2AX7X CDC: Air Force Questions MCQ Test! Quiz

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| By Matthew Kenney
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Matthew Kenney
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Quizzes Created: 6 | Total Attempts: 893
| Attempts: 63 | Questions: 70
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1. Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within

Explanation

A Category I deficiency is considered to be a severe or critical issue that requires immediate attention. Therefore, it is crucial to report this deficiency as soon as possible to ensure prompt action can be taken to address and rectify the problem. Submitting a deficiency report within 24 hours allows for a reasonable timeframe to assess and document the deficiency while still ensuring that it is reported in a timely manner. This timeframe strikes a balance between urgency and allowing for a thorough investigation and reporting process.

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About This Quiz
2AX7X CDC: Air Force Questions MCQ Test! Quiz - Quiz

2AX7X CDC: air force questions MCQ test! The aircraft should be given regular maintenance to ensure that it does not pose a risk to the person operating it.... see moreAs a maintenance person, just how good are you when it comes to accomplishing your task? Do give it a shot and get to refresh your memory on some issues. All the best! see less

2. Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisorbefore a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)? 

Explanation

The Unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC).

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3. What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineeringdata? 

Explanation

The Engineering Data Service Center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing these types of information in a centralized location. The other options listed, such as the Audio Visual Center, AF Primary Standards Laboratory, and Communication and Information System, do not specifically mention their role in managing engineering drawings and data, making them less likely to be the correct answer.

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4. Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

Explanation

The squadron commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This is because the squadron commander is responsible for overseeing the operations and activities of the squadron, including the management and accountability of equipment. By appointing an individual as an equipment account custodian, the squadron commander ensures that there is someone specifically designated to handle and be accountable for the equipment within the squadron.

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5. The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?

Explanation

The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the Quality Assurance section in the Maintenance Group (MXG). This is because their role primarily involves ensuring that the products or services provided by the organization meet the required quality standards. They are responsible for implementing quality control measures, conducting inspections, and identifying areas for improvement in order to enhance the overall quality of the products or services.

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6. Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is notconsidered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program? 

Explanation

Explosive munitions are not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program because they are intentionally released or deployed during aircrew operations, rather than accidentally dropped. The program focuses on preventing accidents and injuries caused by objects that are unintentionally dropped or fall from aircraft, such as bolts, panels, and safety pins.

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7. Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hourshift up to 

Explanation

Maintenance group commanders have the authority to approve exceeding a 12-hour shift up to 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for additional time to complete maintenance tasks, the maintenance group commander can grant permission for the shift to be extended up to a maximum of 16 hours. This allows flexibility in scheduling and ensures that necessary maintenance work is completed efficiently and effectively.

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8. Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the

Explanation

Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). The LRS is responsible for providing logistics support to the maintenance operations of the squadron. They handle the coordination and management of supply chain activities, including the procurement, storage, and distribution of maintenance supplies. By reporting directly to the LRS commander, the maintenance supply liaison personnel ensure effective communication and coordination between the maintenance squadron and the logistics support unit, ensuring timely and efficient supply support for maintenance operations.

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9. What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment isperformed after a technician completes a task? 

Explanation

After a technician completes a task, a Quality Verification Inspection is performed by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) to ensure that the task has been completed to the required standards and specifications. This inspection is conducted to verify the quality of the technician's work and to identify any potential issues or errors that may have been overlooked. It is an important step in maintaining the overall quality and reliability of the maintenance process.

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10. Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

Explanation

Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC) because AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel. AETC oversees the development and implementation of training programs and ensures that personnel are properly trained for their assigned roles. Therefore, it is logical that TDs, which are involved in training activities, would be assigned to AETC.

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11. The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight(MTF) training course? 

Explanation

The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation course. This course provides an overview of the maintenance organization, policies, procedures, and resources. It familiarizes trainees with the various maintenance functions and their interrelationships. The block training method involves grouping related topics together and delivering them as a comprehensive unit, allowing trainees to gain a thorough understanding of the subject matter. This approach is particularly effective for courses like Maintenance Orientation, which cover a wide range of topics and require a comprehensive understanding of the maintenance organization.

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12. Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time

Explanation

The Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with visibility of their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that individuals can easily access information about their own qualifications, certifications, and current training progress. This feature allows personnel to stay updated on their training requirements and track their progress towards meeting those requirements. It also helps the Air Force to monitor and manage the training needs of its personnel more efficiently.

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13. Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?

Explanation

The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. As the one who needs the parts, the customer is in the best position to assess the urgency and importance of the request. They can provide information on the impact of the delay and any critical timelines that need to be met. Therefore, the customer plays a crucial role in determining the supply delivery priority.

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14. How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT)briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)? 

Explanation

The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that the MTF updates the MXG/CC once every month regarding the training status. This regular briefing allows the MXG/CC to stay informed about the progress and effectiveness of the maintenance training, enabling them to make any necessary adjustments or improvements.

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15. Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?

Explanation

A4U is the correct answer because it is the code for the Air Force Deputy Chief of Staff for Logistics, Engineering, and Force Protection. This position is responsible for overseeing and setting policy for the Air Force's Technical Order (TO) system. The TO system is a critical component of the Air Force's operations and ensures that all personnel have access to accurate and up-to-date technical information for maintenance and operation of equipment. Therefore, the individual in the A4U position has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system.

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16. The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the 

Explanation

The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the Quality Assurance section. Quality Assurance is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance activities are carried out in accordance with established standards and procedures. The FOD monitor is an important tool for inspecting and identifying any foreign objects or debris that may have been left on or near the aircraft during maintenance operations. By locating the FOD monitor within the Quality Assurance section, it ensures that the inspection process is conducted by qualified personnel who are trained to identify and address any potential FOD hazards.

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17. Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains acombination of two or more precious metals

Explanation

PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. The other options (A, G, and P) do not specifically indicate a combination of precious metals.

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18. The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without gettingmaintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is 

Explanation

The maximum continuous duty time that workers can be scheduled for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is 12 hours. This means that workers can work for a maximum of 12 hours before they need approval from the MXG/CC to continue working.

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19. Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supplyinterface and resolving supply support problems? 

Explanation

The maintenance supply liaison is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a bridge between maintenance operations and supply support, ensuring that the necessary supplies are available for maintenance activities and addressing any issues that may arise in the supply chain. This role involves coordinating with various stakeholders, including maintenance personnel, supply organizations, and other relevant parties, to ensure smooth supply operations and timely resolution of supply-related problems.

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20. The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into thehost base's Standard Base Supply System account after how many days? 

Explanation

After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account.

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21. In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved bythe maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of 

Explanation

To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of MSgt (Master Sergeant).

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22. Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverableauthorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records? 

Explanation

The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. This office is specifically tasked with coordinating and overseeing the maintenance and repair of these assets, ensuring they are properly accounted for and available for use when needed. The other options, such as the Flight Service Center (FSC), Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), and Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO), do not have the same level of responsibility or authority over SPRAM assets.

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23. Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to anasset before it can be placed in bench stock? 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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24. What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment isan over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Personnel Evaluation. This assessment involves an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task. It is conducted by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) to assess the individual's performance and proficiency in carrying out their assigned tasks. This evaluation helps in identifying any areas for improvement and ensuring that personnel meet the required standards in their job performance.

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25. If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required tonotify 

Explanation

When a serially controlled item is cannibalized, the PS&D department needs to be notified. This is because PS&D is responsible for maintaining and updating the plans, schedules, and documentation related to maintenance activities. By informing PS&D about the cannibalization, they can make the necessary adjustments to their plans and schedules to account for the loss of the item. This ensures that the maintenance activities can continue smoothly without any disruption.

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26. How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used toidentify tools and equipment? 

Explanation

An equipment identification designator (EID) code is used to identify tools and equipment. The question asks how many digits make up an EID code. The correct answer is 9. This means that an EID code consists of 9 digits.

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27. Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?

Explanation

The AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag should be used to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged. This tag is specifically designed to indicate cautionary information about the condition or status of equipment. Using this tag helps ensure that proper procedures have been followed for draining and purging, and alerts others to take necessary precautions when handling the equipment.

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28. Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processedduring the day? 

Explanation

The Daily Document Register (D04) is the supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This document keeps a record of all the documents that have been processed, allowing for easy tracking and monitoring of supply transactions. It provides a comprehensive overview of the documents processed, ensuring that all necessary information is recorded and accessible for reference and analysis.

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29. Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty? 

Explanation

The duty of collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty. This duty involves handling and managing valuable assets, which is typically not within the scope of a Maintenance Supply Liaison's responsibilities. Their duties usually include monitoring back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list.

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30. Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with anurgency of need (UND) code of A? 

Explanation

The correct answer is D18, Priority Monitor Report. This document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. The Priority Monitor Report allows for efficient tracking of supplies by providing a comprehensive list of back-ordered parts that require immediate attention. It helps prioritize the allocation of resources and ensures that urgent needs are addressed promptly.

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31. Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo securitycages and alarmed rooms? 

Explanation

The host installation commander is responsible for authorizing the temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This individual has the authority and oversight to ensure that the proper security measures are in place to protect the classified material during transit. The aircraft commander, operations group commander, and mission support group commander may have other roles and responsibilities within the transportation process, but the ultimate authorization lies with the host installation commander.

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32. How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent reviewand sign the special certification roster (SCR)? 

Explanation

The Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent must review and sign the special certification roster (SCR) semi-annually. This means that they need to review and sign the roster twice a year. This frequency allows for regular updates and ensures that all necessary certifications are up to date. It also allows for any changes or additions to be made in a timely manner.

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33. Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution? 

Explanation

Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can occur naturally due to sediments, minerals, or organic matter in the water. It does not necessarily indicate the presence of pollutants. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more likely to be direct indicators of pollution, as they are caused by the presence of harmful substances in the environment.

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34. Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenancerecovery operation? 

Explanation

AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management, provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation. This publication outlines the procedures and best practices for maintaining and managing aircraft and equipment. It covers topics such as maintenance planning, scheduling, and execution, as well as equipment management and maintenance documentation. By following the guidelines outlined in AFI 21-101, maintenance personnel can ensure efficient and effective maintenance recovery operations.

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35. Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring therequired Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed? 

Explanation

The Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector is directly responsible to the Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT) for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed. This means that the QA Chief Inspector reports to and is accountable to the QA OIC/SUPT for overseeing and implementing the MSEP. The other options, such as the Wing Inspector General and MAJCOM Inspector General, are not directly responsible for the MSEP functions. The Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD) may have a role in overseeing maintenance operations but is not specifically responsible for the MSEP.

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36. Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

Explanation

The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.

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37. What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow,and maintenance qualification training? 

Explanation

The correct answer is II because the question asks for the training phase that includes four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training. The only option that includes all four sub-phases is II.

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38. The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?

Explanation

The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide 30 days of supply. This means that the inventory should be sufficient to cover the organization's needs for a period of 30 days. This ensures that there is an adequate stock of materials or supplies readily available, reducing the risk of running out and causing disruptions to operations. It also allows for better planning and management of inventory levels.

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39. An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, orincapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required? 

Explanation

If an individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that they have a grace period of 30 days to complete the recertification after they have returned from their TDY, leave, or incapacitation.

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40. Manpower authorizations are

Explanation

Manpower authorizations are funded means that there is a designated budget or funding allocated for the authorized positions. This implies that the organization has the financial resources to support and pay for the required manpower. Having funded authorizations ensures that there is a financial commitment to hiring and maintaining the necessary workforce.

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41. Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?

Explanation

The question asks for the category that is not a technical order change priority. Urgent, Routine, and Emergency are all categories that indicate a high priority for a TO change. However, "Standard" does not indicate a high priority and is therefore the correct answer.

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42. Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area

Explanation

Weapons loading operations do not institute a restricted maintenance area. Restricted maintenance areas are designated spaces where maintenance activities are carried out on aircraft or equipment, and access is limited to authorized personnel. While radiographic inspections, fuel system repair, and aircraft on jacks all involve maintenance activities that require restricted areas, weapons loading operations typically take place in a designated weapons loading area rather than a restricted maintenance area.

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43. Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent

Explanation

Red Ball maintenance refers to a type of maintenance system used in aviation to quickly address critical issues with aircraft. It is focused on addressing urgent and immediate problems that could affect flight safety. The purpose of Red Ball maintenance is to prevent or address issues such as air aborts (abruptly stopping an aircraft during takeoff), late takeoffs, and ground aborts (abruptly stopping an aircraft on the ground). However, it is not specifically designed to prevent or address aircraft status changes, which could refer to changes in the operational status or condition of the aircraft. Therefore, the correct answer is aircraft status changes.

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44. Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation?

Explanation

The Applicable Impoundment Authority designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation. This means that the authority responsible for the impoundment situation has the power to appoint the official who will oversee the impoundment process.

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45. When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and EvaluationTeam (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days? 

Explanation

When a unit has received an unsatisfactory MSET rating, the MXG/CC directs QA to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within 30 days.

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46. The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD managerwithin how many hours of a FOD incident? 

Explanation

The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This time frame allows for prompt reporting and assessment of any potential damage caused by foreign objects, ensuring that appropriate actions can be taken to mitigate any risks or hazards. It also allows for timely communication and coordination between the wing FOD monitor and the MAJCOM FOD manager to address the incident effectively.

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47. What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties asa due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor? 

Explanation

An individual must receive specific block IIB of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor.

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48. When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret orconfidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplishedevery 

Explanation

When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, they must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every 3 hours. This is necessary to ensure the safety and protection of the aircraft and its classified equipment. Regular security checks help to prevent unauthorized access or tampering with the confidential equipment, reducing the risk of potential security breaches. By conducting these checks every 3 hours, the aircraft owner or user can maintain a high level of security and protect the sensitive information or technology onboard the aircraft.

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49. Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect andre-mark with a new expiration date? 

Explanation

Type II shelf life items are allowed to be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date if they are still serviceable.

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50. Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan tonotify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter? 

Explanation

The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. As a supervisor, they have a direct understanding of the specific hazards present in their work area and are responsible for ensuring that their team is aware of these hazards and trained to handle them safely. The operations officer, squadron commander, and squadron safety monitor may have oversight and input in the development of the plan, but the section supervisor is ultimately responsible for its implementation.

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51. A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held

Explanation

The correct answer is monthly because holding a meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) on a monthly basis allows for regular updates and discussions on staffing needs and concerns. This frequency strikes a balance between meeting too frequently and overwhelming participants with information, and meeting too infrequently and not addressing issues in a timely manner. Monthly meetings provide a consistent platform for MXG members to address and resolve manning issues, ensuring that the group remains adequately staffed and efficient in carrying out their responsibilities.

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52. Who designates cannibalization authorities?

Explanation

The Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander designates cannibalization authorities. Cannibalization refers to the practice of removing parts from one aircraft to use them on another aircraft in order to keep it operational. As the commander of the MXG, they have the authority and responsibility to make decisions regarding maintenance operations, including the approval and designation of cannibalization authorities within the group.

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53. When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the

Explanation

When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), the Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for being notified. The Maintenance Operations Center is the central hub for coordinating and managing all maintenance activities. They are responsible for tracking and monitoring the availability of parts, scheduling maintenance tasks, and ensuring that the necessary resources are allocated. Therefore, it is logical that they would be notified when a MICAP part is issued and placed in the TNB, as they need to be aware of any changes or updates to the maintenance requirements of the aircraft.

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54. Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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55. What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies?

Explanation

The Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies. This section is in charge of planning and scheduling maintenance operations, as well as maintaining accurate documentation of maintenance activities. They are responsible for ensuring that TCTOs are properly documented and managed to ensure compliance with maintenance requirements.

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56. Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue andbench stock supply support? 

Explanation

The Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24) is the supply tracking document that provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. This report helps in evaluating the effectiveness of the organization's supply support by monitoring the issue and availability of supplies. It allows management to track and analyze the supply chain performance and make necessary adjustments to ensure efficient supply support.

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57. Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists tomeet local manufacture requirements? 

Explanation

The Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements in the maintenance group (MXG). This individual oversees the operations and maintenance activities within the squadron, ensuring that all necessary resources and capabilities are in place to meet the specific manufacturing needs of the local area. They work closely with the MXG Commander, MXG Superintendent, and MXG Deputy Commander to coordinate and execute maintenance operations effectively.

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58. A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW

Explanation

When a dropped object leads to casualties or property damage, it must be reported in accordance with AFI 10–206, Operational Reporting. This AFI likely provides guidelines and procedures for reporting incidents that occur during operations, ensuring that proper documentation and investigation take place. It is important to report such incidents to assess the impact, identify potential causes, and take appropriate measures to prevent future occurrences.

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59. What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?

Explanation

The correct answer is DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss. This form is used to document all reports of surveys (ROS). It is specifically designed to investigate property loss and determine financial liability. It provides a comprehensive record of the investigation, including details of the loss, responsible parties, and any financial reimbursements or charges. This form is commonly used in the military and government agencies to ensure accountability and proper handling of property loss incidents.

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60. In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the "System Messages"board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training updateinformation? 

Explanation

The "System Messages" board provides notifications about application problems in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information. This means that if there are any issues or glitches with the application, users will be notified through this board. It is important for users to stay updated about any problems with the application to ensure smooth functioning and to be aware of any potential disruptions or difficulties they may face while using the system.

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61. Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group?

Explanation

The originating point is responsible for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group. This means that they are in charge of overseeing and coordinating the entire process of managing deficiency reports within their organization or group. They are responsible for ensuring that all necessary actions are taken to address and resolve any reported deficiencies.

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62. What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses thatcomplement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) andtraining detachment (TD) courses? 

Explanation

Continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses. This type of training focuses on maintaining and enhancing the skills and knowledge needed for maintenance work. It helps individuals to stay up-to-date with the latest techniques, technologies, and procedures in their field. Maintenance qualification refers to the specific training aimed at achieving and maintaining the necessary qualifications and certifications for performing maintenance tasks effectively and safely.

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63. Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures forcontrol and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas? 

Explanation

The Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC) is responsible for the development of wing procedures for the control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas. As the commander of the maintenance group, they have the authority and oversight to ensure that proper procedures are in place to maintain and manage tools and equipment effectively. The MXG/CC is in a position of leadership and has the necessary knowledge and experience to make informed decisions regarding the development and implementation of these procedures.

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64. Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with?

Explanation

Maintenance must coordinate with the LRS material management element before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area. The LRS material management element is responsible for managing and distributing materials and supplies, so it makes sense that maintenance would need to coordinate with them to ensure that the necessary supplies are available at the designated location.

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65. Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Action point". The action point acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization. This means that the action point is responsible for coordinating and communicating between the two parties involved in the Deficiency Report process. They ensure that the report is properly addressed and resolved by the support point, and they also provide updates and feedback to the submitting organization.

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66. When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?

Explanation

A supply discrepancy report is submitted when the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange. This report is used to document any discrepancies or discrepancies in the supply chain, such as incorrect or missing items, damaged goods, or incorrect quantities. It helps to identify and rectify any issues in the supply chain and ensures that the correct items are delivered to the customer.

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67. Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purposerecoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians? 

Explanation

The Mission Support Group (MSG) commander is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians, unless delegated. This means that the MSG commander is the person who has the authority and responsibility to review and approve or deny SPRAM authorization requests. The other options, such as the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander and the Maintenance Group (MXG) commanders, do not have the specific role of reviewing SPRAM authorizations.

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68. Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functionalcheck, calibration, or operational flight programming? 

Explanation

The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. They have the responsibility to ensure that all supply assets are properly maintained and meet operational requirements. As the Chief Inspector, they have the necessary knowledge and expertise to make informed decisions regarding the functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming of these assets. They work closely with the Flight commander/Chief, Maintenance Group commander, and MX Operations Officer (MOO)/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT) to ensure the proper maintenance and functionality of the supply assets.

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69. In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves as the operator'sinterface with the single point manager for a weapons system? 

Explanation

The lead command serves as the operator's interface with the single point manager for a weapons system in the modification management program. This means that the lead command is responsible for coordinating and communicating with the single point manager on behalf of the operator. They act as the main point of contact and facilitate the implementation of modifications to the weapons system.

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70. Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor?

Explanation

Supply point accounts must be reconciled semiannually by the workcenter supply point monitor. This means that the reconciliation process should be done twice a year. Reconciling the accounts involves comparing the records of supplies received and issued with the physical inventory to ensure accuracy and identify any discrepancies. By conducting this process semiannually, the workcenter can maintain an updated and accurate account of their supplies, enabling them to effectively manage and replenish their inventory as needed.

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