Np Test 2: Chest Disorders (Cardiac)

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1. In obtaining an office BP measurement, which of the following is most reflective of the Seventh Report of the National High Blood Pressure Education Program for the Prevention, Detection, Evaluation, and Treatment of High Blood Pressure (JNC-7) recommendations?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Patient should sit in chair with feet flat on floor for at least 5 minutes before obtaining a reading." This is most reflective of the JNC-7 recommendations because it allows the patient to achieve a relaxed state and stabilize their blood pressure before the measurement is taken. This helps to ensure that the reading is accurate and representative of the patient's true blood pressure.

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Np Test 2: Chest Disorders (Cardiac) - Quiz

NP test 2: Chest Disorders (Cardiac) assesses knowledge on hypertension management, diagnostic testing, and medication selection for cardiac health. It evaluates skills in handling patients with varying cardiovascular... see moreconditions, crucial for healthcare professionals. see less

2. You start a patient with hypertension who is already receiving an ACEI on sprionolactone. You advise the patient to return in 4 weeks to check which of the following lab parameters?

Explanation

When starting a patient with hypertension on spironolactone, it is important to monitor their potassium levels. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. However, if potassium levels become too high, it can lead to hyperkalemia, which can be dangerous. Therefore, it is crucial to regularly check the patient's potassium levels to ensure they are within a safe range. Monitoring other lab parameters such as sodium, calcium, and chloride may also be important, but the primary concern in this case is the patient's potassium levels.

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3. A BP elevation noted only at an office visit is commonly known as __________ hypertension

Explanation

White coat hypertension refers to a temporary increase in blood pressure that occurs when a person is in a medical setting, such as a doctor's office or hospital, but not in their everyday life. This phenomenon is believed to be caused by the anxiety or stress of being in a medical environment, leading to a falsely elevated blood pressure reading. It is important to recognize white coat hypertension to avoid unnecessary treatment with medication for hypertension when it is not actually present.

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4. Which of the following medications is an ACEI

Explanation

Trandolapril is the correct answer because it belongs to the class of medications known as ACE inhibitors (ACEIs). ACE inhibitors work by blocking the action of an enzyme called angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), which helps to relax and widen blood vessels, reducing blood pressure. Clonidine, Felodipine, and Doxazosin are not ACE inhibitors but belong to different classes of medications used to treat hypertension.

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5. An abnormality of which of the following is the most sensitive marker for myocardial damage?

Explanation

Troponin I (cTnI) is the most sensitive marker for myocardial damage. Troponin I is a protein found in cardiac muscle cells and is released into the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart muscle. It is a highly specific marker for myocardial injury and is commonly used in the diagnosis of myocardial infarction (heart attack). Other markers such as aspartate aminotransferase, creatine phosphokinase (CPK), and lactate dehydrogenase may also be elevated in myocardial damage, but troponin I has been found to be the most sensitive and specific marker for detecting cardiac injury.

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6. Which of the following is among the most common causes of HF

Explanation

Hypertensive heart disease refers to heart conditions caused by high blood pressure. It is a common cause of heart failure (HF) because prolonged high blood pressure can lead to the thickening and stiffening of the heart muscle, making it less efficient at pumping blood. This can eventually result in heart failure, where the heart is unable to meet the body's demands for blood and oxygen. Therefore, hypertensive heart disease is among the most common causes of HF.

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7. A potential adverse effect of ACEI when used with spironolactone therapy is:

Explanation

When ACE inhibitors (ACEI) are used in combination with spironolactone therapy, a potential adverse effect is hyperkalemia. ACE inhibitors can decrease the levels of aldosterone, a hormone that helps regulate potassium levels in the body. Spironolactone, on the other hand, is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can increase potassium levels. When used together, the combination can lead to an excessive accumulation of potassium in the blood, resulting in hyperkalemia. This can be a serious condition that can affect the heart's electrical activity and lead to abnormal heart rhythms. Regular monitoring of potassium levels is important when using this combination therapy.

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8. The most important goal of treating HTN is to:

Explanation

The most important goal of treating HTN is to avoid disease-related target organ damage. This means that the primary objective of treating hypertension is to prevent damage to organs such as the heart, kidneys, brain, and blood vessels, which can occur as a result of high blood pressure. By effectively managing blood pressure levels, healthcare providers can reduce the risk of complications and improve overall health outcomes for individuals with hypertension. This goal takes precedence over other considerations such as reaching recommended numeric blood pressure measurements, developing a care plan with minimal adverse effects, and treating concomitant health problems.

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9. Beta adrenergic antagonists are used in ACS therapy because of their ability to:

Explanation

Beta adrenergic antagonists are used in ACS therapy because they can reduce myocardial oxygen demand. These medications work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the beta receptors in the heart, leading to a decrease in heart rate and contractility. This ultimately reduces the workload on the heart and the amount of oxygen it requires. By reducing myocardial oxygen demand, beta blockers can help improve symptoms and outcomes in patients with ACS.

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10. A 68-year-old woman presents with HTN and a BP of 145-155 / 92-96 mmHG documented over 2 months on three different occasions. ECG and creatinine are normal, and she has no proteinuria. Clinical findings include the following: BMI 26.4; no S3, S4, or murmur; and point of maximal impulse at the 5th intercostal space, mid-clavicular line. Wich of the following represents the best intervention.

Explanation

The best intervention in this case is to initiate therapy with HCTZ (hydrochlorothiazide). This is because the patient has hypertension (HTN) with consistently elevated blood pressure readings over a period of time. HCTZ is a diuretic that helps lower blood pressure by reducing the volume of fluid in the body. Since the patient has no evidence of target organ damage and her ECG and creatinine are normal, starting with a diuretic like HCTZ is a reasonable first-line treatment option. Atenolol is a beta-blocker and methyldopa is an alpha-2 agonist, both of which can be considered as alternative options, but in this case, HCTZ is the best choice.

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11. You examine a 38-year-old woman who has presented for an initial examination and Pap test. She has no complaint. Her BP is 144/98 bilaterally and her body mass index is 31. The rest of her physical exam is unremarkable. Your next best action is to:

Explanation

The correct answer is to arrange for at least two additional BP measurements during the next 2 weeks. This is because the patient's blood pressure is elevated at 144/98, which indicates hypertension. However, a single elevated blood pressure reading is not enough to diagnose hypertension. It is recommended to confirm the diagnosis by obtaining multiple blood pressure measurements over a period of time. This will help determine if the elevated blood pressure is sustained or if it was just an isolated reading. Therefore, arranging for additional BP measurements is the next best action to accurately diagnose and manage the patient's hypertension.

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12. You examine a 78-year-old woman with long-standing, poorly controlled hypertension. When evaluating her for hypertensive target organ damage, you look for evidence of:

Explanation

When evaluating a patient for hypertensive target organ damage, one of the key things to look for is evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy. This is because long-standing, poorly controlled hypertension can cause the heart muscle to thicken and enlarge in response to the increased workload. Left ventricular hypertrophy is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart failure, arrhythmias, and myocardial infarction. Therefore, identifying left ventricular hypertrophy in a patient with poorly controlled hypertension is important for assessing the extent of organ damage and determining appropriate management strategies.

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13. Which of the following medications is an aldosterone antagonist?

Explanation

Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist. It works by blocking the effects of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates sodium and water balance in the body. By blocking aldosterone, spironolactone helps to reduce fluid retention and lower blood pressure. This medication is commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension, heart failure, and edema. Clonidine, HCTZ, and furosemide are not aldosterone antagonists, but rather belong to different classes of medications used to treat hypertension and other conditions.

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14. Of the following patients, who is in greatest need of endocarditis prophylaxis when planning dental work?

Explanation

Patients with prosthetic heart valves are at the highest risk for developing infective endocarditis. Therefore, the 54-year-old woman with a prosthetic aortic valve is in the greatest need of endocarditis prophylaxis when planning dental work.

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15. Nitrates are used in ACS therapy because of their ability to: 

Explanation

Nitrates are used in ACS therapy because they cause vasodilation. Vasodilation refers to the widening of blood vessels, which helps to increase blood flow and reduce resistance in the arteries. By causing vasodilation, nitrates help to improve blood supply to the heart muscle, relieve angina symptoms, and reduce myocardial oxygen demand. This can be beneficial in treating acute coronary syndrome (ACS) as it helps to alleviate chest pain and improve overall cardiac function.

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16. Which of the following best describes orthopnea

Explanation

Orthopnea is a condition characterized by dyspnea (shortness of breath) that develops when the individual is lying down and is relieved when they elevate their head. This means that the person experiences difficulty breathing when they are in a lying position, but the symptoms improve when they sit up or raise their head. This is different from dyspnea with exercise, which occurs during physical activity, and dyspnea at rest, which happens even when the person is not exerting themselves. The description of sudden awakening at night with severe anxiety and breathlessness is characteristic of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, which is not the same as orthopnea.

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17. In assessing a woman with or at risk for acute coronary syndrome (ACS), the NP considers that the patient will likely present:

Explanation

Women with acute coronary syndrome (ACS) are more likely to present with angina, which is chest pain or discomfort, compared to men. This is because women tend to have more atypical symptoms of ACS, such as shortness of breath, fatigue, or nausea, rather than the typical symptom of chest pain. On the other hand, men are more likely to present with acute myocardial infarction (MI), which is a heart attack. Women also have a lower incidence of heart failure (HF) compared to men. Therefore, it is more common for women with or at risk for ACS to present with angina and less commonly with acute MI or HF.

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18. According to the recommendations found in JNC-7, all of the following medications are designated as having a compelling indication for use in the person with high cardiovascular disease risk except:

Explanation

The correct answer is Doxazosin. According to the recommendations in JNC-7, all of the medications listed (HCTZ, Atenolol, and Trandolapril) are designated as having a compelling indication for use in individuals with high cardiovascular disease risk. However, Doxazosin is not specifically mentioned as having a compelling indication in this context.

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19. When a heart valve fails to open to its normal orifice size, it is said to be:

Explanation

When a heart valve fails to open to its normal orifice size, it is said to be stenotic. This means that the valve is narrowed or constricted, which restricts blood flow through the valve. This can lead to symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and fatigue. Stenosis can occur in any of the heart valves, including the aortic valve, mitral valve, tricuspid valve, and pulmonary valve. Treatment for stenotic valves may involve medication or surgical intervention to repair or replace the affected valve.

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20. Of the following individuals, who is most likely to have a physiological split S2 heart sound?

Explanation

A physiological split S2 heart sound refers to a normal variation in the timing of the closing of the aortic and pulmonic valves, resulting in a split sound. This is commonly observed in young and healthy individuals, particularly athletes, due to their increased cardiac output and enhanced cardiovascular conditioning. Therefore, the 19-year-old healthy athlete is most likely to have a physiological split S2 heart sound.

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21. Which of the following changes on the 12-lead ECG do you expect to find in a patient with acute coronary syndrome (ACS)?

Explanation

In a patient with acute coronary syndrome (ACS), it is expected to find ST segment deviation (>0.05 mV) on the 12-lead ECG. This can indicate myocardial ischemia or injury, which is commonly seen in ACS. Flattened T-waves can also be seen in ACS, but they are not specific to this condition and can be seen in other cardiac abnormalities as well. R-wave larger than 25 mm is not typically associated with ACS. Fixed Q waves, on the other hand, can be seen in patients with a previous myocardial infarction, but they are not specific to ACS.

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22. You are examining an elderly woman and find a grade 3/6 crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur with radiation to the neck. This is most likely caused by:

Explanation

A grade 3/6 crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur with radiation to the neck is characteristic of aortic stenosis. Aortic stenosis is the narrowing of the aortic valve, which obstructs the flow of blood from the left ventricle to the aorta. This causes the blood to flow through the narrowed valve with increased velocity, resulting in a murmur. The crescendo-decrescendo pattern indicates the turbulent blood flow through the stenotic valve. The radiation to the neck suggests that the murmur is audible in the carotid arteries, which are located in the neck.

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23. Which of the following is most consistent with a person presenting with unstable angina?

Explanation

A person presenting with unstable angina may experience chest pressure that lasts for a longer duration (20 minutes) and occurs at rest. Unstable angina is characterized by chest pain or discomfort that is unpredictable, occurs at rest or with minimal exertion, and is more severe and prolonged compared to stable angina. The fact that the chest pressure lasts for 20 minutes and occurs at rest suggests that it is consistent with unstable angina.

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24. You examine an 82-year-old woman who has a history of heart failure. She is in the office because of increasing SOB. When auscultating her heart, you note a tachycardia with a rate of 104 bpm and an extra heart sound early in diastole. This sound most likely represents: 

Explanation

The extra heart sound early in diastole is most likely an S3 sound. S3 is commonly heard in patients with heart failure and is associated with ventricular filling during rapid diastolic filling. It is often described as a "gallop" sound and can indicate volume overload or ventricular dysfunction. In this case, the patient's history of heart failure and increasing shortness of breath suggest that the S3 sound is likely indicative of her underlying cardiac condition.

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25. In the person with HTN, which of the following would likely yield the greatest potential reduction in BP in a patient with a BMI of 30?

Explanation

Losing 10 kg of weight would likely yield the greatest potential reduction in blood pressure (BP) in a person with hypertension (HTN) and a BMI of 30. Obesity is a known risk factor for HTN, and weight loss can significantly lower BP. Losing 10 kg would result in a substantial reduction in body mass, leading to decreased strain on the cardiovascular system and improved overall health. Dietary sodium restriction, regular aerobic physical activity, and moderate alcohol consumption can also contribute to lowering BP, but the impact of weight loss is generally more significant.

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26. All of the following should be prescribed as part of therapy in ACS except:

Explanation

Nisoldipine should not be prescribed as part of therapy in ACS because it is a calcium channel blocker primarily used for hypertension and angina, not for acute coronary syndrome. Aspirin is commonly prescribed in ACS to prevent blood clot formation, metoprolol is a beta blocker that helps reduce heart rate and blood pressure, and lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that helps relax blood vessels and lower blood pressure. However, nisoldipine does not have the same beneficial effects in ACS and is not recommended for this condition.

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27. Diagnostic testing for a patient with new stage 1 primary HTN diagnosis should include all of the following except:

Explanation

When diagnosing a patient with new stage 1 primary hypertension, it is important to assess certain factors that could contribute to the condition. Hematocrit (Hct), creatinine, and potassium levels are all relevant indicators that can help determine the cause and severity of hypertension. Uric acid, on the other hand, is not directly related to hypertension and therefore would not be necessary to include in the diagnostic testing.

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28. Which of the following medications is a beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist?

Explanation

Pindolol is a beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist. Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists, also known as beta-blockers, block the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline on beta receptors in the body. Pindolol specifically blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 adrenergic receptors, making it effective in treating conditions such as hypertension and angina. Clonidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for hypertension, spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic used for heart failure and hypertension, and HCTZ is a thiazide diuretic used for hypertension.

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29. The mechanism of action of aliskiren (Tekturna) is as a/an:

Explanation

Aliskiren (Tekturna) is a direct renin inhibitor. Renin is an enzyme involved in the production of angiotensin II, which is a potent vasoconstrictor. By inhibiting renin, aliskiren reduces the production of angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure. It is not an ACEI, beta-adrenergic antagonist, or centrally acting agent.

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30. Aortic stenosis in a 15-year-old is most likely:

Explanation

Aortic stenosis in a 15-year-old is most likely a result of a congenital defect. This means that the individual was born with a narrowed aortic valve, which restricts blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta. It is less likely to be a sequela of rheumatic fever, which is an inflammatory condition that can cause damage to the heart valves. Calcific aortic stenosis typically occurs in older individuals due to the buildup of calcium deposits on the valve leaflets. There is no mention of an atrial septal defect in the question, so it is not relevant to the most likely cause of aortic stenosis in this case.

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31. Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in patients with chest pain and ECG changes such as:

Explanation

Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in patients with chest pain and ECG changes such as 3-mm ST segment elevation in leads V1 to V4. This indicates a significant myocardial infarction (heart attack) and is a clear indication for thrombolytic therapy. Thrombolytic therapy helps dissolve blood clots that may be causing the blockage in the coronary arteries, restoring blood flow to the heart muscle and preventing further damage.

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32. A 52-year-old woman whose BP is consistently 130-135 / 82-86 mmHG who is otherwise well is considered to have:

Explanation

The given blood pressure readings of 130-135 / 82-86 mmHg fall within the prehypertension range. Prehypertension is a condition where blood pressure levels are higher than normal but not yet classified as hypertension. This condition serves as a warning sign that the individual is at risk of developing high blood pressure in the future. It is important for the woman to monitor her blood pressure regularly and make lifestyle changes to prevent the progression of prehypertension to hypertension.

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33. Which of the following medications is an alpha-adrenergic antagonist?

Explanation

Doxazosin is an alpha-adrenergic antagonist medication. It works by blocking the alpha-1 adrenergic receptors in the smooth muscles of the blood vessels and prostate. This causes relaxation of the blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. It is commonly used to treat hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Enalapril, Diltiazem, and Felodipine are not alpha-adrenergic antagonists and have different mechanisms of action.

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34. The recommended low-density lipoprotein goal for a 64-year-old man with diabetes mellitus who had an MI 2 years ago should be less than:

Explanation

The recommended low-density lipoprotein (LDL) goal for a 64-year-old man with diabetes mellitus who had a myocardial infarction (MI) 2 years ago should be less than 70 mg/dL. This is because individuals with diabetes and a history of MI are at a higher risk for cardiovascular events, and maintaining a lower LDL level can help reduce this risk. Additionally, guidelines from organizations such as the American Diabetes Association recommend an LDL goal of less than 70 mg/dL for high-risk individuals with diabetes.

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35. Which of the following medications is an angiotensin receptor antagonist?

Explanation

Telmisartan is an angiotensin receptor antagonist. It works by blocking the action of angiotensin II, a hormone that causes blood vessels to narrow, thereby relaxing and widening the blood vessels. This helps to lower blood pressure and improve blood flow. Trandolapril is an ACE inhibitor, Methyldopa is a centrally acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist, and Atenolol is a beta blocker, none of which are angiotensin receptor antagonists.

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36. Additional findings in MVP include:

Explanation

The presence of a mid-systolic click is an additional finding in MVP. This click occurs during systole, specifically in the middle of systole, and is caused by the sudden tensing and bulging of the mitral valve leaflets into the left atrium. It is typically heard best at the apex and may be followed by a late systolic murmur. The mid-systolic click is a characteristic finding in MVP and is caused by the abnormal movement of the mitral valve.

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37. In evaluating the person with aortic stenosis, the NP anticipates finding 12-lead ECG changes consistent with: 

Explanation

The NP anticipates finding 12-lead ECG changes consistent with left ventricular hypertrophy in a person with aortic stenosis. Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which leads to increased pressure and workload on the left ventricle. Over time, this can cause the left ventricle to become hypertrophied, or thicker, as it tries to pump blood against the narrowed valve. These changes can be detected on an ECG, such as increased voltage amplitudes in the left ventricular leads and repolarization abnormalities.

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38. Which of the following is most consistent with a patient presenting with acute MI?

Explanation

A patient presenting with acute MI would typically experience retrosternal diffuse pain for a prolonged period of time, usually longer than 20 minutes. This pain is often described as a crushing or squeezing sensation in the chest. Diaphoresis, or excessive sweating, is a common symptom seen in patients with acute MI. These symptoms are indicative of myocardial ischemia and should be taken seriously as they may lead to a heart attack.

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39. Which of the following medications is an alpha/beta-adrenergic antagonist?

Explanation

Carvedilol is an alpha/beta-adrenergic antagonist because it blocks both alpha and beta receptors in the body. This medication is commonly used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. By blocking these receptors, carvedilol helps to relax and widen blood vessels, which reduces blood pressure. It also slows down the heart rate and decreases the force of contractions, which can be beneficial in heart failure. Atenolol, metoprolol, and propranolol are all beta-adrenergic antagonists, but they do not block alpha receptors like carvedilol does.

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40. Which of the following can have a favorable effect on a comorbid condition in a person with HTN?

Explanation

Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can be used to treat migraine headaches. Migraine headaches are a comorbid condition commonly seen in individuals with hypertension (HTN). Verapamil works by relaxing the blood vessels and reducing the frequency and severity of migraines. Therefore, using Verapamil to treat migraines in a person with HTN can have a favorable effect on their comorbid condition.

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41. Of the following people, who has no significant increased risk for developing bacterial endocarditis?

Explanation

A Still's murmur is a benign innocent heart murmur that is commonly heard in children and usually disappears by adulthood. It is not associated with any structural abnormalities or increased risk for developing bacterial endocarditis. Therefore, the 55-year-old man who was diagnosed with a Still's murmur as a child has no significant increased risk for developing bacterial endocarditis.

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42. A physiological murmur has which of the following characteristics?

Explanation

A physiological murmur is a normal sound heard during the cardiac cycle. It is typically heard in early systole and is not associated with any underlying heart condition. It is usually heard in a widespread area of auscultation, rather than localized. Additionally, a physiological murmur does not typically affect the sound of the second heart sound (S2). However, it may become softer when the patient changes position from supine to standing due to changes in blood flow dynamics.

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43. Which of the following is unlikely to be noted in the person experiencing HF?

Explanation

Evidence of hemoconcentration on a hemogram is unlikely to be noted in a person experiencing heart failure (HF). Hemoconcentration refers to an increase in the concentration of red blood cells and other blood components due to a decrease in plasma volume. In HF, there is typically fluid retention and congestion, leading to an increase in blood volume and dilution of blood components. Therefore, hemoconcentration is not expected to be observed in HF patients.

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44. Which of the following best describes the patient presentation of NY Heart Association stage III heart disease?

Explanation

Less-than-ordinary activity leads to fatigue, dyspnea, palpitations or angina best describes the patient presentation of NY Heart Association stage III heart disease. This means that the patient experiences symptoms such as fatigue, difficulty breathing, palpitations, or chest pain with activities that would normally be considered less strenuous or demanding. This indicates a moderate limitation in physical activity due to the heart disease.

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45. Which of the following medications is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker?

Explanation

Amlodipine is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker. It works by blocking the calcium channels in the smooth muscles of blood vessels, causing them to relax and dilate. This helps to lower blood pressure and improve blood flow. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, Verapamil is a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, and Doxazosin is an alpha-1 blocker. Therefore, Amlodipine is the correct answer as it belongs to the dihydropyridine class of calcium channel blockers.

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46. Which of the following medications is a nondihydropyridine calcium channel blocker?

Explanation

Diltiazem is a nondihydropyridine calcium channel blocker. It works by blocking the movement of calcium ions into the smooth muscle cells of the heart and blood vessels, which helps to relax and widen the blood vessels, thus reducing blood pressure. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, Amlodipine is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, and Prazosin is an alpha-1 blocker. Therefore, the correct answer is Diltiazem.

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47. You examine a 24-year-old woman with mitral valve prolapse. Her exam findings also may include:

Explanation

Pectus excavatum is a condition where the breastbone sinks into the chest, creating a concave appearance. It is commonly seen in individuals with connective tissue disorders such as Marfan syndrome, which is associated with mitral valve prolapse. The presence of pectus excavatum in this 24-year-old woman suggests a possible underlying connective tissue disorder, which may be contributing to her mitral valve prolapse.

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48. You examine a 65-year-old man with dilated cardiomyopathy and HF. On examination, you expect to find all of the following except:

Explanation

In a patient with dilated cardiomyopathy and heart failure, the point of maximal impulse (PMI) is typically displaced laterally due to the enlargement of the heart. Therefore, it would not be expected to find the PMI at the fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line. Jugular venous distention is commonly seen in heart failure due to increased central venous pressure. Tenderness on right upper abdominal quadrant palpation may indicate liver congestion, which can occur in heart failure. Peripheral edema is another common finding in heart failure due to fluid retention.

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49. According to the AHA, which of the following antibiotics should be used for endocarditis prophylaxis in patients who are allergic to PCN?

Explanation

Azithromycin should be used for endocarditis prophylaxis in patients who are allergic to PCN because it is a macrolide antibiotic that is effective against the bacteria that commonly cause endocarditis. Macrolides are considered an alternative to penicillin for prophylaxis in patients with PCN allergy. Erythromycin is also a macrolide antibiotic, but it is not the preferred choice due to its higher incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. Dicloxacillin is a penicillin antibiotic and should not be used in patients with PCN allergy. Ofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic and is not recommended for endocarditis prophylaxis.

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50. Which of the following is least likely to be reported in ACS?

Explanation

Pain reproduced with palpation is least likely to be reported in ACS because it is a symptom that is more commonly associated with musculoskeletal issues rather than cardiovascular problems. ACS typically presents with symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and other signs of cardiac distress. While pain reproduced with palpation could potentially be present in ACS, it is less specific to this condition and could be attributed to other causes. Therefore, it is less likely to be reported in ACS.

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51. The S4 heart sound has which of the following characteristics?

Explanation

The S4 heart sound is a low-pitched sound that occurs late in diastole, just before the S1 heart sound. It is caused by the contraction of the atria against a stiff or hypertrophic ventricle, indicating decreased ventricular compliance. This sound is commonly heard in patients with poorly controlled hypertension (HTN), as chronic HTN can lead to ventricular hypertrophy and decreased ventricular compliance. Therefore, the correct answer is "It is noted in the presence of poorly controlled HTN."

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52. When a heart valve fails to close properly, it is said to be:

Explanation

When a heart valve fails to close properly, it is said to be incompetent. This means that the valve is unable to effectively prevent the backflow of blood, leading to regurgitation or leakage of blood in the opposite direction. This condition can result in symptoms such as shortness of breath, fatigue, and abnormal heart sounds. Treatment options may include medication or surgical repair/replacement of the valve.

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53. The cardiac finding most commonly associated with unstable angina is:

Explanation

The correct answer is S4. S4 is a cardiac finding that is commonly associated with unstable angina. It is an abnormal heart sound that occurs just before the S1 heart sound. It is caused by the contraction of the atria against a stiffened ventricle. This sound is often heard in patients with hypertension, coronary artery disease, and left ventricular hypertrophy, which are common underlying conditions in patients with unstable angina. Therefore, the presence of an S4 sound can be indicative of unstable angina.

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54. You see a 68-year-old woman as a patient who is transferring care to your practice. She has a 10-year history of hypertension, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia. Current medications include HCTZ, glipizide, metformin, simvastatin, and daily low-dose aspirin. Today's BP reading is 138/88 and the rest of her history and exam is unremarkable. Your next best action is to 

Explanation

The patient is a 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia. Her blood pressure reading is 138/88, which is above the target range for patients with these comorbidities. Prescribing an ACE inhibitor would be the next best action as it is a recommended first-line medication for patients with hypertension and diabetes. ACE inhibitors have been shown to be effective in reducing blood pressure and preventing complications associated with hypertension. Therefore, prescribing an ACE inhibitor would help to better control the patient's blood pressure and reduce her risk of cardiovascular events.

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55. ECG findings in a patient with digoxin toxicity would most likely include:

Explanation

ECG findings in a patient with digoxin toxicity would most likely include A-V heart block. Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart failure and certain heart rhythm disorders. However, it can also cause toxic effects on the heart, including conduction abnormalities. A-V heart block refers to a delay or interruption in the electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles of the heart. This can be seen on an ECG as a prolonged PR interval or a complete blockage of the electrical signal. Therefore, A-V heart block is a characteristic ECG finding in patients with digoxin toxicity.

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56. You see a 59-year-old man with poorly controlled HTN. On physical exam, you note grade 1 hypertensive retinopathy. You anticipate all of the following will be present except:

Explanation

The presence of grade 1 hypertensive retinopathy indicates mild changes in the blood vessels of the retina due to poorly controlled hypertension. Symptoms such as acute visual change are not typically associated with grade 1 hypertensive retinopathy. The narrowing of the terminal arterioles, sharp optic disc borders, and absence of retinal hemorrhage are commonly observed findings in grade 1 hypertensive retinopathy.

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57. The S3 heart sound has all of the following characteristics except:

Explanation

The S3 heart sound is a low-pitched sound that occurs in early diastole, after the S2 heart sound. It is associated with ventricular overload, such as in conditions like heart failure. The S3 sound is best heard with the bell of the stethoscope placed over the apex of the heart. Therefore, the correct answer is "A presystolic sound" because the S3 sound occurs in early diastole, not during the presystolic phase of the cardiac cycle.

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58. In evaluating mitral valve incompetency, you expect to find the following murmur:

Explanation

In mitral valve incompetency, the mitral valve does not close properly during systole, causing blood to leak back into the left atrium. This results in a regurgitant flow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium during systole, creating a systolic murmur. The radiation to the axilla indicates that the murmur is heard not only at the apex of the heart but also in the axillary region, which is characteristic of mitral valve incompetence.

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59. Intervention for patients with MVP may include:

Explanation

Encouragement of a regular program for aerobic activity is an appropriate intervention for patients with MVP because regular aerobic exercise can help improve cardiovascular fitness, strengthen the heart muscle, and promote overall cardiovascular health. It can also help reduce symptoms such as palpitations and improve overall well-being. However, it is important to note that the intensity and duration of exercise should be tailored to the individual's specific condition and limitations, and it is always recommended to consult with a healthcare professional before starting any exercise program.

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60. A grade III systolic murmur is usually:

Explanation

A grade III systolic murmur is usually about as loud as the S1 heart sound. This means that the intensity of the murmur is similar to the intensity of the first heart sound, which is the normal sound produced by the closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves. This suggests that the murmur is moderately loud and can be easily heard with a stethoscope. The other options, such as being softer than the S2 heart sound, accompanied by a thrill, or heard across the precordium without radiation, are not characteristics typically associated with a grade III systolic murmur.

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61. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to the use of thrombolytic therapy?

Explanation

A history of thrombolytic stroke is an absolute contraindication to the use of thrombolytic therapy. This means that if a patient has previously had a stroke caused by the use of thrombolytic therapy, they should not receive this treatment again. Thrombolytic therapy involves the use of medications to dissolve blood clots, and if a patient has had a previous stroke caused by this treatment, it indicates that they are at high risk for complications or adverse reactions. Therefore, it is important to avoid using thrombolytic therapy in these patients to prevent further harm.

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62. The rationale for using beta blocker therapy in treatment of HF is to:

Explanation

Beta blockers are medications that block the effects of adrenaline and other catecholamines in the body. In heart failure, the sympathetic nervous system is overactive, leading to increased levels of circulating catecholamines. These catecholamines can have harmful effects on the heart, such as increasing heart rate and blood pressure, and promoting remodeling of the heart muscle. By reducing the effects of circulating catecholamines, beta blockers help to decrease the workload on the heart, improve cardiac function, and reduce symptoms of heart failure. Therefore, reducing the effects of circulating catecholamines is the rationale for using beta blocker therapy in the treatment of heart failure.

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63. In performing a cardiac exam in a person with MVP, you expect to find:

Explanation

In performing a cardiac exam in a person with MVP (mitral valve prolapse), a mid to late systolic murmur is expected. MVP is a condition where the mitral valve of the heart does not close properly, causing blood to leak back into the left atrium during systole. This results in a murmur that is heard in the mid to late part of systole when the blood is regurgitating through the valve. The murmur is typically described as a high-pitched, systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur.

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64. Which of the following changes on the 12-lead ECG would you expect to find in a patient with history of acute transmural MI 6 months ago?

Explanation

Deep Q waves on a 12-lead ECG are expected findings in a patient with a history of acute transmural MI. Deep Q waves indicate significant myocardial damage and scar tissue formation in the area of the infarct. This is a common finding in patients who have had a transmural MI, which is a type of heart attack that affects the full thickness of the heart muscle. The presence of deep Q waves suggests that the patient's heart has undergone remodeling and healing since the MI occurred 6 months ago.

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65. Which of the following changes on the 12-lead ECG would you expect to find in a patient with myocardial ischemia?

Explanation

T wave inversion is a common change seen on the 12-lead ECG in patients with myocardial ischemia. It indicates abnormal repolarization of the ventricles and can be a sign of reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. This change is often seen in leads that correspond to the area of the heart affected by the ischemia. It is important to note that T wave inversion alone is not diagnostic of myocardial ischemia, but when combined with other clinical findings, it can help in the diagnosis and management of the patient.

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66. You are examining an 18-year-old man who is seeking a sports clearance physical exam. You note a mid-systolic murmur that gets louder as he stands. This may represent:

Explanation

The presence of a mid-systolic murmur that gets louder as the patient stands suggests hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. This condition is characterized by the thickening of the heart muscle, which can obstruct blood flow and cause turbulent blood flow, resulting in a murmur. The murmur typically intensifies with maneuvers that decrease left ventricular volume, such as standing up. Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, would typically cause a systolic ejection murmur that radiates to the neck, and it would not be affected by changes in position. A physiologic murmur is usually innocent and does not change with position. Still's murmur is a benign murmur commonly heard in children and is not associated with changes in position.

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67. Patients reporting symptoms of digoxin toxicity are most likely to include:

Explanation

Patients reporting symptoms of digoxin toxicity are most likely to include anorexia. Anorexia is a common symptom of digoxin toxicity, which is an overdose or accumulation of digoxin in the body. Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions, but if the levels in the body become too high, it can lead to toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity can vary, but anorexia is often reported. Other symptoms may include disturbance in color perception, blurred vision, and diarrhea, but anorexia is the most likely symptom to be present in patients with digoxin toxicity.

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68. An ECG finding in a patient who is taking digoxin in a therapeutic dose typically includes:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Slightly depressed, cupped ST segments." When a patient is taking digoxin in a therapeutic dose, it can cause changes in the ECG. One of these changes is the appearance of slightly depressed, cupped ST segments. This can be seen as a scooped appearance in the ST segment on the ECG tracing. It is important to note that these changes are typically mild and not associated with significant clinical symptoms. Other ECG findings associated with digoxin toxicity, such as shortened P-R interval, widened QRS complex, and tall T waves, are not typically seen in a patient taking digoxin in a therapeutic dose.

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69. One of the most underused classes of drugs in the treatment of heart failure is:

Explanation

Beta blockers are considered one of the most underused classes of drugs in the treatment of heart failure. Despite their proven effectiveness in reducing mortality and improving symptoms in heart failure patients, they are often underprescribed. This may be due to concerns about potential side effects or lack of awareness among healthcare providers. However, numerous clinical trials have demonstrated the benefits of beta blockers in heart failure, including their ability to reduce heart rate, improve cardiac function, and prevent adverse remodeling of the heart. Therefore, increasing the utilization of beta blockers in the treatment of heart failure could significantly improve patient outcomes.

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70. You are evaluating a patient who has rheutmatic heart disease. When assessing her for mitral stenosis, you auscultate the heart, anticipating finding the following murmur:

Explanation

In patients with mitral stenosis, the narrowing of the mitral valve results in impaired blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle during diastole. This causes a diastolic murmur, which is heard during the filling phase of the cardiac cycle. The murmur is typically localized, meaning it is best heard at the apex of the heart and does not radiate widely. This is due to the restricted blood flow across the narrowed valve. Therefore, the correct answer is "Localized diastolic with little radiation."

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71. Causes of unstable angina include all of the following except:

Explanation

Unstable angina is characterized by chest pain or discomfort that occurs at rest or with minimal exertion and is caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. The causes of unstable angina include vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels), nonocclusive thrombus (partial blockage of blood vessels), and inflammation or infection. However, ventricular hypertrophy, which refers to the thickening of the heart muscle, is not typically associated with unstable angina. Ventricular hypertrophy is usually a result of conditions such as high blood pressure or heart valve disease, and it may lead to other cardiac complications, but it is not directly linked to unstable angina.

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72. Which medication(s) are listed as compelling indications for Chronic renal disease?

Explanation

ACE inhibitors (ACEI) and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB) are listed as compelling indications for chronic renal disease. These medications are commonly prescribed to patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) because they have been shown to slow down the progression of kidney damage and reduce proteinuria. ACE inhibitors and ARBs work by blocking the effects of angiotensin II, a hormone that constricts blood vessels and increases blood pressure. By blocking these effects, ACE inhibitors and ARBs help to lower blood pressure and reduce the strain on the kidneys, thus protecting them from further damage.

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73. Which medication(s) are listed as compelling indications for heart failure?

Explanation

The medications listed as compelling indications for heart failure include Thiazide Diuretic, Beta blocker, ACEI, ARB, and Aldosterone antagonist. These medications are commonly prescribed to manage heart failure and have been shown to be effective in improving symptoms, reducing hospitalizations, and increasing survival rates in patients with heart failure. Thiazide diuretics help in reducing fluid buildup, beta blockers improve heart function, ACEIs and ARBs dilate blood vessels and reduce strain on the heart, and aldosterone antagonists help in reducing fluid retention. These medications target different aspects of heart failure and are often used in combination to provide optimal management for patients.

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74. Which medication(s) are listed as compelling indications for Diabetes?

Explanation

The medications listed as compelling indications for Diabetes are Thiazide diuretic, Beta blocker, ACEI, ARB, and Calcium channel blocker. These medications are commonly prescribed to patients with diabetes to manage their blood pressure and prevent complications associated with the disease. Thiazide diuretics help reduce fluid buildup and lower blood pressure, beta blockers decrease heart rate and blood pressure, ACE inhibitors and ARBs relax blood vessels and lower blood pressure, and calcium channel blockers relax blood vessels and reduce the workload on the heart. By effectively managing blood pressure, these medications can help prevent cardiovascular events in patients with diabetes.

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75. Which medication(s) are listed as compelling indications for high risk CAD?

Explanation

Thiazide diuretics, beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, and calcium channel blockers are all listed as compelling indications for high-risk CAD. These medications are commonly prescribed to patients with coronary artery disease (CAD) due to their proven efficacy in reducing the risk of cardiovascular events and improving outcomes. Thiazide diuretics help lower blood pressure and reduce fluid retention, beta blockers decrease heart rate and blood pressure, ACE inhibitors dilate blood vessels and improve blood flow, and calcium channel blockers relax and widen blood vessels. These medications are recommended based on evidence from clinical trials and guidelines for the management of CAD.

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76. Which medication(s) are listed as compelling indications for Recurrent CVA?

Explanation

Thiazide diuretics and ACE inhibitors (ACEIs) are listed as compelling indications for recurrent CVA (cerebrovascular accident) because they have been shown to be effective in reducing the risk of stroke recurrence. Thiazide diuretics help lower blood pressure by removing excess fluid from the body, which can help prevent further damage to blood vessels in the brain. ACE inhibitors work by relaxing blood vessels and reducing the production of certain hormones that can contribute to stroke. Therefore, these medications are recommended for individuals with a history of recurrent CVA to help prevent future strokes.

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77. Which medication(s) are listed as compelling indications for after an MI?

Explanation

After a myocardial infarction (MI), certain medications are recommended as compelling indications. Beta blockers are prescribed to reduce the workload on the heart and prevent future cardiac events. ACE inhibitors (ACEI) are used to lower blood pressure and protect the heart from further damage. Aldosterone antagonists are given to prevent fluid retention and reduce the risk of heart failure. Thiazide diuretics, ARBs, and calcium channel blockers are not specifically mentioned as compelling indications after an MI.

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In obtaining an office BP measurement, which of the following is most...
You start a patient with hypertension who is already receiving an ACEI...
A BP elevation noted only at an office visit is commonly known as...
Which of the following medications is an ACEI
An abnormality of which of the following is the most sensitive marker...
Which of the following is among the most common causes of HF
A potential adverse effect of ACEI when used with spironolactone...
The most important goal of treating HTN is to:
Beta adrenergic antagonists are used in ACS therapy because of their...
A 68-year-old woman presents with HTN and a BP of 145-155 / 92-96 mmHG...
You examine a 38-year-old woman who has presented for an initial...
You examine a 78-year-old woman with long-standing, poorly controlled...
Which of the following medications is an aldosterone antagonist?
Of the following patients, who is in greatest need of endocarditis...
Nitrates are used in ACS therapy because of their ability to: 
Which of the following best describes orthopnea
In assessing a woman with or at risk for acute coronary syndrome...
According to the recommendations found in JNC-7, all of the following...
When a heart valve fails to open to its normal orifice size, it is...
Of the following individuals, who is most likely to have a...
Which of the following changes on the 12-lead ECG do you expect to...
You are examining an elderly woman and find a grade 3/6...
Which of the following is most consistent with a person presenting...
You examine an 82-year-old woman who has a history of heart failure....
In the person with HTN, which of the following would likely yield the...
All of the following should be prescribed as part of therapy in ACS...
Diagnostic testing for a patient with new stage 1 primary HTN...
Which of the following medications is a beta-adrenergic receptor...
The mechanism of action of aliskiren (Tekturna) is as a/an:
Aortic stenosis in a 15-year-old is most likely:
Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in patients with chest pain and ECG...
A 52-year-old woman whose BP is consistently 130-135 / 82-86 mmHG who...
Which of the following medications is an alpha-adrenergic antagonist?
The recommended low-density lipoprotein goal for a 64-year-old man...
Which of the following medications is an angiotensin receptor...
Additional findings in MVP include:
In evaluating the person with aortic stenosis, the NP anticipates...
Which of the following is most consistent with a patient presenting...
Which of the following medications is an alpha/beta-adrenergic...
Which of the following can have a favorable effect on a comorbid...
Of the following people, who has no significant increased risk for...
A physiological murmur has which of the following characteristics?
Which of the following is unlikely to be noted in the person...
Which of the following best describes the patient presentation of NY...
Which of the following medications is a dihydropyridine calcium...
Which of the following medications is a nondihydropyridine calcium...
You examine a 24-year-old woman with mitral valve prolapse. Her exam...
You examine a 65-year-old man with dilated cardiomyopathy and HF. On...
According to the AHA, which of the following antibiotics should be...
Which of the following is least likely to be reported in ACS?
The S4 heart sound has which of the following characteristics?
When a heart valve fails to close properly, it is said to be:
The cardiac finding most commonly associated with unstable angina is:
You see a 68-year-old woman as a patient who is transferring care to...
ECG findings in a patient with digoxin toxicity would most likely...
You see a 59-year-old man with poorly controlled HTN. On physical...
The S3 heart sound has all of the following characteristics except:
In evaluating mitral valve incompetency, you expect to find the...
Intervention for patients with MVP may include:
A grade III systolic murmur is usually:
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to the use of...
The rationale for using beta blocker therapy in treatment of HF is to:
In performing a cardiac exam in a person with MVP, you expect to find:
Which of the following changes on the 12-lead ECG would you expect to...
Which of the following changes on the 12-lead ECG would you expect to...
You are examining an 18-year-old man who is seeking a sports clearance...
Patients reporting symptoms of digoxin toxicity are most likely to...
An ECG finding in a patient who is taking digoxin in a therapeutic...
One of the most underused classes of drugs in the treatment of heart...
You are evaluating a patient who has rheutmatic heart disease. When...
Causes of unstable angina include all of the following except:
Which medication(s) are listed as compelling indications for Chronic...
Which medication(s) are listed as compelling indications for heart...
Which medication(s) are listed as compelling indications for Diabetes?
Which medication(s) are listed as compelling indications for high risk...
Which medication(s) are listed as compelling indications for Recurrent...
Which medication(s) are listed as compelling indications for after an...
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