National Prep Test 3

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Practice Test Quizzes & Trivia

The national prep test 3 is a comprehensive 100 questions quiz, which will help you, prepare for your general medical exam. How prepared are you and what materials have you been using? All the best as you prepare.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Whenever a resident is to be transferred to another facility, the family members must be notified _______ in advance.

    • A.

      5 days

    • B.

      10 days

    • C.

      15 days

    • D.

      30 days

    Correct Answer
    D. 30 days
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30 days because it is important to give family members enough time to make necessary arrangements and preparations for the resident's transfer to another facility. This extended notice period allows for a smooth transition and ensures that the resident's needs and preferences are properly communicated and addressed in the new facility. It also gives the family members ample time to gather any required documentation or medical records that may be needed for the transfer.

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  • 2. 

    A surveyor is in a facility conducting the annual survey. During a medication pass, she notes that 100 does of medication are to be given. A nurse failed to give two doses that were prescribed, another dose was given in the wrong strength, one resident was given the wrong medication and one PRN was not passed. What was the medication error rate?

    • A.

      2 %

    • B.

      4 %

    • C.

      5 %

    • D.

      6 %

    Correct Answer
    C. 5 %
    Explanation
    The medication error rate can be calculated by dividing the total number of medication errors (5) by the total number of doses of medication (100), and then multiplying by 100 to get the percentage. In this case, the calculation would be (5/100) * 100 = 5%.

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  • 3. 

    Medicare and Medicaid require that personnel records be kept on employees that include a record of:

    • A.

      Race, religion, and arrests

    • B.

      Race, religion, but not arrests

    • C.

      Sex, national origin, and felony convictions

    • D.

      Health conditions, illnesses, accidents, and training

    Correct Answer
    D. Health conditions, illnesses, accidents, and training
    Explanation
    Medicare and Medicaid require that personnel records be kept on employees to include a record of health conditions, illnesses, accidents, and training. This is important for ensuring the safety and well-being of patients and for providing appropriate healthcare services. Keeping records of employees' health conditions, illnesses, and accidents helps in managing any potential risks or health concerns that may arise in the workplace. Additionally, maintaining records of employees' training ensures that they have the necessary skills and knowledge to provide quality care to patients.

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  • 4. 

    Whenever a nursing home handles a residents' funds, they must:

    • A.

      Immediately deposit the funds into the facility's account

    • B.

      Give the funds to the resident's family

    • C.

      Keep the resident's funds separate from the facility's account, and provide a quarterly accounting

    • D.

      Publish the amount weekly and send the report to the administrator's office

    Correct Answer
    C. Keep the resident's funds separate from the facility's account, and provide a quarterly accounting
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to keep the resident's funds separate from the facility's account and provide a quarterly accounting. This is important to ensure transparency and accountability in handling the residents' funds. By keeping the funds separate, it reduces the risk of commingling or misusing the funds for the facility's expenses. Providing a quarterly accounting allows for regular monitoring and reporting of the funds, ensuring that the residents' finances are properly managed and accounted for.

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  • 5. 

    The Kingly NursingHome spends an average of $1500 to recruit, hire, and train a new employee. The Kingly Nursing Home has 100 employees. During the past year 25 of its employees left their employement either voluntarily or involuntarily. What did turnover cost?

    • A.

      $37,500

    • B.

      $39,000

    • C.

      $40,000

    • D.

      $46,000

    Correct Answer
    A. $37,500
    Explanation
    The turnover cost can be calculated by multiplying the average cost to recruit, hire, and train a new employee ($1500) by the number of employees who left their employment (25). Therefore, the turnover cost would be 1500 * 25 = $37,500.

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  • 6. 

    Ombudsman programs may best be described as providing:

    • A.

      Regulatory intervention

    • B.

      Support for the family of the resident

    • C.

      Mediation and/or negotiation on behalf of the resident

    • D.

      Funds for the provision of long-term care for individuals

    Correct Answer
    C. Mediation and/or negotiation on behalf of the resident
    Explanation
    Ombudsman programs are designed to act as advocates for residents in long-term care facilities. They mediate and negotiate on behalf of the residents, ensuring that their rights are protected and their concerns are addressed. Ombudsmen work to resolve conflicts and disputes between residents and facility staff or administration, ensuring that the residents' voices are heard and their needs are met. They play a crucial role in ensuring the well-being and quality of care for residents in long-term care facilities.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is not covered by Part B of the Supplementary Medicare Health Insurance programs?

    • A.

      Ambulance services

    • B.

      Home health services

    • C.

      Custodial care services

    • D.

      Physician and surgeon services

    Correct Answer
    C. Custodial care services
    Explanation
    Part B of the Supplementary Medicare Health Insurance programs covers various medical services such as ambulance services, home health services, and physician and surgeon services. However, custodial care services are not covered by Part B. Custodial care refers to assistance with activities of daily living, such as bathing, dressing, and eating, which are not considered medical services. Therefore, the correct answer is custodial care services.

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  • 8. 

    According to title XVIII and title XIX, Medicare and Medicaid, all policies regarding nursing and medical care must be reviewed at least:

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Bimonthly

    • C.

      Semiannually

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    D. Annually
    Explanation
    According to title XVIII and title XIX, Medicare and Medicaid, all policies regarding nursing and medical care must be reviewed annually. This means that a thorough evaluation and assessment of these policies must be conducted once every year to ensure that they are up to date, compliant with regulations, and meeting the needs of patients. Regular reviews help to identify any necessary updates or improvements that may be required to maintain the quality and effectiveness of nursing and medical care policies.

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  • 9. 

    During the year a facility provided 30,000 days of resident care. The operational costs were $3,240,000, and the reimbursement rate was $115 per day. What was the profit per resident day?

    • A.

      $7

    • B.

      $8

    • C.

      $9

    • D.

      $10

    Correct Answer
    A. $7
    Explanation
    To calculate the profit per resident day, we need to subtract the operational costs from the reimbursement received per day. The operational costs were $3,240,000 for 30,000 days of resident care, which means the cost per resident day was $108 ($3,240,000 / 30,000). The reimbursement rate per day was $115, so the profit per resident day is $7 ($115 - $108). Therefore, the correct answer is $7.

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  • 10. 

    The most accurate statement regarding the survey process under OBRA is:

    • A.

      It is based largely upon facility policies and procedures

    • B.

      It is inteded to focus on the outcome of resident care

    • C.

      Presents an opportunity for facility staff to learn requirements

    • D.

      Is a voluntary audit process

    Correct Answer
    B. It is inteded to focus on the outcome of resident care
    Explanation
    The most accurate statement regarding the survey process under OBRA is that it is intended to focus on the outcome of resident care. This means that the survey process aims to assess the quality of care provided to residents and the resulting outcomes. It evaluates whether the facility is meeting the required standards and regulations in terms of resident care. The focus is on the end result of the care provided, rather than just the process or procedures followed.

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  • 11. 

    The Occupational Safety and Health Act, or OSHA:

    • A.

      Does not affect health facilities

    • B.

      Conducts studies of job-related injuries

    • C.

      Is designed especially for health facilities

    • D.

      Establishes rules, regulations, and imposed fines

    Correct Answer
    D. Establishes rules, regulations, and imposed fines
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "establishes rules, regulations, and imposed fines." The Occupational Safety and Health Act, or OSHA, is a federal law that sets standards and regulations to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees in all industries. It establishes rules and regulations that employers must follow to protect their workers from hazards and prevent job-related injuries and illnesses. OSHA also has the authority to impose fines and penalties on employers who fail to comply with these regulations.

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  • 12. 

    Medicare Part A provides all except:

    • A.

      Home health visits

    • B.

      In-hospital care

    • C.

      Physical checkups

    • D.

      Post-hospital rehabilitation

    Correct Answer
    C. Physical checkups
    Explanation
    Medicare Part A covers in-hospital care, post-hospital rehabilitation, and home health visits. However, it does not provide coverage for routine physical checkups. These checkups are typically considered preventive care and are covered under Medicare Part B. Part A primarily focuses on hospital-related services such as inpatient stays, skilled nursing facility care, and hospice care.

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  • 13. 

    A care was purchased for your facility at a cost of $20,000. CMS allows you to depreciate out the cost in at which time there will be a salvage value of $2000. What will be the book value after two years?

    • A.

      $9,800

    • B.

      $10,800

    • C.

      $11,000

    • D.

      $12,800

    Correct Answer
    D. $12,800
    Explanation
    The book value after two years can be calculated by subtracting the depreciation expense from the initial cost of the car. The depreciation expense is calculated by dividing the difference between the initial cost and the salvage value by the useful life of the car. In this case, the depreciation expense per year is ($20,000 - $2,000) / 5 = $3,600. Therefore, after two years, the depreciation expense would be $3,600 * 2 = $7,200. Subtracting this from the initial cost of $20,000 gives us $20,000 - $7,200 = $12,800 as the book value after two years.

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  • 14. 

    The declaration of ownership from HCFA-1513 requires each person to give name and address if they have a nurisng home ownership interst of:

    • A.

      2%

    • B.

      5%

    • C.

      7%

    • D.

      10%

    Correct Answer
    C. 7%
    Explanation
    The declaration of ownership from HCFA-1513 requires each person to give their name and address if they have a nursing home ownership interest of 7%. This means that if a person owns 7% or more of a nursing home, they are required to provide their personal information in the declaration. Ownership interests below 7% would not require disclosure in this case.

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  • 15. 

    Individual resident accounts kept by a facility must include:

    • A.

      Date, amount, and signature of patient for withdrawals

    • B.

      Date, amount and signature of patient for both deposits and withdrawals

    • C.

      Date, amount, and signature of staff member for withdrawals

    • D.

      A complete record of deposits and withdrawals with documentation

    Correct Answer
    D. A complete record of deposits and withdrawals with documentation
    Explanation
    Individual resident accounts kept by a facility must include a complete record of deposits and withdrawals with documentation. This means that the facility should maintain a detailed record of all the transactions made by the residents, including both deposits and withdrawals. Additionally, the record should be supported by proper documentation to ensure accuracy and transparency. This helps in maintaining accountability and allows for easy tracking of the residents' financial activities within the facility.

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  • 16. 

    A Medicare eligible resident who transfers from the hospital to a nursing home may receive Medicare benefits while in the nursing home when:

    • A.

      Their diagnosis qualifies them for a skilled bed

    • B.

      They demonstrate rehabilitation potential

    • C.

      They plan to eventually return home

    • D.

      All personal funds are exhausted

    Correct Answer
    A. Their diagnosis qualifies them for a skilled bed
    Explanation
    Medicare benefits can be received while in a nursing home if the individual's diagnosis qualifies them for a skilled bed. This means that their medical condition requires skilled nursing care or therapy that can only be provided in a nursing home setting. The other options mentioned (demonstrating rehabilitation potential, planning to eventually return home, and exhausting personal funds) may be factors considered in the overall eligibility for Medicare benefits, but the primary requirement is the diagnosis qualifying for a skilled bed.

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  • 17. 

    The Brimm facility has 120 beds. During May you gve the following days of care: 160 Medicare, 800 private pay, and 1920 Medicaid. What was your percent occupancy?

    • A.

      77%

    • B.

      80%

    • C.

      82%

    • D.

      90%

    Correct Answer
    A. 77%
    Explanation
    The percent occupancy is calculated by dividing the total number of beds occupied by the total number of beds available and then multiplying by 100. In this case, the total number of beds occupied is the sum of Medicare, private pay, and Medicaid days of care, which is 160 + 800 + 1920 = 2880. The total number of beds available is given as 120. Dividing 2880 by 120 and multiplying by 100 gives us 2400%, which is equivalent to 80%. Therefore, the correct answer is 80%, not 77%.

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  • 18. 

    Title XVIIIa and Title XIX can be differentiated as:

    • A.

      Title XVIII is insurance for the aged and Title XIX is insurance for the indigent

    • B.

      Title XVIII requires a means test while Title XIX does not

    • C.

      Title XVIII is a form of insurance while Title XIX is public assistance

    • D.

      Title XVIII is primarily outpatient and Title XIX is primarily inpatient

    Correct Answer
    C. Title XVIII is a form of insurance while Title XIX is public assistance
    Explanation
    Title XVIII and Title XIX can be differentiated based on the fact that Title XVIII is a form of insurance, while Title XIX is public assistance. This means that Title XVIII provides insurance coverage for the aged, while Title XIX provides assistance to the indigent. Unlike Title XVIII, Title XIX does not require a means test. Additionally, Title XVIII is primarily focused on outpatient services, while Title XIX primarily covers inpatient services.

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  • 19. 

    A _______ or more medication error rate may indicate a significant error rate exists.

    • A.

      3%

    • B.

      5%

    • C.

      7%

    • D.

      9%

    Correct Answer
    B. 5%
    Explanation
    A medication error rate of 5% may indicate a significant error rate exists. This means that out of every 100 medication administrations, 5 of them are likely to involve errors. This percentage suggests that there is a considerable chance of mistakes occurring in the medication process, highlighting the need for improvement and increased attention to patient safety.

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  • 20. 

    What act changed the methodology under which nursing homes are reimbursed to a case mix prospective payment system?

    • A.

      Nursing Home Case Mix System Act of 1980

    • B.

      Balanced Budget Act of 1997

    • C.

      National Prospective Payment Act of 1997

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Balanced Budget Act of 1997
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Balanced Budget Act of 1997. This act changed the methodology under which nursing homes are reimbursed to a case mix prospective payment system. The act aimed to control healthcare costs and promote efficiency by implementing a system that reimbursed nursing homes based on the severity of patients' conditions and the resources required to care for them. This shift from a fee-for-service model to a prospective payment system had a significant impact on how nursing homes were reimbursed for their services.

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  • 21. 

    Medicare Part B will not provide:

    • A.

      Private duty nurses

    • B.

      Physician services

    • C.

      Out-patient dignostic tests

    • D.

      Home health visits

    Correct Answer
    A. Private duty nurses
    Explanation
    Medicare Part B does not cover private duty nurses. Private duty nurses provide long-term, one-on-one care to patients in their homes, and this type of service is not covered under Medicare Part B. Medicare Part B does cover physician services, outpatient diagnostic tests, and home health visits, but it does not include coverage for private duty nurses.

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  • 22. 

    Medicare covers up to _____ days per spell of illness in skilled nursing facilities.

    • A.

      50

    • B.

      75

    • C.

      100

    • D.

      125

    Correct Answer
    C. 100
    Explanation
    Medicare covers up to 100 days per spell of illness in skilled nursing facilities. This means that Medicare will provide coverage for the first 20 days in full, and for the remaining 80 days, the patient will be responsible for a daily coinsurance payment. After the 100th day, Medicare coverage for skilled nursing facility care ends, and the patient will need to cover all costs out-of-pocket unless they have other insurance coverage.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following services is covered under the Medicare health insurance program by both Part A and Part B?

    • A.

      Hearing aids

    • B.

      Physical check ups

    • C.

      Private duty nurses

    • D.

      One hundred home health visits

    Correct Answer
    D. One hundred home health visits
    Explanation
    One hundred home health visits are covered under both Part A and Part B of the Medicare health insurance program. This means that Medicare will provide coverage for one hundred home health visits, which can include services such as skilled nursing care, therapy services, and assistance with activities of daily living. This coverage is available to individuals who meet certain eligibility criteria and require skilled care at home.

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  • 24. 

    LIFO, last in-first out is where:

    • A.

      The oldest materials are used first

    • B.

      The newest materials are used first

    • C.

      The oldest new materials are used first

    • D.

      The newest old materials are used first

    Correct Answer
    B. The newest materials are used first
    Explanation
    LIFO, or last in-first out, is a method of inventory management where the most recently acquired or produced materials are used or sold first. This means that the newest materials are used before the older ones, ensuring that the inventory remains fresh and avoids obsolescence. This approach is commonly used in various industries, such as retail and manufacturing, to minimize waste and maintain efficient inventory turnover.

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  • 25. 

    Enhancing upper extremity mobility, improving fine motor coordination, and stimulating trunk control are areas of emphasis that characterize the work of which health care worker?

    • A.

      Respiratory therapist

    • B.

      Speech therapist

    • C.

      Physical therapist

    • D.

      Occupational therapist

    Correct Answer
    D. Occupational therapist
    Explanation
    Occupational therapists specialize in enhancing upper extremity mobility, improving fine motor coordination, and stimulating trunk control. They work with individuals to develop and improve skills necessary for daily activities, such as dressing, eating, and writing. They focus on promoting independence and improving overall quality of life. Occupational therapists often work with individuals who have physical, developmental, or cognitive disabilities, helping them regain or develop skills needed to perform daily tasks and participate in meaningful activities.

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  • 26. 

    What is the first action to take in the event of a medication error?

    • A.

      Contact the administrator

    • B.

      Contact the Director of Nursing

    • C.

      Contact the attending physician

    • D.

      Contact the family

    Correct Answer
    C. Contact the attending physician
    Explanation
    The first action to take in the event of a medication error is to contact the attending physician. This is important because the attending physician is responsible for the patient's care and can provide guidance on how to address the error. They can assess the situation, provide instructions on any necessary interventions or treatments, and ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Additionally, contacting the attending physician allows for open communication and collaboration in resolving the error and preventing any potential harm to the patient.

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  • 27. 

    What medication would you administer to an elderly resident who has suffered a cerebrovascular accident?

    • A.

      Motrin

    • B.

      Tylenol

    • C.

      Aspirin

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Motrin
    Explanation
    Motrin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can be administered to an elderly resident who has suffered a cerebrovascular accident. NSAIDs like Motrin help reduce inflammation, pain, and fever, which can be beneficial for a patient recovering from a stroke.

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  • 28. 

    What percentage of weight loss is considered a significant change?

    • A.

      2%

    • B.

      3%

    • C.

      5%

    • D.

      7%

    Correct Answer
    C. 5%
    Explanation
    A weight loss of 5% is considered a significant change because it indicates a noticeable reduction in body weight. This percentage represents a moderate amount of weight loss, which can lead to various health benefits such as improved blood sugar control, reduced risk of chronic diseases, and increased energy levels. It is often recommended as a target for individuals trying to lose weight in a safe and sustainable manner.

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  • 29. 

    An individual who has not been judged incompetent objects to the proposed nursing home admission. A family member insists the individual be admitted to the facility. What should the facility do?

    • A.

      Admit the individual

    • B.

      Wait two weeks before admitting the individual

    • C.

      Consult a social worker

    • D.

      Refuse to admit the individual

    Correct Answer
    D. Refuse to admit the individual
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the individual who has not been judged incompetent is objecting to the proposed nursing home admission. However, a family member insists on the individual being admitted. In such a situation, the facility should refuse to admit the individual. It is important to respect the wishes of the individual and not admit them against their will, even if a family member insists on it.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following individuals can receive verbal orders regarding the prescription of medications?

    • A.

      Licensed nurse

    • B.

      Pharmacist

    • C.

      Physician

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the above individuals, including licensed nurses, pharmacists, and physicians, can receive verbal orders regarding the prescription of medications. Verbal orders are a common practice in healthcare settings, especially in urgent or emergency situations. It allows for quick communication and immediate action to be taken. However, it is important to note that verbal orders should be documented and confirmed in writing as soon as possible to ensure accuracy and accountability.

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  • 31. 

    Dietary policy contains what standard provision regarding nursing home residents?

    • A.

      All meals must be served hot

    • B.

      Self-help devices should be suitable for the physically handicapped

    • C.

      Disposable items are not allowed

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Self-help devices should be suitable for the physically handicapped
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "self-help devices should be suitable for the physically handicapped." This provision in dietary policy ensures that nursing home residents who are physically handicapped have access to appropriate self-help devices that assist them in eating their meals independently. This provision aims to promote their dignity, independence, and overall well-being while receiving care in the nursing home.

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  • 32. 

    What part of a financial statement gives a total picture of the financial condidtion of a business on a specific date?

    • A.

      Balance sheet

    • B.

      Profit and loss statement

    • C.

      Financial statement

    • D.

      Bank statement

    Correct Answer
    A. Balance sheet
    Explanation
    The balance sheet is a financial statement that provides a snapshot of a business's financial condition on a specific date. It includes information about the company's assets, liabilities, and shareholders' equity. By presenting these elements in a single document, the balance sheet gives a comprehensive overview of the business's financial health and its ability to meet its financial obligations. It is an essential tool for investors, creditors, and other stakeholders in evaluating the company's financial performance and making informed decisions.

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  • 33. 

    While Medicare and Medicaid both refer to safety and construction information, provisions in these areas are actually specified by the:

    • A.

      Business Code of Construction

    • B.

      Life Safety Code

    • C.

      American national Standards Institute

    • D.

      Department of Safety

    Correct Answer
    B. Life Safety Code
    Explanation
    The Life Safety Code is the correct answer because it is a set of safety standards developed and published by the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA). These standards provide requirements for the design, construction, operation, and maintenance of buildings to ensure the safety of occupants in case of fire or other emergencies. Medicare and Medicaid may refer to safety and construction information, but the specific provisions in these areas are actually specified by the Life Safety Code. The Business Code of Construction, American National Standards Institute, and Department of Safety are not the correct answer because they do not specifically pertain to the safety and construction provisions in question.

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  • 34. 

    A new dryer cost $2,630 and has a useful life of 7 years. How much depreciation is deducted on a yearly basis using the straight-line method?

    • A.

      $355

    • B.

      $375

    • C.

      $376

    • D.

      $385

    Correct Answer
    C. $376
    Explanation
    The straight-line method of depreciation evenly spreads the cost of an asset over its useful life. In this case, the cost of the dryer is $2,630 and its useful life is 7 years. To calculate the yearly depreciation, we divide the cost by the useful life: $2,630 / 7 = $376. Therefore, $376 is deducted on a yearly basis using the straight-line method.

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  • 35. 

    If a nursing home facility experienced an infection control outbreak, what would be the accepted surveillance standard to follow?

    • A.

      Close the building

    • B.

      Call the Center for Disease Control

    • C.

      Take microbiological samples from the facility

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    In the event of an infection control outbreak in a nursing home facility, the accepted surveillance standard would be to follow all of the above actions. Closing the building would help contain the outbreak and prevent further spread of infection. Calling the Center for Disease Control would allow for expert guidance and assistance in managing the outbreak. Taking microbiological samples from the facility would help identify the source of the infection and guide appropriate infection control measures.

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  • 36. 

    The Material Safety Data Sheets on hazardous chemicals for a nursing home facility are required by which agency?

    • A.

      OSHA

    • B.

      ANSI

    • C.

      JACHO

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. OSHA
    Explanation
    The Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) on hazardous chemicals for a nursing home facility are required by OSHA. OSHA, or the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, is responsible for setting and enforcing workplace safety standards. They require employers to maintain MSDS for hazardous substances used in the workplace, including nursing homes, to ensure that employees are aware of the potential hazards and know how to handle them safely. ANSI (American National Standards Institute) and JACHO (Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations) do not specifically regulate or require MSDS for nursing home facilities.

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  • 37. 

    The Director of Nursing of a 240 bed nursing home facility receives a $58,000 salary. The facility's current occupancy rate is 80%. What is the fixed cost of the DON's salary per resident day?

    • A.

      65 cents

    • B.

      74 cents

    • C.

      83 cents

    • D.

      97 cents

    Correct Answer
    C. 83 cents
    Explanation
    The fixed cost of the Director of Nursing's salary per resident day can be calculated by dividing the total salary by the total number of resident days. The facility has a capacity of 240 beds, and since the occupancy rate is 80%, the number of residents is 240 * 0.8 = 192. Assuming there are 365 days in a year, the total number of resident days is 192 * 365 = 70,080. Dividing the Director of Nursing's salary of $58,000 by the total number of resident days gives us $58,000 / 70,080 = 0.827, which is approximately 83 cents. Therefore, the correct answer is 83 cents.

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  • 38. 

    If its is determined that a rise to a nursing home facility's ramp is too steep, the facility in violation of:

    • A.

      OSHA

    • B.

      Life Safety Code

    • C.

      ANSI

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. ANSI
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ANSI. ANSI stands for the American National Standards Institute, which is responsible for developing and promoting voluntary consensus standards for various industries, including healthcare. In this case, if a nursing home facility's ramp is determined to be too steep, it would be in violation of the standards set by ANSI for accessibility and safety. OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) and the Life Safety Code may have their own regulations and standards, but in this specific scenario, the violation is related to ANSI standards.

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  • 39. 

    What is redundant cuing?

    • A.

      Getting a group together to sing familiar song

    • B.

      Turning the lights down so residents know it is bedtime

    • C.

      Talking in a very low voice

    • D.

      Repeatedly reminding the resident of what it is you want them to do

    Correct Answer
    D. Repeatedly reminding the resident of what it is you want them to do
    Explanation
    Redundant cuing refers to the act of repeatedly reminding the resident of what you want them to do. This can be done by using verbal cues, gestures, or visual prompts to reinforce the desired behavior or action. By providing multiple reminders, it helps to ensure that the resident understands and remembers the task at hand, increasing the likelihood of compliance.

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  • 40. 

    A piece of new equipment cost $48,756.20 to be depreciated over 7 years. The salvage value is $2,000.00. What is the depreciation expense per year?

    • A.

      $6,179.00

    • B.

      $6,679.00

    • C.

      $6,965.16

    • D.

      $12,189.05

    Correct Answer
    B. $6,679.00
    Explanation
    The depreciation expense per year can be calculated by subtracting the salvage value from the cost of the equipment and then dividing it by the number of years. In this case, the calculation would be: ($48,756.20 - $2,000.00) / 7 = $6,679.00.

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  • 41. 

    In SNF's how often does the pharmacist review each resident's drug regimen?

    • A.

      At least monthly

    • B.

      At least quarterly

    • C.

      At least annually

    • D.

      A, b, and c

    Correct Answer
    A. At least monthly
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "at least monthly" because in SNF's (Skilled Nursing Facilities), it is crucial for the pharmacist to regularly review each resident's drug regimen to ensure its safety and effectiveness. Monthly reviews allow the pharmacist to monitor any changes in the resident's health condition, adjust medications if needed, identify potential drug interactions or side effects, and collaborate with the healthcare team to provide optimal care. This frequent review helps to prevent medication errors and improve the overall quality of medication management in SNF's.

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  • 42. 

    A current ration greater than 1 indicates an organization is likely to be able to?

    • A.

      Remain open

    • B.

      Pay bills on time

    • C.

      Increase inventory

    • D.

      Decrease inventory

    Correct Answer
    B. Pay bills on time
    Explanation
    A current ratio greater than 1 indicates that the organization has more current assets than current liabilities. This means that the organization has enough resources to cover its short-term obligations, including paying bills on time. A current ratio of greater than 1 implies good financial health and liquidity, suggesting that the organization is likely to have sufficient funds to meet its financial obligations promptly. Therefore, the correct answer is "pay bills on time."

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  • 43. 

    During the month of May, Glass Nursing Home, a 240 bed facility had 190 occupied beds. What is the occupancy rate?

    • A.

      69%

    • B.

      79%

    • C.

      89%

    • D.

      99%

    Correct Answer
    B. 79%
    Explanation
    The occupancy rate can be calculated by dividing the number of occupied beds (190) by the total number of beds (240) and multiplying by 100. In this case, the calculation would be (190/240) * 100 = 79%. This means that 79% of the beds in Glass Nursing Home were occupied during the month of May.

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  • 44. 

    What part of Social Security Tax is paid by the employer?

    • A.

      50%

    • B.

      75%

    • C.

      100%

    • D.

      Social Security Tax is not paid by employer

    Correct Answer
    A. 50%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 50%. In the United States, Social Security Tax is a payroll tax that is divided between the employer and the employee. The employer is responsible for paying 50% of the total Social Security Tax, while the employee is responsible for paying the other 50%. This tax is used to fund the Social Security program, which provides benefits to retired workers, disabled individuals, and their dependents.

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  • 45. 

    A nursing facility has been notified that reimbursement lag time will increase 5 days during that fiscal year. What administrative action is most appropriate?

    • A.

      Increase gains and decrease losses

    • B.

      Increase working capital

    • C.

      Increase net worth

    • D.

      Do nothing at this time

    Correct Answer
    B. Increase working capital
    Explanation
    Increasing working capital would be the most appropriate administrative action in response to the notification that reimbursement lag time will increase. This is because a longer lag time means that the facility will have to wait longer to receive payments, which could potentially cause a cash flow problem. By increasing working capital, the facility can ensure that it has enough funds to cover its expenses during the extended lag time period. This can be done by either increasing current assets or decreasing current liabilities, or a combination of both.

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  • 46. 

    Peridontal disease is:

    • A.

      Inflammation of the gums

    • B.

      Inflammation of the perineal area

    • C.

      Inflammation of the feet

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation of the gums
    Explanation
    Periodontal disease is a condition characterized by inflammation of the gums. It is a common dental problem caused by the buildup of plaque on the teeth, leading to infection and damage to the gums and surrounding tissues. If left untreated, it can result in tooth loss and other oral health complications. Therefore, the correct answer is "inflammation of the gums."

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  • 47. 

    Double entry accounting is:

    • A.

      When the bank statement balances with the financial statement

    • B.

      When cash coming in is compared to cash going out

    • C.

      When every financial transaction is recorded so that each entry has equal debits and credits

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. When every financial transaction is recorded so that each entry has equal debits and credits
    Explanation
    Double entry accounting is a method of bookkeeping where every financial transaction is recorded in at least two accounts, ensuring that each entry has equal debits and credits. This system helps maintain the accuracy and integrity of financial records by providing a clear and balanced view of the organization's financial position. By recording both the inflows and outflows of cash, double entry accounting allows for better tracking and analysis of financial activities. This method also enables the preparation of accurate financial statements and facilitates the identification of errors or discrepancies in the accounting records.

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  • 48. 

    The definition for ADL is:

    • A.

      All day long

    • B.

      Adult longevity

    • C.

      Activities of daily living

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Activities of daily living
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "activities of daily living" because ADL refers to the basic tasks that individuals usually do on a daily basis to take care of themselves, such as bathing, dressing, eating, and using the toilet. This term is commonly used in healthcare and geriatric care to assess a person's functional abilities and determine the level of assistance they may need for their daily activities.

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  • 49. 

    When does a resident have the right to stay in his room and not participate in activities?

    • A.

      Never

    • B.

      When he gets permission from the administrator

    • C.

      When he gets permission from the social worker and family

    • D.

      When he chooses to do so

    Correct Answer
    D. When he chooses to do so
    Explanation
    A resident has the right to stay in his room and not participate in activities when he chooses to do so. This means that the resident has the autonomy to decide whether or not they want to engage in activities and can exercise their right to stay in their room if they prefer. This choice should be respected and honored by the staff and caregivers, as it is essential to uphold the resident's independence and dignity.

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  • 50. 

    The operating budget is composed of:

    • A.

      Inventory and income categories

    • B.

      Profit and loss categories

    • C.

      Fixed cost and income categories

    • D.

      Revenue and expense categories

    Correct Answer
    D. Revenue and expense categories
    Explanation
    The operating budget is a financial plan that outlines the expected revenue and expenses for a specific period. It helps organizations manage their finances and make informed decisions. Revenue categories include all sources of income, such as sales, fees, or grants, while expense categories encompass all costs incurred, such as salaries, rent, or utilities. These categories are essential for tracking and analyzing financial performance, ensuring that expenses do not exceed revenue, and identifying areas for cost-cutting or revenue generation. Therefore, revenue and expense categories are the appropriate components of an operating budget.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 08, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Joeljg1
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