields, including the source port, which identifies the sending application, and the destination port, which identifies the receiving application. The length field specifies the length of the UDP segment, including the header and data. The checksum field is used for error detection, and the data field contains the actual payload or message being transmitted.

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56. How many bits are in an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address

Explanation

An Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address consists of 32 bits. This means that there are a total of 2^32 (4,294,967,296) unique IPv4 addresses available. Each of these addresses is represented by four sets of numbers separated by periods, with each set ranging from 0 to 255. The 32-bit address allows for a large number of unique addresses, but with the growth of the internet, IPv6 addresses with 128 bits are now being used to accommodate the increasing demand for IP addresses.

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57. What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes? 

Explanation

Class C addresses are used for networks with about 250 nodes. Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which allows for a maximum of 254 usable host addresses. This is suitable for networks with approximately 250 devices. Class D is used for multicast addresses, Class E is reserved for experimental purposes, and Class F is reserved for future use.

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58. The range of well-known port numbers is 

Explanation

The range of well-known port numbers is from 0 to 1023. This range is reserved for the most commonly used protocols and services, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). These ports are standardized and assigned by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) to ensure consistent communication between network devices. Ports within this range are often restricted or monitored by firewalls and security measures to protect against unauthorized access.

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59. What Data Link Layer network device logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks? 

Explanation

A bridge is a Data Link Layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It operates by examining the MAC addresses of incoming frames and forwarding them to the appropriate segment based on the destination MAC address. This segmentation helps to reduce collisions and improve network performance by limiting the scope of broadcast traffic. Unlike a hub, which simply broadcasts incoming frames to all connected devices, a bridge selectively forwards frames, making it more efficient in dividing the network into separate collision domains.

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60. Two basic routing activities are determining optimal routing paths and 

Explanation

The correct answer is "transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork." This is because routing activities involve determining the best paths for packets to travel through a network, ensuring that they reach their intended destination efficiently. This process involves making decisions based on factors such as network congestion, latency, and available bandwidth. The term "datagrams" refers to the packets of data that are transmitted across the network. Therefore, determining optimal routing paths and transporting packets through an internetwork are essential components of routing activities.

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61. Which type of cable is associated with the original designs of the Ethernet standard? 

Explanation

Coaxial cable is associated with the original designs of the Ethernet standard. In the early days of Ethernet, coaxial cable was used to connect computers and other devices in a local area network. It provided a reliable and efficient means of transmitting data signals over short distances. Coaxial cable consists of a central conductor surrounded by insulation and a metallic shield, which helps to minimize interference and maintain signal integrity. Although newer Ethernet standards have transitioned to other types of cables, such as twisted-pair and fiber optic, coaxial cable played a crucial role in the development of Ethernet technology.

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62. In a connection-oriented protocol, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), what must happen before data is transmitted between clients

Explanation

Before data is transmitted between clients in a connection-oriented protocol like TCP, the connection must be established. This involves a handshake process where the client and server exchange control messages to set up a reliable communication channel. During this process, both parties negotiate parameters, synchronize sequence numbers, and establish initial sequence numbers for data transmission. Once the connection is established, data can be transmitted securely and reliably between the clients.

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63. Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis? 

Explanation

The term "Job Safety Training (JST)" is not a term for Job Safety Analysis. Job Safety Analysis (JSA) is a systematic process that identifies potential hazards and risks associated with a specific job or task. It involves breaking down the job into individual steps, identifying potential hazards at each step, and implementing controls to mitigate those hazards. On the other hand, Job Safety Training (JST) refers to the training provided to employees to ensure they have the knowledge and skills to perform their jobs safely. While training is an essential component of job safety, it is not a term used specifically for Job Safety Analysis.

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64. Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment? 

Explanation

The flight commander/chief determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment. They are responsible for overseeing and managing the operations of the flight and have the authority to make decisions regarding the necessary documentation and procedures for equipment maintenance and operation.

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65. What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for multicast addressing

Explanation

Class D is the correct answer because it is the designated class for multicast addressing in IPv4. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are used to send data to a group of devices rather than a single destination. Multicast addresses are used for applications such as video streaming, online gaming, and audio conferencing, where data needs to be sent to multiple recipients simultaneously.

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66. Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center

Explanation

The Master Training Plan includes the JQS only if it is applicable to the work center. This means that if the work center requires the Job Qualification Standard (JQS) for their training, it will be included in the Master Training Plan. However, if the work center does not require the JQS, it will not be included in the plan. Therefore, the inclusion of the JQS in the Master Training Plan is dependent on its relevance to the specific work center.

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67. Which is not a type of UNIX pathname? 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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68. Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)? 

Explanation

The AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This suggests that their presence at the workshop is not mandatory but can be beneficial. The other options, such as the Air Education and Training Command (AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM), Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM), and MAJCOM Functional Manager, are not mentioned as optional attendees, implying that their attendance is required or expected.

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69. Which 802.11 standard is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz? 

Explanation

The correct answer is 802.11n. This standard is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies, providing greater flexibility and compatibility with different devices and networks. It offers faster data transfer speeds and improved range compared to previous standards like 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g.

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70. Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title 15

Explanation

The correct answer is 32 because Title 32 of the United States Code (USC) outlines the procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty. This title specifically deals with the National Guard and provides guidance on when and how they can be activated for federal service.

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71. Which Cyberspace Defense Weapon System sub-discipline determines the extent of intrusions, develops courses of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executes response actions? 

Explanation

Incident Response is the correct answer because it involves determining the extent of intrusions, developing courses of action to mitigate threats, and executing response actions. This sub-discipline focuses on effectively and efficiently responding to cybersecurity incidents, such as cyber attacks or data breaches, to minimize damage, restore normal operations, and prevent future incidents. It involves activities like identifying and containing the incident, analyzing the impact, and implementing remediation measures.

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72. Routers operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer? 

Explanation

Routers operate at the Network layer of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks. Routers make decisions based on network addresses to determine the best path for data transmission. They use routing tables to determine the next hop for data packets and ensure that they reach their intended destination across different networks. Therefore, the correct answer is Network.

Submit
73. Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance

Explanation

Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within 120 days of new equipment/system acceptance. This means that within 120 days of accepting new equipment or a new system, a certain number of ARC personnel will be evaluated to ensure their proficiency and readiness in operating the equipment or system. This evaluation helps to identify any training needs or deficiencies and ensures that the personnel are fully prepared to use the new equipment or system effectively.

Submit
74. Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year? 

Explanation

After the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year, the selections are reviewed by the Air Force Chief of Staff. This individual holds the highest-ranking position in the United States Air Force and is responsible for overseeing the entire organization. Their review ensures that the selection process was fair and that the chosen individuals truly exemplify the qualities and achievements expected of an Outstanding Airman of the Year.

Submit
75. Which segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/ Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing

Explanation

Segment 2 of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process focuses on training proficiency levels and training resourcing. This segment is likely to involve assessing the proficiency levels of individuals or teams and determining the resources required for their training. It may involve analyzing the current training programs and identifying any gaps or areas for improvement. By concentrating on training proficiency levels and training resourcing, Segment 2 aims to ensure that the necessary resources are allocated effectively to enhance training outcomes.

Submit
76. The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement summarizes 

Explanation

The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement includes both the full cost and the recommended course of action. This means that the solution not only considers the financial implications but also provides guidance on the best course of action to meet the requirement. It does not specifically mention security requirements, indicating that those may not be included in the technical solution.

Submit
77. Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official? 

Explanation

The authoring OPR's supervisor should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official because they are responsible for overseeing the work of the authoring OPR and ensuring its accuracy and compliance with guidelines.

Submit
78. Over a single pair cable, Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is capable of transmission rates of 

Explanation

ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) is a telecommunications network that allows the transmission of voice, video, and data over a single pair cable. It provides a digital connection and supports various transmission rates. The correct answer, 144 Kbps (Kilobits per second), is a common transmission rate for ISDN. It is a relatively low speed compared to the other options listed, but it is still sufficient for basic internet browsing, email, and voice communication.

Submit
79. Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)? a. MAJCOM director of Communications (A6). 

Explanation

The MAJCOM Functional Manager serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This individual is responsible for representing the MAJCOM's interests and ensuring that the career field's training requirements and utilization are aligned with the command's needs and objectives. They play a crucial role in decision-making and ensuring that the career field's training and utilization plans are in line with the MAJCOM's overall strategy.

Submit
80. Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)? 

Explanation

The American National Standard Institute (ANSI) provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA). ANSI is a non-profit organization that oversees the development of voluntary consensus standards for various industries, including telecommunications. TIA is a trade association that represents the telecommunications industry and develops standards for telecommunications equipment and systems. By receiving accreditation from ANSI, TIA's standards are recognized as meeting certain criteria for quality, reliability, and interoperability. This accreditation helps ensure that TIA's standards are widely accepted and adopted by industry stakeholders.

Submit
81. Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer? 

Explanation

Network switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between nodes on a network. Switches and bridges use MAC addresses to forward data packets within a local area network (LAN). They analyze the data link layer headers and make forwarding decisions based on the destination MAC address. This allows for efficient and secure communication within a network by creating separate collision domains and reducing network congestion.

Submit
82. What system monitoring concept uses long trend analysis of network devices and is performed in order to identify future constraints with results incorporated into future technical baselines? 

Explanation

Capacity planning is a system monitoring concept that involves analyzing long-term trends of network devices. This analysis helps in identifying potential future constraints and allows for the incorporation of these results into future technical baselines. Capacity planning ensures that the network infrastructure can handle the expected workload and helps in avoiding performance issues or bottlenecks. It involves assessing the current capacity, predicting future demands, and making necessary adjustments to meet those demands. Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems, End-to-End Performance Monitoring, and Vulnerability scanners are not directly related to long trend analysis and future constraints identification.

Submit
83. What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)? 

Explanation

The Occupational Analysis Report (OAR) is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). The OAR provides a comprehensive analysis of the occupation, including the knowledge, skills, and abilities required for the job. This information is then used to develop the CFETP and STS, which outline the training and education requirements for individuals in the career field. The OAR serves as a foundation for the development of these documents, ensuring that they accurately reflect the needs of the occupation.

Submit
84. Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). The ECIA develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the ANSI designation of EIA standards. This association is responsible for setting industry standards and promoting the growth and success of the electronic components industry.

Submit
85. What are the three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations? 

Explanation

The three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations are Law, Authority, and Policy. Law refers to the legal framework and regulations that govern cyberspace operations. Authority refers to the allocation of power and responsibility within the cyberspace domain. Policy refers to the set of guidelines and principles that guide and inform actions in cyberspace operations. These three considerations are crucial in ensuring the effective and lawful conduct of activities in the cyberspace domain.

Submit
86. Which 802.11 standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and runs at the 2.4 GHz frequency? 

Explanation

The correct answer is 802.11b. This standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and operates at the 2.4 GHz frequency. 802.11a operates at a higher frequency of 5 GHz and has a higher throughput of up to 54 Mbps. 802.11g also operates at 2.4 GHz but has a higher throughput of up to 54 Mbps as well. 802.11n is a newer standard that operates at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies and has a higher throughput of up to 600 Mbps. Therefore, the only option that matches the given description is 802.11b.

Submit
87. Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)? 

Explanation

The Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) is responsible for various actions related to training and education plans, including drafting and signing minutes, finalizing part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and finalizing the Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description. However, they are not responsible for finalizing Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.

Submit
88. Who provides the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk? 

Explanation

The Authorizing Official (AO) is responsible for providing the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode. They do this by evaluating the system against a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk criteria. The AO has the authority to grant or deny authorization for the system to operate based on their assessment of the system's security posture. The other options, such as Wing commander, Wing information security office (WIAO), and Communications and information systems officer (CSO), do not have the specific role or authority to provide this formal declaration.

Submit
89. Which Intranet Control Weapon System sub-discipline conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information? 

Explanation

Proactive Defense is the correct answer because it refers to the sub-discipline that conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information. Proactive Defense involves actively identifying and mitigating potential threats and vulnerabilities before they can cause harm. It focuses on preemptive actions and monitoring systems to ensure the security and availability of critical information within an Intranet Control Weapon System.

Submit
90. Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in 

Explanation

The given correct answer, AFI 10-401, is the specific Air Force Instruction that provides detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request. This instruction is likely to contain the necessary guidelines, procedures, and forms required for individuals or organizations to request a reclama or report a shortfall in the Air Force. The other options, Joint Publication 1-02 and Joint Publication 1-03, are not specific Air Force instructions and may not provide the relevant information needed for reclama or shortfall requests.

Submit
91. Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction 

Explanation

Air Force instruction 36-2845 provides guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community. This instruction likely outlines the criteria, eligibility, and procedures for awarding individuals within the Cyber community for their exceptional performance or contributions. It is a resource that individuals within the Air Force can refer to in order to understand the specific awards available to them in the Cyber field.

Submit
92. Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem connects to sensors in the process, converting sensor signals to digital data? 

Explanation

The correct answer is the Remote Terminal Unit (RTU). The RTU is a key component of a SCADA system that connects to sensors in the process and converts sensor signals to digital data. It is responsible for collecting data from the field devices and transmitting it to the central supervisory system for monitoring and control. The RTU acts as an interface between the physical process and the SCADA system, allowing for real-time data acquisition and control.

Submit
93. Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor? 

Explanation

The Supervisory System is the SCADA subsystem that gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor. It acts as the central control unit, collecting data from various sensors and devices, and then transmitting commands to the processor or other subsystems to control the process. The Supervisory System plays a crucial role in monitoring and managing the SCADA system, ensuring efficient and effective operation.

Submit
94. Recommended technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
95. At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program? 

Explanation

The Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC) is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring of the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program at the installation level. They ensure that the program is effectively managed and adheres to the relevant policies and regulations. The A/OPC acts as a liaison between the installation and the higher-level program management offices, coordinating activities and providing guidance to cardholders and approving officials. They play a crucial role in ensuring the program's success and compliance at the installation level.

Submit
96. Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer? 

Explanation

Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at the Transport layer of the OSI model. The Transport layer is responsible for ensuring reliable and efficient communication between end systems. It establishes a virtual circuit, which is a logical connection, between the source and destination devices. This virtual circuit provides a reliable and ordered delivery of data packets. The Transport layer also handles flow control, error detection and correction, and congestion control. Therefore, it is the correct layer for virtual circuit management.

Submit
97. What type of encryption is applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed network, and ensures all information flowing is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder? 

Explanation

Link encryption is the type of encryption applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed network, which ensures that all information flowing is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder. This means that the data transmitted over the network is encrypted at the link level, making it secure and protected from any potential unauthorized access or interception.

Submit
98. Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor? 

Explanation

The MDC monitor is responsible for reviewing IMDS reports to ensure job status is reflected properly, matching reports with OIL, and scheduling and distributing daily maintenance actions. However, ensuring equipment status is entered into ESR is not mentioned as a common duty of the MDC monitor.

Submit
99. Instead of using binary, how are Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses expressed to be more user-friendly

Explanation

IPv6 addresses are 128 bits long and are expressed in colon hexadecimal format to make them more readable and manageable for humans. This format divides the address into eight 16-bit blocks, separated by colons. Each block is represented by a hexadecimal number, resulting in a more compact and user-friendly representation compared to binary.

Submit
100. In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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