2t357n CDC-ure's Part I

120 Questions | Total Attempts: 100

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What AFOSH standard includes general safety information applicable to vehiclemaintenance operations?
    • A. 

      91–10.

    • B. 

      91–20.

    • C. 

      91–30.

    • D. 

      91–40.

  • 2. 
    Which PPE is required when working in the tire shop?
    • A. 

      Apron

    • B. 

      Helmet

    • C. 

      Ear Plugs

    • D. 

      Rubber Boots

  • 3. 
    AFOSH Standard 91–38 defines a hydrocarbon fuel as any substance that vaporizes andburns
    • A. 

      At a set temperature.

    • B. 

      For 30 seconds or less.

    • C. 

      In the presence of oxygen.

    • D. 

      In the presence of nitrogen.

  • 4. 
    What kind of gas is released when charging or discharging a lead-acid battery?
    • A. 

      Oxygen.

    • B. 

      Chlorine.

    • C. 

      Nitrogen.

    • D. 

      Hydrogen

  • 5. 
    What is considered the major cause of back injuries on the job?
    • A. 

      Improper lifting techniques.

    • B. 

      Constant stooping and bending.

    • C. 

      Constant handling of heavy loads.

    • D. 

      Failure to use back protection devices.

  • 6. 
    What are the main dangers of painting operations?
    • A. 

      Stress reactions.

    • B. 

      Flammable vapors.

    • C. 

      Explosions and toxic substances.

    • D. 

      Asbestos inhalation and asphyxiation.

  • 7. 
    What is one of the biggest mistakes made by shop personnel when they repair a tire?
    • A. 

      Not having the right size replacement tire.

    • B. 

      Fail to remove the valve core to deflate tire.

    • C. 

      Stripping lug nuts while removing tire from vehicle.

    • D. 

      Not making sure another vehicle operator is present to help.

  • 8. 
    Which of the following air pressure setting is safe for approved cleaning operations?
    • A. 

      29 psi

    • B. 

      32 psi

    • C. 

      35 psi.

    • D. 

      39 psi.

  • 9. 
    What is the minimum distance (in feet) individuals must be from the refueling shop beforethey are permitted to smoke?
    • A. 

      25.

    • B. 

      50.

    • C. 

      75.

    • D. 

      100.

  • 10. 
    Before entering a refueling shop, what must you do to release static electricity from yourbody?
    • A. 

      Ground yourself.

    • B. 

      Wear rubber boots.

    • C. 

      Wear eye protection.

    • D. 

      Wear rubber gloves.

  • 11. 
    Which is the best solution to the increasing volume of solid waste?
    • A. 

      Ensure timely collection.

    • B. 

      Buy products in returnable containers.

    • C. 

      Use disposable things as much as possible.

    • D. 

      Reduce source of consumption and recycle.

  • 12. 
    Vehicle management is most likely to generate which hazardous waste?
    • A. 

      Cyanide.

    • B. 

      Mercury.

    • C. 

      Creosote.

    • D. 

      Degreasers.

  • 13. 
    Which office requires businesses to maintain files of Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)for all hazardous material?
    • A. 

      Wing Environmental and Safety Office.

    • B. 

      Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

    • C. 

      Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).

    • D. 

      AF Occupational Safety and Health (ASOSH) Administration.

  • 14. 
    The Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) contains information regarding
    • A. 

      Federal regulations.

    • B. 

      Authorized personnel.

    • C. 

      Base hazardous waste program.

    • D. 

      Physical and chemical characteristics.

  • 15. 
      You should not fill hazardous waste containers more than what percentage?
    • A. 

      75.

    • B. 

      80

    • C. 

      85

    • D. 

      90

  • 16. 
    Why are containers of hazardous waste placed on pallets?
    • A. 

      To reduce corrosion.

    • B. 

      To easily mark labels.

    • C. 

      For easier ground collection.

    • D. 

      To expedite ground pick-up.

  • 17. 
    How many gallons of hazardous waste may be stored at the satellite accumulation site?
    • A. 

      55

    • B. 

      75

    • C. 

      100

    • D. 

      110

  • 18. 
    Cumulative fines for violating environmental laws can be as high per day as
    • A. 

      $30,000

    • B. 

      $50,000

    • C. 

      $70,000

    • D. 

      $90,000

  • 19. 
    On what does the success of the environmental and pollution prevention program depend?
    • A. 

      Command policy.

    • B. 

      Squadron policy.

    • C. 

      All personnel.

    • D. 

      Vehicle fleet manager/superintendent.

  • 20. 
    What is the best reason for enforcing waste minimization?
    • A. 

      Law says so.

    • B. 

      Avoid stiff penalties.

    • C. 

      Limited landfill space.

    • D. 

      For the preservation of human kind.

  • 21. 
    What is the best practice you can follow to help reduce air pollution?
    • A. 

      Use nuclear energy for home heating.

    • B. 

      Drive early to work to avoid traffic jams.

    • C. 

      Use public transportation when practical.

    • D. 

      Ride a motorcycle to avoid traffic jams.

  • 22. 
    What is considered the key to reducing energy dependency?
    • A. 

      Recycling.

    • B. 

      Rationing.

    • C. 

      Raise prices.

    • D. 

      Conservation.

  • 23. 
    Who assists the LRS commander in overseeing the daily operations of the squadron?
    • A. 

      Operations officer.

    • B. 

      Logistics manager.

    • C. 

      First Sergeant.

    • D. 

      Squadron superintendent.

  • 24. 
    What se tion provides oversight of squadron compliance, training, resources, accountabilityand analysis?
    • A. 

      Readiness.

    • B. 

      Distribution.

    • C. 

      Contingency Planning.

    • D. 

      Operations Compliance.

  • 25. 
    What process serves as unit facilities manager?
    • A. 

      Customer service.

    • B. 

      Systems management.

    • C. 

      Resource management.

    • D. 

      Procedures and accountability.

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