AFSC: Trivia Questions Quiz On Air Force Specialty Code!

57 Questions | Total Attempts: 42

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AFSC: Trivia Questions Quiz On Air Force Specialty Code!

Below is a Trivia Questions Quiz on Air Force Specialty Code! These codes are used to identify different careers. The number of code has different characters for the officers and those that are enlisted in the air force. Take this test and get to see just how much you now about the codes and what they represent. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What does the first position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identify?
    • A. 

      Skill level

    • B. 

      Career field

    • C. 

      Career group

    • D. 

      Career field subdivision

  • 2. 
    A combination of the first and the second positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the
    • A. 

      Skill level

    • B. 

      Career field

    • C. 

      Career group

    • D. 

      Career field subdivision.

  • 3. 
    What does the combination of the first, second, and third positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identify?
    • A. 

      Skill level.

    • B. 

      Career field.

    • C. 

      Career group

    • D. 

      Career field subdivision.

  • 4. 
    The fourth position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies a
    • A. 

      Skill level.

    • B. 

      Career field.

    • C. 

      Career group

    • D. 

      Career field subdivision

  • 5. 
    Which skill level identifies enlisted personnel with a high degree of technical knowledge? Who have acquired additional supervisory capabilities through training and knowledge?
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Five

    • C. 

      Seven

    • D. 

      Nine

  • 6. 
    Which type of Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is initially based on how the member is classified at the time of enlistment or during basic training?
    • A. 

      Duty.

    • B. 

      Control

    • C. 

      Primary.

    • D. 

      Secondary.

  • 7. 
    The duties and responsibilities of the personnel craftsman include all of the following except
    • A. 

      Advise civilians on civilian personnel issues and programs

    • B. 

      Create, maintain, and audit personnel records.

    • C. 

      Provide casualty assistance.

    • D. 

      Perform personnel actions.

  • 8. 
    Which is not a Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO) function that a personnel craftsman performs?
    • A. 

      Preparation of movement

    • B. 

      Personnel accountability.

    • C. 

      Personnel classification

    • D. 

      Personal support.

  • 9. 
    What skill level identifies enlisted personnel who, through experience, training, and performance, have shown a high degree of managerial and supervisory ability?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      9

  • 10. 
    Regarding training, a superintendent must emphasize to an Airman that
    • A. 

      Training is key to the success of the Air Force.

    • B. 

      Advanced specialty training occurs as the trainee gains experience

    • C. 

      Completing a career development course is the most important form of training.

    • D. 

      On-the-job training teaches the trainee everything they need to know about the job

  • 11. 
    What is a senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO) primary purpose?
    • A. 

      Career progression.

    • B. 

      Maintain readiness.

    • C. 

      Mission accomplishment.

    • D. 

      Review evaluation reports

  • 12. 
    What rank transitions from being technical experts and first-line supervisors to leaders with operational competence?
    • A. 

      Staff sergeants

    • B. 

      Technical sergeants.

    • C. 

      Master sergeants

    • D. 

      Senior master sergeants

  • 13. 
    These are experienced operational leaders, skilled at merging subordinates’ talents, skills, and resources with other teams’ functions to most effectively accomplish the mission.
    • A. 

      Technical sergeants

    • B. 

      Master sergeants

    • C. 

      Senior master sergeants

    • D. 

      Chief master sergeants

  • 14. 
    What enlisted rank must epitomize the finest qualities of a military leader and develop future enlisted leaders?
    • A. 

      Technical sergeants.

    • B. 

      Master sergeants.

    • C. 

      Senior master sergeants

    • D. 

      Chief master sergeants

  • 15. 
    The strategy of the Air Force on-the-job training (OJT) program provides realistic and flexible training by using all of the following capabilities except
    • A. 

      Managing.

    • B. 

      Executing.

    • C. 

      Enhancing.

    • D. 

      Developing.

  • 16. 
    The Air Force on-the-job (OJT) program consists of all of the following components except the job
    • A. 

      Satisfaction

    • B. 

      Proficiency.

    • C. 

      Knowledge

    • D. 

      Experience

  • 17. 
    What is key to the total training program?
    • A. 

      Career development courses (CDCs).

    • B. 

      Specialty knowledge test (SKT).

    • C. 

      On-the job training (OJT).

    • D. 

      Upgrade training (UGT).

  • 18. 
    What training title is awarded after personnel complete a mandatory career development course (CDC), all core tasks identified in the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and other duty position tasks?
    • A. 

      Apprentice.

    • B. 

      Journeyman.

    • C. 

      Craftsman

    • D. 

      Superintendent

  • 19. 
    This type of training is defined as specialized, systematic and/or thorough technical training provided to enhance specific knowledge needs of each person involved in the training.
    • A. 

      Initial skills.

    • B. 

      On-the job

    • C. 

      Upgrade.

    • D. 

      In-house

  • 20. 
    As a supervisor, what do you require to develop a Master Training Plan (MTP) used to manage work centers and individual training?
    • A. 

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • B. 

      Career Development Course (CDC).

    • C. 

      Specialty Training Standard (STS).

    • D. 

      Job Qualification Standard (JQS).

  • 21. 
    What document identifies all day-to-day mission requirements, core tasks, in-garrison and contingency tasks, and additional duties performed in the work center?
    • A. 

      Specialty Training Standard.

    • B. 

      Job Qualification Standard.

    • C. 

      Master Training Plan.

    • D. 

      Master Task List

  • 22. 
    Who is responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training?
    • A. 

      Supervisors.

    • B. 

      Unit training managers.

    • C. 

      Career Assistance Advisors.

    • D. 

      Air Force Career Field Managers

  • 23. 
    The focal point of the Air Force training program is the
    • A. 

      Trainee.

    • B. 

      Trainer

    • C. 

      Supervisor

    • D. 

      Unit training manager

  • 24. 
    Why is it important to document interruptions to upgrade training, such as leave or temporary duty, on the AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet?
    • A. 

      So the unit training manager (UTM) can reference the dates.

    • B. 

      So the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) can reference the dates.

    • C. 

      In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training and the course material.

    • D. 

      In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training, documentation can be referenced

  • 25. 
    All of the following are the trainee’s responsibilities in the upgrade training process except
    • A. 

      Documenting training progress on AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet.

    • B. 

      Budgeting on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks

    • C. 

      Comprehending the applicable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) requirements and career path.

    • D. 

      Acknowledging and documenting task qualification upon completion of training.

  • 26. 
    Why is it important to develop and implement control measures when dealing with classified material?
    • A. 

      So you know where the classified information is kept.

    • B. 

      To keep track of the people dealing with the classified material

    • C. 

      So security forces knows where the classified information is kept

    • D. 

      To decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands

  • 27. 
    Which is not an installation security program manager’s program responsibility?
    • A. 

      Recognizing the training efforts of effective security managers publicly.

    • B. 

      Assessing the effectiveness of training programs as part of the information security program review.

    • C. 

      Indoctrinating personnel to the investigation position code reflected in the unit manpower document

    • D. 

      Developing and conducting classroom or one-on-one training for newly appointed security managers.

  • 28. 
    Within how many days of assignment to the unit must supervisors ensure their cleared personnel receive an initial security education orientation before they access classified information?
    • A. 

      90

    • B. 

      120

    • C. 

      150

    • D. 

      180

  • 29. 
    Which application is used only by adjudicative personnel and provides capabilities such as case management and adjudicative history and summary?
    • A. 

      Joint Clearance and Access Verification System (JCAVS).

    • B. 

      Joint Adjudication Management System (JAMS).

    • C. 

      Personnel Occupying Information System (POIS).

    • D. 

      Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS).

  • 30. 
    Which application is used for providing capabilities such as access indoctrination, debriefing history, incident, and issue file reporting, history, and management of unit personnel security functions?
    • A. 

      Joint Clearance and Access Verification System (JCAVS).

    • B. 

      Joint Adjudication Management System (JAMS)

    • C. 

      Personnel Occupying Information System (POIS).

    • D. 

      Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS).

  • 31. 
    It is important to use the SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement, when granting an individual access to classified information to ensure
    • A. 

      All necessary access steps have been completed.

    • B. 

      The security manager sends the proper form to be filed in archives.

    • C. 

      You include this form as part of the Field Record Group.

    • D. 

      You have a source document signed and dated by the individual.

  • 32. 
    When an individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) for access to classified information, the commander or staff agency chief does all of the following except
    • A. 

      Initiates a security incident report.

    • B. 

      Denies the individual access to classified information

    • C. 

      Initiates action to establish a Security Information File (SIF).

    • D. 

      Grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.

  • 33. 
    It is important for the commander or staff agency chief to complete a three-step process against an individual who refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) because of the
    • A. 

      Refusal may initiate removal from the squadron.

    • B. 

      Refusal may be indicative of suspicious or negative behavior

    • C. 

      Commander may be required to interview the member a second time.

    • D. 

      Commander may be required to refer the individual to another commander

  • 34. 
    Why is it imperative to complete the four-step authorization process when confirming a person’s level of access to classified information?
    • A. 

      Because each step is an intricate part of the “go, no-go” process.

    • B. 

      Because each step is an intricate piece of the “checks and balance” process

    • C. 

      You will be unable to process the request, and therefore, the person will not get access.

    • D. 

      You will be unable to process the request, no access is granted, and the process is repeated

  • 35. 
    Authority to grant security clearance access to persons outside the Executive Branch without a previous clearance may not be delegated below the
    • A. 

      Mission support group (MSG) commander.

    • B. 

      Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

    • C. 

      Numbered Air Force (NAF) commander

    • D. 

      Wing (WG) commander

  • 36. 
    Why is it important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material?
    • A. 

      The material may get confiscated by unauthorized personnel.

    • B. 

      The material may not be important enough to hand carry.

    • C. 

      The foreign government may want to take it from you.

    • D. 

      To avoid bringing unwanted attention to yourself.

  • 37. 
    When transporting laptops and disks, couriers must do all of the following except
    • A. 

      Password protect laptops

    • B. 

      Erase laptops and disks completely before transporting

    • C. 

      Wrap or secure classified media within a container if outer markings are visible.

    • D. 

      Mark laptops and disks according to DOD 5200.1R, Information Security Program.

  • 38. 
    Personnel who need to transport classified material will use the Department of State courier system to transport
    • A. 

      Through secret internet protocol router networks.

    • B. 

      From one storage unit to an available storage unit.

    • C. 

      Through or within countries hostile to the United States

    • D. 

      Through or within a military installation in the United States

  • 39. 
    Classified communications security (COMSEC) information may not be transmitted
    • A. 

      During duty hours.

    • B. 

      Over the weekend

    • C. 

      After hours.

    • D. 

      Overnight.

  • 40. 
    Who is responsible for making sure an authorized person is available to receive a secure package on a holiday and to verify the correct mailing address?
    • A. 

      Sender

    • B. 

      Shipper.

    • C. 

      Receiver.

    • D. 

      Supplier.

  • 41. 
    Which is not considered one of the five principles of good communication?
    • A. 

      Focus.

    • B. 

      Justification.

    • C. 

      Organization

    • D. 

      Understanding.

  • 42. 
    How many effective communication steps are needed to become a better communicator whether you are writing or speaking?
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Five

    • C. 

      Seven

    • D. 

      Nine

  • 43. 
    In order to be successful when communicating with your audience, use all of the following tips except
    • A. 

      Being inclusive

    • B. 

      Being original.

    • C. 

      Extending courtesy

    • D. 

      Making it personal.

  • 44. 
    Use all of the following approaches when researching your topic to uncover information that supports your communication goals except
    • A. 

      Assign a deadline

    • B. 

      Determine what is known

    • C. 

      Review the purpose and scope of the overall project

    • D. 

      Avoid asking your supervisor until you have all information to present

  • 45. 
    What rule of e-mail communication would you use to make sure the subject line communicates your purpose?
    • A. 

      Be selective about the message you send

    • B. 

      Keep your e-mail under control.

    • C. 

      Be clear and concise.

    • D. 

      Watch your tone.

  • 46. 
    What e-mail communication rule is violated if you discuss controversial, sensitive, official use only, classified, personal, or privacy act information?
    • A. 

      Be selective about who received your message.

    • B. 

      Be selective about the message you send.

    • C. 

      Keep your e-mail under control.

    • D. 

      Be clear and concise.

  • 47. 
    A member’s date of enlistment (DOE), or day entering an extension, requires an E63 update be input into the military personnel data system (MILPDS) no earlier than
    • A. 

      30 days prior

    • B. 

      60 days prior.

    • C. 

      90 days prior

    • D. 

      120 days prior

  • 48. 
    What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change an initial E63 projection prior to the effective date of a reenlistment action?
    • A. 

      E63

    • B. 

      E64

    • C. 

      E6D

    • D. 

      E6F

  • 49. 
    Which Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change a date of separation only in the Master Military Pay Account (MMPA)?
    • A. 

      E6C

    • B. 

      E6F

    • C. 

      TU4

    • D. 

      TU5

  • 50. 
    What the Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to cancel an extension prior to the effective date and is automatically output when the extension is canceled?
    • A. 

      E6F

    • B. 

      TU4

    • C. 

      TU5

    • D. 

      TU6

  • 51. 
    What Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) reject code appears when reenlistments clerk updates reenlistment or extension but does not include the obligated service?
    • A. 

      BDE

    • B. 

      DJM

    • C. 

      RDJ

    • D. 

      VAM

  • 52. 
    An individual cannot change a Military Personnel Data System (MILPDS) standard product. Who designs and controls those products?
    • A. 

      Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).

    • B. 

      Military Personnel Section (MPS).

    • C. 

      Personnel System Manager (PSM).

    • D. 

      Major Command (MAJCOM)

  • 53. 
    How often are transaction registers (TR) programmatically controlled and produced?
    • A. 

      DAILY

    • B. 

      WEEKLY

    • C. 

      MONTHLY

    • D. 

      QUARTERLY

  • 54. 
    What agency, or individual, coordinates on all suggested changes and/or improvements to management assessment products (MAP)?
    • A. 

      Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).

    • B. 

      Military Personnel Section (MPS).

    • C. 

      Personnel System Manager (PSM).

    • D. 

      Major Command (MAJCOM).

  • 55. 
    What management assessment product (MAP) reflects an inbound member’s name if the member contacts customer service stating a sponsor has not been assigned?
    • A. 

      7A, CUSTSVC-NO SPONSOR.

    • B. 

      7B, EMPLOYMENTS-EXPIRED DS-LOST TIME.

    • C. 

      13A, RELOC-NOTIFICATION NOT ON FILE.

    • D. 

      13B, RELOC-PPC-PRP

  • 56. 
    What management assessment product (MAP) would a member’s name be reflected on if administrative certification under the personnel reliability program (PRP) is required and the member is projected to Minot AFB, ND?
    • A. 

      MAP 7B, EMPLOYMENTS-EXPIRED DS-LOST TIME.

    • B. 

      MAP 10, RELOC-AAC

    • C. 

      MAP 13B, RELOC-PPC-PRP

    • D. 

      MAP 15, EMPLOYMENTS-FUNCTCAT

  • 57. 
    What management assessment product (MAP) can the career development section use to ensure database integrity if a member is projected for a permanent change of station (PCS) and is demoted before departing?
    • A. 

      MAP 6, ENHANCEMENT-QUALITY-CHECK.

    • B. 

      MAP 8, EMPLOYMENTS-EXPIRED DS-LOST TIME

    • C. 

      MAP 10, RELOC-AAC.

    • D. 

      MAP 13A, RELOCATION-NOTIFICATION NOT ON FILE