AFSC: Trivia Questions Quiz On Air Force Specialty Code!

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AFSC: Trivia Questions Quiz On Air Force Specialty Code! - Quiz

Below is a Trivia Questions Quiz on Air Force Specialty Code! These codes are used to identify different careers. The number of code has different characters for the officers and those that are enlisted in the air force. Take this test and get to see just how much you now about the codes and what they represent. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What does the first position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identify?

    • A.

      Skill level

    • B.

      Career field

    • C.

      Career group

    • D.

      Career field subdivision

    Correct Answer
    C. Career group
    Explanation
    The first position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the career group. This means that it categorizes the different career fields within the Air Force based on their broader grouping. The AFSC is a code system used to identify and classify different jobs and specialties within the Air Force. The first position of the AFSC provides a high-level overview of the career group to which a particular specialty belongs.

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  • 2. 

    A combination of the first and the second positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the

    • A.

      Skill level

    • B.

      Career field

    • C.

      Career group

    • D.

      Career field subdivision.

    Correct Answer
    B. Career field
    Explanation
    The first and second positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) represent the skill level and career field respectively. Therefore, a combination of these two positions identifies the career field.

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  • 3. 

    What does the combination of the first, second, and third positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identify?

    • A.

      Skill level.

    • B.

      Career field.

    • C.

      Career group

    • D.

      Career field subdivision.

    Correct Answer
    D. Career field subdivision.
    Explanation
    The combination of the first, second, and third positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the career field subdivision. The AFSC is a code used by the Air Force to identify specific specialties and jobs within the military. The first position of the AFSC represents the career group, the second position represents the career field, and the third position represents the career field subdivision. Therefore, the combination of these three positions specifically identifies the career field subdivision.

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  • 4. 

    The fourth position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies a

    • A.

      Skill level.

    • B.

      Career field.

    • C.

      Career group

    • D.

      Career field subdivision

    Correct Answer
    A. Skill level.
    Explanation
    The fourth position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the skill level of an individual. This position indicates the level of training and experience an individual has achieved within their career field. It helps to differentiate between entry-level personnel and those who have advanced in their career and acquired higher levels of expertise.

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  • 5. 

    Which skill level identifies enlisted personnel with a high degree of technical knowledge? Who have acquired additional supervisory capabilities through training and knowledge?

    • A.

      Three

    • B.

      Five

    • C.

      Seven

    • D.

      Nine

    Correct Answer
    C. Seven
    Explanation
    The skill level that identifies enlisted personnel with a high degree of technical knowledge and additional supervisory capabilities is seven. This level indicates that the personnel have undergone extensive training and acquired advanced expertise in their field, enabling them to handle complex technical tasks and also supervise and lead others effectively.

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  • 6. 

    Which type of Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is initially based on how the member is classified at the time of enlistment or during basic training?

    • A.

      Duty.

    • B.

      Control

    • C.

      Primary.

    • D.

      Secondary.

    Correct Answer
    B. Control
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Control. The AFSC, or Air Force Specialty Code, is initially based on how the member is classified at the time of enlistment or during basic training. This means that the member's AFSC is determined by their initial classification or control in the Air Force.

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  • 7. 

    The duties and responsibilities of the personnel craftsman include all of the following except

    • A.

      Advise civilians on civilian personnel issues and programs

    • B.

      Create, maintain, and audit personnel records.

    • C.

      Provide casualty assistance.

    • D.

      Perform personnel actions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Advise civilians on civilian personnel issues and programs
    Explanation
    The duties and responsibilities of the personnel craftsman include creating, maintaining, and auditing personnel records, providing casualty assistance, and performing personnel actions. However, advising civilians on civilian personnel issues and programs is not one of their responsibilities.

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  • 8. 

    Which is not a Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO) function that a personnel craftsman performs?

    • A.

      Preparation of movement

    • B.

      Personnel accountability.

    • C.

      Personnel classification

    • D.

      Personal support.

    Correct Answer
    C. Personnel classification
    Explanation
    A personnel craftsman performs various functions related to Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO). These functions include preparation of movement, personnel accountability, and personal support. However, personnel classification is not a function performed by a personnel craftsman. Personnel classification involves categorizing individuals based on their skills, qualifications, and job roles, which is typically done by personnel specialists or human resources professionals.

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  • 9. 

    What skill level identifies enlisted personnel who, through experience, training, and performance, have shown a high degree of managerial and supervisory ability?

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      7

    • D.

      9

    Correct Answer
    D. 9
    Explanation
    The skill level that identifies enlisted personnel who have shown a high degree of managerial and supervisory ability is level 9. This level indicates that individuals have acquired extensive experience, training, and demonstrated exceptional performance in their roles. They possess advanced leadership skills and are capable of effectively managing and supervising others.

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  • 10. 

    Regarding training, a superintendent must emphasize to an Airman that

    • A.

      Training is key to the success of the Air Force.

    • B.

      Advanced specialty training occurs as the trainee gains experience

    • C.

      Completing a career development course is the most important form of training.

    • D.

      On-the-job training teaches the trainee everything they need to know about the job

    Correct Answer
    A. Training is key to the success of the Air Force.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "training is key to the success of the Air Force." This answer emphasizes the importance of training in achieving success in the Air Force. It suggests that training plays a crucial role in preparing Airmen for their duties and responsibilities, ensuring their competence and effectiveness in their roles. By highlighting the significance of training, the superintendent is emphasizing the value of continuous learning and professional development in maintaining the Air Force's operational readiness and mission success.

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  • 11. 

    What is a senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO) primary purpose?

    • A.

      Career progression.

    • B.

      Maintain readiness.

    • C.

      Mission accomplishment.

    • D.

      Review evaluation reports

    Correct Answer
    C. Mission accomplishment.
    Explanation
    A senior noncommissioned officer's primary purpose is to ensure the successful completion of missions. They are responsible for leading and guiding their subordinates in order to achieve the objectives set by their unit. By prioritizing mission accomplishment, SNCOs contribute to the overall success and effectiveness of the military organization.

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  • 12. 

    What rank transitions from being technical experts and first-line supervisors to leaders with operational competence?

    • A.

      Staff sergeants

    • B.

      Technical sergeants.

    • C.

      Master sergeants

    • D.

      Senior master sergeants

    Correct Answer
    C. Master sergeants
    Explanation
    Master sergeants transition from being technical experts and first-line supervisors to leaders with operational competence. This rank signifies a higher level of responsibility and leadership within the military hierarchy. They possess the necessary technical expertise and experience to effectively lead and manage operations, making them well-suited for this transition.

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  • 13. 

    These are experienced operational leaders, skilled at merging subordinates’ talents, skills, and resources with other teams’ functions to most effectively accomplish the mission.

    • A.

      Technical sergeants

    • B.

      Master sergeants

    • C.

      Senior master sergeants

    • D.

      Chief master sergeants

    Correct Answer
    C. Senior master sergeants
    Explanation
    Senior master sergeants are experienced operational leaders who have the skills and abilities to merge the talents, skills, and resources of their subordinates with other teams' functions in order to effectively accomplish the mission. This indicates that they have a high level of expertise and are capable of leading and coordinating complex operations. Technical sergeants, master sergeants, and chief master sergeants may also have leadership roles, but the description provided specifically highlights the role of senior master sergeants in this context.

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  • 14. 

    What enlisted rank must epitomize the finest qualities of a military leader and develop future enlisted leaders?

    • A.

      Technical sergeants.

    • B.

      Master sergeants.

    • C.

      Senior master sergeants

    • D.

      Chief master sergeants

    Correct Answer
    D. Chief master sergeants
    Explanation
    Chief master sergeants must epitomize the finest qualities of a military leader and develop future enlisted leaders. As the highest enlisted rank in the United States Air Force, they are expected to possess exceptional leadership skills, extensive experience, and a deep understanding of military operations. They serve as role models for lower-ranking enlisted personnel and are responsible for mentoring and guiding them towards becoming effective leaders. Chief master sergeants also play a crucial role in advising senior officers on enlisted matters and shaping the overall direction and development of the enlisted force.

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  • 15. 

    The strategy of the Air Force on-the-job training (OJT) program provides realistic and flexible training by using all of the following capabilities except

    • A.

      Managing.

    • B.

      Executing.

    • C.

      Enhancing.

    • D.

      Developing.

    Correct Answer
    C. Enhancing.
    Explanation
    The Air Force on-the-job training (OJT) program aims to provide realistic and flexible training. The program focuses on managing, executing, and developing the skills of the trainees. However, enhancing is not mentioned as one of the capabilities of the program. Therefore, enhancing is the capability that is not included in the strategy of the Air Force OJT program.

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  • 16. 

    The Air Force on-the-job (OJT) program consists of all of the following components except the job

    • A.

      Satisfaction

    • B.

      Proficiency.

    • C.

      Knowledge

    • D.

      Experience

    Correct Answer
    A. Satisfaction
    Explanation
    The Air Force on-the-job (OJT) program includes components such as proficiency, knowledge, and experience. These components are essential for developing the skills and expertise necessary for job performance. However, job satisfaction is not explicitly mentioned as a component of the OJT program. While job satisfaction is important for overall job performance and employee well-being, it is not specifically listed as a component of the OJT program in this context.

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  • 17. 

    What is key to the total training program?

    • A.

      Career development courses (CDCs).

    • B.

      Specialty knowledge test (SKT).

    • C.

      On-the job training (OJT).

    • D.

      Upgrade training (UGT).

    Correct Answer
    D. Upgrade training (UGT).
    Explanation
    Upgrade training (UGT) is the key to the total training program because it refers to the training provided to individuals to enhance their skills and knowledge in their current job or to prepare them for a higher-level position. UGT helps individuals stay updated with the latest advancements and changes in their field, ensuring they have the necessary skills to perform their job effectively. It plays a crucial role in career development and progression within an organization. Therefore, UGT is the most important component of the total training program.

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  • 18. 

    What training title is awarded after personnel complete a mandatory career development course (CDC), all core tasks identified in the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and other duty position tasks?

    • A.

      Apprentice.

    • B.

      Journeyman.

    • C.

      Craftsman

    • D.

      Superintendent

    Correct Answer
    B. Journeyman.
    Explanation
    After completing a mandatory career development course (CDC), all core tasks identified in the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and other duty position tasks, personnel are awarded the training title of Journeyman.

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  • 19. 

    This type of training is defined as specialized, systematic and/or thorough technical training provided to enhance specific knowledge needs of each person involved in the training.

    • A.

      Initial skills.

    • B.

      On-the job

    • C.

      Upgrade.

    • D.

      In-house

    Correct Answer
    D. In-house
    Explanation
    The given answer "In-house" is the correct answer because it refers to training that is provided within the organization or company. In-house training is specialized, systematic, and thorough, focusing on enhancing the specific knowledge needs of each individual involved in the training. This type of training is typically tailored to the organization's specific requirements and can be conducted by internal trainers or external experts. It allows employees to acquire the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their job effectively and efficiently.

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  • 20. 

    As a supervisor, what do you require to develop a Master Training Plan (MTP) used to manage work centers and individual training?

    • A.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • B.

      Career Development Course (CDC).

    • C.

      Specialty Training Standard (STS).

    • D.

      Job Qualification Standard (JQS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
    Explanation
    To develop a Master Training Plan (MTP) used to manage work centers and individual training as a supervisor, the requirement is a Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This plan outlines the required training and education for specific career fields, providing guidance on the necessary skills and knowledge. It helps supervisors in identifying the training needs of their work centers and individuals, ensuring that they receive the appropriate training to perform their duties effectively. The CFETP serves as a comprehensive resource for planning and managing training within a career field, making it the correct answer for this question.

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  • 21. 

    What document identifies all day-to-day mission requirements, core tasks, in-garrison and contingency tasks, and additional duties performed in the work center?

    • A.

      Specialty Training Standard.

    • B.

      Job Qualification Standard.

    • C.

      Master Training Plan.

    • D.

      Master Task List

    Correct Answer
    D. Master Task List
    Explanation
    The Master Task List is a document that identifies all day-to-day mission requirements, core tasks, in-garrison and contingency tasks, and additional duties performed in the work center. It serves as a comprehensive guide for the tasks and responsibilities that need to be fulfilled in the work center, ensuring that all necessary duties are accounted for and carried out efficiently. The other options, Specialty Training Standard, Job Qualification Standard, and Master Training Plan, may also contain some relevant information but do not specifically identify all the day-to-day mission requirements, core tasks, and additional duties performed in the work center like the Master Task List does.

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  • 22. 

    Who is responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training?

    • A.

      Supervisors.

    • B.

      Unit training managers.

    • C.

      Career Assistance Advisors.

    • D.

      Air Force Career Field Managers

    Correct Answer
    B. Unit training managers.
    Explanation
    Unit training managers are responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training. They play a crucial role in managing the training process and ensuring that all necessary administrative actions are taken for trainees. Supervisors may provide guidance and oversight, but it is the unit training managers who have the specific responsibility for initiating personnel actions related to training. Career Assistance Advisors and Air Force Career Field Managers may have other roles and responsibilities, but they are not specifically responsible for initiating personnel actions on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training.

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  • 23. 

    The focal point of the Air Force training program is the

    • A.

      Trainee.

    • B.

      Trainer

    • C.

      Supervisor

    • D.

      Unit training manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Trainee.
    Explanation
    The focal point of the Air Force training program is the trainee because the program is designed to develop and enhance the skills, knowledge, and abilities of the trainee. The training program is tailored to meet the specific needs and goals of the trainee, ensuring that they are equipped with the necessary skills to fulfill their duties and responsibilities in the Air Force. The trainee is at the center of the training program, receiving guidance, support, and resources to succeed in their training and ultimately contribute to the mission of the Air Force.

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  • 24. 

    Why is it important to document interruptions to upgrade training, such as leave or temporary duty, on the AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet?

    • A.

      So the unit training manager (UTM) can reference the dates.

    • B.

      So the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) can reference the dates.

    • C.

      In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training and the course material.

    • D.

      In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training, documentation can be referenced

    Correct Answer
    D. In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training, documentation can be referenced
    Explanation
    The documentation of interruptions to upgrade training is important because it can be referenced in case the trainee has difficulty with the training. By documenting the interruptions on the AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet, the trainee's progress and any potential challenges can be tracked and addressed. This allows for a more effective and targeted approach to the trainee's upgrade training, ensuring that any difficulties are identified and resolved in a timely manner.

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  • 25. 

    All of the following are the trainee’s responsibilities in the upgrade training process except

    • A.

      Documenting training progress on AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet.

    • B.

      Budgeting on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks

    • C.

      Comprehending the applicable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) requirements and career path.

    • D.

      Acknowledging and documenting task qualification upon completion of training.

    Correct Answer
    A. Documenting training progress on AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet.
    Explanation
    The trainee's responsibilities in the upgrade training process include budgeting on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks, comprehending the applicable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) requirements and career path, and acknowledging and documenting task qualification upon completion of training. However, documenting training progress on AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet is not one of the trainee's responsibilities in the upgrade training process.

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  • 26. 

    Why is it important to develop and implement control measures when dealing with classified material?

    • A.

      So you know where the classified information is kept.

    • B.

      To keep track of the people dealing with the classified material

    • C.

      So security forces knows where the classified information is kept

    • D.

      To decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands

    Correct Answer
    D. To decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands
    Explanation
    Developing and implementing control measures when dealing with classified material is important because it helps decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands. By having control measures in place, such as restricted access, proper storage, and monitoring of individuals handling the material, the risk of unauthorized access or disclosure is minimized. This ensures that sensitive information remains secure and protected from potential threats or breaches.

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  • 27. 

    Which is not an installation security program manager’s program responsibility?

    • A.

      Recognizing the training efforts of effective security managers publicly.

    • B.

      Assessing the effectiveness of training programs as part of the information security program review.

    • C.

      Indoctrinating personnel to the investigation position code reflected in the unit manpower document

    • D.

      Developing and conducting classroom or one-on-one training for newly appointed security managers.

    Correct Answer
    C. Indoctrinating personnel to the investigation position code reflected in the unit manpower document
  • 28. 

    Within how many days of assignment to the unit must supervisors ensure their cleared personnel receive an initial security education orientation before they access classified information?

    • A.

      90

    • B.

      120

    • C.

      150

    • D.

      180

    Correct Answer
    A. 90
    Explanation
    Supervisors must ensure that their cleared personnel receive an initial security education orientation within 90 days of assignment to the unit before they can access classified information. This orientation is crucial to familiarize employees with the necessary security protocols and procedures to handle classified information safely and securely. By providing this education within the first 90 days, supervisors can ensure that employees are properly trained and prepared to handle classified information in their roles.

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  • 29. 

    Which application is used only by adjudicative personnel and provides capabilities such as case management and adjudicative history and summary?

    • A.

      Joint Clearance and Access Verification System (JCAVS).

    • B.

      Joint Adjudication Management System (JAMS).

    • C.

      Personnel Occupying Information System (POIS).

    • D.

      Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS).

    Correct Answer
    B. Joint Adjudication Management System (JAMS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Joint Adjudication Management System (JAMS). JAMS is the application used only by adjudicative personnel and it provides capabilities such as case management and adjudicative history and summary.

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  • 30. 

    Which application is used for providing capabilities such as access indoctrination, debriefing history, incident, and issue file reporting, history, and management of unit personnel security functions?

    • A.

      Joint Clearance and Access Verification System (JCAVS).

    • B.

      Joint Adjudication Management System (JAMS)

    • C.

      Personnel Occupying Information System (POIS).

    • D.

      Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Clearance and Access Verification System (JCAVS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Joint Clearance and Access Verification System (JCAVS). This application is used for providing capabilities such as access indoctrination, debriefing history, incident and issue file reporting, and management of unit personnel security functions. It helps in verifying clearances and access for individuals within the organization.

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  • 31. 

    It is important to use the SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement, when granting an individual access to classified information to ensure

    • A.

      All necessary access steps have been completed.

    • B.

      The security manager sends the proper form to be filed in archives.

    • C.

      You include this form as part of the Field Record Group.

    • D.

      You have a source document signed and dated by the individual.

    Correct Answer
    D. You have a source document signed and dated by the individual.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "you have a source document signed and dated by the individual." This is because the SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement, is a source document that must be signed and dated by the individual before granting them access to classified information. This ensures that the individual acknowledges their responsibilities and obligations regarding the protection of classified information.

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  • 32. 

    When an individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) for access to classified information, the commander or staff agency chief does all of the following except

    • A.

      Initiates a security incident report.

    • B.

      Denies the individual access to classified information

    • C.

      Initiates action to establish a Security Information File (SIF).

    • D.

      Grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.

    Correct Answer
    D. Grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.
    Explanation
    When an individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) for access to classified information, the commander or staff agency chief may initiate a security incident report, deny the individual access to classified information, and initiate action to establish a Security Information File (SIF). However, they would not grant temporary access to classified information until the form is signed, as that would go against the purpose of the NDA, which is to ensure that classified information remains confidential and protected.

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  • 33. 

    It is important for the commander or staff agency chief to complete a three-step process against an individual who refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) because of the

    • A.

      Refusal may initiate removal from the squadron.

    • B.

      Refusal may be indicative of suspicious or negative behavior

    • C.

      Commander may be required to interview the member a second time.

    • D.

      Commander may be required to refer the individual to another commander

    Correct Answer
    B. Refusal may be indicative of suspicious or negative behavior
    Explanation
    Refusing to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) may indicate that the individual has something to hide or is engaging in suspicious or negative behavior. This behavior could potentially compromise the security or integrity of the squadron. Therefore, it is important for the commander or staff agency chief to take appropriate action against the individual, which may include initiating removal from the squadron or conducting further interviews or referrals.

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  • 34. 

    Why is it imperative to complete the four-step authorization process when confirming a person’s level of access to classified information?

    • A.

      Because each step is an intricate part of the “go, no-go” process.

    • B.

      Because each step is an intricate piece of the “checks and balance” process

    • C.

      You will be unable to process the request, and therefore, the person will not get access.

    • D.

      You will be unable to process the request, no access is granted, and the process is repeated

    Correct Answer
    B. Because each step is an intricate piece of the “checks and balance” process
    Explanation
    Each step of the four-step authorization process is an important component of the "checks and balance" process. This means that each step serves as a safeguard to ensure that the person's level of access to classified information is properly evaluated and approved. By completing all four steps, the process can effectively verify the person's eligibility and prevent unauthorized access.

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  • 35. 

    Authority to grant security clearance access to persons outside the Executive Branch without a previous clearance may not be delegated below the

    • A.

      Mission support group (MSG) commander.

    • B.

      Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

    • C.

      Numbered Air Force (NAF) commander

    • D.

      Wing (WG) commander

    Correct Answer
    B. Major command (MAJCOM) commander.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Major command (MAJCOM) commander. This is because the authority to grant security clearance access to persons outside the Executive Branch without a previous clearance cannot be delegated below the MAJCOM commander. This means that only the MAJCOM commander has the power and responsibility to grant security clearance access to individuals who do not already have a clearance.

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  • 36. 

    Why is it important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material?

    • A.

      The material may get confiscated by unauthorized personnel.

    • B.

      The material may not be important enough to hand carry.

    • C.

      The foreign government may want to take it from you.

    • D.

      To avoid bringing unwanted attention to yourself.

    Correct Answer
    A. The material may get confiscated by unauthorized personnel.
    Explanation
    When hand carrying sensitive material, it is important to consider your environment because the material may get confiscated by unauthorized personnel. This is crucial as sensitive material can contain valuable or confidential information that should only be accessed by authorized individuals. If unauthorized personnel confiscate the material, it could lead to potential security breaches or the loss of important information. Therefore, being aware of the environment and taking necessary precautions can help prevent such incidents from occurring.

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  • 37. 

    When transporting laptops and disks, couriers must do all of the following except

    • A.

      Password protect laptops

    • B.

      Erase laptops and disks completely before transporting

    • C.

      Wrap or secure classified media within a container if outer markings are visible.

    • D.

      Mark laptops and disks according to DOD 5200.1R, Information Security Program.

    Correct Answer
    B. Erase laptops and disks completely before transporting
    Explanation
    Couriers are required to take certain precautions when transporting laptops and disks to ensure the security of the information they contain. They must password protect laptops, wrap or secure classified media within a container if outer markings are visible, and mark laptops and disks according to DOD 5200.1R, Information Security Program. However, erasing laptops and disks completely before transporting is not necessary as long as the other security measures are in place.

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  • 38. 

    Personnel who need to transport classified material will use the Department of State courier system to transport

    • A.

      Through secret internet protocol router networks.

    • B.

      From one storage unit to an available storage unit.

    • C.

      Through or within countries hostile to the United States

    • D.

      Through or within a military installation in the United States

    Correct Answer
    C. Through or within countries hostile to the United States
  • 39. 

    Classified communications security (COMSEC) information may not be transmitted

    • A.

      During duty hours.

    • B.

      Over the weekend

    • C.

      After hours.

    • D.

      Overnight.

    Correct Answer
    D. Overnight.
    Explanation
    Classified communications security (COMSEC) information may not be transmitted overnight because it poses a higher risk of interception or unauthorized access when there are fewer personnel on duty and security measures may be more relaxed. Transmitting such information during duty hours, over the weekend, or after hours may still have some level of security measures in place to protect the information. However, transmitting it overnight when there is minimal staff and reduced security measures increases the vulnerability of the information.

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  • 40. 

    Who is responsible for making sure an authorized person is available to receive a secure package on a holiday and to verify the correct mailing address?

    • A.

      Sender

    • B.

      Shipper.

    • C.

      Receiver.

    • D.

      Supplier.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sender
    Explanation
    The sender is responsible for making sure an authorized person is available to receive a secure package on a holiday and to verify the correct mailing address. This is because the sender is the one who initiates the shipment and is aware of the recipient's availability and address details. They have the responsibility to ensure that the package reaches the intended recipient safely and securely.

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  • 41. 

    Which is not considered one of the five principles of good communication?

    • A.

      Focus.

    • B.

      Justification.

    • C.

      Organization

    • D.

      Understanding.

    Correct Answer
    B. Justification.
    Explanation
    Justification is not considered one of the five principles of good communication because it refers to providing reasons or evidence to support a decision or action. While justification can be important in certain contexts, it is not a fundamental principle of communication. The five principles of good communication typically include clarity, conciseness, completeness, coherence, and correctness, which all focus on effectively conveying information and ideas.

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  • 42. 

    How many effective communication steps are needed to become a better communicator whether you are writing or speaking?

    • A.

      Three

    • B.

      Five

    • C.

      Seven

    • D.

      Nine

    Correct Answer
    C. Seven
    Explanation
    To become a better communicator, whether in writing or speaking, seven effective communication steps are needed. These steps likely include skills such as active listening, clear and concise expression of ideas, adapting to the needs of the audience, using appropriate body language, and being mindful of non-verbal cues. By following these steps, individuals can enhance their communication abilities and effectively convey their message to others.

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  • 43. 

    In order to be successful when communicating with your audience, use all of the following tips except

    • A.

      Being inclusive

    • B.

      Being original.

    • C.

      Extending courtesy

    • D.

      Making it personal.

    Correct Answer
    B. Being original.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "being original." When communicating with your audience, it is important to be inclusive, extending courtesy, and making it personal. Being original may not always be the most effective approach as it can sometimes alienate or confuse the audience. It is often better to focus on connecting with the audience and delivering the message in a way that resonates with them.

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  • 44. 

    Use all of the following approaches when researching your topic to uncover information that supports your communication goals except

    • A.

      Assign a deadline

    • B.

      Determine what is known

    • C.

      Review the purpose and scope of the overall project

    • D.

      Avoid asking your supervisor until you have all information to present

    Correct Answer
    D. Avoid asking your supervisor until you have all information to present
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "avoid asking your supervisor until you have all information to present". This approach is not recommended because it is important to involve your supervisor throughout the research process to ensure that you are on the right track and to seek guidance or clarification if needed. By waiting until you have all the information to present, you may miss out on valuable input or feedback from your supervisor, which could affect the accuracy and effectiveness of your communication goals.

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  • 45. 

    What rule of e-mail communication would you use to make sure the subject line communicates your purpose?

    • A.

      Be selective about the message you send

    • B.

      Keep your e-mail under control.

    • C.

      Be clear and concise.

    • D.

      Watch your tone.

    Correct Answer
    C. Be clear and concise.
    Explanation
    To ensure that the subject line communicates your purpose in email communication, the rule of being clear and concise should be followed. This means that the subject line should be brief yet informative, providing a clear indication of the content or purpose of the email. By using this rule, recipients can quickly understand the purpose of the email and prioritize their response accordingly.

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  • 46. 

    What e-mail communication rule is violated if you discuss controversial, sensitive, official use only, classified, personal, or privacy act information?

    • A.

      Be selective about who received your message.

    • B.

      Be selective about the message you send.

    • C.

      Keep your e-mail under control.

    • D.

      Be clear and concise.

    Correct Answer
    B. Be selective about the message you send.
    Explanation
    If you discuss controversial, sensitive, official use only, classified, personal, or privacy act information in an email, you are violating the e-mail communication rule of being selective about the message you send. This means that you should carefully consider the content of your email and ensure that it is appropriate and does not contain any information that should not be shared.

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  • 47. 

    A member’s date of enlistment (DOE), or day entering an extension, requires an E63 update be input into the military personnel data system (MILPDS) no earlier than

    • A.

      30 days prior

    • B.

      60 days prior.

    • C.

      90 days prior

    • D.

      120 days prior

    Correct Answer
    D. 120 days prior
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 120 days prior. This means that the E63 update for a member's date of enlistment or day entering an extension should be input into the military personnel data system (MILPDS) no earlier than 120 days before the actual date. This allows for sufficient time to process and update the information accurately.

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  • 48. 

    What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change an initial E63 projection prior to the effective date of a reenlistment action?

    • A.

      E63

    • B.

      E64

    • C.

      E6D

    • D.

      E6F

    Correct Answer
    B. E64
    Explanation
    The Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update used to change an initial E63 projection prior to the effective date of a reenlistment action is E64.

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  • 49. 

    Which Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change a date of separation only in the Master Military Pay Account (MMPA)?

    • A.

      E6C

    • B.

      E6F

    • C.

      TU4

    • D.

      TU5

    Correct Answer
    C. TU4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TU4. TU4 is the Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update that is used to change a date of separation only in the Master Military Pay Account (MMPA).

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  • 50. 

    What the Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to cancel an extension prior to the effective date and is automatically output when the extension is canceled?

    • A.

      E6F

    • B.

      TU4

    • C.

      TU5

    • D.

      TU6

    Correct Answer
    D. TU6
    Explanation
    The Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update TU6 is used to cancel an extension prior to the effective date and is automatically output when the extension is canceled.

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