Pharmacology Final Part 1

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Pharmacology Final Part 1 - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Graphs B and C show Physiological effect vs concentration and Binding vs concentration for the same drug respectively. Comparing the two graphs, is it apparent that there are spare receptors? In the image above, 

    • A.

      Yes

    • B.

      No

    Correct Answer
    B. No
    Explanation
    Spare receptors occur when Emax occurs at less than 100% binding. In other words, when EC50 is less than Kd, spare receptors are present. The two are equal in this figure.

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  • 2. 

    _______ is a measure of efficacy

    • A.

      Emax

    • B.

      Bmax

    • C.

      EC50

    • D.

      Kd

    Correct Answer
    A. Emax
    Explanation
    Emax is a measure of efficacy, which refers to the maximum response that a drug can produce. It represents the upper limit of the drug's effect, indicating how well it can produce the desired therapeutic outcome. Emax is commonly used in pharmacology to evaluate the effectiveness of drugs and compare their efficacy profiles. It helps determine the optimal dosage and assess the potential benefits of a drug in treating a specific condition.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is true?

    • A.

      An inverse agonist is a partial agonist

    • B.

      A partial agonist can produce the full effect as long as all receptors are bound

    • C.

      A physiological antagonist binds to the same receptor as the agonist

    • D.

      A partial agonist is inhibitory in the presence of a full agonist

    Correct Answer
    D. A partial agonist is inhibitory in the presence of a full agonist
    Explanation
    A partial agonist is inhibitory in the presence of a full agonist because it competes with the full agonist for binding to the receptor but only produces a partial effect when bound. In the presence of a full agonist, the partial agonist will occupy some of the receptors, reducing the overall response compared to when the full agonist is present alone. This is known as competitive inhibition and is a characteristic of partial agonists.

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  • 4. 

    When an agonist is in the presence of an irreversible competitive antagonist:

    • A.

      Emax will decrease

    • B.

      EC50 will decrease

    • C.

      The dose response curve will shift to the right

    • D.

      A and B

    • E.

      B and C

    • F.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Emax will decrease
    Explanation
    When an agonist is in the presence of an irreversible competitive antagonist, Emax will decrease. This is because the irreversible antagonist permanently binds to the receptor, preventing the agonist from fully activating the receptor and producing its maximum effect. As a result, the maximum response that can be achieved by the agonist is reduced.

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  • 5. 

    Which receptor type achieves its physiological response the most rapidly?

    • A.

      G protein

    • B.

      Kinase linked receptors

    • C.

      Ligand gated ion channel

    • D.

      Nuclear receptors

    Correct Answer
    C. Ligand gated ion channel
    Explanation
    Ligand-gated ion channels achieve their physiological response the most rapidly because they are directly activated by the binding of a specific ligand, such as a neurotransmitter or hormone. When the ligand binds to the receptor, the ion channel opens, allowing ions to flow across the cell membrane and rapidly changing the cell's electrical potential. This quick response is essential for processes like synaptic transmission and muscle contraction, where rapid signaling is required. In contrast, G protein-coupled receptors, kinase-linked receptors, and nuclear receptors typically involve more complex signaling pathways and transcriptional changes, leading to slower physiological responses.

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  • 6. 

    Which drug is the most potent?

    • A.

      Drug A

    • B.

      Drug B

    • C.

      Drug C

    • D.

      Drug D

    Correct Answer
    A. Drug A
    Explanation
    Drug A is the most potent because potency refers to the strength or effectiveness of a drug in producing a desired effect. Therefore, Drug A is the strongest or most effective among the options given.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following receptors has only a single transmembrane region (subunit) capable of binding with the ligand?

    • A.

      Tyrosine Kinase

    • B.

      Tyrosine Phosphatase

    • C.

      JAK-STAT

    • D.

      Tyrosine kinase associaated

    Correct Answer
    B. Tyrosine Phosphatase
    Explanation
    Tyrosine Phosphatase is the correct answer because it is a type of receptor that has only a single transmembrane region capable of binding with the ligand. This receptor is involved in the dephosphorylation of tyrosine residues in proteins, regulating various cellular processes. Unlike Tyrosine Kinase, which has multiple transmembrane regions, Tyrosine Phosphatase has only one, allowing it to interact with ligands in a specific manner. JAK-STAT and Tyrosine kinase associated are not receptors, but rather signaling pathways or protein complexes associated with tyrosine kinases.

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  • 8. 

    Insulin is an example of a ligand for what receptor type?

    • A.

      Intracellular receptor

    • B.

      Receptor tyrosine kinase

    • C.

      Cytokine receptor

    • D.

      Receptor tyrosine phosphatase

    Correct Answer
    B. Receptor tyrosine kinase
    Explanation
    Insulin is an example of a ligand for the receptor tyrosine kinase. Receptor tyrosine kinases are a type of cell surface receptor that are involved in signal transduction pathways. When insulin binds to its receptor, it activates the receptor's tyrosine kinase activity, leading to the phosphorylation of tyrosine residues on intracellular signaling proteins. This initiates a cascade of events that ultimately regulate glucose uptake, metabolism, and other cellular processes.

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  • 9. 

    Following G protein receptor activation, _________ dissociates from the alpha subunit and ______ binds to it causing dissociation of the alpha subunit from the beta-gamma subunit.

    • A.

      GTP;GDP

    • B.

      GDP;GTP

    • C.

      ADP;ATP

    • D.

      ATP;ADP

    Correct Answer
    B. GDP;GTP
    Explanation
    After G protein receptor activation, GDP (guanosine diphosphate) dissociates from the alpha subunit and GTP (guanosine triphosphate) binds to it causing dissociation of the alpha subunit from the beta-gamma subunit. This is a crucial step in G protein signaling, as the binding of GTP to the alpha subunit allows it to become activated and interact with downstream effector molecules, while GDP binding leads to inactivation of the alpha subunit and reassociation with the beta-gamma subunit.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following would decrease the amount of norepinephrine in the synapse?

    • A.

      Calcium moving into the synaptic terminal

    • B.

      Reserpine

    • C.

      Cocaine

    • D.

      Amphetamine

    Correct Answer
    B. Reserpine
    Explanation
    Reserpine is a medication that inhibits the storage of norepinephrine in vesicles, leading to a decrease in the amount of norepinephrine available for release into the synapse. This ultimately reduces the concentration of norepinephrine in the synapse. Calcium moving into the synaptic terminal, cocaine, and amphetamine, on the other hand, would not directly decrease the amount of norepinephrine in the synapse.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following drug's effect would not be blocked or blunted by reserpine?

    • A.

      Amphetamine

    • B.

      Phenylephrine

    • C.

      Ephedrine

    • D.

      All of the above are blocked or blunted by reserpine

    Correct Answer
    B. Phenylephrine
    Explanation
    Phenylephrine is the only direct agonist, meaning that it binds directly to the receptor and does depend on the release of NE.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is false?

    • A.

      Substitution at the alpha carbon of a sympathomimetic amine results in MAO protection

    • B.

      An increase in the size of the substituent on the N substituent of an sympathomimetic amine results in greater alpha activity

    • C.

      An -OH group at the 3 and 4 position of the benzene ring of a sympathomimetic amine gives it greater alpha and beta activity

    • D.

      An -OH group at the 3 and 4 position of the benzene ring of a sympathomimetic amine subjects it to COMT metabolism

    Correct Answer
    B. An increase in the size of the substituent on the N substituent of an sympathomimetic amine results in greater alpha activity
    Explanation
    An increase in the size of the substituent on a sympathomimetic amine results in greater beta activity

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is the only available depolarizing nicotinic antagonist?

    • A.

      D-tubocurarine

    • B.

      Succinylcholine

    • C.

      Pilocarpine

    • D.

      Varenicline

    Correct Answer
    B. Succinylcholine
    Explanation
    Succinylcholine is the only available depolarizing nicotinic antagonist. It works by binding to the nicotinic acetylcholine receptors in the neuromuscular junction, causing depolarization and muscle paralysis. It is commonly used as a muscle relaxant during surgical procedures. d-tubocurarine, Pilocarpine, and Varenicline are not depolarizing nicotinic antagonists, making Succinylcholine the correct answer.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is an irreversible acetycholinesterase inhibitor that is used therapeutically?

    • A.

      Echothiophate

    • B.

      Sarin

    • C.

      Parathion

    • D.

      Physostigmine

    Correct Answer
    A. Echothiophate
    Explanation
    Echothiophate is an irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that is used therapeutically. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter involved in muscle movement and other functions. Echothiophate is commonly used in the treatment of glaucoma to reduce intraocular pressure by increasing the availability of acetylcholine in the eye. Sarin and parathion are nerve agents that are highly toxic and not used therapeutically. Physostigmine, on the other hand, is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that is used for the treatment of certain conditions like glaucoma and anticholinergic toxicity.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following receptors has intrinsic kinase ability?

    • A.

      JAK-STAT

    • B.

      Tyrosine-Kinase associated receptor

    • C.

      Receptor Tyrosine Phosphatase

    • D.

      Receptor Serine Threonine Kinase

    Correct Answer
    D. Receptor Serine Threonine Kinase
    Explanation
    Receptor Serine Threonine Kinase has intrinsic kinase ability. This means that it can phosphorylate serine and threonine residues on target proteins. JAK-STAT is a signaling pathway that involves the activation of Janus kinases (JAKs) and the subsequent phosphorylation of transcription factors called STATs, but it is not a receptor itself. Tyrosine-Kinase associated receptor refers to receptors that are associated with tyrosine kinases, but they do not have intrinsic kinase ability. Receptor Tyrosine Phosphatase, as the name suggests, is a phosphatase and not a kinase.

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  • 16. 

    An agonist of which of the following receptors would likely treat nasal congestion?

    • A.

      A1

    • B.

      A2

    • C.

      B1

    • D.

      B2

    Correct Answer
    A. A1
    Explanation
    An agonist of the a1 receptors would likely treat nasal congestion. The a1 receptors are found in the smooth muscles of the blood vessels, including those in the nasal passages. Activation of these receptors causes vasoconstriction, which can help reduce nasal congestion by narrowing the blood vessels and decreasing blood flow to the nasal tissues. Therefore, an agonist of the a1 receptors would be expected to alleviate nasal congestion.

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  • 17. 

    An agonist of which of the following receptors would likely treat hypertension?

    • A.

      A1

    • B.

      A2

    • C.

      B1

    • D.

      B2

    Correct Answer
    B. A2
    Explanation
    An agonist of the a2 receptors would likely treat hypertension. Activation of a2 receptors leads to vasodilation and a decrease in sympathetic outflow, resulting in a decrease in blood pressure. This is because a2 receptors are primarily located on sympathetic nerve terminals, and their activation inhibits the release of norepinephrine, which is responsible for vasoconstriction. By stimulating a2 receptors, blood vessels can relax, leading to a reduction in blood pressure and the treatment of hypertension.

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  • 18. 

    An antagonist of which of the following receptors would have anti-arrhythmic activity?

    • A.

      A1

    • B.

      A2

    • C.

      B1

    • D.

      B2

    Correct Answer
    C. B1
    Explanation
    An antagonist of the b1 receptor would have anti-arrhythmic activity. The b1 receptor is primarily found in the heart and is responsible for increasing heart rate and contractility. By blocking this receptor, the antagonist would reduce the sympathetic stimulation on the heart, leading to a decrease in heart rate and potentially preventing or treating arrhythmias.

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  • 19. 

    Which of these is not a result of muscarinic antagonists binding to their receptor?

    • A.

      Bronchodilation

    • B.

      Decreased salivation

    • C.

      Decreased GI motility

    • D.

      Decreased Heart Rate

    Correct Answer
    D. Decreased Heart Rate
    Explanation
    Muscarinic antagonists bind to muscarinic receptors, which are found in various tissues including the heart, lungs, salivary glands, and gastrointestinal tract. When these antagonists bind to their receptors, they block the actions of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that normally stimulates these receptors. As a result, the effects of acetylcholine are inhibited. In the case of decreased heart rate, muscarinic antagonists actually cause an increase in heart rate, as they block the inhibitory effects of acetylcholine on the heart. Therefore, decreased heart rate is not a result of muscarinic antagonists binding to their receptors.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer would involve the uptake of naked DNA from the environment by a competent bacteria?

    • A.

      Transduction

    • B.

      Transformation

    • C.

      Conjugation

    • D.

      Not horizontal but vertical gene transfer

    Correct Answer
    B. Transformation
    Explanation
    Transformation is the correct answer because it involves the uptake of naked DNA from the environment by a competent bacteria. In this process, the bacteria takes up free DNA molecules from the surrounding environment and incorporates them into its own genome. This can lead to the acquisition of new traits or genetic variation in the bacteria population. Transduction involves the transfer of DNA through a viral vector, conjugation involves the transfer of DNA through direct cell-to-cell contact, and vertical gene transfer refers to the transfer of genetic material from parent to offspring.

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  • 21. 

    Which generation penicillin has best activity against enteric organisms?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    Penicillin is a group of antibiotics that are effective against a wide range of bacteria. Each generation of penicillin has different properties and is effective against different types of bacteria. The third generation penicillin has the best activity against enteric organisms. Enteric organisms are bacteria that are commonly found in the intestines and can cause gastrointestinal infections. The third generation penicillin has been developed specifically to target and kill these types of bacteria, making it the most effective choice for treating enteric infections.

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  • 22. 

    The mechanism by which vancomycin treats bacterial infection is:

    • A.

      Inhibition of transpeptidase

    • B.

      Inhibition of transglucuronidase

    • C.

      Inhibition of transglycosylase

    • D.

      Inhibition of beta lactamase

    Correct Answer
    C. Inhibition of transglycosylase
    Explanation
    Vancomycin treats bacterial infections by inhibiting transglycosylase. Transglycosylase is an enzyme involved in the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall. By inhibiting this enzyme, vancomycin prevents the formation of the cell wall, leading to the disruption of the bacterial structure and ultimately killing the bacteria. This mechanism of action makes vancomycin effective against certain types of bacteria that are resistant to other antibiotics, such as those that produce beta-lactamase.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is a monobactam?

    • A.

      Meropenem

    • B.

      Ertapenem

    • C.

      Imipenem

    • D.

      Aztreonam

    Correct Answer
    D. Aztreonam
    Explanation
    Aztreonam is a monobactam antibiotic. Monobactams are a class of antibiotics that have a unique chemical structure and are effective against a wide range of gram-negative bacteria. They are characterized by having a beta-lactam ring, similar to other beta-lactam antibiotics like penicillins and cephalosporins. However, unlike penicillins and cephalosporins, monobactams do not have a second ring structure. Aztreonam is specifically used to treat infections caused by gram-negative bacteria and is often used in patients with allergies to other beta-lactam antibiotics.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is a 30S inhibitor?

    • A.

      Erythromycin

    • B.

      Gentamycin

    • C.

      Vancomycin

    • D.

      Telithromycin

    Correct Answer
    B. Gentamycin
    Explanation
    Gentamycin is a 30S inhibitor. It belongs to the class of aminoglycoside antibiotics and works by binding to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome, thereby inhibiting protein synthesis. This disruption of protein synthesis leads to bacterial cell death. Erythromycin, Vancomycin, and Telithromycin are not 30S inhibitors; they have different mechanisms of action and target other components of bacterial cells.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is a bacteriocidal agent that is known to cause photosensitivity?

    • A.

      Doxycycline

    • B.

      Levofloxacin

    • C.

      Penicillin

    • D.

      Paromomycin

    Correct Answer
    B. Levofloxacin
    Explanation
    Levofloxacin is a bacteriocidal agent that is known to cause photosensitivity. This means that when a person takes levofloxacin, they may become more sensitive to sunlight and UV rays, leading to an increased risk of sunburn or skin damage. It is important for individuals taking levofloxacin to take precautions such as wearing sunscreen and protective clothing when exposed to sunlight.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is an inhibitor of the 30S ribosomal subunit and has good gram negative activity?

    • A.

      Minocycline

    • B.

      Amikacin

    • C.

      Ciprofloxacin

    • D.

      Streptogramins

    Correct Answer
    B. Amikacin
    Explanation
    Amikacin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that inhibits the 30S ribosomal subunit, making it the correct answer to the question. Aminoglycosides bind to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome, preventing protein synthesis and ultimately killing the bacteria. Amikacin is particularly effective against gram-negative bacteria due to its ability to penetrate their outer membrane. Minocycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that acts on the 30S subunit, but it is not known for its gram-negative activity. Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that inhibits the DNA gyrase enzyme, not the ribosomal subunit. Streptogramins are a class of antibiotics that target the 50S ribosomal subunit, not the 30S subunit.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following has weak MAOI activity?

    • A.

      Streptogramins

    • B.

      Linezolid

    • C.

      Chloramphenicol

    • D.

      Paromomycin

    Correct Answer
    B. Linezolid
    Explanation
    Linezolid has weak MAOI (monoamine oxidase inhibitor) activity. MAOIs are a type of medication that inhibits the activity of the enzyme monoamine oxidase, which breaks down neurotransmitters such as serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine. By inhibiting this enzyme, MAOIs increase the levels of these neurotransmitters in the brain. Linezolid, although primarily an antibiotic, has been found to have weak MAOI activity. This can potentially lead to interactions with other medications or foods that contain tyramine, which can cause a dangerous increase in blood pressure. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing linezolid to patients taking other medications or with certain dietary restrictions.

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  • 28. 

    Which of these is not available parenterally?

    • A.

      Doxycline

    • B.

      Ciprofloxacin

    • C.

      Tigecycline

    • D.

      Neomycin

    Correct Answer
    D. Neomycin
    Explanation
    Neomycin is not available parenterally because it is primarily used as a topical antibiotic and is not formulated for intravenous or intramuscular administration. Parenteral administration refers to the administration of drugs through routes other than the digestive tract, such as intravenous or intramuscular injections. In contrast, Doxycycline, Ciprofloxacin, and Tigecycline are all available parenterally and can be administered through intravenous or intramuscular routes.

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  • 29. 

    Fluoroquinolones that inhibit Topoisomerase II have greater _____ activity 

    • A.

      Gram positive

    • B.

      Gram negative

    • C.

      Anaerobic

    • D.

      Aerobic

    Correct Answer
    B. Gram negative
    Explanation
    Fluoroquinolones that inhibit Topoisomerase II have greater activity against Gram-negative bacteria. This is because Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane that acts as a barrier, making them less susceptible to many antibiotics. However, fluoroquinolones are able to penetrate this outer membrane and target the DNA gyrase enzyme, which is part of the Topoisomerase II complex. Therefore, these antibiotics are more effective against Gram-negative bacteria compared to Gram-positive bacteria, which lack an outer membrane.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following inhibits DNA replication and could have a potential ADR of QT prolongation?

    • A.

      Telithromycin

    • B.

      Erythromycin

    • C.

      Ciprofloxacin

    • D.

      Gentamicin

    Correct Answer
    C. Ciprofloxacin
    Explanation
    Ciprofloxacin inhibits DNA replication by targeting bacterial DNA gyrase, an enzyme involved in the unwinding of DNA during replication. This inhibition prevents the bacteria from replicating their DNA and ultimately leads to their death. Ciprofloxacin has been associated with a potential adverse drug reaction (ADR) of QT prolongation, which refers to an abnormal lengthening of the QT interval on an electrocardiogram. This can increase the risk of developing a life-threatening arrhythmia called torsades de pointes. Therefore, ciprofloxacin should be used with caution in patients with known risk factors for QT prolongation.

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  • 31. 

    In which of the following does GI absorption decrease as dose increases?

    • A.

      Macrolides

    • B.

      Tetracyclines

    • C.

      Fluoroquinolones

    • D.

      Aminoglycosides

    Correct Answer
    B. Tetracyclines
    Explanation
    Tetracyclines are a class of antibiotics that exhibit a decrease in gastrointestinal (GI) absorption as the dose increases. This means that as the amount of tetracyclines taken increases, the amount of the drug absorbed into the bloodstream from the GI tract decreases. This could be due to factors such as saturation of transporters or enzymes involved in absorption, or the formation of insoluble complexes with other substances in the GI tract. Therefore, higher doses of tetracyclines may not result in proportionally higher levels of the drug in the bloodstream.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following would be an example of a 30S inhibitor that has an interaction with multivalent cations?

    • A.

      Moxifloxacin

    • B.

      Streptomycin

    • C.

      Doxycycline

    • D.

      Chloramphenicol

    Correct Answer
    C. Doxycycline
    Explanation
    Doxycycline is an example of a 30S inhibitor that has an interaction with multivalent cations. This means that doxycycline inhibits the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome, preventing protein synthesis. Additionally, it has an interaction with multivalent cations, which are positively charged ions with multiple charges. This interaction can affect the absorption and effectiveness of doxycycline, as multivalent cations can bind to the drug and reduce its bioavailability.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following has activity against E faecaelis and E faecium?

    • A.

      Streptogramins

    • B.

      Chloramphenicol

    • C.

      Linezolid

    • D.

      Clindamycin

    Correct Answer
    C. Linezolid
    Explanation
    Linezolid has activity against both E faecaelis and E faecium. Linezolid is an antibiotic that belongs to the oxazolidinone class. It works by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis, specifically targeting the 23S ribosomal RNA of the 50S subunit. This mechanism of action allows linezolid to effectively treat infections caused by gram-positive bacteria, including E faecaelis and E faecium. Streptogramins, chloramphenicol, and clindamycin are also antibiotics, but they do not have activity against these specific bacteria.

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  • 34. 

    Mutation of KatG (Catalase Peroxidase) would likely confer resistance to which of the following drugs?

    • A.

      Rifampin

    • B.

      Streptomycin

    • C.

      Cycloserine

    • D.

      Isoniazid

    Correct Answer
    D. Isoniazid
    Explanation
    Mutation of KatG (Catalase Peroxidase) would likely confer resistance to Isoniazid. KatG is responsible for activating Isoniazid, a first-line drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis. When KatG is mutated, it loses its ability to activate Isoniazid, leading to resistance. Rifampin, Streptomycin, and Cycloserine are not affected by KatG mutations and have different mechanisms of action.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following mycobacterial agents has a potential ADR of optic neuritis and red-green color differentiation issues?

    • A.

      Ethambutol

    • B.

      Isoniazid

    • C.

      Rifampin

    • D.

      Cycloserine

    Correct Answer
    A. Ethambutol
    Explanation
    Ethambutol is the correct answer because it is known to have potential adverse drug reactions (ADRs) of optic neuritis and red-green color differentiation issues. Optic neuritis is an inflammation of the optic nerve that can cause vision problems, including blurred vision and loss of color vision. Ethambutol can also affect the ability to differentiate between red and green colors, a condition known as red-green color differentiation issues. Therefore, Ethambutol is the mycobacterial agent that has the potential for these specific ADRs.

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  • 36. 

    Patients should be counseled to drink lots of water when taking this antimycobacterial drug to avoid crystalluria.

    • A.

      Isoniazid

    • B.

      P-aminosalicylic acid

    • C.

      Cycloserine

    • D.

      Rifampin

    Correct Answer
    B. P-aminosalicylic acid
    Explanation
    p-aminosalicylic acid is the correct answer because it is known to cause crystalluria, which is the formation of crystals in the urine. This can lead to kidney stones and other urinary tract issues. Drinking plenty of water while taking this medication helps to prevent the concentration of the drug in the urine, reducing the risk of crystalluria.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is an inhibitor of CYP3A4?

    • A.

      Azithromycin

    • B.

      Rifampin

    • C.

      Erythromycin

    • D.

      None of the above are inhibitors

    Correct Answer
    C. Erythromycin
    Explanation
    Erythromycin is an inhibitor of CYP3A4. CYP3A4 is a liver enzyme responsible for metabolizing many drugs. Inhibitors of CYP3A4 can increase the concentration of other drugs that are metabolized by this enzyme, leading to potential drug interactions and adverse effects. Erythromycin inhibits CYP3A4 by binding to its active site and preventing the metabolism of other drugs. This can result in increased drug levels and potential toxicity. Therefore, among the given options, erythromycin is the correct answer as an inhibitor of CYP3A4.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following has a 6 membered ring (Dihydrothiazine ring) adjacent to its beta-lactam group?

    • A.

      Monobactam

    • B.

      Penicillin

    • C.

      Carbapenem

    • D.

      Cephalosporin

    Correct Answer
    D. Cephalosporin
    Explanation
    Cephalosporin has a 6 membered ring (Dihydrothiazine ring) adjacent to its beta-lactam group. This ring is an important structural feature of cephalosporin antibiotics, which contributes to their antimicrobial activity. Monobactam, penicillin, and carbapenem do not have this specific ring structure adjacent to the beta-lactam group.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is notable for its penetration into lung abscesses?

    • A.

      Clindamycin

    • B.

      Doxycycline

    • C.

      Linezolid

    • D.

      Gemifloxacin

    Correct Answer
    A. Clindamycin
    Explanation
    Clindamycin is notable for its penetration into lung abscesses. Lung abscesses are deep-seated infections in the lung tissue, and clindamycin is known for its ability to penetrate into these abscesses effectively. This antibiotic has good tissue penetration and can reach the site of infection, making it an appropriate choice for treating lung abscesses.

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