NCLEX Mock Test

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  • 1/22 Questions

    A patient asks a nurse, “My doctor recommended I increase my intake of folic acid. What type of foods contain the highest concentration of folic acids?”

    • Green vegetables and liver
    • Yellow vegetables and red meat
    • Carrots
    • Milk
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About This Quiz

NCLEX Mock Test evaluates nursing knowledge across key areas such as medication administration, patient care, and emergency response. Designed to simulate real exam conditions, this mock test helps nursing students practice applying critical thinking skills in common clinical scenarios. It covers essential topics including safe drug handling, patient assessment, prioritization of care, and urgent interventions.

By working through these questions, students can identify knowledge gaps, build confidence, and improve test-taking strategies. This practice test is a valuable tool for anyone preparing for the NCLEX certification exam and aiming to ensure readiness for nursing responsibilities in diverse healthcare settings.

NCLEX Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    A fifty-year-old blind and deaf patient has been admitted to your floor. As the charge nurse your primary responsibility for this patient is?

    • Let others know about the patient’s deficits.

    • Communicate with your supervisor your patient safety concerns.

    • Continuously update the patient on the social environment.

    • Provide a secure environment for the patient.

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide a secure environment for the patient.
    Explanation
    The primary responsibility of the charge nurse for a fifty-year-old blind and deaf patient is to provide a secure environment for the patient. Given the patient's deficits, it is crucial to ensure their safety and well-being by creating a secure and comfortable environment. This includes measures such as removing potential hazards, ensuring clear pathways, and implementing appropriate safety protocols. By prioritizing the patient's security, the charge nurse can contribute to their overall care and promote a positive healthcare experience.

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  • 3. 

    Rho gam is most often used to treat____ mothers that have a ____ infant

    • RH negative, RH positive

    • RH positive, RH negative

    • RH positive, RH positive

    • RH negative, RH negative

    • None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. RH negative, RH positive
    Explanation
    Rho gam is most often used to treat RH negative mothers that have a RH positive infant. This is because when an RH negative mother carries an RH positive baby, there is a risk of the mother's immune system developing antibodies against the baby's blood cells. Rho gam is a medication that helps prevent this immune response, ensuring the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.

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  • 4. 

    A nurse is putting together a presentation on meningitis. Which of the following microorganisms has not been linked to meningitis in humans?

    • S. pneumonia

    • H. influenza

    • N. meningitis

    • Cl. difficile

    Correct Answer
    A. Cl. difficile
    Explanation
    Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges, the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. It is most commonly caused by bacteria and viruses. S. pneumonia, H. influenza, and N. meningitis are all well-known pathogens that have been linked to meningitis in humans. However, Cl. difficile is a bacterium that is primarily associated with causing gastrointestinal infections, such as diarrhea and colitis, and it is not typically associated with meningitis.

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  • 5. 

    A mother has recently been informed that her child has Down’s syndrome. You will be assigned to care for the child at shift change. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with Down’s syndrome?

    • Simian crease

    • Brachycephaly

    • Oily skin

    • Hypotonicity

    Correct Answer
    A. Oily skin
    Explanation
    Oily skin is not associated with Down's syndrome. Down's syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. It is characterized by certain physical features and developmental delays. Some common characteristics of Down's syndrome include a simian crease (a single crease across the palm), brachycephaly (a short and wide head shape), and hypotonicity (low muscle tone). However, oily skin is not typically associated with Down's syndrome.

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  • 6. 

    A second year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most important action that nursing student should take?

    • Start prophylactic AZT treatment

    • Immediately see a social worker

    • Start prophylactic Pentamide treatment

    • Seek counseling

    • None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. Start prophylactic AZT treatment
    Explanation
    The most important action for the nursing student to take after suffering a needlestick while working with an AIDS-positive patient is to start prophylactic AZT treatment. AZT, or zidovudine, is an antiretroviral medication that can help prevent the transmission of HIV. By starting this treatment immediately, the nursing student can reduce the risk of developing HIV infection. Seeking counseling or seeing a social worker may be necessary for emotional support, but starting AZT treatment is the most crucial step to prevent infection. Prophylactic Pentamide treatment is not relevant in this scenario.

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  • 7. 

    A 34 year old female has recently been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease. She has also recently discovered that she is pregnant. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb?

    • IgA

    • IgD

    • IgE

    • IgG

    • None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. IgG
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, the mother's immune system must adapt to protect both herself and the developing fetus. IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta from the mother to the fetus, providing passive immunity to the baby. This transfer of IgG antibodies helps protect the fetus against various infections that the mother has encountered in the past, offering vital protection until the baby's own immune system develops. IgA, IgD, and IgE do not cross the placenta, so they do not provide direct protection to the fetus. Therefore, the correct answer is IgG.

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  • 8. 

    A patient tells you that her urine is starting to look discolored. If you believe this change is due to medication, which of the following patient’s medication does not cause urine discoloration?

    • Aspirin

    • Levodopa

    • Phenolphthalein

    • Sulfasalazine

    • None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aspirin
    Explanation
    Aspirin does not cause urine discoloration. While levodopa, phenolphthalein, and sulfasalazine can all cause changes in urine color, aspirin does not have this effect.

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  • 9. 

    A nurse is administering blood to a patient who has a low hemoglobin count. The patient asks how long to RBC’s last in my body? The correct response is.

    • The life span of RBC is 45 days

    • The life span of RBC is 60 days.

    • The life span of RBC is 90 days.

    • The life span of RBC is 120 days.

    • RBC lasts for a person's lifetime

    Correct Answer
    A. The life span of RBC is 120 days.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the life span of RBC is 120 days. Red blood cells (RBCs) are responsible for carrying oxygen to the body's tissues. They have a limited lifespan and are constantly being produced and destroyed in the body. The average lifespan of RBCs is approximately 120 days, after which they are removed from the bloodstream by the spleen and liver. This turnover of RBCs ensures that the body maintains a healthy supply of oxygen-carrying cells.

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  • 10. 

    You are taking the history of a 14 year old girl who has a (BMI) of 18. The girl reports inability to eat, induced vomiting and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

    • Systemic sclerosis

    • Bulimia

    • Anorexia nervosa

    • Multiple sclerosis

    • Sipon ;)

    Correct Answer
    A. Anorexia nervosa
    Explanation
    Given the history of a 14-year-old girl with a low BMI, inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation, the most likely suspect would be anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by a distorted body image, an intense fear of gaining weight, and severe restrictions in food intake. The symptoms described align with the typical behaviors and physical manifestations associated with anorexia nervosa. Systemic sclerosis, bulimia, and multiple sclerosis are not typically associated with the reported symptoms.

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  • 11. 

    A new mother has some questions about (PKU). Which of the following statements made by a nurse is not correct regarding PKU?

    • A Guthrie test can check the necessary lab values.

    • The urine has a high concentration of phenylpyruvic acid

    • Mental deficits are often present with PKU.

    • The effects of PKU are reversible.

    Correct Answer
    A. The effects of PKU are reversible.
    Explanation
    PKU (Phenylketonuria) is a genetic disorder that affects the body's ability to break down an amino acid called phenylalanine. If left untreated, the buildup of phenylalanine can lead to intellectual disability and other neurological problems. The effects of PKU are not reversible, meaning that once the damage is done, it cannot be undone. Therefore, the statement "The effects of PKU are reversible" is not correct.

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  • 12. 

    A patient has recently experienced a (MI) within the last 4 hours. Which of the following medications would most like be administered?

    • Streptokinase

    • Atropine

    • Acetaminophen

    • Coumadin

    Correct Answer
    A. Streptokinase
    Explanation
    Streptokinase is the most likely medication to be administered to a patient who has recently experienced a myocardial infarction (MI) within the last 4 hours. Streptokinase is a thrombolytic medication that works by dissolving blood clots and restoring blood flow to the heart. It is commonly used in the early stages of an MI to prevent further damage to the heart muscle. Atropine is used to treat certain heart rhythm disorders and is not typically indicated for an acute MI. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever and does not address the underlying cause of an MI. Coumadin is an anticoagulant medication used for long-term prevention of blood clots, but it is not typically used immediately after an MI.

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  • 13. 

    You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit’s refrigerator. If you found the following drug in the refrigerator it should be removed from the refrigerator’s contents?

    • Humulin (injection)

    • Epogen (injection)

    • Urokinase

    • Corgard

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Corgard
    Explanation
    Corgard should be removed from the refrigerator's contents because it is not a drug that requires refrigeration. Humulin and Epogen are both injections that may need to be stored in the refrigerator. Urokinase is also a drug that may require refrigeration. However, Corgard does not need to be refrigerated, so it should be removed from the refrigerator.

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  • 14. 

    A 24 year old female is admitted to the ER for confusion. This patient has a history of a myeloma diagnosis, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

    • Diverticulosis

    • Hypercalcaemia

    • Hypocalcaemia

    • Irritable bowel syndrome

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypercalcaemia
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the most likely suspect would be hypercalcaemia. The patient's symptoms of confusion, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria are consistent with hypercalcaemia, which is a condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. This condition can occur in patients with myeloma, as the cancer cells can release substances that increase calcium levels. Additionally, constipation can be a symptom of hypercalcaemia. Diverticulosis, hypocalcaemia, and irritable bowel syndrome do not align with the patient's symptoms and medical history, making them less likely suspects.

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  • 15. 

    A nurse is caring for an infant that has recently been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely be present?

    • Slow pulse rate

    • Weight gain

    • Decreased systolic pressure

    • Irregular WBC lab values

    Correct Answer
    A. Weight gain
    Explanation
    Weight gain is the most likely clinical sign to be present in an infant with a congenital heart defect. This is because congenital heart defects can cause the heart to work harder to pump blood, leading to fluid retention and weight gain. Slow pulse rate may be seen in some heart defects, but it is not the most likely sign. Decreased systolic pressure may be present in severe cases, but it is not as specific as weight gain. Irregular WBC lab values are not directly related to congenital heart defects.

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  • 16. 

    A thirty five year old male has been an insulin-dependent diabetic for five years and now is unable to urinate. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

    • Atherosclerosis

    • Autonomic neuropathy

    • Diabetic nephropathy

    • Somatic neuropathy

    • None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. Autonomic neuropathy
    Explanation
    Autonomic neuropathy is the most likely cause for the inability to urinate in this case. Autonomic neuropathy is a complication of diabetes that affects the nerves controlling involuntary bodily functions, including bladder function. This can lead to problems with emptying the bladder properly, resulting in urinary retention. Atherosclerosis, diabetic nephropathy, and somatic neuropathy are not directly related to urinary issues.

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  • 17. 

    A patient is getting discharged from a SNF facility. The patient has a history of severe COPD and PVD. The patient is primarily concerned about their ability to breath easily. Which of the following would be the best instruction for this patient?

    • Deep breathing techniques to increase O2 levels.

    • Cough regularly and deeply to clear airway passages.

    • Cough following bronchodilator utilization

    • Decrease CO2 levels by increase oxygen take output during meals

    Correct Answer
    A. Cough following bronchodilator utilization
    Explanation
    Coughing following bronchodilator utilization would be the best instruction for this patient. Bronchodilators help to relax and open up the airways, making it easier for the patient to breathe. Coughing after using a bronchodilator can help to clear any mucus or secretions that may have been loosened, further improving the patient's ability to breathe easily.

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  • 18. 

    A patient has taken an overdose of aspirin. Which of the following should a nurse most closely monitor for during acute management of this patient?

    • Onset of pulmonary edema

    • Metabolic alkalosis

    • Respiratory alkalosis

    • Parkinson’s disease type symptoms

    Correct Answer
    A. Parkinson’s disease type symptoms
    Explanation
    In the acute management of a patient who has taken an overdose of aspirin, the nurse should closely monitor for Parkinson's disease type symptoms. Aspirin overdose can lead to salicylate toxicity, which can cause neurologic symptoms resembling Parkinson's disease. These symptoms may include tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia, and altered mental status. Monitoring for these symptoms is important in order to provide appropriate interventions and prevent further complications.

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  • 19. 

    Saan tayo unang nagkita?

    • Bugis MRT station

    • McDonalds at Bugis Junction

    • NYDC Restaurant at Bugis Junction

    • Kopitiam at Tampines Mall

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. McDonalds at Bugis Junction
    Explanation
    The given answer, "McDonalds at Bugis Junction," suggests that the first meeting took place at that specific location. It implies that the individuals involved met at the McDonalds branch located in Bugis Junction.

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  • 20. 

    When was our first kiss?

    • January 3, 2010

    • January 6, 2010

    • February 6, 2010

    • January 17, 2010

    • January 18, 2010

    Correct Answer
    A. January 17, 2010
  • 21. 

    A nurse is reviewing a patient’s PMH. The history indicates photosensitive reactions to medications. Which of the following drugs has not been associated with photosensitive reactions? Note: More than one answer may be correct.

    • Sulfonamide

    • Cipro

    • Nitrodur

    • Noroxin

    • Accutane

    Correct Answer
    A. Nitrodur
    Explanation
    Nitrodur has not been associated with photosensitive reactions.

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  • 22. 

    A nurse is reviewing a patient’s medication during shift change. Which of the following medication would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant? Note: More than one answer may be correct.

    • Coumadin

    • Celebrex

    • Habitrol

    • Finasteride

    • Clofazimine

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Coumadin
    A. Finasteride
    Explanation
    Coumadin and Finasteride would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant. Coumadin is an anticoagulant that can cause birth defects and bleeding in the fetus. Finasteride is a medication used to treat enlarged prostate and male pattern hair loss, but it can also cause birth defects in male fetuses if taken by pregnant women. Therefore, both of these medications should be avoided during pregnancy to ensure the safety of the fetus.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 25, 2025
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 29, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Ninadl0211
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