Which response would reflect an increase in plasma insulin levels?

A) increase in adipose cell triglyceride synthesis/storage

B) increased liver glucose release

C) increases glucagon production

Which form of cholesterol transport is most closely associated with a lowered risk of atherosclerosis and therefore considered to be a "good" cholesterol?

A) high density lipoprotein (HDL)

C) low density lipoproteins (LDL)

D) very low density lipoproteins (VLDL)

Sertoli cells of the testis are principally regulated by which hormone?

E) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

B) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

D) human chorionic hormone (hCG)

According to the two-cell mechanism of follicular estrogen synthesis,

E) Theca cells synthesize an androgen which the granulosa cells convert to estrogen

A) Granulosa cells synthesize an androgen which the theca cells covert to estrogen

B) Sertoli cells synthesize an androgen which the granulosa cells convert to dihydrotestosterone

C) Theca cells synthesize an androgen which luteal cells convert to estrogen

D) Production of progesterone by the corpus luteum requires cooperative interaction between two cell types

Beginning on the first day of the menstrual cycle, the order of the events in the uterus is?

D) menstrual, proliferative, secretory phases

A) proliferative, secretory, menstrual phase

B) secretory, proliferative, menstrual phase

C) menstrual, secretory, proliferative phases

E) secretory, menstrual, proliferative phases

The implanting blastocyst "rescues" the corpus luteum by?

C) secreting chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

A) secreting large quantities of FSH and LH

B) secreting GnRH, which stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete FSH and LH

D) secreting progesterone and estrogen

An obstruction of the common bile duct would have which effect?

D) production of feces containing undigested fats

A) elevated blood chylomicron levels

B) presence of bile salts in the large intestine

C) decreased secretion of cholecystokinin

The lipoproteins that are transported away from the small intestine via the lacteals are termed?

B) monoglycerides and fatty acids

All of the following are normal functions of hepatocytes EXCEPT?

D) synthesis and secretion of immunoglobulins

A) synthesis and breakdown of glycogen

B) degradation and conjugation of drugs or toxins

E) synthesis and secretion of bile acids

Gluconeogenesis is an anabolic process in which:

C) glucose is formed from noncarbohydrate sources

A) glycogen is broken down into glucose

D) glucose is converted into CO2 and water

Where doe glycolysis take place?

A) mitrochondrial inner membrane

E) mitochondrial outer membrane

Biochemistry Basics Of Carbohydrates Quiz

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1/58 Questions

Which response would reflect an increase in plasma insulin levels?
- A) increase in adipose cell triglyceride synthesis/storage
- B) increased liver glucose release
- C) increases glucagon production
- D) decrease in muscle gylcogen
- E) none of the above

About This Quiz

Explore the fundamentals of biochemistry in this engaging quiz, focusing on carbohydrates, hormones, cholesterol, and cellular processes. Test your understanding of key physiological mechanisms and their implications for health.

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2.

Which stomach hormone acts on the hypothalamus to promote the sensation of hunger?
- A) leptin
- B) ghrelin
- C) cholecystokinin
- D) peptide YY
- E) insulin
Correct Answer

A. B) ghrelin

Explanation

Ghrelin is a stomach hormone that acts on the hypothalamus to promote the sensation of hunger. It is produced in the stomach and signals the brain to increase appetite and food intake. Ghrelin levels increase before meals and decrease after meals, playing a role in regulating hunger and satiety.

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3.

During aerobic respiration, the transfer of electrons down the electron transport chain ultimately results in the formation of?
- A) oxygen
- B) glucose
- C) water
- D) pyruvate
- E) none of the above
Correct Answer

A. C) water

Explanation

During aerobic respiration, the transfer of electrons down the electron transport chain ultimately results in the formation of water. This occurs during the final step of the electron transport chain, where oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor and combines with hydrogen ions to form water. This process is essential for generating ATP, the energy currency of the cell, and is a key step in aerobic respiration.

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4.

Which form of cholesterol transport is most closely associated with a lowered risk of atherosclerosis and therefore considered to be a "good" cholesterol?
- A) high density lipoprotein (HDL)
- B) chylomicrons
- C) low density lipoproteins (LDL)
- D) very low density lipoproteins (VLDL)
- E) monoglycerides
Correct Answer

A. A) high density lipoprotein (HDL)

Explanation

High density lipoprotein (HDL) is considered to be a "good" cholesterol because it helps remove excess cholesterol from the bloodstream and carries it back to the liver for processing and elimination. This process helps prevent the buildup of cholesterol in the arteries, reducing the risk of atherosclerosis. HDL also has anti-inflammatory and antioxidant properties, which further contribute to its protective effects against cardiovascular disease.

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5.

The testicular cells that produce testosterone are the:
- A) Sertoli cells
- B) spermatogonia
- C) sustentacular cells
- D) interstitial (Leydig) cells
- E) none of the above
Correct Answer

A. D) interstitial (Leydig) cells

Explanation

The correct answer is D) interstitial (Leydig) cells. These cells are located in the spaces between the seminiferous tubules in the testicles. They are responsible for producing and secreting testosterone, which is the primary male sex hormone. Testosterone plays a crucial role in the development and maintenance of male reproductive tissues, as well as secondary sexual characteristics such as muscle mass, bone density, and facial hair growth.

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6.

Sertoli cells of the testis are principally regulated by which hormone?
- A) growth hormone (GH)
- B) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
- C) luteinizing hormone (LH)
- D) human chorionic hormone (hCG)
- E) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Correct Answer

A. E) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

Explanation

Sertoli cells of the testis are principally regulated by follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). FSH is produced by the pituitary gland and plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of sperm cells. It stimulates the Sertoli cells to support spermatogenesis, which is the process of sperm cell production. FSH also promotes the production of androgen-binding protein (ABP) by the Sertoli cells, which helps in the transport and concentration of testosterone, an important hormone for male reproductive function. Therefore, FSH is the hormone that primarily regulates the function of Sertoli cells in the testis.

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7.

According to the two-cell mechanism of follicular estrogen synthesis,
- A) Granulosa cells synthesize an androgen which the theca cells covert to estrogen
- B) Sertoli cells synthesize an androgen which the granulosa cells convert to dihydrotestosterone
- C) Theca cells synthesize an androgen which luteal cells convert to estrogen
- D) Production of progesterone by the corpus luteum requires cooperative interaction between two cell types
- E) Theca cells synthesize an androgen which the granulosa cells convert to estrogen
Correct Answer

A. E) Theca cells synthesize an androgen which the granulosa cells convert to estrogen

Explanation

According to the two-cell mechanism of follicular estrogen synthesis, the correct answer is E) Theca cells synthesize an androgen which the granulosa cells convert to estrogen. This means that the theca cells in the ovary produce androgens, which are then converted into estrogen by the granulosa cells. This mechanism is important for the production of estrogen, which plays a crucial role in the menstrual cycle and reproductive processes.

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8.

Beginning on the first day of the menstrual cycle, the order of the events in the uterus is?
- A) proliferative, secretory, menstrual phase
- B) secretory, proliferative, menstrual phase
- C) menstrual, secretory, proliferative phases
- D) menstrual, proliferative, secretory phases
- E) secretory, menstrual, proliferative phases
Correct Answer

A. D) menstrual, proliferative, secretory phases
9.

In the process of ovulation what is actually ejected from the ovary?
- A) primary oocyte
- B) secondary oocyte
- C) ovum
- D) oogonium
- E) none of the above
Correct Answer

A. B) secondary oocyte

Explanation

During ovulation, the mature follicle ruptures and releases the secondary oocyte from the ovary. The secondary oocyte is the result of the first meiotic division of the primary oocyte. It is the stage at which the oocyte is ready for fertilization. The ovum, on the other hand, is the mature egg that is formed after fertilization occurs. So, the correct answer is B) secondary oocyte.

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10.

The implanting blastocyst "rescues" the corpus luteum by?
- A) secreting large quantities of FSH and LH
- B) secreting GnRH, which stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete FSH and LH
- C) secreting chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
- D) secreting progesterone and estrogen
- E) all of the above
Correct Answer

A. C) secreting chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Explanation

The correct answer is C) secreting chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). The implanting blastocyst secretes chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), which is a hormone that helps to maintain the corpus luteum. The corpus luteum is responsible for producing progesterone, which is necessary for the maintenance of pregnancy. If the corpus luteum were to degenerate, progesterone levels would decrease and the pregnancy would be at risk. Therefore, the secretion of hCG by the implanting blastocyst "rescues" the corpus luteum by ensuring its continued function and the production of progesterone.

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11.

An obstruction of the common bile duct would have which effect?
- A) elevated blood chylomicron levels
- B) presence of bile salts in the large intestine
- C) decreased secretion of cholecystokinin
- D) production of feces containing undigested fats
- E) none of the above
Correct Answer

A. D) production of feces containing undigested fats

Explanation

An obstruction of the common bile duct would lead to the accumulation of bile in the liver and a decrease in the secretion of bile into the small intestine. Bile is necessary for the digestion and absorption of fats. Without sufficient bile, the fats in the diet cannot be properly broken down and absorbed. As a result, undigested fats would pass through the digestive system and be eliminated in the feces, leading to the production of feces containing undigested fats.

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12.

Which class of enzymes produces glucose from complex carbohydrates?
- A) carboxypeptidase
- B) amylase
- C) trypsin
- D) lipase
- E) ribonuclease
Correct Answer

A. B) amylase

Explanation

Amylase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that specifically breaks down complex carbohydrates into glucose. It is produced in the salivary glands and pancreas and plays a crucial role in the digestion of starches and glycogen. Amylase catalyzes the hydrolysis of the glycosidic bonds in complex carbohydrates, such as starch, releasing glucose molecules. This process is essential for the body to obtain energy from carbohydrates. Carboxypeptidase, trypsin, lipase, and ribonuclease are enzymes that have different functions and are not involved in the production of glucose from complex carbohydrates.

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13.

Nutrients from the small intestine are transported to the liver via which major blood vessel?
- A) celiac artery
- B) superior mesentreric artery
- C) inferior mesenteric artery
- D) hepatic portal vein
- E) hepatic artery
Correct Answer

A. D) hepatic portal vein

Explanation

The correct answer is D) hepatic portal vein. The hepatic portal vein is responsible for carrying nutrient-rich blood from the small intestine to the liver. This allows the liver to process and metabolize the nutrients before they are distributed to the rest of the body. The celiac artery, superior mesenteric artery, inferior mesenteric artery, and hepatic artery are all blood vessels that supply oxygenated blood to various organs, but they are not involved in transporting nutrients from the small intestine to the liver.

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14.

Which area if the gastrointestinal tract is the primary site of fluid reabsorption that compensates for the large daily fluid production (approximately 10 L)?
- A) esophagus
- B) stomach
- C) small intestine
- D) colon
- E) rectum
Correct Answer

A. C) small intestine

Explanation

The small intestine is the primary site of fluid reabsorption in the gastrointestinal tract. It is responsible for the absorption of nutrients and water from the food we consume. The small intestine has a large surface area due to its numerous folds and villi, which increases the absorption capacity. This allows it to efficiently reabsorb the large amount of fluid produced daily by the body, approximately 10 liters. The other options, such as the esophagus, stomach, colon, and rectum, do not have the same capacity for fluid reabsorption as the small intestine.

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15.

Which organ is important to carbohydrate and lipid metabolism because its cells can store both carbohydrate (as glycogen) and lipids (as triglycerides)?
- A) stomach
- B) large intestine
- C) pancreas
- D) liver
- E) gall bladder
Correct Answer

A. D) liver

Explanation

The liver is important to carbohydrate and lipid metabolism because its cells can store both carbohydrate (as glycogen) and lipids (as triglycerides). The liver plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar levels by storing excess glucose as glycogen and releasing it when needed. It is also responsible for synthesizing and breaking down lipids, including triglycerides. Additionally, the liver produces bile, which aids in the digestion and absorption of fats. Therefore, the liver is the correct answer for this question.

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16.

The lipoproteins that are transported away from the small intestine via the lacteals are termed?
- A) triglycerides
- B) monoglycerides and fatty acids
- C) chylomicrons
- D) pinocytotic vesicles
- E) LDLs
Correct Answer

A. C) chylomicrons

Explanation

Chylomicrons are the lipoproteins that are transported away from the small intestine via the lacteals. These large particles are formed in the intestinal cells and contain dietary triglycerides, cholesterol, and fat-soluble vitamins. Chylomicrons are released into the lymphatic system and eventually enter the bloodstream, where they deliver triglycerides to various tissues for energy or storage.

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17.

Which organ actually produces most of the enzymes required for digestion?
- A) stomach
- B) small intestine
- C) pancreas
- D) liver
- E) gall bladder
Correct Answer

A. C) pancreas

Explanation

The pancreas is the organ that actually produces most of the enzymes required for digestion. It secretes digestive enzymes into the small intestine to help break down carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. The stomach also produces some enzymes, but the majority of them are produced by the pancreas. The small intestine is responsible for absorbing nutrients, not producing enzymes. The liver produces bile, which helps with the digestion of fats, but it does not produce enzymes. The gall bladder stores and releases bile, but it does not produce enzymes.

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18.

All of the following are normal functions of hepatocytes EXCEPT?
- A) synthesis and breakdown of glycogen
- B) degradation and conjugation of drugs or toxins
- C) endocytosis of chylomicrons
- D) synthesis and secretion of immunoglobulins
- E) synthesis and secretion of bile acids
Correct Answer

A. D) synthesis and secretion of immunoglobulins

Explanation

Hepatocytes are the main functional cells of the liver and are responsible for many important functions. They are involved in the synthesis and breakdown of glycogen, which is important for maintaining blood glucose levels. They also play a role in the degradation and conjugation of drugs or toxins, helping to detoxify the body. Hepatocytes are responsible for the endocytosis of chylomicrons, which are particles that transport dietary fats. Additionally, hepatocytes are involved in the synthesis and secretion of bile acids, which aid in the digestion and absorption of fats. However, hepatocytes are not responsible for the synthesis and secretion of immunoglobulins, which are produced by plasma cells in the immune system.

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19.

The function of the colon is to absorb:
- A) vitamins
- B) water
- C) fats
- D) carbohydrates
- E) proteins
Correct Answer

A. B) water

Explanation

The colon is responsible for absorbing water from the digested food as it passes through the large intestine. This absorption of water helps in the formation of solid feces and prevents dehydration.

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20.

The sum total of all the chemical reactions necessary to maintain life is termed:
- A) anabolism
- B) metabolism
- C) catabolism
- D) cannibalism
- E) none of the above
Correct Answer

A. B) metabolism

Explanation

Metabolism refers to the sum total of all the chemical reactions that occur in an organism to maintain life. It includes both anabolism, which is the process of building complex molecules from simpler ones, and catabolism, which is the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones. Metabolism is essential for energy production, growth, repair, and other vital functions in living organisms. Cannibalism, on the other hand, refers to the act of one organism consuming another of the same species, and is not related to the chemical reactions necessary for life.

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21.

Based on the greatest amount of energy (ATP) produced per mole of glucose, the most important pathway in the process of cellular respiration is:
- A) glycolysis
- B) Krebs cycle
- C) oxidative phosphorylation
- D) Acetyl CoA
- E) none of the above
Correct Answer

A. C) oxidative phosphorylation

Explanation

Oxidative phosphorylation is the most important pathway in the process of cellular respiration because it generates the greatest amount of energy (ATP) per mole of glucose. This process occurs in the mitochondria and involves the transfer of electrons from electron carriers (NADH and FADH2) to the electron transport chain, which creates a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane. The flow of protons back into the mitochondrial matrix through ATP synthase leads to the phosphorylation of ADP to ATP, resulting in the production of a large amount of ATP. Glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and Acetyl CoA are also important steps in cellular respiration, but they do not produce as much ATP as oxidative phosphorylation.

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22.

Gluconeogenesis is an anabolic process in which:
- A) glycogen is broken down into glucose
- B) glycogen is formed
- C) glucose is formed from noncarbohydrate sources
- D) glucose is converted into CO2 and water
- E) none of the above
Correct Answer

A. C) glucose is formed from noncarbohydrate sources

Explanation

Gluconeogenesis is the process by which glucose is formed from noncarbohydrate sources in the body. This process occurs primarily in the liver and kidneys and is important for maintaining blood glucose levels during periods of fasting or low carbohydrate intake. Noncarbohydrate sources such as amino acids, lactate, and glycerol can be converted into glucose through a series of enzymatic reactions. This process helps to provide a steady supply of glucose to the brain and other tissues that rely on glucose as their primary fuel source.

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23.

Where doe glycolysis take place?
- A) mitrochondrial inner membrane
- B) cell cytoplasm
- C) mitochondrial matrix
- D) cell nucleus
- E) mitochondrial outer membrane
Correct Answer

A. B) cell cytoplasm

Explanation

Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. It is the first step in cellular respiration and occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. The cytoplasm is the fluid-filled region between the cell membrane and the nucleus, where many cellular processes take place. Therefore, glycolysis takes place in the cell cytoplasm.

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24.

What would be the overall effect on the liver of a decrease in plasma [insulin] accompanied by increases in glucagon, epinephrine, and sympathetic nervous system activity?
- A) increase glycogenolysis
- B) decreased glycogenolysis
- C) decreased gluconeogenesis
- D) decrease lipolysis
- E) decreased proteolysis
Correct Answer

A. A) increase glycogenolysis

Explanation

A decrease in plasma insulin levels accompanied by increases in glucagon, epinephrine, and sympathetic nervous system activity would result in an overall increase in glycogenolysis. Insulin promotes glycogen synthesis and storage in the liver, so a decrease in insulin would lead to a decrease in glycogen synthesis and an increase in glycogen breakdown. Glucagon, epinephrine, and sympathetic nervous system activity all stimulate glycogenolysis, further contributing to the overall increase in glycogen breakdown. Therefore, the correct answer is A) increase glycogenolysis.

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25.

The lipoproteins that remove cholesterol from the tissues are?
- A) chylomicrons
- B) lipoprotein lipases
- C) VLDLs
- D) LDLs
- E) HDLs
Correct Answer

A. E) HDLs

Explanation

HDLs, or high-density lipoproteins, are responsible for removing cholesterol from the tissues. They transport cholesterol from the tissues back to the liver, where it can be processed and eliminated from the body. HDLs are often referred to as "good" cholesterol because they help to prevent the buildup of cholesterol in the arteries, reducing the risk of heart disease.

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26.

In the post absorptive state, glycogen is hydrolyzed to liberate glucose. This process is called?
- A) glycogenolysis
- B) glycolysis
- C) gluconeogenesis
- D) lipolysis
- E) proteolysis
Correct Answer

A. A) glycogenolysis

Explanation

In the post absorptive state, when the body is not receiving any nutrients from the digestive system, glycogen stored in the liver and muscles is broken down into glucose to provide energy to the body. This process is known as glycogenolysis. Glycogenolysis is the correct answer because it accurately describes the process of hydrolyzing glycogen to liberate glucose. Glycolysis is the process of breaking down glucose, gluconeogenesis is the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources, lipolysis is the breakdown of fats, and proteolysis is the breakdown of proteins.

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27.

Which nutrient is classified as a micronutrient (only small quantities required)?
- A) lipids
- B) vitamins
- C) water
- D) carbohydrates
- E) proteins
Correct Answer

A. B) vitamins

Explanation

Vitamins are classified as micronutrients because they are required in small quantities for proper functioning of the body. They are essential for various bodily functions such as metabolism, growth, and development. While macronutrients like carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids are needed in larger amounts, vitamins are needed in smaller quantities. Water is not classified as a nutrient, but it is essential for overall health and hydration. Therefore, the correct answer is B) vitamins.

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28.

A severe insulin deficiency would be characterized by all of the following except?
- A) glycosuria
- B) ketoacidosis
- C) hypoglycemia
- D) polyuria
- E) decreased blood volume/pressure
Correct Answer

A. C) hypoglycemia

Explanation

A severe insulin deficiency would be characterized by glycosuria, ketoacidosis, polyuria, and decreased blood volume/pressure. Insulin is responsible for regulating blood sugar levels, so a deficiency would result in high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia) rather than low blood sugar levels (hypoglycemia). Therefore, hypoglycemia would not be a characteristic of severe insulin deficiency.

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29.

Which mechanism represents our body's response(s) to a decrease in temperature?
- A) peripheral vasodilation
- B) sweating (panting)
- C) decrease metabolic rate
- D) peripheral vasoconstriction
- E) none of the above
Correct Answer

A. D) peripheral vasoconstriction

Explanation

Peripheral vasoconstriction represents our body's response to a decrease in temperature. When the body senses a decrease in temperature, it constricts the blood vessels in the extremities, such as the hands and feet, in order to conserve heat and maintain core body temperature. This reduces blood flow to the periphery and helps to redirect warm blood to the vital organs.

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30.

A person exhibiting an elevated body temperature, excess sweating, increased peripheral vasodilation, and decrease MAP would characterize which syndrome?
- A) hyperthyroidism
- B) heat stroke
- C) heat exhaustion
- D) hypothermia
- E) proteins
Correct Answer

A. C) heat exhaustion

Explanation

Heat exhaustion is characterized by an elevated body temperature, excess sweating, increased peripheral vasodilation, and a decrease in mean arterial pressure (MAP). This syndrome occurs when the body is exposed to high temperatures and is unable to regulate its temperature effectively. Symptoms of heat exhaustion include fatigue, dizziness, nausea, and headache. If left untreated, heat exhaustion can progress to heat stroke, which is a more severe and life-threatening condition.

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31.

The most important hormone in long-term regulation of BMR is?
- A) growth hormone
- B) cortisol
- C) thyroid hormone
- D) epinephrine
- E) none of the above
Correct Answer

A. C) thyroid hormone

Explanation

Thyroid hormone is the most important hormone in the long-term regulation of BMR (Basal Metabolic Rate). BMR refers to the amount of energy expended by the body at rest. Thyroid hormone plays a crucial role in regulating the body's metabolism and energy production. It controls the rate at which the body uses energy and influences various metabolic processes. Therefore, thyroid hormone is essential for maintaining a healthy BMR.

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32.

Shivering thermogenesis principally involves?
- A) adrenal medulla epinephrine release
- B) sweat glands
- C) skin arterioles
- D) skeletal muscle
- E) brown adipose tissue
Correct Answer

A. D) skeletal muscle

Explanation

Shivering thermogenesis primarily involves skeletal muscle. Shivering is a reflexive response to cold temperatures in which the muscles contract rapidly, generating heat to warm the body. This heat production is essential for maintaining body temperature in cold environments. The other options (adrenal medulla epinephrine release, sweat glands, skin arterioles, and brown adipose tissue) are not directly involved in shivering thermogenesis.

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33.

The primary site of spermatogenesis is the:
- A) ductus deferens
- B) epididymis
- C) seminiferous tubules
- D) rete testis
- E) efferent ducts
Correct Answer

A. C) seminiferous tubules

Explanation

The seminiferous tubules are the primary site of spermatogenesis, which is the process of sperm production. These tubules are located within the testes and are responsible for the production and maturation of sperm cells. Spermatogenesis involves the division and differentiation of germ cells within the seminiferous tubules, leading to the formation of mature sperm. The other options listed (ductus deferens, epididymis, rete testis, efferent ducts) are all parts of the male reproductive system, but they do not play a direct role in sperm production.

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34.

Which cells divide by meiosis?
- A) spermatozoa
- B) spermatogonia
- C) spermatocytes
- D) spermatids
- E) Sertoli cells
Correct Answer

A. C) spermatocytes

Explanation

Spermatocytes are the cells that divide by meiosis. Meiosis is a type of cell division that results in the formation of gametes, such as sperm cells. Spermatocytes are the primary cells in the male reproductive system that undergo meiosis to produce haploid cells called spermatids. These spermatids then undergo further maturation to become spermatozoa or sperm cells. Therefore, spermatocytes are the correct answer as they are the cells specifically involved in the process of meiotic division in the production of sperm cells.

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35.

Which hormone is the principal regulator of Leydig cell testosterone secretion?
- A) FSH
- B) LH
- C) hCG
- D) GnRH
- E) FSH
Correct Answer

A. B) LH

Explanation

LH (luteinizing hormone) is the principal regulator of Leydig cell testosterone secretion. LH is produced by the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the production of testosterone by the Leydig cells in the testes. Testosterone is an important hormone for male reproductive function and development. It plays a crucial role in the production of sperm, development of secondary sexual characteristics, and maintenance of sexual function. Therefore, LH is the correct answer as it directly influences the secretion of testosterone by the Leydig cells.

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36.

Which cells secrete Mullerian inhibiting substance (MIS)?
- A) granulosa cells
- B) Leydig cells
- C) theca cells
- D) Sertoli cells
- E) priamry oocytes
Correct Answer

A. D) Sertoli cells

Explanation

Sertoli cells secrete Mullerian inhibiting substance (MIS). MIS is a hormone that is responsible for the regression of the Mullerian ducts in male embryos, preventing the development of female reproductive structures. Sertoli cells are found in the seminiferous tubules of the testes and play a crucial role in supporting and nourishing developing sperm cells.

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37.

What is the function of Mullerian inhibiting substance (MIS)?
- A) causes mesonephric duct regression
- B) causes paramesonephric duct regression
- C) prevents labioscrotal fold fusion in females
- D) directs prostate gland development
- E) directs seminiferous tubule development
Correct Answer

A. B) causes paramesonephric duct regression

Explanation

Mullerian inhibiting substance (MIS) is a protein that is secreted by the developing testes in males. It plays a crucial role in the sexual differentiation of the reproductive system. The paramesonephric ducts, also known as the Mullerian ducts, are responsible for the development of female reproductive organs such as the uterus, fallopian tubes, and upper vagina. MIS acts on these ducts and causes their regression or degeneration in males, preventing the development of female reproductive structures. Therefore, option B, "causes paramesonephric duct regression," is the correct answer.

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38.

Erectile tissue analogous to the male corpora cavernosa is found in which female structure?
- A) labia ducts
- B) clitoris
- C) vestibular bulbs
- D) paraurethral glands
- E) vaginal wall
Correct Answer

A. B) clitoris

Explanation

The correct answer is B) clitoris. The clitoris is a female sexual organ that contains erectile tissue similar to the male corpora cavernosa. When stimulated, the clitoris becomes engorged with blood, leading to increased sensitivity and sexual pleasure. The other options listed do not contain erectile tissue analogous to the male corpora cavernosa.

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39.

The site of spermatozoa functional maturation and storage is the?
- A) seminiferous tubules
- B) efferent ducts
- C) epididymis
- D) Vas deferens
- E) prostate gland
Correct Answer

A. C) epididymis

Explanation

The correct answer is C) epididymis. The epididymis is a coiled tube located on the posterior surface of the testis where spermatozoa undergo functional maturation and are stored. It provides the environment necessary for the spermatozoa to acquire motility and fertilization capacity. The seminiferous tubules are responsible for sperm production, while the efferent ducts transport sperm from the testes to the epididymis. The vas deferens carries sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct, and the prostate gland produces seminal fluid.

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40.

Which event in the male sex response is directly regulated by the parasympathetic nervous system?
- A) excitement (erection)
- B) emission
- C) expulsion
- D) resolution
- E) detumesence
Correct Answer

A. A) excitement (erection)

Explanation

The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for the relaxation and dilation of blood vessels in the penis, allowing for increased blood flow and resulting in an erection. This process is known as excitement or erection.

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41.

The protein that clots and causes the stickiness of semen is?
- A) semenogelin
- B) prostaglandin
- C) fibrin
- D) phosphodiesterase
- E) serine protease
Correct Answer

A. A) semenogelin

Explanation

Semenogelin is the protein responsible for clotting and causing the stickiness of semen. It is produced by the seminal vesicles and helps to coagulate semen after ejaculation. This coagulation is important for the survival and motility of sperm within the female reproductive tract. Once semenogelin has formed a clot, it can be broken down by an enzyme called prostate-specific antigen (PSA), which allows the sperm to become mobile again.

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42.

Which neurotransmitter accounts for penile erection by inducing helicine artery smooth muscle cGMP production and vasodilation?
- A) norephinephrine
- B) epinephrine
- C) acetylcholine
- D) nitric oxide (NO)
- E) dopamine
Correct Answer

A. D) nitric oxide (NO)

Explanation

Nitric oxide (NO) is the correct answer because it is known to induce penile erection by stimulating the production of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) in the smooth muscle of the helicine arteries. This leads to vasodilation and increased blood flow to the penis, resulting in an erection. Norepinephrine, epinephrine, acetylcholine, and dopamine do not have the same effect on penile erection.

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43.

An ovarial follicle with a primary oocyte surrounded by a single layer of cuboidal cells would be classified as?
- A) primoridial follicle
- B) primary follicle
- C) secondary follicle
- D) Graafian follicle
- E) atretic follicle
Correct Answer

A. B) primary follicle

Explanation

An ovarial follicle with a primary oocyte surrounded by a single layer of cuboidal cells would be classified as a primary follicle. This is because a primary follicle is characterized by the presence of a primary oocyte, which is the earliest stage of oocyte development. The single layer of cuboidal cells, known as granulosa cells, is also a characteristic of a primary follicle. Therefore, based on the given information, the correct classification for this ovarial follicle would be a primary follicle.

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44.

The oviducts, uterus, and upper vagina develop from which embryonic structure?
- A) mesonephric ducts
- B) paramesonephric ducts
- C) phallus
- D) labioscrotal folds
- E) labia majora
Correct Answer

A. B) paramesonephric ducts

Explanation

The oviducts, uterus, and upper vagina develop from the paramesonephric ducts. These ducts are present in the early embryo and give rise to the female reproductive tract. The mesonephric ducts, on the other hand, develop into the male reproductive structures. The phallus, labioscrotal folds, and labia majora are all structures that develop in the external genitalia, but they do not give rise to the oviducts, uterus, and upper vagina.

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45.

Which combination would best describe a mature (Graafian) follicle just prior to ovulation?
- A) Secondary oocyte, zona pellucida, corona radiata, large continuous antrum
- B) primary oocyte, zona pellucida, corona radiata, large continuous antrum
- C) secondary oocyte, corona radiata, large continuous antrum
- D) secondary oocyte, zona pellucida, large continuous antrum
- E) none of the above
Correct Answer

A. A) Secondary oocyte, zona pellucida, corona radiata, large continuous antrum

Explanation

The correct answer is A) Secondary oocyte, zona pellucida, corona radiata, large continuous antrum. This combination best describes a mature (Graafian) follicle just prior to ovulation. A mature follicle contains a secondary oocyte, which is the egg that is ready to be released. It is surrounded by the zona pellucida, a protective layer, and the corona radiata, which are layers of cells that support the oocyte. Additionally, a mature follicle has a large continuous antrum, which is a fluid-filled cavity within the follicle.

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46.

Which structure is most comparable to the male scrotum based on developmental anatomy?
- A) clitoris
- B) vagina
- C) vestibular bulbs
- D) labia minora
- E) labia majora
Correct Answer

A. E) labia majora

Explanation

The male scrotum is a structure that houses the testes, while the labia majora is a part of the female external genitalia. Both structures develop from the same embryonic tissue, known as the genital tubercle. The labia majora in females is analogous to the scrotum in males, as they both develop from the same precursor structure. Therefore, the labia majora is the most comparable structure to the male scrotum based on developmental anatomy.

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47.

The maximum number of oocytes in an ovary will occur at what stage of development?
- A) 18-week-old fetus
- B) 1-week-old infant
- C) 7-year-old child
- D) 20-year-old woman
- E) 55-year-old woman
Correct Answer

A. A) 18-week-old fetus

Explanation

During fetal development, the ovaries contain the maximum number of oocytes. Oocytes are the immature eggs that have the potential to develop into mature eggs. As a woman ages, the number of oocytes in her ovaries gradually decreases through a process called ovarian follicle atresia. Therefore, the highest number of oocytes is present during the fetal stage of development, specifically around 18 weeks.

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48.

The ruptured follicle that secretes progesterone during the secretory phase of menstrual cycle is the:
- A) corpus amylaceum
- B) corpus collosum
- C) corpus alibcans
- D) corpus spongiosum
- E) corpus luteum
Correct Answer

A. E) corpus luteum

Explanation

During the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle, the ruptured follicle is transformed into a structure called the corpus luteum. The corpus luteum is responsible for secreting progesterone, which is important for preparing the uterus for potential implantation of a fertilized egg. The other options listed (corpus amylaceum, corpus collosum, corpus albicans, and corpus spongiosum) are not involved in the secretion of progesterone during the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle.

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49.

In a 20-year old female the reproductive tract "transition zone" where squamous cell transformation can be detected by a Pap smear occurs where?
- A) uterine-cervical junction
- B) endocervical canal (endocervix)
- C) cervical-vaginal junction (exocervix)
- D) oviduct-uterine junction
- E) body of the vagina
Correct Answer

A. C) cervical-vaginal junction (exocervix)

Explanation

The "transition zone" where squamous cell transformation can be detected by a Pap smear occurs at the cervical-vaginal junction (exocervix). This is the area where the squamous epithelium of the vagina transitions into the columnar epithelium of the cervix. It is an important site for detecting abnormal cell changes that may indicate cervical cancer or precancerous conditions. The Pap smear involves collecting cells from this area to be examined for any abnormalities.

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The protein that clots and causes the stickiness of semen is?

Which neurotransmitter accounts for penile erection by inducing helicine artery smooth muscle cGMP production and vasodilation?

An ovarial follicle with a primary oocyte surrounded by a single layer of cuboidal cells would be classified as?

The oviducts, uterus, and upper vagina develop from which embryonic structure?

Which combination would best describe a mature (Graafian) follicle just prior to ovulation?

Which structure is most comparable to the male scrotum based on developmental anatomy?

The maximum number of oocytes in an ovary will occur at what stage of development?

The ruptured follicle that secretes progesterone during the secretory phase of menstrual cycle is the:

In a 20-year old female the reproductive tract "transition zone" where squamous cell transformation can be detected by a Pap smear occurs where?