NCLEX Practice Test For Genitourinary System

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NCLEX Practice Test For Genitourinary System - Quiz

Genitourinary System is concerned with the removal of waste products from the body. This NCLEX practice test on the Genitourinary system aims to provide you with a set of well-researched questions that will give you valuable information about the topic. The quiz contains various questions ranging from easy, medium, and hard that cover all the relevant information required to ace the exam. Share the quiz with your friends and peers if you find it helpful. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The nurse is aware that the following findings would be further evidence of a urethral injury in a male client during rectal examination?

    • A.

      A low-riding prostate

    • B.

      The presence of a boggy mass

    • C.

      Absent sphincter tone

    • D.

      A positive Hemoccult

    Correct Answer
    B. The presence of a boggy mass
    Explanation
    When the urethra is ruptured, a hematoma or collection of blood separates the two sections of urethra. This may feel like a boggy mass on rectal examination. Because of the rupture and hematoma, the prostate becomes high riding. A palpable prostate gland usually indicates a nonurethral injury. Absent sphincter tone would refer to a spinal cord injury. The presence of blood would probably correlate with GI bleeding or a colon injury.

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  • 2. 

     When a female client with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter insists on walking to the hospital lobby to visit with family members, nurse Rose teaches how to do this without compromising the catheter. Which client action indicates an accurate understanding of this information?

    • A.

      The client sets the drainage bag on the floor while sitting down

    • B.

      The client keeps the drainage bag below the bladder at all times

    • C.

      The client clamps the catheter drainage tubing while visiting with the family

    • D.

      The client loops the drainage tubing below its point of entry into the drainage bag

    Correct Answer
    B. The client keeps the drainage bag below the bladder at all times
    Explanation
    To maintain effective drainage, the client should keep the drainage bag below the bladder; this allows the urine to flow by gravity from the bladder to the drainage bag. The client shouldn’t lay the drainage bag on the floor because it could become grossly contaminated. The client shouldn’t clamp the catheter drainage tubing because this impedes the flow of urine. To promote drainage, the client may loop the drainage tubing above — not below — its point of entry into the drainage bag.

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  • 3. 

    A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What information is appropriate to tell this client?

    • A.

      This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually

    • B.

      The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days

    • C.

      The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse

    • D.

      The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can’t be transmitted during oral sex

    Correct Answer
    A. This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually
    Explanation
    Women with condylomata acuminata are at risk for cancer of the cervix and vulva. Yearly Pap smears are very important for early detection. Because condylomata acuminata is a virus, there is no permanent cure. Because condylomata acuminata can occur on the vulva, a condom won’t protect sexual partners. HPV can be transmitted to other parts of the body, such as the mouth, oropharynx, and larynx

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  • 4. 

    A male client with bladder cancer has had the bladder removed and an ileal conduit created for urine diversion. While changing this client’s pouch, the nurse observes that the area around the stoma is red, weeping, and painful. What should nurse Katrina conclude?

    • A.

      The skin wasn’t lubricated before the pouch was applied

    • B.

      The pouch faceplate doesn’t fit the stoma

    • C.

      A skin barrier was applied properly

    • D.

      Stoma dilation wasn’t performed

    Correct Answer
    B. The pouch faceplate doesn’t fit the stoma
    Explanation
    If the pouch faceplate doesn’t fit the stoma properly, the skin around the stoma will be exposed to continuous urine flow from the stoma, causing excoriation and red, weeping, and painful skin. A lubricant shouldn’t be used because it would prevent the pouch from adhering to the skin. When properly applied, a skin barrier prevents skin excoriation. Stoma dilation isn’t performed with an ileal conduit, although it may be done with a colostomy if ordered

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  • 5. 

    The nurse is aware that the following laboratory values supports a diagnosis of pyelonephritis?

    • A.

      Myoglobinuria

    • B.

      Ketonuria

    • C.

      Pyuria

    • D.

      Low white blood cell (WBC) count

    Correct Answer
    C. Pyuria
    Explanation
    Pyelonephritis is diagnosed by the presence of leukocytosis, hematuria, pyuria, and bacteriuria. The client exhibits fever, chills, and flank pain. Because there is often a septic picture, the WBC count is more likely to be high rather than low, as indicated in option D. Ketonuria indicates a diabetic state.

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  • 6. 

    A female client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is receiving a hemodialysis treatment. After hemodialysis, nurse Sarah knows that the client is most likely to experience:

    • A.

      Hematuria

    • B.

      Weight loss

    • C.

      Increased urine output

    • D.

      Increased blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    B. Weight loss
    Explanation
    Because CRF causes loss of renal function, the client with this disorder retains fluid. Hemodialysis removes this fluid, causing weight loss. Hematuria is unlikely to follow hemodialysis because the client with CRF usually forms little or no urine. Hemodialysis doesn’t increase urine output because it doesn’t correct the loss of kidney function, which severely decreases urine production in this disorder. By removing fluids, hemodialysis decreases rather than increases the blood pressure.

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  • 7. 

    Nurse Lea is assessing a male client diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which symptom most likely prompted the client to seek medical attention?

    • A.

      Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet

    • B.

      Cauliflower-like warts on the penis

    • C.

      Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis

    • D.

      Foul-smelling discharge from the penis

    Correct Answer
    D. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis
    Explanation
    Symptoms of gonorrhea in men include purulent, foul-smelling drainage from the penis and painful urination. Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet are symptoms of the secondary stage of syphilis. Cauliflower-like warts on the penis are a sign of human papillomavirus. Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis may be a sign of the first stage of genital herpes.

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  • 8. 

    Nurse Agnes is reviewing the report of a client’s routine urinalysis. Which value should the nurse consider abnormal?

    • A.

      Specific gravity of 1.03

    • B.

      Urine pH of 3.0

    • C.

      Absence of protein

    • D.

      Absence of glucose

    Correct Answer
    B. Urine pH of 3.0
    Explanation
    Normal urine pH is 4.5 to 8; therefore, a urine pH of 3.0 is abnormal. Urine specific gravity normally ranges from 1.002 to 1.035, making this client’s value normal. Normally, urine contains no protein, glucose, ketones, bilirubin, bacteria, casts, or crystals. Red blood cells should measure 0 to 3 per high-power field; white blood cells, 0 to 4 per high-power field. Urine should be clear, its color ranging from pale yellow to deep amber.

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  • 9. 

    A male client is scheduled for a renal clearance test. Nurse Maureen should explain that this test is done to assess the kidneys’ ability to remove a substance from the plasma in:

    • A.

      1 minute.

    • B.

      30 minutes

    • C.

      1 hour

    • D.

      24 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 minute.
    Explanation
    The renal clearance test determines the kidneys’ ability to remove a substance from the plasma in 1 minute. It doesn’t measure the kidneys’ ability to remove a substance over a longer period.

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  • 10. 

    A male client in the short-procedure unit is recovering from renal angiography in which a femoral puncture site was used. When providing postprocedure care, the nurse should:

    • A.

      Keep the client’s knee on the affected side bent for 6 hours

    • B.

      Apply pressure to the puncture site for 30 minutes

    • C.

      Check the client’s pedal pulses frequently

    • D.

      Remove the dressing on the puncture site after vital signs stabilize

    Correct Answer
    C. Check the client’s pedal pulses frequently
    Explanation
    After renal angiography involving a femoral puncture site, the nurse should check the client’s pedal pulses frequently to detect reduced circulation to the feet caused by vascular injury. The nurse also should monitor vital signs for evidence of internal hemorrhage and should observe the puncture site frequently for fresh bleeding. The client should be kept on bed rest for several hours so the puncture site can seal completely. Keeping the client’s knee bent is unnecessary. By the time the client returns to the short-procedure unit, manual pressure over the puncture site is no longer needed because a pressure dressing is in place. The nurse shouldn’t remove this dressing for several hours — and only if instructed to do so

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  • 11. 

    A female client is admitted for treatment of chronic renal failure (CRF). Nurse Juliet knows that this disorder increases the client’s risk of:

    • A.

      Water and sodium retention secondary to a severe decrease in the glomerular filtration rate.

    • B.

      A decreased serum phosphate level secondary to kidney failure

    • C.

      An increased serum calcium level secondary to kidney failure

    • D.

      Metabolic alkalosis secondary to retention of hydrogen ions

    Correct Answer
    A. Water and sodium retention secondary to a severe decrease in the glomerular filtration rate.
    Explanation
    A client with CRF is at risk for fluid imbalance — dehydration if the kidneys fail to concentrate urine, or fluid retention if the kidneys fail to produce urine. Electrolyte imbalances associated with this disorder result from the kidneys’ inability to excrete phosphorus; such imbalances may lead to hyperphosphatemia with reciprocal hypocalcemia. CRF may cause metabolic acidosis, not metabolic alkalosis, secondary to inability of the kidneys to excrete hydrogen ions

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  • 12. 

    Because of difficulties with hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis is initiated to treat a female client’s uremia. Which finding signals a significant problem during this procedure?

    • A.

      Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L

    • B.

      Hematocrit (HCT) of 35%

    • C.

      Blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl

    • D.

      White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3

    Correct Answer
    D. White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3
    Explanation
    An increased WBC count indicates infection, probably resulting from peritonitis, which may have been caused by insertion of the peritoneal catheter into the peritoneal cavity. Peritonitis can cause the peritoneal membrane to lose its ability to filter solutes; therefore, peritoneal dialysis would no longer be a treatment option for this client. Hyperglycemia occurs during peritoneal dialysis because of the high glucose content of the dialysate; it’s readily treatable with sliding-scale insulin. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L can be treated by adding potassium to the dialysate solution. An HCT of 35% is lower than normal. However, in this client, the value isn’t abnormally low because of the daily blood samplings. A lower HCT is common in clients with chronic renal failure because of the lack of erythropoietin.

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  • 13. 

    For a male client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), which nursing intervention is most important?

    • A.

      Encouraging coughing and deep breathing

    • B.

      Promoting carbohydrate intake

    • C.

      Limiting fluid intake

    • D.

      Providing pain-relief measures

    Correct Answer
    C. Limiting fluid intake
    Explanation
    During the oliguric phase of ARF, urine output decreases markedly, possibly leading to fluid overload. Limiting oral and I.V. fluid intake can prevent fluid overload and its complications, such as heart failure and pulmonary edema. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing is important for clients with various respiratory disorders. Promoting carbohydrate intake may be helpful in ARF but doesn’t take precedence over fluid limitation. Controlling pain isn’t important because ARF rarely causes pain.

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  • 14. 

    A female client requires hemodialysis. Which of the following drugs should be withheld before this procedure?

    • A.

      Phosphate binders

    • B.

      Insulin

    • C.

      Antibiotics

    • D.

      Cardiac glycosides

    Correct Answer
    D. Cardiac glycosides
    Explanation
    Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin should be withheld before hemodialysis. Hypokalemia is one of the electrolyte shifts that occur during dialysis, and a hypokalemic client is at risk for arrhythmias secondary to digitalis toxicity. Phosphate binders and insulin can be administered because they aren’t removed from the blood by dialysis. Some antibiotics are removed by dialysis and should be administered after the procedure to ensure their therapeutic effects. The nurse should check a formulary to determine whether a particular antibiotic should be administered before or after dialysis.

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  • 15. 

    A client comes to the outpatient department complaining of vaginal discharge, dysuria, and genital irritation. Suspecting a sexually transmitted disease (STD), Dr. Smith orders diagnostic tests of the vaginal discharge. Which STD must be reported to the public health department?

    • A.

      Chlamydia

    • B.

      Gonorrhea

    • C.

      Genital herpes

    • D.

      Human papillomavirus infection

    Correct Answer
    B. Gonorrhea
    Explanation
    Gonorrhea must be reported to the public health department. Chlamydia, genital herpes, and human papillomavirus infection aren’t reportable diseases.

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  • 16. 

    A male client with acute pyelonephritis receives a prescription for co-trimoxazole (Septra) P.O. twice daily for 10 days. Which finding best demonstrates that the client has followed the prescribed regimen?

    • A.

      Urine output increases to 2,000 ml/day.

    • B.

      Flank and abdominal discomfort decrease.

    • C.

      Bacteria are absent on urine culture

    • D.

      The red blood cell (RBC) count is normal

    Correct Answer
    C. Bacteria are absent on urine culture
    Explanation
    Co-trimoxazole is a sulfonamide antibiotic used to treat urinary tract infections. Therefore, absence of bacteria on urine culture indicates that the drug has achieved its desired effect. Although flank pain may decrease as the infection resolves, this isn’t a reliable indicator of the drug’s effectiveness. Co-trimoxazole doesn’t affect urine output or the RBC count.

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  • 17. 

    A 26-year-old female client seeks care for a possible infection. Her symptoms include burning on urination and frequent, urgent voiding of small amounts of urine. She’s placed on trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) to treat possible infection. Another medication is prescribed to decrease the pain and frequency. Which of the following is the most likely medication prescribed?

    • A.

      Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin)

    • B.

      Ibuprofen (Motrin)

    • C.

      Acetaminophen with codeine

    • D.

      Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)

    Correct Answer
    D. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
    Explanation
    Phenazopyridine may be prescribed in conjunction with an antibiotic for painful bladder infections to promote comfort. Because of its local anesthetic action on the urinary mucosa, phenazopyridine specifically relieves bladder pain. Nitrofurantoin is a urinary antiseptic with no analgesic properties. While ibuprofen and acetaminophen with codeine are analgesics, they don’t exert a direct effect on the urinary mucosa.

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  • 18. 

    A triple-lumen indwelling urinary catheter is inserted for continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate. In addition to balloon inflation, the nurse is aware that the functions of the three lumens include:

    • A.

      Continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution

    • B.

      Intermittent inflow and continuous outflow of irrigation solution

    • C.

      Continuous inflow and intermittent outflow of irrigation solution

    • D.

      Intermittent flow of irrigation solution and prevention of hemorrhage

    Correct Answer
    A. Continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution
    Explanation
    When preparing for continuous bladder irrigation, a triple-lumen indwelling urinary catheter is inserted. The three lumens provide for balloon inflation and continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution.

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  • 19. 

    Nurse Claudine is reviewing a client’s fluid intake and output record. Fluid intake and urine output should relate in which way?

    • A.

      Fluid intake should be double the urine output

    • B.

      Fluid intake should be approximately equal to the urine output

    • C.

      Fluid intake should be half the urine output

    • D.

      Fluid intake should be inversely proportional to the urine output

    Correct Answer
    B. Fluid intake should be approximately equal to the urine output
    Explanation
    Normally, fluid intake is approximately equal to the urine output. Any other relationship signals an abnormality. For example, fluid intake that is double the urine output indicates fluid retention; fluid intake that is half the urine output indicates dehydration. Normally, fluid intake isn’t inversely proportional to the urine output.

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  • 20. 

    After trying to conceive for a year, a couple consults an infertility specialist. When obtaining a history from the husband, nurse Jenny inquires about childhood infectious diseases. Which childhood infectious disease most significantly affects male fertility?

    • A.

      Chickenpox

    • B.

      Measles

    • C.

      Mumps

    • D.

      Scarlet fever

    Correct Answer
    C. Mumps
    Explanation
    Mumps is the most significant childhood infectious disease affecting male fertility. Chickenpox, measles, and scarlet fever don’t affect male fertility.

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  • 21. 

    A male client comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset of sharp, severe pain in the lumbar region, which radiates around the side and toward the bladder. The client also reports nausea and vomiting and appears pale, diaphoretic, and anxious. The physician tentatively diagnoses renal calculi and orders flat-plate abdominal X-rays. Renal calculi can form anywhere in the urinary tract. What is their most common formation site?

    • A.

      Kidney

    • B.

      Ureter

    • C.

      Bladder

    • D.

      Urethra

    Correct Answer
    A. Kidney
    Explanation
    The most common site of renal calculi formation is the kidney. Calculi may travel down the urinary tract with or without causing damage and may lodge anywhere along the tract or may stay within the kidney. The ureter, bladder, and urethra are less common sites of renal calculi formation.

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  • 22. 

    A female client with acute renal failure is undergoing dialysis for the first time. The nurse in charge monitors the client closely for dialysis equilibrium syndrome, a complication that is most common during the first few dialysis sessions. Typically, dialysis equilibrium syndrome causes:

    • A.

      Confusion, headache, and seizures

    • B.

      Acute bone pain and confusion

    • C.

      Weakness, tingling, and cardiac arrhythmias

    • D.

      Hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea.

    Correct Answer
    A. Confusion, headache, and seizures
    Explanation
    Dialysis equilibrium syndrome causes confusion, a decreasing level of consciousness, headache, and seizures. These findings, which may last several days, probably result from a relative excess of interstitial or intracellular solutes caused by rapid solute removal from the blood. The resultant organ swelling interferes with normal physiologic functions. To prevent this syndrome, many dialysis centers keep first-time sessions short and use a reduced blood flow rate. Acute bone pain and confusion are associated with aluminum intoxication, another potential complication of dialysis. Weakness, tingling, and cardiac arrhythmias suggest hyperkalemia, which is associated with renal failure. Hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea signal hemorrhage, another dialysis complication.

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  • 23. 

    Dr. Marquez prescribes norfloxacin (Noroxin), 400 mg P.O. twice daily, for a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI). The client asks the nurse how long to continue taking the drug. For an uncomplicated UTI, the usual duration of norfloxacin therapy is

    • A.

      3 to 5 days

    • B.

      7 to 10 days

    • C.

      12 to 14 days

    • D.

      10 to 21 days

    Correct Answer
    B. 7 to 10 days
    Explanation
    For an uncomplicated UTI, norfloxacin therapy usually lasts 7 to 10 days. Taking the drug for less than 7 days wouldn’t eradicate such an infection. Taking it for more than 10 days isn’t necessary. Only a client with a complicated UTI must take norfloxacin for 10 to 21 days.

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  • 24. 

    Nurse Joy is providing postprocedure care for a client who underwent percutaneous lithotripsy. In this procedure, an ultrasonic probe inserted through a nephrostomy tube into the renal pelvis generates ultra–high-frequency sound waves to shatter renal calculi. The nurse should instruct the client to:

    • A.

      Limit oral fluid intake for 1 to 2 weeks

    • B.

      Report the presence of fine, sandlike particles through the nephrostomy tube

    • C.

      Notify the physician about cloudy or foul-smelling urine

    • D.

      Report bright pink urine within 24 hours after the procedure

    Correct Answer
    C. Notify the physician about cloudy or foul-smelling urine
    Explanation
    The client should report the presence of foul-smelling or cloudy urine. Unless contraindicated, the client should be instructed to drink large quantities of fluid each day to flush the kidneys. Sandlike debris is normal due to residual stone products. Hematuria is common after lithotripsy

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  • 25. 

    A client is frustrated and embarrassed by urinary incontinence. Which of the following measures should nurse Bea include in a bladder retraining program?

    • A.

      Establishing a predetermined fluid intake pattern for the client

    • B.

      Encouraging the client to increase the time between voidings

    • C.

      Restricting fluid intake to reduce the need to void

    • D.

      Assessing present elimination patterns

    Correct Answer
    D. Assessing present elimination patterns
    Explanation
    The guidelines for initiating bladder retraining include assessing the client’s intake patterns, voiding patterns, and reasons for each accidental voiding. Lowering the client’s fluid intake won’t reduce or prevent incontinence. The client should actually be encouraged to drink 1.5 to 2 L of water per day. A voiding schedule should be established after assessment.

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