AFSC: Trivia Questions Quiz On Air Force Specialty Code!

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1. Use all of the following approaches when researching your topic to uncover information that supports your communication goals except

Explanation

The correct answer is "avoid asking your supervisor until you have all information to present". This approach is not recommended because it is important to involve your supervisor throughout the research process to ensure that you are on the right track and to seek guidance or clarification if needed. By waiting until you have all the information to present, you may miss out on valuable input or feedback from your supervisor, which could affect the accuracy and effectiveness of your communication goals.

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About This Quiz
AFSC: Trivia Questions Quiz On Air Force Specialty Code! - Quiz

Below is a Trivia Questions Quiz on Air Force Specialty Code! These codes are used to identify different careers. The number of code has different characters for the... see moreofficers and those that are enlisted in the air force. Take this test and get to see just how much you now about the codes and what they represent. All the best! see less

2. Why is it important to develop and implement control measures when dealing with classified material?

Explanation

Developing and implementing control measures when dealing with classified material is important because it helps decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands. By having control measures in place, such as restricted access, proper storage, and monitoring of individuals handling the material, the risk of unauthorized access or disclosure is minimized. This ensures that sensitive information remains secure and protected from potential threats or breaches.

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3. What does the first position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identify?

Explanation

The first position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the career group. This means that it categorizes the different career fields within the Air Force based on their broader grouping. The AFSC is a code system used to identify and classify different jobs and specialties within the Air Force. The first position of the AFSC provides a high-level overview of the career group to which a particular specialty belongs.

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4. Which is not an installation security program manager's program responsibility?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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5. Regarding training, a superintendent must emphasize to an Airman that

Explanation

The correct answer is "training is key to the success of the Air Force." This answer emphasizes the importance of training in achieving success in the Air Force. It suggests that training plays a crucial role in preparing Airmen for their duties and responsibilities, ensuring their competence and effectiveness in their roles. By highlighting the significance of training, the superintendent is emphasizing the value of continuous learning and professional development in maintaining the Air Force's operational readiness and mission success.

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6. What is a senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO) primary purpose?

Explanation

A senior noncommissioned officer's primary purpose is to ensure the successful completion of missions. They are responsible for leading and guiding their subordinates in order to achieve the objectives set by their unit. By prioritizing mission accomplishment, SNCOs contribute to the overall success and effectiveness of the military organization.

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7. What enlisted rank must epitomize the finest qualities of a military leader and develop future enlisted leaders?

Explanation

Chief master sergeants must epitomize the finest qualities of a military leader and develop future enlisted leaders. As the highest enlisted rank in the United States Air Force, they are expected to possess exceptional leadership skills, extensive experience, and a deep understanding of military operations. They serve as role models for lower-ranking enlisted personnel and are responsible for mentoring and guiding them towards becoming effective leaders. Chief master sergeants also play a crucial role in advising senior officers on enlisted matters and shaping the overall direction and development of the enlisted force.

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8. The strategy of the Air Force on-the-job training (OJT) program provides realistic and flexible training by using all of the following capabilities except

Explanation

The Air Force on-the-job training (OJT) program aims to provide realistic and flexible training. The program focuses on managing, executing, and developing the skills of the trainees. However, enhancing is not mentioned as one of the capabilities of the program. Therefore, enhancing is the capability that is not included in the strategy of the Air Force OJT program.

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9. The Air Force on-the-job (OJT) program consists of all of the following components except the job

Explanation

The Air Force on-the-job (OJT) program includes components such as proficiency, knowledge, and experience. These components are essential for developing the skills and expertise necessary for job performance. However, job satisfaction is not explicitly mentioned as a component of the OJT program. While job satisfaction is important for overall job performance and employee well-being, it is not specifically listed as a component of the OJT program in this context.

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10. An individual cannot change a Military Personnel Data System (MILPDS) standard product. Who designs and controls those products?

Explanation

The correct answer is Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC). This organization is responsible for designing and controlling the standard products of the Military Personnel Data System (MILPDS). They have the authority and expertise to make decisions and implement changes to the system. The Military Personnel Section (MPS) and Personnel System Manager (PSM) may have some involvement in managing and using the system, but they do not have the authority to change the standard products. The Major Command (MAJCOM) is a higher-level command structure and does not directly control the MILPDS products.

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11. As a supervisor, what do you require to develop a Master Training Plan (MTP) used to manage work centers and individual training?

Explanation

To develop a Master Training Plan (MTP) used to manage work centers and individual training as a supervisor, the requirement is a Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This plan outlines the required training and education for specific career fields, providing guidance on the necessary skills and knowledge. It helps supervisors in identifying the training needs of their work centers and individuals, ensuring that they receive the appropriate training to perform their duties effectively. The CFETP serves as a comprehensive resource for planning and managing training within a career field, making it the correct answer for this question.

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12. What document identifies all day-to-day mission requirements, core tasks, in-garrison and contingency tasks, and additional duties performed in the work center?

Explanation

The Master Task List is a document that identifies all day-to-day mission requirements, core tasks, in-garrison and contingency tasks, and additional duties performed in the work center. It serves as a comprehensive guide for the tasks and responsibilities that need to be fulfilled in the work center, ensuring that all necessary duties are accounted for and carried out efficiently. The other options, Specialty Training Standard, Job Qualification Standard, and Master Training Plan, may also contain some relevant information but do not specifically identify all the day-to-day mission requirements, core tasks, and additional duties performed in the work center like the Master Task List does.

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13. Who is responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training?

Explanation

Unit training managers are responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training. They play a crucial role in managing the training process and ensuring that all necessary administrative actions are taken for trainees. Supervisors may provide guidance and oversight, but it is the unit training managers who have the specific responsibility for initiating personnel actions related to training. Career Assistance Advisors and Air Force Career Field Managers may have other roles and responsibilities, but they are not specifically responsible for initiating personnel actions on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training.

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14. It is important to use the SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement, when granting an individual access to classified information to ensure

Explanation

The correct answer is "you have a source document signed and dated by the individual." This is because the SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement, is a source document that must be signed and dated by the individual before granting them access to classified information. This ensures that the individual acknowledges their responsibilities and obligations regarding the protection of classified information.

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15. The focal point of the Air Force training program is the

Explanation

The focal point of the Air Force training program is the trainee because the program is designed to develop and enhance the skills, knowledge, and abilities of the trainee. The training program is tailored to meet the specific needs and goals of the trainee, ensuring that they are equipped with the necessary skills to fulfill their duties and responsibilities in the Air Force. The trainee is at the center of the training program, receiving guidance, support, and resources to succeed in their training and ultimately contribute to the mission of the Air Force.

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16. When an individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) for access to classified information, the commander or staff agency chief does all of the following except

Explanation

When an individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) for access to classified information, the commander or staff agency chief may initiate a security incident report, deny the individual access to classified information, and initiate action to establish a Security Information File (SIF). However, they would not grant temporary access to classified information until the form is signed, as that would go against the purpose of the NDA, which is to ensure that classified information remains confidential and protected.

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17. All of the following are the trainee's responsibilities in the upgrade training process except

Explanation

The trainee's responsibilities in the upgrade training process include budgeting on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks, comprehending the applicable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) requirements and career path, and acknowledging and documenting task qualification upon completion of training. However, documenting training progress on AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet is not one of the trainee's responsibilities in the upgrade training process.

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18. What management assessment product (MAP) reflects an inbound member's name if the member contacts customer service stating a sponsor has not been assigned?

Explanation

The correct answer is 7A, CUSTSVC-NO SPONSOR because when a member contacts customer service stating that a sponsor has not been assigned, it falls under the category of customer service and the specific issue of no sponsor. Therefore, the management assessment product (MAP) that reflects this situation is 7A, CUSTSVC-NO SPONSOR.

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19. What management assessment product (MAP) would a member's name be reflected on if administrative certification under the personnel reliability program (PRP) is required and the member is projected to Minot AFB, ND?

Explanation

If a member's name is reflected on MAP 13B, RELOC-PPC-PRP, it means that they are projected to Minot AFB, ND and require administrative certification under the personnel reliability program (PRP). This MAP is specifically for relocations related to PPC (Personnel Processing Codes) and PRP, indicating that the member is being assessed and managed for their PRP requirements during the relocation process.

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20. It is important for the commander or staff agency chief to complete a three-step process against an individual who refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) because of the

Explanation

Refusing to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) may indicate that the individual has something to hide or is engaging in suspicious or negative behavior. This behavior could potentially compromise the security or integrity of the squadron. Therefore, it is important for the commander or staff agency chief to take appropriate action against the individual, which may include initiating removal from the squadron or conducting further interviews or referrals.

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21. Why is it imperative to complete the four-step authorization process when confirming a person's level of access to classified information?

Explanation

Each step of the four-step authorization process is an important component of the "checks and balance" process. This means that each step serves as a safeguard to ensure that the person's level of access to classified information is properly evaluated and approved. By completing all four steps, the process can effectively verify the person's eligibility and prevent unauthorized access.

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22. Authority to grant security clearance access to persons outside the Executive Branch without a previous clearance may not be delegated below the

Explanation

The correct answer is Major command (MAJCOM) commander. This is because the authority to grant security clearance access to persons outside the Executive Branch without a previous clearance cannot be delegated below the MAJCOM commander. This means that only the MAJCOM commander has the power and responsibility to grant security clearance access to individuals who do not already have a clearance.

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23. When transporting laptops and disks, couriers must do all of the following except

Explanation

Couriers are required to take certain precautions when transporting laptops and disks to ensure the security of the information they contain. They must password protect laptops, wrap or secure classified media within a container if outer markings are visible, and mark laptops and disks according to DOD 5200.1R, Information Security Program. However, erasing laptops and disks completely before transporting is not necessary as long as the other security measures are in place.

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24. Classified communications security (COMSEC) information may not be transmitted

Explanation

Classified communications security (COMSEC) information may not be transmitted overnight because it poses a higher risk of interception or unauthorized access when there are fewer personnel on duty and security measures may be more relaxed. Transmitting such information during duty hours, over the weekend, or after hours may still have some level of security measures in place to protect the information. However, transmitting it overnight when there is minimal staff and reduced security measures increases the vulnerability of the information.

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25. Who is responsible for making sure an authorized person is available to receive a secure package on a holiday and to verify the correct mailing address?

Explanation

The sender is responsible for making sure an authorized person is available to receive a secure package on a holiday and to verify the correct mailing address. This is because the sender is the one who initiates the shipment and is aware of the recipient's availability and address details. They have the responsibility to ensure that the package reaches the intended recipient safely and securely.

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26. A member's date of enlistment (DOE), or day entering an extension, requires an E63 update be input into the military personnel data system (MILPDS) no earlier than

Explanation

The correct answer is 120 days prior. This means that the E63 update for a member's date of enlistment or day entering an extension should be input into the military personnel data system (MILPDS) no earlier than 120 days before the actual date. This allows for sufficient time to process and update the information accurately.

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27. What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change an initial E63 projection prior to the effective date of a reenlistment action?

Explanation

The Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update used to change an initial E63 projection prior to the effective date of a reenlistment action is E64.

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28. What does the combination of the first, second, and third positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identify?

Explanation

The combination of the first, second, and third positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the career field subdivision. The AFSC is a code used by the Air Force to identify specific specialties and jobs within the military. The first position of the AFSC represents the career group, the second position represents the career field, and the third position represents the career field subdivision. Therefore, the combination of these three positions specifically identifies the career field subdivision.

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29. Which type of Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is initially based on how the member is classified at the time of enlistment or during basic training?

Explanation

The correct answer is Control. The AFSC, or Air Force Specialty Code, is initially based on how the member is classified at the time of enlistment or during basic training. This means that the member's AFSC is determined by their initial classification or control in the Air Force.

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30. The duties and responsibilities of the personnel craftsman include all of the following except

Explanation

The duties and responsibilities of the personnel craftsman include creating, maintaining, and auditing personnel records, providing casualty assistance, and performing personnel actions. However, advising civilians on civilian personnel issues and programs is not one of their responsibilities.

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31. Which is not a Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO) function that a personnel craftsman performs?

Explanation

A personnel craftsman performs various functions related to Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO). These functions include preparation of movement, personnel accountability, and personal support. However, personnel classification is not a function performed by a personnel craftsman. Personnel classification involves categorizing individuals based on their skills, qualifications, and job roles, which is typically done by personnel specialists or human resources professionals.

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32. What skill level identifies enlisted personnel who, through experience, training, and performance, have shown a high degree of managerial and supervisory ability?

Explanation

The skill level that identifies enlisted personnel who have shown a high degree of managerial and supervisory ability is level 9. This level indicates that individuals have acquired extensive experience, training, and demonstrated exceptional performance in their roles. They possess advanced leadership skills and are capable of effectively managing and supervising others.

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33. Within how many days of assignment to the unit must supervisors ensure their cleared personnel receive an initial security education orientation before they access classified information?

Explanation

Supervisors must ensure that their cleared personnel receive an initial security education orientation within 90 days of assignment to the unit before they can access classified information. This orientation is crucial to familiarize employees with the necessary security protocols and procedures to handle classified information safely and securely. By providing this education within the first 90 days, supervisors can ensure that employees are properly trained and prepared to handle classified information in their roles.

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34. These are experienced operational leaders, skilled at merging subordinates' talents, skills, and resources with other teams' functions to most effectively accomplish the mission.

Explanation

Senior master sergeants are experienced operational leaders who have the skills and abilities to merge the talents, skills, and resources of their subordinates with other teams' functions in order to effectively accomplish the mission. This indicates that they have a high level of expertise and are capable of leading and coordinating complex operations. Technical sergeants, master sergeants, and chief master sergeants may also have leadership roles, but the description provided specifically highlights the role of senior master sergeants in this context.

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35. What is key to the total training program?

Explanation

Upgrade training (UGT) is the key to the total training program because it refers to the training provided to individuals to enhance their skills and knowledge in their current job or to prepare them for a higher-level position. UGT helps individuals stay updated with the latest advancements and changes in their field, ensuring they have the necessary skills to perform their job effectively. It plays a crucial role in career development and progression within an organization. Therefore, UGT is the most important component of the total training program.

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36. This type of training is defined as specialized, systematic and/or thorough technical training provided to enhance specific knowledge needs of each person involved in the training.

Explanation

The given answer "In-house" is the correct answer because it refers to training that is provided within the organization or company. In-house training is specialized, systematic, and thorough, focusing on enhancing the specific knowledge needs of each individual involved in the training. This type of training is typically tailored to the organization's specific requirements and can be conducted by internal trainers or external experts. It allows employees to acquire the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their job effectively and efficiently.

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37. Why is it important to document interruptions to upgrade training, such as leave or temporary duty, on the AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet?

Explanation

The documentation of interruptions to upgrade training is important because it can be referenced in case the trainee has difficulty with the training. By documenting the interruptions on the AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet, the trainee's progress and any potential challenges can be tracked and addressed. This allows for a more effective and targeted approach to the trainee's upgrade training, ensuring that any difficulties are identified and resolved in a timely manner.

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38. What agency, or individual, coordinates on all suggested changes and/or improvements to management assessment products (MAP)?

Explanation

The Personnel System Manager (PSM) is the agency or individual responsible for coordinating all suggested changes and/or improvements to management assessment products (MAP). They oversee the process and ensure that any proposed changes are properly reviewed and implemented. The PSM plays a crucial role in maintaining the quality and effectiveness of MAP by coordinating input from various stakeholders and making informed decisions on any necessary updates or enhancements.

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39. What management assessment product (MAP) can the career development section use to ensure database integrity if a member is projected for a permanent change of station (PCS) and is demoted before departing?

Explanation

The career development section can use MAP 6, ENHANCEMENT-QUALITY-CHECK, to ensure database integrity if a member is projected for a permanent change of station (PCS) and is demoted before departing. This MAP is likely designed to check and enhance the quality of the database, ensuring that all necessary information and updates are accurately recorded. By running this assessment, the career development section can verify that the member's demotion is properly reflected in the database before they depart for their new station.

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40. Why is it important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material?

Explanation

When hand carrying sensitive material, it is important to consider your environment because the material may get confiscated by unauthorized personnel. This is crucial as sensitive material can contain valuable or confidential information that should only be accessed by authorized individuals. If unauthorized personnel confiscate the material, it could lead to potential security breaches or the loss of important information. Therefore, being aware of the environment and taking necessary precautions can help prevent such incidents from occurring.

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41. What rule of e-mail communication would you use to make sure the subject line communicates your purpose?

Explanation

To ensure that the subject line communicates your purpose in email communication, the rule of being clear and concise should be followed. This means that the subject line should be brief yet informative, providing a clear indication of the content or purpose of the email. By using this rule, recipients can quickly understand the purpose of the email and prioritize their response accordingly.

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42. A combination of the first and the second positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the

Explanation

The first and second positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) represent the skill level and career field respectively. Therefore, a combination of these two positions identifies the career field.

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43. The fourth position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies a

Explanation

The fourth position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the skill level of an individual. This position indicates the level of training and experience an individual has achieved within their career field. It helps to differentiate between entry-level personnel and those who have advanced in their career and acquired higher levels of expertise.

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44. Which skill level identifies enlisted personnel with a high degree of technical knowledge? Who have acquired additional supervisory capabilities through training and knowledge?

Explanation

The skill level that identifies enlisted personnel with a high degree of technical knowledge and additional supervisory capabilities is seven. This level indicates that the personnel have undergone extensive training and acquired advanced expertise in their field, enabling them to handle complex technical tasks and also supervise and lead others effectively.

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45. Which application is used for providing capabilities such as access indoctrination, debriefing history, incident, and issue file reporting, history, and management of unit personnel security functions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint Clearance and Access Verification System (JCAVS). This application is used for providing capabilities such as access indoctrination, debriefing history, incident and issue file reporting, and management of unit personnel security functions. It helps in verifying clearances and access for individuals within the organization.

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46. How often are transaction registers (TR) programmatically controlled and produced?

Explanation

Transaction registers (TR) are programmatically controlled and produced on a daily basis. This means that the registers are updated and maintained every day to accurately record and track transactions. This frequency allows for real-time monitoring and analysis of financial activities, ensuring that the records are up to date and reliable. Weekly, monthly, and quarterly options would not provide the same level of timeliness and accuracy in tracking transactions.

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47. How many effective communication steps are needed to become a better communicator whether you are writing or speaking?

Explanation

To become a better communicator, whether in writing or speaking, seven effective communication steps are needed. These steps likely include skills such as active listening, clear and concise expression of ideas, adapting to the needs of the audience, using appropriate body language, and being mindful of non-verbal cues. By following these steps, individuals can enhance their communication abilities and effectively convey their message to others.

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48. Which Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change a date of separation only in the Master Military Pay Account (MMPA)?

Explanation

The correct answer is TU4. TU4 is the Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update that is used to change a date of separation only in the Master Military Pay Account (MMPA).

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49. What Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) reject code appears when reenlistments clerk updates reenlistment or extension but does not include the obligated service?

Explanation

The Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) reject code RDJ appears when the reenlistments clerk updates a reenlistment or extension but fails to include the obligated service.

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50. What rank transitions from being technical experts and first-line supervisors to leaders with operational competence?

Explanation

Master sergeants transition from being technical experts and first-line supervisors to leaders with operational competence. This rank signifies a higher level of responsibility and leadership within the military hierarchy. They possess the necessary technical expertise and experience to effectively lead and manage operations, making them well-suited for this transition.

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51. What training title is awarded after personnel complete a mandatory career development course (CDC), all core tasks identified in the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and other duty position tasks?

Explanation

After completing a mandatory career development course (CDC), all core tasks identified in the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and other duty position tasks, personnel are awarded the training title of Journeyman.

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52. Personnel who need to transport classified material will use the Department of State courier system to transport

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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53. In order to be successful when communicating with your audience, use all of the following tips except

Explanation

The correct answer is "being original." When communicating with your audience, it is important to be inclusive, extending courtesy, and making it personal. Being original may not always be the most effective approach as it can sometimes alienate or confuse the audience. It is often better to focus on connecting with the audience and delivering the message in a way that resonates with them.

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54. What e-mail communication rule is violated if you discuss controversial, sensitive, official use only, classified, personal, or privacy act information?

Explanation

If you discuss controversial, sensitive, official use only, classified, personal, or privacy act information in an email, you are violating the e-mail communication rule of being selective about the message you send. This means that you should carefully consider the content of your email and ensure that it is appropriate and does not contain any information that should not be shared.

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55. Which application is used only by adjudicative personnel and provides capabilities such as case management and adjudicative history and summary?

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint Adjudication Management System (JAMS). JAMS is the application used only by adjudicative personnel and it provides capabilities such as case management and adjudicative history and summary.

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56. Which is not considered one of the five principles of good communication?

Explanation

Justification is not considered one of the five principles of good communication because it refers to providing reasons or evidence to support a decision or action. While justification can be important in certain contexts, it is not a fundamental principle of communication. The five principles of good communication typically include clarity, conciseness, completeness, coherence, and correctness, which all focus on effectively conveying information and ideas.

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57. What the Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to cancel an extension prior to the effective date and is automatically output when the extension is canceled?

Explanation

The Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update TU6 is used to cancel an extension prior to the effective date and is automatically output when the extension is canceled.

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Use all of the following approaches when researching your topic to...
Why is it important to develop and implement control measures when...
What does the first position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC)...
Which is not an installation security program manager's program...
Regarding training, a superintendent must emphasize to an Airman that
What is a senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO) primary purpose?
What enlisted rank must epitomize the finest qualities of a military...
The strategy of the Air Force on-the-job training (OJT) program...
The Air Force on-the-job (OJT) program consists of all of the...
An individual cannot change a Military Personnel Data System (MILPDS)...
As a supervisor, what do you require to develop a Master Training Plan...
What document identifies all day-to-day mission requirements, core...
Who is responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees...
It is important to use the SF 312, Classified Information...
The focal point of the Air Force training program is the
When an individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) for...
All of the following are the trainee's responsibilities in the upgrade...
What management assessment product (MAP) reflects an inbound member's...
What management assessment product (MAP) would a member's name be...
It is important for the commander or staff agency chief to complete a...
Why is it imperative to complete the four-step authorization process...
Authority to grant security clearance access to persons outside the...
When transporting laptops and disks, couriers must do all of the...
Classified communications security (COMSEC) information may not be...
Who is responsible for making sure an authorized person is available...
A member's date of enlistment (DOE), or day entering an extension,...
What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change an...
What does the combination of the first, second, and third positions of...
Which type of Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is initially based on...
The duties and responsibilities of the personnel craftsman include all...
Which is not a Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO)...
What skill level identifies enlisted personnel who, through...
Within how many days of assignment to the unit must supervisors ensure...
These are experienced operational leaders, skilled at merging...
What is key to the total training program?
This type of training is defined as specialized, systematic and/or...
Why is it important to document interruptions to upgrade training,...
What agency, or individual, coordinates on all suggested changes...
What management assessment product (MAP) can the career development...
Why is it important to consider your environment when hand carrying...
What rule of e-mail communication would you use to make sure the...
A combination of the first and the second positions of an Air Force...
The fourth position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies a
Which skill level identifies enlisted personnel with a high degree of...
Which application is used for providing capabilities such as access...
How often are transaction registers (TR) programmatically controlled...
How many effective communication steps are needed to become a better...
Which Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change a...
What Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) reject code appears...
What rank transitions from being technical experts and first-line...
What training title is awarded after personnel complete a mandatory...
Personnel who need to transport classified material will use the...
In order to be successful when communicating with your audience, use...
What e-mail communication rule is violated if you discuss...
Which application is used only by adjudicative personnel and provides...
Which is not considered one of the five principles of good...
What the Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to cancel...
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