2AX7X Pretest 2013 Edit Code 5

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  • 1/130 Questions

    Which of the following is used to highlight trends, benchmarks, of safety conditions relating to maintenance equipment, personnel, training, or processes?

    • Cross-tells
    • Self-inspections
    • Technical orders
    • National stock numbers
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Maintenance Quizzes & Trivia
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ALL URE'S FOR 2AX7X CDC'S UPDATED 2013 Edit Code 05


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  • 2. 

    Which maintenance capability category is performed at backshop level and consists of off-equipment maintenance?

    • Two-level maintenance

    • Organizational

    • Intermediate

    • Depot

    Correct Answer
    A. Intermediate
    Explanation
    Intermediate maintenance is performed at the backshop level and consists of off-equipment maintenance. This type of maintenance is typically conducted by trained technicians who specialize in specific systems or components. It involves repairing or replacing faulty parts and performing more complex maintenance tasks that cannot be done at the organizational level. Intermediate maintenance helps ensure that equipment is in optimal working condition and ready for use.

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  • 3. 

    All requests for depot level assistance must be coordinated through

    • Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation and the Maintenance Group commander

    • Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation and Maintenance Management Analysis

    • Quality Assurance and Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation

    • Quality Assurance and Maintenance Management Analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance and Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation
    Explanation
    Depot level assistance requires coordination between Quality Assurance and Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation. These two departments are responsible for ensuring the quality of maintenance work and managing the scheduling and documentation of maintenance activities. By involving both departments, the request for depot level assistance can be properly evaluated, scheduled, and documented to ensure that the necessary maintenance is carried out efficiently and effectively.

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  • 4. 

    When Operating Instructions (OI) apply to multiple groups, they should be published as

    • Wing OIs

    • Separate OIs

    • Support agreements

    • Air Force instructions

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing OIs
    Explanation
    When Operating Instructions (OI) apply to multiple groups, they should be published as wing OIs. This means that the instructions should be specific to the wing level, addressing the needs and requirements of all the groups within the wing. By publishing separate OIs for each group, it may lead to inconsistencies and confusion. Support agreements and Air Force instructions may not be suitable options as they may not provide the necessary level of specificity required for the different groups within the wing.

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  • 5. 

    Printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95 are not required to accompany end items upon transfer

    • In units where jet engines, jet engine adjustable nozzles, or thrust reversers are involved in frequent rotation from one aerospace vehicle to another

    • As long as an entry has been made in the necessary maintenance information system verifying that the basic items have been accounted for

    • To/from locations that have access to the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information

    • In the case of helicopter blades and tail rotor blades being transferred into the disposal system

    Correct Answer
    A. To/from locations that have access to the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95 are not required to accompany end items upon transfer to/from locations that have access to the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information. This means that if the location where the transfer is taking place has the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information, then printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95 are not needed.

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  • 6. 

    What AFTO IMT is used to document accumulated cycles, operating time, and maintenance history, as well as pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels?

    • 781J

    • 245

    • 244

    • 95

    Correct Answer
    A. 95
    Explanation
    AFTO IMT 95 is used to document accumulated cycles, operating time, and maintenance history, as well as pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels.

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  • 7. 

    Which Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem provides the capability to track engines and their components for time-changes and inspections and establishes and maintains the installed-on relationship between the engine and components?

    • C-E Equipment Status

    • Job Data Documentation

    • Status and Inventory Reporting

    • Comprehensive Engine Management System

    Correct Answer
    A. Comprehensive Engine Management System
    Explanation
    The Comprehensive Engine Management System subsystem provides the capability to track engines and their components for time-changes and inspections. It also establishes and maintains the installed-on relationship between the engine and components. This subsystem is responsible for managing and maintaining the engine and its components throughout their lifecycle, ensuring that necessary maintenance and inspections are carried out in a timely manner.

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  • 8. 

    What provides a measurement of unit performance and capability?

    • Metrics

    • Reports

    • Standards

    • Instructions

    Correct Answer
    A. Metrics
    Explanation
    Metrics provide a measurement of unit performance and capability. Metrics are quantitative measurements that are used to track and assess the performance and capability of a unit or system. They provide objective data that can be used to evaluate progress, identify areas for improvement, and make informed decisions. By analyzing metrics, organizations can gain insights into their performance and take actions to optimize their operations.

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  • 9. 

    What are the two most common types of primary maintenance metric indicators?

    • Performance and health

    • Trending and impacting

    • Positive and negative

    • Leading and lagging

    Correct Answer
    A. Leading and lagging
    Explanation
    Leading and lagging are the two most common types of primary maintenance metric indicators. Leading indicators are proactive measures that help predict future performance and identify potential issues before they occur. They focus on preventive and proactive maintenance activities. On the other hand, lagging indicators are reactive measures that assess past performance and provide insights into historical trends. They are typically used to evaluate the effectiveness of maintenance actions and measure the overall performance of the maintenance program.

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  • 10. 

    Which primary maintenance metric indictor shows problems first, as they directly impact maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission?

    • Leading

    • Lagging

    • Trending

    • Impacting

    Correct Answer
    A. Leading
    Explanation
    The primary maintenance metric indicator that shows problems first, as they directly impact maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission, is the leading indicator. Leading indicators are proactive measures that help identify potential issues or risks before they become significant problems. By monitoring leading indicators, maintenance teams can take necessary actions to prevent or mitigate problems, ensuring the smooth execution of the mission.

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  • 11. 

    Who is responsible for standardizing maintenance discipline, procedures, organizational structures, compliance, and management philosophy?

    • Maintenance group deputy commander

    • Maintenance group commander

    • Production superintendent

    • Wing commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance group commander
    Explanation
    The maintenance group commander is responsible for standardizing maintenance discipline, procedures, organizational structures, compliance, and management philosophy. As the leader of the maintenance group, they have the authority and responsibility to ensure that all maintenance activities within their group adhere to established standards and practices. They oversee the development and implementation of maintenance policies and procedures, as well as ensure that all personnel within the group are trained and compliant with these standards. Additionally, they are responsible for the overall management and performance of the maintenance group, ensuring that it operates efficiently and effectively.

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  • 12. 

    Who is held legally responsible for their unit's Environmental Protection Agency program compliance in accordance with AFI 32-7042, Waste Management?

    • Flight commanders

    • Squadron commanders

    • Maintenance operations officers

    • Maintenance group commanders

    Correct Answer
    A. Squadron commanders
    Explanation
    According to AFI 32-7042, Waste Management, squadron commanders are held legally responsible for their unit's Environmental Protection Agency program compliance. This means that they have the ultimate responsibility for ensuring that their unit follows all the necessary regulations and guidelines set forth by the Environmental Protection Agency. They are accountable for the proper management and disposal of waste within their squadron.

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  • 13. 

    Worker safety and health information must be monitored, tracked, and documented using what AF IMT?

    • 55

    • 244

    • 435

    • 623

    Correct Answer
    A. 55
    Explanation
    AF IMT 55 is the correct answer because it is a form used by the Air Force to document and track worker safety and health information. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and ensures that all necessary information is monitored and recorded accurately. The other options (244, 435, and 623) are not relevant to worker safety and health information tracking and documentation.

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  • 14. 

    Section non-commissioned officers-in-charge are responsible for developing cross-utilization training requirements, ensuring they do not interfere with

    • Accountability and control procedures

    • Deployments and wing-level taskings

    • Qualification and upgrade training

    • Scheduled maintenance actions

    Correct Answer
    A. Qualification and upgrade training
    Explanation
    Section non-commissioned officers-in-charge are responsible for developing cross-utilization training requirements, ensuring they do not interfere with qualification and upgrade training. This means that these officers are in charge of identifying the training needs for personnel to be able to perform different roles within the section. They must ensure that this training does not hinder or conflict with the qualification and upgrade training that individuals need to undergo in order to advance their skills and knowledge within their current role.

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  • 15. 

    Section non-commissioned officers-in-charge must ensure their sections are organized with tools, equipment, and material as close to the Point of Maintenance without jeopardizing

    • Accountability and control procedures

    • Qualification and upgrade training

    • Maintenance and flying schedules

    • Proper maintenance techniques

    Correct Answer
    A. Accountability and control procedures
    Explanation
    Section non-commissioned officers-in-charge must ensure their sections are organized with tools, equipment, and material as close to the Point of Maintenance without jeopardizing accountability and control procedures. This means that the NCOs must arrange the resources in a way that they are easily accessible for maintenance purposes, but at the same time, they need to maintain proper records and control over these resources to ensure their accountability. This ensures that the section is efficient in its operations and can quickly access the necessary tools and equipment while also maintaining proper documentation and control over them.

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  • 16. 

    Which section is the wing focal point for engine health tracking and the engine health management program?

    • Aircraft Maintenance Unit Specialist Section

    • Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance

    • Maintenance Operations Center

    • Engine Management

    Correct Answer
    A. Engine Management
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Engine Management because it is the section responsible for tracking the health of the engine and managing the engine health management program. This section is likely to have the necessary expertise and resources to monitor and maintain the engine's health effectively.

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  • 17. 

    What agency's basic mission is to launch and recover aircraft and to perform the necessary servicing, inspections, and maintenance to perform daily aircraft flying operations?

    • Transient Alert

    • Maintenance Flight

    • Aircraft Maintenance Unit

    • Maintenance Operations Squadron

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft Maintenance Unit
    Explanation
    The Aircraft Maintenance Unit's basic mission is to launch and recover aircraft and to perform the necessary servicing, inspections, and maintenance to perform daily aircraft flying operations. This means that the unit is responsible for ensuring that the aircraft are in proper working condition and ready for flight. They handle tasks such as routine maintenance, inspections, and repairs to ensure the safety and functionality of the aircraft.

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  • 18. 

    What does the Debrief section use to help identify fault codes to aid maintainers in aircraft troubleshooting?

    • Landing status codes

    • Fault Isolation manuals

    • System capability codes

    • Fault Reporting manuals

    Correct Answer
    A. Fault Reporting manuals
    Explanation
    The Debrief section uses Fault Reporting manuals to help identify fault codes to aid maintainers in aircraft troubleshooting. These manuals provide detailed information about the faults that have been reported and the corresponding codes associated with them. By referring to these manuals, maintainers can quickly and accurately identify the fault codes and take appropriate actions to resolve the issues.

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  • 19. 

    Which section is normally responsible for aircraft troubleshooting, on-equipment repairs, component removal and installation, reprogramming avionics systems, and classified aircraft items management?

    • Avionics

    • Aircrafts

    • Specialist

    • Communication-Navigation

    Correct Answer
    A. Specialist
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Specialist". A specialist is normally responsible for aircraft troubleshooting, on-equipment repairs, component removal and installation, reprogramming avionics systems, and classified aircraft items management.

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  • 20. 

    Who is responsible to the Weapons section chief for monitoring all armament systems maintenance and loading operations?

    • Load crew chief

    • Flight-line expediter

    • Weapons expediter

    • Dedicated crew chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons expediter
    Explanation
    The Weapons expediter is responsible for monitoring all armament systems maintenance and loading operations. They oversee the proper maintenance and loading of weapons and ensure that all procedures and safety protocols are followed. They work closely with the Weapons section chief to coordinate and manage these operations effectively.

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  • 21. 

    Which section is tasked with the maintenance, control, and storage of alternate mission equipment, dash-21 equipment, and maintenance, safety, and protective equipment?

    • Aircraft section

    • Support section

    • Weapons section

    • Armament Support section

    Correct Answer
    A. Support section
    Explanation
    The Support section is responsible for the maintenance, control, and storage of alternate mission equipment, dash-21 equipment, and maintenance, safety, and protective equipment. This section is specifically tasked with providing support and ensuring that all necessary equipment is properly maintained and stored for use.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is not a standard flight in the maintenance squadron?

    • Fabrication

    • Armament

    • Propulsion

    • Egress

    Correct Answer
    A. Egress
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Egress. Egress refers to the process of exiting or leaving an aircraft. In the context of a maintenance squadron, egress would typically not be considered a standard flight as it does not involve the maintenance or repair of any specific component or system of the aircraft. Fabrication, Armament, and Propulsion, on the other hand, are all standard flights in a maintenance squadron as they involve the fabrication of parts, maintenance of armament systems, and maintenance of propulsion systems respectively.

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  • 23. 

    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

    • Air Combat Command (ACC)

    • Air Training Command (ATC)

    • Air Reserve Command (AFRC)

    • Air Education and Training Command (AETC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
    Explanation
    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel. As such, it is logical that TDs, which are involved in training activities, would be assigned to this command. The other options, Air Combat Command (ACC), Air Training Command (ATC), and Air Reserve Command (AFRC), are not primarily focused on training and education, making AETC the most appropriate choice.

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  • 24. 

    The block training method is normally used to teach which MAINTENANCE Training Flight (MTF) training course?

    • Any 7-level course

    • Weight and Balance

    • Maintenance Orientation

    • General Technical Order System

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Orientation
    Explanation
    The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation training course. This course provides an overview of maintenance procedures, policies, and regulations to familiarize individuals with the maintenance environment. The block training method involves grouping related topics together in a series of training sessions, allowing for a more comprehensive and focused approach to learning. This method is particularly effective for the Maintenance Orientation course as it covers a wide range of essential maintenance knowledge and skills.

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  • 25. 

    In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

    • TSgt

    • MSgt

    • SMSgt

    • CMSgt

    Correct Answer
    A. MSgt
    Explanation
    To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only individuals who have reached the rank of Master Sergeant or higher can be granted the authority to downgrade a "Red-X." The higher rank indicates a higher level of experience, knowledge, and responsibility, which is necessary to make decisions regarding the status of an aircraft or equipment.

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  • 26. 

    Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time

    • Access to Distance Learning courseware

    • Access to special certification roster criteria listings

    • Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide

    • Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel
    Explanation
    The Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with visibility of their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that individuals can easily see and track their own progress and achievements in terms of their technical skills and training. This information is important for career development and for ensuring that personnel are properly qualified and trained for their roles.

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  • 27. 

    In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the "System Messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?

    • Open suspenses

    • System upgrades

    • Application problems

    • Changes to your user roles

    Correct Answer
    A. Application problems
    Explanation
    The "System Messages" board in the Training Business Area (TBA) provides notifications about application problems. This means that if there are any issues or glitches with the TBA system, users will be informed through the "System Messages" board. This helps users stay updated on any technical difficulties and allows them to be aware of any potential disruptions or limitations in the system's functionality.

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  • 28. 

    What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    The correct answer is II. The four sub-phases mentioned in the question (multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training) are all part of the training phase II. This phase likely focuses on specific technical skills and knowledge required for a certain job or role within an organization.

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  • 29. 

    Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a TRAINING starts a career development course (CDC)?

    • Operations officer

    • Group commander

    • Unit training manager

    • Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit training manager
    Explanation
    The Unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a training starts a career development course (CDC). This role is specifically assigned to the Unit training manager as they are responsible for overseeing and managing the training programs within the unit. Conducting interviews with both the trainee and their supervisor allows the Unit training manager to gather necessary information and assess the individual's readiness and suitability for the CDC.

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  • 30. 

    Manpower authorizations are

    • Funded

    • Unfunded

    • Unvalidated

    • Both funded and unfunded

    Correct Answer
    A. Funded
    Explanation
    Manpower authorizations are funded, meaning that they have been allocated financial resources to support the necessary personnel. This indicates that the organization has approved and allocated the necessary funds to hire and maintain the required workforce. This ensures that there is financial support available to cover the salaries, benefits, and other expenses associated with the authorized manpower positions.

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  • 31. 

    A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held

    • Weekly

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The correct answer is monthly because holding a meeting on a monthly basis allows the maintenance group (MXG) to regularly discuss manning issues and stay updated on any changes or challenges. A weekly meeting might be too frequent and could lead to redundancy, while a quarterly or semiannually meeting might not provide enough opportunity to address and resolve issues in a timely manner. Therefore, a monthly meeting strikes a balance between staying informed and maintaining efficiency in the MXG.

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  • 32. 

    Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to

    • 14 hours

    • 15 hours

    • 16 hours

    • 18 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 hours
    Explanation
    Maintenance group commanders have the authority to approve shifts exceeding 12 hours up to a maximum of 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for extended work hours in the maintenance group, the commander can grant permission for the shift to be extended up to 16 hours. However, any shift exceeding 16 hours would require approval from a higher authority.

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  • 33. 

    Maintenance Supply Liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the

    • Maintenance Squadron (MXS)

    • Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)

    • Aircraft Maintenance Squadron (AMXS)

    • Maintenance Operations Squadron (MOS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)
    Explanation
    Maintenance Supply Liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). This indicates that the LRS is responsible for overseeing the supply chain and logistics operations within the maintenance squadron. The LRS is typically responsible for managing the flow of supplies, equipment, and resources to support maintenance activities. By reporting directly to the LRS commander, the Maintenance Supply Liaison personnel ensure effective coordination and communication between the maintenance squadron and the logistics operations.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?

    • Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions

    • Advising supervisors on supply management documents

    • Soliciting and consolidation inputs to initiate a quick reference list

    • Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets

    Correct Answer
    A. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets." This duty is not typically a responsibility of a Maintenance Supply Liaison. Their main duties involve monitoring the status of back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list. Collecting and turning in precious metal bearing assets is more likely to be the responsibility of a different role, such as a property custodian or asset manager.

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  • 35. 

    Which eXpendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset Before it can be placed in bench stock?

    • XF3

    • XD2

    • XD1

    • XB3

    Correct Answer
    A. XB3
    Explanation
    Before an asset can be placed in bench stock, it must have the eXpendability, recoverability, and reparability code (ERRC) of XB3 assigned to it. This code indicates that the asset is expendable and non-repairable, meaning that it is not cost-effective or feasible to repair the asset if it becomes damaged or non-functional. Instead, it is more practical to dispose of the asset and replace it with a new one.

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  • 36. 

    Provided it is sti ll serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    Type II shelf life items can be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date if they are still serviceable. This means that if the item is still in good condition and can be used safely, it can be inspected and given a new expiration date to extend its usability.

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  • 37. 

    What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?

    • Audio Visual Center

    • Engineering Data Service Center

    • AF Primary Standards Laboratory

    • Communication and Information System

    Correct Answer
    A. Engineering Data Service Center
    Explanation
    The Engineering Data Service Center acts as a central repository for engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing these important documents and information.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

    • Oil sheen on standing water

    • Stressed vegetation

    • Stains on ground

    • Cloudy water

    Correct Answer
    A. Cloudy water
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural factors such as sediment or minerals in the water. While pollution can also cause water to become cloudy, it is not always the primary cause. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more commonly associated with pollution and can indicate the presence of harmful substances in the environment.

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  • 39. 

    Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?

    • AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag

    • DD Form 1574, Serviceable Tag-Material

    • DD Form 1577-1, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag-Material

    • DD Form 1577-2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag. This form is used to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged. The AFTO Form 20 is specifically designed for cautionary purposes and is used to provide information about potential hazards or precautions that need to be taken with a particular part or equipment. Therefore, it is the appropriate form to use in this situation to document the draining and purging process.

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  • 40. 

    What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

    • I

    • III

    • IIB

    • IIA

    Correct Answer
    A. IIB
    Explanation
    Before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor, an individual must receive specific block IIB of supply training.

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  • 41. 

    Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

    • Section supervisor

    • Squadron Commander

    • Flight Commander/Chief

    • Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Squadron Commander
    Explanation
    The Squadron Commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This is because the Squadron Commander holds the authority and responsibility for managing and overseeing the squadron's equipment and resources. They have the power to delegate this role to an individual who will be responsible for the proper care, maintenance, and accountability of the equipment within the squadron.

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  • 42. 

    Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

    • A

    • C

    • G

    • P

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. The PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This code is used to identify items that are made up of multiple precious metals, such as jewelry or electronic components. Other PMIC codes may indicate different characteristics or compositions of precious metals.

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  • 43. 

    Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

    • D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • D04, Daily Document Report

    • M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    A. D04, Daily Document Report
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Report (D04) provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This report tracks the supply chain process and provides a comprehensive overview of all documents processed, including purchase orders, invoices, and receipts. It helps in monitoring and managing the flow of documents, ensuring that all necessary paperwork is completed and processed efficiently. The D04 report is an essential tool for supply tracking and enables effective management of the supply chain.

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  • 44. 

    Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?

    • D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • D04, Daily Document Register

    • M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    A. D18, Priority Monitor Report
    Explanation
    The Priority Monitor Report (D18) is the correct answer because it is a supply tracking document that is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. This report helps to prioritize the urgent needs for back-ordered parts and ensures that they are addressed promptly. The other options listed do not specifically mention the daily production or the inclusion of back-ordered parts with a specific urgency of need code.

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  • 45. 

    Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

    • Aircraft commander

    • Host installation commander

    • Operations Group commander

    • Mission Support Group commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Host installation commander
    Explanation
    The host installation commander must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This individual is responsible for overseeing the overall operations and security of the host installation, including the authorization of storage for classified material. The aircraft commander, Operations Group commander, and Mission Support Group commander may have authority over other aspects of operations, but the specific authorization for temporary storage of classified material lies with the host installation commander.

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  • 46. 

    Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

    • 1A or JA

    • AR or BR

    • AA or AM

    • BM or CM

    Correct Answer
    A. AR or BR
    Explanation
    The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.

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  • 47. 

    When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?

    • Deficiency Report (DR)

    • Supply Discrepancy Report

    • Maintenance cross-tell report

    • Product Quality Deficiency Report

    Correct Answer
    A. Supply Discrepancy Report
    Explanation
    A Supply Discrepancy Report is submitted when the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange. This report is used to document any discrepancies or issues with the supply chain, such as incorrect or missing items. By submitting a Supply Discrepancy Report, the individual or organization can request a resolution to the problem, whether it be a refund or a replacement item. This report helps to ensure accountability and maintain the quality of the supply chain process.

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  • 48. 

    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?

    • Quality Assurance

    • Engine Management

    • Maintenance Operations Center

    • Maintenance Data System Analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance
    Explanation
    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the Quality Assurance section of the Maintenance Group (MXG). This role is responsible for ensuring that the products and services provided by the organization meet the required quality standards. They oversee the implementation of quality control processes, conduct audits and inspections, and identify areas for improvement in order to enhance the overall quality of the organization's products and services.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?

    • Weapons loading operations

    • Radiographic inspections

    • Fuel system repair

    • Aircraft on jacks

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons loading operations
    Explanation
    Weapons loading operations do not institute a restricted maintenance area. Restricted maintenance areas are designated areas where specific maintenance activities are carried out, and access is limited to authorized personnel only. Radiographic inspections, fuel system repair, and aircraft on jacks are examples of maintenance activities that require restricted maintenance areas due to safety and security concerns. However, weapons loading operations are typically conducted in designated areas such as munitions storage areas or specialized maintenance facilities, rather than in restricted maintenance areas.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 09, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Tm8598
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