2AX7X Pretest 2013 Edit Code 5

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1. Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets." This duty is not typically a responsibility of a Maintenance Supply Liaison. Their main duties involve monitoring the status of back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list. Collecting and turning in precious metal bearing assets is more likely to be the responsibility of a different role, such as a property custodian or asset manager.

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About This Quiz
Maintenance Quizzes & Trivia

ALL URE'S FOR 2AX7X CDC'S UPDATED 2013 Edit Code 05

2. Which eXpendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset Before it can be placed in bench stock?

Explanation

Before an asset can be placed in bench stock, it must have the eXpendability, recoverability, and reparability code (ERRC) of XB3 assigned to it. This code indicates that the asset is expendable and non-repairable, meaning that it is not cost-effective or feasible to repair the asset if it becomes damaged or non-functional. Instead, it is more practical to dispose of the asset and replace it with a new one.

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3. Provided it is sti ll serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?

Explanation

Type II shelf life items can be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date if they are still serviceable. This means that if the item is still in good condition and can be used safely, it can be inspected and given a new expiration date to extend its usability.

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4. What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?

Explanation

The Engineering Data Service Center acts as a central repository for engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing these important documents and information.

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5. Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

Explanation

Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural factors such as sediment or minerals in the water. While pollution can also cause water to become cloudy, it is not always the primary cause. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more commonly associated with pollution and can indicate the presence of harmful substances in the environment.

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6. Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?

Explanation

The correct answer is AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag. This form is used to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged. The AFTO Form 20 is specifically designed for cautionary purposes and is used to provide information about potential hazards or precautions that need to be taken with a particular part or equipment. Therefore, it is the appropriate form to use in this situation to document the draining and purging process.

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7. What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

Explanation

Before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor, an individual must receive specific block IIB of supply training.

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8. Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

Explanation

The Squadron Commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This is because the Squadron Commander holds the authority and responsibility for managing and overseeing the squadron's equipment and resources. They have the power to delegate this role to an individual who will be responsible for the proper care, maintenance, and accountability of the equipment within the squadron.

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9. Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

Explanation

The correct answer is C. The PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This code is used to identify items that are made up of multiple precious metals, such as jewelry or electronic components. Other PMIC codes may indicate different characteristics or compositions of precious metals.

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10. Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

Explanation

The Daily Document Report (D04) provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This report tracks the supply chain process and provides a comprehensive overview of all documents processed, including purchase orders, invoices, and receipts. It helps in monitoring and managing the flow of documents, ensuring that all necessary paperwork is completed and processed efficiently. The D04 report is an essential tool for supply tracking and enables effective management of the supply chain.

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11. Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?

Explanation

The Priority Monitor Report (D18) is the correct answer because it is a supply tracking document that is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. This report helps to prioritize the urgent needs for back-ordered parts and ensures that they are addressed promptly. The other options listed do not specifically mention the daily production or the inclusion of back-ordered parts with a specific urgency of need code.

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12. Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

Explanation

The host installation commander must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This individual is responsible for overseeing the overall operations and security of the host installation, including the authorization of storage for classified material. The aircraft commander, Operations Group commander, and Mission Support Group commander may have authority over other aspects of operations, but the specific authorization for temporary storage of classified material lies with the host installation commander.

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13. Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

Explanation

The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.

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14. When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?

Explanation

A Supply Discrepancy Report is submitted when the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange. This report is used to document any discrepancies or issues with the supply chain, such as incorrect or missing items. By submitting a Supply Discrepancy Report, the individual or organization can request a resolution to the problem, whether it be a refund or a replacement item. This report helps to ensure accountability and maintain the quality of the supply chain process.

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15. The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?

Explanation

The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the Quality Assurance section of the Maintenance Group (MXG). This role is responsible for ensuring that the products and services provided by the organization meet the required quality standards. They oversee the implementation of quality control processes, conduct audits and inspections, and identify areas for improvement in order to enhance the overall quality of the organization's products and services.

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16. Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?

Explanation

Weapons loading operations do not institute a restricted maintenance area. Restricted maintenance areas are designated areas where specific maintenance activities are carried out, and access is limited to authorized personnel only. Radiographic inspections, fuel system repair, and aircraft on jacks are examples of maintenance activities that require restricted maintenance areas due to safety and security concerns. However, weapons loading operations are typically conducted in designated areas such as munitions storage areas or specialized maintenance facilities, rather than in restricted maintenance areas.

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17. How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?

Explanation

An equipment identification designator (EID) code is used to identify tools and equipment. The question asks how many digits make up an EID code. The correct answer is 9, indicating that an EID code consists of nine digits.

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18. The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the

Explanation

The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the Quality Assurance section. This is because the Quality Assurance section is responsible for ensuring that maintenance procedures and practices are being followed correctly. The FOD monitor is an important tool in preventing damage to aircraft caused by foreign objects on the runway or tarmac. By placing the FOD monitor within the Quality Assurance section, it allows for proper oversight and monitoring of FOD prevention measures to ensure the safety and integrity of the aircraft.

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19. Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?

Explanation

AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management, is the correct answer because this publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation. It outlines the procedures and best practices for maintaining and managing aircraft and equipment, including guidance on maintenance recovery operations. This publication is a comprehensive resource that helps ensure effective maintenance practices are followed to minimize downtime and maximize operational readiness.

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20. Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?

Explanation

The Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector is directly responsible to the Quality Assurance (QA) Officer in Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT) for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed. The QA Chief Inspector works under the supervision of the QA OIC/SUPT to oversee and evaluate the maintenance standards and procedures within the organization. They ensure that the required inspections, audits, and evaluations are conducted to maintain the necessary quality standards and compliance with regulations.

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21. When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?

Explanation

When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within 30 days.

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22. What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?

Explanation

A Personnel Evaluation is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task. This assessment is conducted by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) to assess the individual's performance and skills in carrying out the task. It helps to ensure that the technician is following the necessary procedures and standards to maintain quality and safety in their work.

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23. Which type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?

Explanation

Preventive maintenance is a type of maintenance that focuses on preventing equipment failure by regularly inspecting, servicing, and repairing equipment before any issues occur. This proactive approach ensures that the equipment is in good working condition and ready to be used when needed, reducing the chances of unexpected breakdowns and downtime. By conducting preventive maintenance, potential problems can be identified and addressed early on, prolonging the lifespan of the equipment and improving its reliability and availability.

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24. Which of the following is used to highlight trends, benchmarks, of safety conditions relating to maintenance equipment, personnel, training, or processes?

Explanation

Cross-tells are used to highlight trends and benchmarks of safety conditions relating to maintenance equipment, personnel, training, or processes. This means that cross-tells provide a way to identify patterns or commonalities in safety-related data, allowing organizations to track and analyze safety performance in these areas. By using cross-tells, organizations can identify areas for improvement, establish benchmarks for safety, and make informed decisions to enhance safety conditions.

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25. Which maintenance capability category is performed at backshop level and consists of off-equipment maintenance?

Explanation

Intermediate maintenance is performed at the backshop level and consists of off-equipment maintenance. This type of maintenance is typically conducted by trained technicians who specialize in specific systems or components. It involves repairing or replacing faulty parts and performing more complex maintenance tasks that cannot be done at the organizational level. Intermediate maintenance helps ensure that equipment is in optimal working condition and ready for use.

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26. All requests for depot level assistance must be coordinated through

Explanation

Depot level assistance requires coordination between Quality Assurance and Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation. These two departments are responsible for ensuring the quality of maintenance work and managing the scheduling and documentation of maintenance activities. By involving both departments, the request for depot level assistance can be properly evaluated, scheduled, and documented to ensure that the necessary maintenance is carried out efficiently and effectively.

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27. When Operating Instructions (OI) apply to multiple groups, they should be
published as

Explanation

When Operating Instructions (OI) apply to multiple groups, they should be published as wing OIs. This means that the instructions should be specific to the wing level, addressing the needs and requirements of all the groups within the wing. By publishing separate OIs for each group, it may lead to inconsistencies and confusion. Support agreements and Air Force instructions may not be suitable options as they may not provide the necessary level of specificity required for the different groups within the wing.

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28. Printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95 are not required to accompany end items upon transfer

Explanation

The correct answer states that printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95 are not required to accompany end items upon transfer to/from locations that have access to the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information. This means that if the location where the transfer is taking place has the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information, then printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95 are not needed.

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29. What AFTO IMT is used to document accumulated cycles, operating time, and maintenance history, as well as pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels?

Explanation

AFTO IMT 95 is used to document accumulated cycles, operating time, and maintenance history, as well as pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels.

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30. Which Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem provides the capability to track engines and their components for time-changes and inspections and establishes and maintains the installed-on relationship between the engine and components?

Explanation

The Comprehensive Engine Management System subsystem provides the capability to track engines and their components for time-changes and inspections. It also establishes and maintains the installed-on relationship between the engine and components. This subsystem is responsible for managing and maintaining the engine and its components throughout their lifecycle, ensuring that necessary maintenance and inspections are carried out in a timely manner.

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31. What provides a measurement of unit performance and capability?

Explanation

Metrics provide a measurement of unit performance and capability. Metrics are quantitative measurements that are used to track and assess the performance and capability of a unit or system. They provide objective data that can be used to evaluate progress, identify areas for improvement, and make informed decisions. By analyzing metrics, organizations can gain insights into their performance and take actions to optimize their operations.

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32. What are the two most common types of primary maintenance metric indicators?

Explanation

Leading and lagging are the two most common types of primary maintenance metric indicators. Leading indicators are proactive measures that help predict future performance and identify potential issues before they occur. They focus on preventive and proactive maintenance activities. On the other hand, lagging indicators are reactive measures that assess past performance and provide insights into historical trends. They are typically used to evaluate the effectiveness of maintenance actions and measure the overall performance of the maintenance program.

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33. Which primary maintenance metric indictor shows problems first, as they directly impact maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission?

Explanation

The primary maintenance metric indicator that shows problems first, as they directly impact maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission, is the leading indicator. Leading indicators are proactive measures that help identify potential issues or risks before they become significant problems. By monitoring leading indicators, maintenance teams can take necessary actions to prevent or mitigate problems, ensuring the smooth execution of the mission.

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34. Who is responsible for standardizing maintenance discipline, procedures, organizational structures, compliance, and management philosophy?

Explanation

The maintenance group commander is responsible for standardizing maintenance discipline, procedures, organizational structures, compliance, and management philosophy. As the leader of the maintenance group, they have the authority and responsibility to ensure that all maintenance activities within their group adhere to established standards and practices. They oversee the development and implementation of maintenance policies and procedures, as well as ensure that all personnel within the group are trained and compliant with these standards. Additionally, they are responsible for the overall management and performance of the maintenance group, ensuring that it operates efficiently and effectively.

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35. Who is held legally responsible for their unit's Environmental Protection Agency program compliance in accordance with AFI 32-7042, Waste Management?

Explanation

According to AFI 32-7042, Waste Management, squadron commanders are held legally responsible for their unit's Environmental Protection Agency program compliance. This means that they have the ultimate responsibility for ensuring that their unit follows all the necessary regulations and guidelines set forth by the Environmental Protection Agency. They are accountable for the proper management and disposal of waste within their squadron.

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36. Worker safety and health information must be monitored, tracked, and documented using what AF IMT?

Explanation

AF IMT 55 is the correct answer because it is a form used by the Air Force to document and track worker safety and health information. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and ensures that all necessary information is monitored and recorded accurately. The other options (244, 435, and 623) are not relevant to worker safety and health information tracking and documentation.

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37. Section non-commissioned officers-in-charge are responsible for developing cross-utilization training requirements, ensuring they do not interfere with

Explanation

Section non-commissioned officers-in-charge are responsible for developing cross-utilization training requirements, ensuring they do not interfere with qualification and upgrade training. This means that these officers are in charge of identifying the training needs for personnel to be able to perform different roles within the section. They must ensure that this training does not hinder or conflict with the qualification and upgrade training that individuals need to undergo in order to advance their skills and knowledge within their current role.

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38. Section non-commissioned officers-in-charge must ensure their sections are organized with tools, equipment, and material as close to the Point of Maintenance without jeopardizing

Explanation

Section non-commissioned officers-in-charge must ensure their sections are organized with tools, equipment, and material as close to the Point of Maintenance without jeopardizing accountability and control procedures. This means that the NCOs must arrange the resources in a way that they are easily accessible for maintenance purposes, but at the same time, they need to maintain proper records and control over these resources to ensure their accountability. This ensures that the section is efficient in its operations and can quickly access the necessary tools and equipment while also maintaining proper documentation and control over them.

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39. Which section is the wing focal point for engine health tracking and the engine health management program?

Explanation

The correct answer is Engine Management because it is the section responsible for tracking the health of the engine and managing the engine health management program. This section is likely to have the necessary expertise and resources to monitor and maintain the engine's health effectively.

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40. What agency's basic mission is to launch and recover aircraft and to perform the necessary servicing, inspections, and maintenance to perform daily aircraft flying operations?

Explanation

The Aircraft Maintenance Unit's basic mission is to launch and recover aircraft and to perform the necessary servicing, inspections, and maintenance to perform daily aircraft flying operations. This means that the unit is responsible for ensuring that the aircraft are in proper working condition and ready for flight. They handle tasks such as routine maintenance, inspections, and repairs to ensure the safety and functionality of the aircraft.

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41. What does the Debrief section use to help identify fault codes to aid maintainers in aircraft troubleshooting?

Explanation

The Debrief section uses Fault Reporting manuals to help identify fault codes to aid maintainers in aircraft troubleshooting. These manuals provide detailed information about the faults that have been reported and the corresponding codes associated with them. By referring to these manuals, maintainers can quickly and accurately identify the fault codes and take appropriate actions to resolve the issues.

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42. Which section is normally responsible for aircraft troubleshooting, on-equipment repairs, component removal and installation, reprogramming avionics systems, and classified aircraft items management?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Specialist". A specialist is normally responsible for aircraft troubleshooting, on-equipment repairs, component removal and installation, reprogramming avionics systems, and classified aircraft items management.

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43. Who is responsible to the Weapons section chief for monitoring all armament systems maintenance and loading operations?

Explanation

The Weapons expediter is responsible for monitoring all armament systems maintenance and loading operations. They oversee the proper maintenance and loading of weapons and ensure that all procedures and safety protocols are followed. They work closely with the Weapons section chief to coordinate and manage these operations effectively.

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44. Which section is tasked with the maintenance, control, and storage of alternate mission equipment, dash-21 equipment, and maintenance, safety, and protective
equipment?

Explanation

The Support section is responsible for the maintenance, control, and storage of alternate mission equipment, dash-21 equipment, and maintenance, safety, and protective equipment. This section is specifically tasked with providing support and ensuring that all necessary equipment is properly maintained and stored for use.

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45. Which of the following is not a standard flight in the maintenance squadron?

Explanation

The correct answer is Egress. Egress refers to the process of exiting or leaving an aircraft. In the context of a maintenance squadron, egress would typically not be considered a standard flight as it does not involve the maintenance or repair of any specific component or system of the aircraft. Fabrication, Armament, and Propulsion, on the other hand, are all standard flights in a maintenance squadron as they involve the fabrication of parts, maintenance of armament systems, and maintenance of propulsion systems respectively.

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46. Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

Explanation

Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel. As such, it is logical that TDs, which are involved in training activities, would be assigned to this command. The other options, Air Combat Command (ACC), Air Training Command (ATC), and Air Reserve Command (AFRC), are not primarily focused on training and education, making AETC the most appropriate choice.

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47. The block training method is normally used to teach which MAINTENANCE Training Flight (MTF) training course?

Explanation

The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation training course. This course provides an overview of maintenance procedures, policies, and regulations to familiarize individuals with the maintenance environment. The block training method involves grouping related topics together in a series of training sessions, allowing for a more comprehensive and focused approach to learning. This method is particularly effective for the Maintenance Orientation course as it covers a wide range of essential maintenance knowledge and skills.

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48. In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

Explanation

To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only individuals who have reached the rank of Master Sergeant or higher can be granted the authority to downgrade a "Red-X." The higher rank indicates a higher level of experience, knowledge, and responsibility, which is necessary to make decisions regarding the status of an aircraft or equipment.

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49. Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time

Explanation

The Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with visibility of their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that individuals can easily see and track their own progress and achievements in terms of their technical skills and training. This information is important for career development and for ensuring that personnel are properly qualified and trained for their roles.

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50. In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the "System Messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?

Explanation

The "System Messages" board in the Training Business Area (TBA) provides notifications about application problems. This means that if there are any issues or glitches with the TBA system, users will be informed through the "System Messages" board. This helps users stay updated on any technical difficulties and allows them to be aware of any potential disruptions or limitations in the system's functionality.

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51. What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

Explanation

The correct answer is II. The four sub-phases mentioned in the question (multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training) are all part of the training phase II. This phase likely focuses on specific technical skills and knowledge required for a certain job or role within an organization.

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52. Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a TRAINING starts a career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The Unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a training starts a career development course (CDC). This role is specifically assigned to the Unit training manager as they are responsible for overseeing and managing the training programs within the unit. Conducting interviews with both the trainee and their supervisor allows the Unit training manager to gather necessary information and assess the individual's readiness and suitability for the CDC.

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53. Manpower authorizations are

Explanation

Manpower authorizations are funded, meaning that they have been allocated financial resources to support the necessary personnel. This indicates that the organization has approved and allocated the necessary funds to hire and maintain the required workforce. This ensures that there is financial support available to cover the salaries, benefits, and other expenses associated with the authorized manpower positions.

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54. A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held

Explanation

The correct answer is monthly because holding a meeting on a monthly basis allows the maintenance group (MXG) to regularly discuss manning issues and stay updated on any changes or challenges. A weekly meeting might be too frequent and could lead to redundancy, while a quarterly or semiannually meeting might not provide enough opportunity to address and resolve issues in a timely manner. Therefore, a monthly meeting strikes a balance between staying informed and maintaining efficiency in the MXG.

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55. Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to

Explanation

Maintenance group commanders have the authority to approve shifts exceeding 12 hours up to a maximum of 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for extended work hours in the maintenance group, the commander can grant permission for the shift to be extended up to 16 hours. However, any shift exceeding 16 hours would require approval from a higher authority.

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56. Maintenance Supply Liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the

Explanation

Maintenance Supply Liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). This indicates that the LRS is responsible for overseeing the supply chain and logistics operations within the maintenance squadron. The LRS is typically responsible for managing the flow of supplies, equipment, and resources to support maintenance activities. By reporting directly to the LRS commander, the Maintenance Supply Liaison personnel ensure effective coordination and communication between the maintenance squadron and the logistics operations.

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57. Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?

Explanation

The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. As the end-user of the parts, the customer knows the urgency and importance of the request and can communicate their needs to the appropriate parties. The customer's input helps the maintenance supply support, maintenance supply liaison, and logistics readiness squadron customer service to prioritize and expedite the delivery of the requested parts.

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58. Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group?

Explanation

The origination point is responsible for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group. This means that they are in charge of overseeing and coordinating the entire process of managing deficiency reports within the organization or group. They are responsible for ensuring that all reports are properly addressed, tracked, and resolved, and for implementing any necessary corrective actions.

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59. In addition to being familiar with the unit's assigned weapon system(s), squadron representatives for the Data Integrity Team must be at least

Explanation

The correct answer is 5-level. This is because squadron representatives for the Data Integrity Team must have a certain level of familiarity with the unit's assigned weapon system(s). A 5-level indicates that the individual has completed the necessary training and has the required knowledge and skills to effectively perform their duties in relation to the assigned weapon system(s).

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60. How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?

Explanation

The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that the MTF gives an update on the training status to the MXG/CC every month.

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61. The Aircraft section is split into two separate sections when an Aircraft Maintenance Unit's number of mission assigned aircraft is more than

Explanation

The Aircraft section is split into two separate sections when an Aircraft Maintenance Unit's number of mission assigned aircraft is more than 18. This suggests that there is a threshold of 18 aircraft, and if the unit has more than this number, it needs to be split into two sections.

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62. Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within

Explanation

A Category I deficiency refers to a severe or critical issue that poses a significant risk to safety or security. In order to address and rectify such a deficiency promptly, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within 24 hours. This allows for timely action and ensures that the necessary measures are taken to mitigate the risk associated with the deficiency.

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63. The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?

Explanation

The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This ensures that the FOD manager is promptly informed about any potential damage caused by foreign objects, allowing them to take appropriate action to mitigate further risks and ensure the safety of the aircraft and personnel.

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64. Which Maintenance Group agency provides technical assistance for Deficiency Reports to work center supervisors? 

Explanation

Quality Assurance is the correct answer because they are responsible for ensuring that maintenance activities are performed according to established standards and procedures. They provide technical assistance to work center supervisors by reviewing and analyzing Deficiency Reports, identifying trends or recurring issues, and recommending corrective actions. Their role is to ensure that maintenance work is carried out effectively and that any deficiencies or problems are addressed promptly.

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65. Which primary maintenance metric indictor shows and follows firmly established trends?

Explanation

A lagging maintenance metric indicator shows and follows firmly established trends. This means that it reflects historical data and measures the effectiveness of maintenance activities after they have been performed. It helps identify patterns and trends over time, allowing maintenance teams to make informed decisions and adjustments to their strategies. Unlike leading indicators, which are proactive and predictive, lagging indicators provide a retrospective view of maintenance performance.

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66. What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC 
mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?

Explanation

Continuation training in maintenance qualification consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement the initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses. This training is designed to enhance and update the knowledge and skills of maintenance personnel, ensuring that they are qualified and proficient in their respective roles. It helps them stay up-to-date with the latest industry standards and practices, enabling them to effectively perform their job responsibilities.

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67. The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is

Explanation

The correct answer is 12 hours because scheduling workers for a continuous duty time beyond this limit would require approval from the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC). This implies that there are regulations or policies in place that restrict the maximum duration of continuous work for workers, and exceeding this limit would necessitate higher-level authorization.

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68. When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

Explanation

When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, they must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every 3 hours. This is necessary to ensure the safety and protection of the secret or confidential equipment from unauthorized access or tampering. By conducting regular security checks, any potential threats or breaches can be identified and addressed promptly, minimizing the risk of compromising the sensitive equipment.

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69. What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

Explanation

After a technician completes a task, a Quality Verification Inspection is performed by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) to ensure that the task has been completed to the required quality standards. This inspection is conducted to verify that all necessary steps have been followed, all components have been properly installed, and all safety measures have been taken. It aims to identify any potential errors or deficiencies and ensure that the task meets the established quality criteria.

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70. What do you call wing-level maintenance facilities providing intermediate-level maintenance repair support for multiple Air Force units within a particular theater of operations?

Explanation

Centralized Repair Facilities are wing-level maintenance facilities that provide intermediate-level maintenance repair support for multiple Air Force units within a particular theater of operations. These facilities are responsible for conducting repairs, overhauls, and modifications on a variety of aircraft and equipment. They serve as a centralized hub for maintenance operations, streamlining the repair process and ensuring efficient support for multiple units.

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71. Which category of Deficiency Report should you submit if the equipment has a deficiency that if uncorrected, may cause major loss of damage to equipment and no workaround is known?

Explanation

Category 1B is the correct answer because it refers to a deficiency that, if left uncorrected, may cause major loss or damage to equipment and no workaround is known. This category indicates a high level of urgency and importance, highlighting the need for immediate attention and resolution to prevent any potential harm or loss.

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72. Which Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem replaces the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) system and provides maintenance personnel with the online capability to document, inquire, and produce retrievals of maintenance actions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Job Data Documentation. Job Data Documentation subsystem replaces the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) system and provides maintenance personnel with the online capability to document, inquire, and produce retrievals of maintenance actions.

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73. Which Maintenance Operation Squadron section maintains standardized aircraft jacket files and attends pre-dock and post-dock inspection meetings?

Explanation

The Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation section is responsible for maintaining standardized aircraft jacket files and attending pre-dock and post-dock inspection meetings. This section is in charge of planning and scheduling maintenance operations, as well as maintaining the necessary documentation for aircraft maintenance. They ensure that all necessary paperwork and records are properly maintained and organized. Additionally, they attend inspection meetings to ensure that all maintenance activities are properly coordinated and documented.

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74. Which technicians maintain aircraft bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems, including removing and replacing associated system components?

Explanation

Electro-environmental specialists are responsible for maintaining aircraft bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems, which includes removing and replacing associated system components. They have the expertise and knowledge to handle these specific systems and ensure their proper functioning.

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75. In relation to aerospace ground equipment, what are centrally located to enhance mission performance?

Explanation

Sub-pools are centrally located to enhance mission performance in relation to aerospace ground equipment. Sub-pools are designated areas where equipment and supplies are stored and maintained, making them easily accessible for use. By having sub-pools centrally located, it ensures that the necessary equipment and supplies are readily available to support the mission, minimizing downtime and maximizing efficiency.

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76. Which Fabrication Flight section's processes are tightly controlled because the parts and tools they manufacture must meet the stringent standards of aerospace-grade equipment?

Explanation

Metal Technology is the correct answer because the fabrication flight section responsible for metal technology is involved in manufacturing parts and tools that must meet the stringent standards of aerospace-grade equipment. This section's processes are tightly controlled to ensure the quality and precision required for aerospace applications. Metal technology involves working with various metals and alloys to create components that are strong, durable, and able to withstand the extreme conditions of aerospace environments.

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77. An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

Explanation

If an individual is unable to complete the training recertification due to being TDY (Temporary Duty), on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed up to 30 days after returning to complete the recertification before decertification is required. This means that they have a 30-day grace period to complete the training after they have returned from their TDY, leave, or incapacitation.

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78. The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?

Explanation

After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account.

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79. If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to notify

Explanation

When a serially controlled item is cannibalized, the CANN authority is responsible for notifying the Plans, Scheduling and Documentation (PS&D) department. PS&D is responsible for maintaining records and documentation related to maintenance activities, including cannibalization. By notifying PS&D, they can update the necessary records and ensure proper documentation of the cannibalization process. This helps in tracking and managing the inventory of serially controlled items and facilitates efficient maintenance management.

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80. What program promotes identifying and correcting system deficiencies before they affect combat capability?

Explanation

Reliability and maintainability is the program that promotes identifying and correcting system deficiencies before they affect combat capability. This program focuses on ensuring that systems are reliable and easily maintainable, which helps prevent any issues or deficiencies from impacting the combat capability of the system. By proactively addressing and resolving any potential problems, the reliability and maintainability program helps to maintain the effectiveness and efficiency of the system in combat situations.

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81. Which maintenance repair priority is designated only for aircraft that are on alert status or aircraft that are supporting the war plan or national emergency missions?

Explanation

Priority 1 maintenance repair is designated only for aircraft that are on alert status or aircraft that are supporting the war plan or national emergency missions. This means that these aircraft have the highest priority for maintenance repairs, as their operational readiness is crucial for immediate deployment or emergency situations.

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82. Which Avionics Flight section is responsible for maintaining low-altitude navigation and targeting infrared for night (LANTIRN) pods?

Explanation

The correct answer is Sensors. Sensors are responsible for maintaining low-altitude navigation and targeting infrared for night (LANTIRN) pods. Sensors play a crucial role in detecting and gathering data related to the aircraft's surroundings and targets. In this case, the sensors are specifically designed to support low-altitude navigation and targeting using infrared technology, allowing for effective operations during night missions.

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83. How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)?

Explanation

The Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent must review and sign the special certification roster (SCR) semi-annually. This means that they need to review and sign the roster twice a year. This ensures that they stay updated on the certifications of the personnel listed on the SCR and can take any necessary actions if there are any changes or updates needed. Reviewing and signing the SCR semi-annually helps to maintain the accuracy and validity of the certifications listed on the roster.

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84. Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation?

Explanation

The Applicable Impoundment Authority designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation. This means that the authority responsible for the specific impoundment situation has the power to appoint the Impoundment Official. The other options, such as the Maintenance Group (MXG) Vice Commander, MXG Impoundment Release Authority, and Applicable Squadron Commander, do not have the designated authority to appoint the Impoundment Official.

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85. Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?

Explanation

The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. As a supervisor, they have a direct understanding of the specific hazards within their section and can effectively communicate this information to the personnel under their supervision. The operations officer, squadron commander, and squadron safety monitor may have oversight and input in the development of the plan, but the section supervisor is primarily responsible for its creation.

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86. Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

Explanation

The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. This office is specifically tasked with overseeing the maintenance and accountability of these assets, ensuring they are properly managed and accounted for. The other options, Flight Service Center (FSC), Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), and Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO), do not have the same responsibility for managing SPRAM assets.

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87. Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?

Explanation

The M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. This report is used to track and monitor the effectiveness of an organization's supply support system, including the monitoring of issue and bench stock supplies. It helps management to assess the efficiency and effectiveness of the supply chain and make informed decisions regarding supply management and support.

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88. When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the

Explanation

When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC) is responsible for being notified. The MOC is the central hub for coordinating and managing maintenance activities. They track the availability and status of parts, schedule maintenance tasks, and ensure that the necessary resources are allocated to complete the repairs. Therefore, it makes sense that they would be the ones to receive notification about the issuance of a MICAP part and its placement in the TNB.

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89. In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves as the operator's interface with the single point manager for a weapons system?

Explanation

The Lead Command serves as the operator's interface with the single point manager for a weapons system in the modification management program. The Lead Command is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the modifications to the weapons system, ensuring that the modifications are implemented correctly and on schedule. They act as a liaison between the operator and the single point manager, facilitating communication and ensuring that the operator's needs and requirements are met throughout the modification process.

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90. Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program?

Explanation

The Maintenance group commander is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program. This individual is responsible for overseeing and managing the maintenance group, which includes the implementation and execution of various repair programs. As the OPR, they have the authority and accountability for the program's success and are responsible for ensuring that all repairs are carried out effectively and efficiently.

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91. Which AFTO IMT is used to maintain a permanent history of significant
maintenance actions on end-items of equipment?

Explanation

AFTO IMT 95 is used to maintain a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end-items of equipment. This form is specifically designed for recording and documenting maintenance actions that are considered significant and require a permanent record. It allows maintenance personnel to track and monitor the maintenance history of equipment, which can be useful for troubleshooting, maintenance planning, and ensuring compliance with maintenance procedures and regulations.

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92. Which Munitions Flight section receives, stores, warehouses, handles, inspects, ships, inventories, and transports containers, dispensers, and training items?

Explanation

The Munitions Flight section that receives, stores, warehouses, handles, inspects, ships, inventories, and transports containers, dispensers, and training items is the Material section. This section is responsible for managing and maintaining the inventory of munitions and ensuring that they are properly stored and transported. They also handle the inspection and shipment of containers, dispensers, and training items related to munitions.

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93. The Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment(TMDE) Flight maintains, calibrates, and certifies TMDE through the

Explanation

The Air Force Primary Standards Laboratory is responsible for maintaining, calibrating, and certifying Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment (TMDE) through geographically separated units. This means that the laboratory ensures that the TMDE is accurate and reliable for use in various Air Force operations.

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94. The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?

Explanation

The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide 30 days of supply. This means that the organization aims to have enough inventory on hand to sustain operations for a period of 30 days without needing to reorder or restock. By maintaining this level of supply, the organization can ensure that they have sufficient resources to meet their needs and avoid disruptions in their operations.

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95. Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?

Explanation

The correct answer is A4U. In the context of the question, AF refers to the Air Force and TO refers to the Technical Order system. The overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system would lie with A4U.

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96. Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas?

Explanation

The Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC) is responsible for the development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas. As the commander of the maintenance group, they have the authority and oversight to ensure that proper procedures are in place to effectively manage and control tools and equipment in these areas. The MXG/CC is in a position of leadership and has the necessary knowledge and experience to make informed decisions regarding the development of these procedures.

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97. Which of the following is used to assign responsibilities, direct actions, and prescribe procedures within a subordinate function (i.e., a staff office, a branch, a squadron, etc.)?

Explanation

Operating instructions are used to assign responsibilities, direct actions, and prescribe procedures within a subordinate function. This type of document provides specific guidance and instructions for carrying out tasks and operations within a specific unit or organization. It helps to ensure consistency and standardization in the execution of duties and helps to clarify roles and responsibilities within the organization.

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98. Who guides the overall Data Integrity Team process and ensures the data provided to maintenance managers and supervision is meaningful and factual?

Explanation

The correct answer is Maintenance Management Analysis. Maintenance Management Analysis guides the overall Data Integrity Team process and ensures that the data provided to maintenance managers and supervision is meaningful and factual. They analyze the data and provide insights and recommendations for improving maintenance management processes.

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99. Who is responsible for chairing the daily maintenance production/scheduling meeting with representatives from throughout the maintenance group (MXG)?

Explanation

The MXG deputy commander is responsible for chairing the daily maintenance production/scheduling meeting with representatives from throughout the maintenance group (MXG). This means that the deputy commander is in charge of leading and facilitating the meeting, ensuring that all necessary topics are discussed and decisions are made. As the second-in-command of the MXG, the deputy commander has the authority and knowledge to effectively oversee the maintenance production and scheduling processes.

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100. How many standard squadrons are in a maintenance group?

Explanation

A maintenance group typically consists of three standard squadrons.

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101. Which Maintenance Operations Squadron flight is a centrally located agency responsible for monitoring and developing long-range strategies to sustain fleet health?

Explanation

The Maintenance Operations (MOF) flight is responsible for monitoring and developing long-range strategies to sustain fleet health. This flight is centrally located and serves as an agency that oversees maintenance operations. They are in charge of ensuring that the fleet remains in optimal condition by implementing strategies and monitoring the overall health of the fleet.

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102. The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for the overall management of which Integrated Maintenance Data System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem?

Explanation

The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for the overall management of the Location subsystem in the Integrated Maintenance Data System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB). This means that they are in charge of tracking and maintaining information related to the physical location of various assets, equipment, and resources within the IMDS-CDB system. This information is crucial for efficient maintenance operations and logistics planning.

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103. Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

Explanation

The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. This individual is responsible for overseeing the inspection process and ensuring that all necessary checks and calibrations are completed accurately and efficiently. They have the knowledge and expertise to determine which assets require these actions and can make informed decisions regarding their maintenance and programming.

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104. What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies?

Explanation

The Plans, Scheduling and Documentation section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies. This section is in charge of creating and maintaining schedules for maintenance operations, as well as documenting and tracking the completion of maintenance tasks. They ensure that all necessary information is properly recorded and managed to comply with TCTOs.

Submit
105. Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?

Explanation

The correct answer is Action Point. The Action Point acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization. This means that the Action Point is responsible for coordinating and facilitating communication and resolution of any deficiencies reported by the support point to the submitting organization. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the necessary actions are taken to address and rectify the reported deficiencies.

Submit
106. When a maintenance squadron production superintendent is appointed, who must he or she inform of specialist non-availability to at the beginning of each shift?

Explanation

When a maintenance squadron production superintendent is appointed, they must inform the Maintenance Operation Center of specialist non-availability at the beginning of each shift. The Maintenance Operation Center is responsible for coordinating and managing maintenance operations within the squadron. By informing them of specialist non-availability, the production superintendent ensures that the center is aware of any potential issues or limitations in the available resources and can make necessary adjustments or arrangements accordingly. This helps in maintaining efficient and effective maintenance operations within the squadron.

Submit
107. If a Refurbishment section is established, wings have the option to align it under either the Maintenance Flight or the

Explanation

The Refurbishment section can be aligned under either the Maintenance Flight or the Fabrication Flight.

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108. Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor?

Explanation

Supply point accounts must be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor semiannually, which means twice a year. This ensures that the accounts are regularly reviewed and any discrepancies or errors are identified and corrected in a timely manner. Reconciling the accounts on a semiannual basis helps maintain accurate records and improves the overall efficiency and effectiveness of the supply point operations.

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109. Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?

Explanation

The MXG technical order distribution office (TODO) is responsible for various duties related to technical order distribution. This includes assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts, advising the MXG/CC on TO availability, and resolving TO availability problems. However, establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required is not normally a duty of the MXG TODO.

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110. Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program?

Explanation

Explosive munitions are not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program because they are intentionally released or deployed during aircrew operations, rather than accidentally dropped. The program is designed to prevent accidents and injuries caused by objects that are unintentionally dropped or fall from aircraft, and explosive munitions do not fall into this category.

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111. Who oversees the management of maintenance facilities and aircraft support equipment procurement and maintenance?

Explanation

The maintenance group superintendent is responsible for overseeing the management of maintenance facilities and aircraft support equipment procurement and maintenance. They are in charge of ensuring that maintenance facilities are properly managed and maintained, and that the necessary equipment for aircraft support is procured and maintained. They play a crucial role in ensuring the smooth operation of maintenance activities and the overall effectiveness of the maintenance group.

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112. Which commander is tasked with developing and publishing the wing flying/maintenance schedule in coordination with other squadron maintenance operations officers/maintenance superintendents?

Explanation

The correct answer is Maintenance operations flight. The maintenance operations flight is responsible for developing and publishing the wing flying/maintenance schedule in coordination with other squadron maintenance operations officers/maintenance superintendents. This flight is specifically tasked with overseeing and coordinating the maintenance operations within the squadron, and ensuring that the schedule is properly planned and executed.

Submit
113. Who must ensure the applicable aircraft form sets are provided to the Debrief section by the end of the flying day if debriefs are suspended due to aircraft flying surge operations?

Explanation

The Flight line expediter or Production Superintendent must ensure that the applicable aircraft form sets are provided to the Debrief section by the end of the flying day if debriefs are suspended due to aircraft flying surge operations.

Submit
114. Commanders have the option of establishing two separate squadrons, the Equipment Maintenance Squadron and the Component Maintenance Squadron, if maintenance squadron manning authorizations exceed

Explanation

The correct answer is 700. Commanders have the option of establishing two separate squadrons, the Equipment Maintenance Squadron and the Component Maintenance Squadron, if maintenance squadron manning authorizations exceed 700. This means that if the manning authorizations for the maintenance squadron are 700 or more, commanders can choose to divide the squadron into two separate units.

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115. Which Avionics Flight section is responsible for performing off-equipment maintenance on systems such as all-weather landing, attitude reference and bombing, and inertial navigation?

Explanation

The Avionics Flight section responsible for performing off-equipment maintenance on systems such as all-weather landing, attitude reference and bombing, and inertial navigation is the Guidance and Control Systems.

Submit
116. Which Propulsion Flight section stores, builds up, tears down, modifies, and repairs engines, quick engine change kits, and test components?

Explanation

Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance is the correct answer because this section is responsible for various tasks related to engines, quick engine change kits, and test components. They store these items, build them up for use, tear them down for maintenance or repair, modify them if necessary, and carry out repairs when needed. This section plays a crucial role in ensuring the proper functioning and maintenance of jet engines and related equipment.

Submit
117. Who designates cannibalization authorities?

Explanation

The Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander designates cannibalization authorities. This means that the MXG Commander is responsible for assigning individuals or teams who have the authority to cannibalize parts from one aircraft to be used on another. Cannibalization is a process where parts are taken from one aircraft that is no longer in service or is in need of repair and used on another aircraft to keep it operational. The MXG Commander is in a leadership position within the maintenance group and has the authority to make decisions regarding cannibalization.

Submit
118. Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?

Explanation

The Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements. This role is responsible for overseeing the operations and maintenance activities within the squadron, including coordinating with other units and ensuring that the necessary resources and capabilities are in place to meet the manufacturing requirements. The MXS Operations Officer/MX SUPT is the most appropriate position within the MXG to have this responsibility, as they have the authority and knowledge to ensure the capability is met.

Submit
119. Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with?

Explanation

Maintenance must coordinate with the LRS Material Management Element before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area. The LRS Material Management Element is responsible for managing and controlling the supply chain, including inventory management, procurement, and distribution of materials and supplies. They have the necessary knowledge and resources to ensure that the maintenance work area has the required supplies and equipment to perform their tasks efficiently. By coordinating with the LRS Material Management Element, maintenance can ensure that the supply point is established in the right location and stocked with the necessary items.

Submit
120. Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?

Explanation

The given options represent different categories of technical order (TO) change priorities. Urgent, Routine, and Emergency are all valid categories that indicate the level of urgency and importance of the TO change. However, "Standard" does not fit into this context as it does not represent a priority category for TO changes. Therefore, "Standard" is not a technical order change priority category.

Submit
121. Which Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem allows users to track maintenance actions and has both maintenance and supply data?

Explanation

The correct answer is Maintenance Events. This subsystem within the Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) allows users to track maintenance actions and includes both maintenance and supply data. It is responsible for recording and documenting all maintenance events performed on aircraft or equipment, providing a comprehensive record of maintenance activities and ensuring proper tracking and management of maintenance actions.

Submit
122. Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall MAINTENANCE SUPPLY interface and resolving supply support problems?

Explanation

The maintenance supply liaison is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. This role acts as a link between maintenance and supply operations, ensuring that necessary supplies are available for maintenance activities and addressing any issues that may arise in the supply chain. They coordinate with both maintenance and supply personnel to ensure smooth operations and effective resolution of supply-related problems.

Submit
123. Who is responsible for establishing a crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery program?

Explanation

The wing commander is responsible for establishing a crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery program. This individual holds a high-ranking position within the wing and has the authority to make decisions and allocate resources for such programs. They have the overall responsibility for the wing's operations and ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the aircraft.

Submit
124. What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?

Explanation

The correct answer is DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss. This form is used to document all reports of surveys (ROS). It is specifically designed for investigating property loss and determining financial liability. The form helps in identifying the circumstances surrounding the loss, assessing the extent of liability, and initiating the appropriate actions to recover the loss. It provides a systematic way to document and investigate property loss incidents and is widely used in various organizations and agencies.

Submit
125. Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?

Explanation

The Mission Support Group (MSG) commander is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians. This indicates that the MSG commander has the authority and oversight to ensure that SPRAM requests are properly reviewed and approved. The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander, Maintenance Group (MXG) deputy commander, and MXG commander may have other responsibilities within their respective areas, but the MSG commander specifically handles the review of SPRAM authorizations.

Submit
126. Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent

Explanation

Red Ball maintenance is a type of maintenance that is performed on an aircraft to ensure its readiness for flight. It includes routine inspections, repairs, and replacements of components. However, Red Ball maintenance is not specifically aimed at preventing aircraft status changes. Aircraft status changes can occur due to various reasons such as technical issues, weather conditions, or operational requirements. While Red Ball maintenance may help in identifying and addressing potential issues that could lead to aircraft status changes, it is not its primary purpose.

Submit
127. A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW    

Explanation

When an object is dropped and it causes casualties or property damage, it is necessary to report the incident in accordance with AFI 10-206, Operational Reporting. This regulation outlines the procedures and requirements for reporting operational incidents within the Air Force. It ensures that proper documentation is made and necessary actions are taken to address the incident and prevent similar occurrences in the future. Other options listed are not relevant to reporting incidents involving dropped objects and casualties or property damage.

Submit
128. The Maintenance Training Flight normally consists of what two sections?

Explanation

The Maintenance Training Flight consists of two sections: Training Management and Development and Instruction. Training Management is responsible for overseeing and coordinating all training activities within the flight, while Development and Instruction focuses on creating and delivering training materials and programs. These two sections work together to ensure that maintenance personnel receive the necessary training and education to perform their duties effectively.

Submit
129. Which of the following is not a section within a standard aircraft maintenance unit?

Explanation

The section that is not a part of a standard aircraft maintenance unit is "Supply". In a standard aircraft maintenance unit, there are various sections that focus on different aspects of maintenance and operations. These sections typically include Weapons, Debrief, and Aircraft. The Weapons section is responsible for handling and maintaining the weapons systems on the aircraft. The Debrief section is involved in analyzing and evaluating the performance of the aircraft and its crew after a mission. The Aircraft section deals with the overall maintenance and repair of the aircraft. However, the Supply section, which is responsible for managing and providing necessary equipment, tools, and materials, is not a part of a standard aircraft maintenance unit.

Submit
130. Who is personally responsible for managing the Foreign Object Damage and Dropped Object Prevention programs?

Explanation

The wing vice-commander is personally responsible for managing the Foreign Object Damage and Dropped Object Prevention programs. This individual holds a high-ranking position within the wing and is tasked with overseeing various aspects of the wing's operations. As such, they are given the responsibility of managing these specific programs to ensure that foreign object damage is minimized and the risk of dropped objects is prevented.

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Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison...
Which eXpendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC)...
Provided it is sti ll serviceable, which type of shelf life item are...
What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and...
Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly...
What specific block of supply training must an individual receive...
Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of...
Which supply tracking document provides information on all document...
Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all...
Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material...
Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply...
When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type...
The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what...
Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance...
How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID)...
The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located...
Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an...
Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible...
When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization...
What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual...
Which type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and...
Which of the following is used to highlight trends, benchmarks, of...
Which maintenance capability category is performed at backshop level...
All requests for depot level assistance must be coordinated through
When Operating Instructions (OI) apply to multiple groups, they should...
Printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95 are not required to accompany end...
What AFTO IMT is used to document accumulated cycles, operating time,...
Which Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database...
What provides a measurement of unit performance and capability?
What are the two most common types of primary maintenance metric...
Which primary maintenance metric indictor shows problems first, as...
Who is responsible for standardizing maintenance discipline,...
Who is held legally responsible for their unit's Environmental...
Worker safety and health information must be monitored, tracked, and...
Section non-commissioned officers-in-charge are responsible for...
Section non-commissioned officers-in-charge must ensure their sections...
Which section is the wing focal point for engine health tracking and...
What agency's basic mission is to launch and recover aircraft and...
What does the Debrief section use to help identify fault codes to aid...
Which section is normally responsible for aircraft troubleshooting,...
Who is responsible to the Weapons section chief for monitoring all...
Which section is tasked with the maintenance, control, and storage of...
Which of the following is not a standard flight in the maintenance...
Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which...
The block training method is normally used to teach which MAINTENANCE...
In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an...
Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global,...
In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does...
What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM...
Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee...
Manpower authorizations are
A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is...
Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for...
Maintenance Supply Liaison personnel report directly to the commander...
Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery...
Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program...
In addition to being familiar with the unit's assigned weapon...
How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status...
The Aircraft section is split into two separate sections when an...
Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR)...
The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM...
Which Maintenance Group agency provides technical assistance for...
Which primary maintenance metric indictor shows and follows firmly...
What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on...
The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for...
When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which...
What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual...
What do you call wing-level maintenance facilities providing...
Which category of Deficiency Report should you submit if the equipment...
Which Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database...
Which Maintenance Operation Squadron section maintains standardized...
Which technicians maintain aircraft bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire...
In relation to aerospace ground equipment, what are centrally located...
Which Fabrication Flight section's processes are tightly...
An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on...
The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be...
If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN...
What program promotes identifying and correcting system...
Which maintenance repair priority is designated only for aircraft that...
Which Avionics Flight section is responsible for maintaining...
How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance...
Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment...
Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM)...
Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special...
Which supply tracking document provides a management product for...
When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail...
In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves...
Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the Intermediate...
Which AFTO IMT is used to maintain a permanent history of significant ...
Which Munitions Flight section receives, stores, warehouses, handles,...
The Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment(TMDE) Flight...
The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how...
Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO...
Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of...
Which of the following is used to assign responsibilities, direct...
Who guides the overall Data Integrity Team process and ensures the...
Who is responsible for chairing the daily maintenance...
How many standard squadrons are in a maintenance group?
Which Maintenance Operations Squadron flight is a centrally located...
The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for the overall...
Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply...
What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for...
Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support...
When a maintenance squadron production superintendent is appointed,...
If a Refurbishment section is established, wings have the option to...
Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled...
Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order...
Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew...
Who oversees the management of maintenance facilities and aircraft...
Which commander is tasked with developing and publishing the...
Who must ensure the applicable aircraft form sets are provided to the...
Commanders have the option of establishing two separate squadrons,...
Which Avionics Flight section is responsible for performing...
Which Propulsion Flight section stores, builds up, tears down,...
Who designates cannibalization authorities?
Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the...
Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance...
Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority...
Which Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database...
Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall...
Who is responsible for establishing a crashed, damaged, or disabled...
What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?
Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for...
Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent
A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage...
The Maintenance Training Flight normally consists of what two...
Which of the following is not a section within a standard aircraft...
Who is personally responsible for managing the Foreign Object Damage...
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