Nervous System | Neurological Disorders NCLEX Quiz 46

Approved & Edited by ProProfs Editorial Team
The editorial team at ProProfs Quizzes consists of a select group of subject experts, trivia writers, and quiz masters who have authored over 10,000 quizzes taken by more than 100 million users. This team includes our in-house seasoned quiz moderators and subject matter experts. Our editorial experts, spread across the world, are rigorously trained using our comprehensive guidelines to ensure that you receive the highest quality quizzes.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Santepro
S
Santepro
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 468 | Total Attempts: 2,466,971
Questions: 10 | Attempts: 2,917

SettingsSettingsSettings
Nervous System | Neurological Disorders NCLEX Quiz 46 - Quiz

All questions are shown, but the results will only be given after you’ve finished the quiz. You are given 1 minute per question, a total of 10 minutes in this quiz.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A client is admitted with a spinal cord injury at the level of T12. He has limited movement of his upper extremities. Which of the following medications would be used to control edema of the spinal cord?

    • A.

      Acetazolamide (Diamox)

    • B.

      Furosemide (Lasix)

    • C.

      Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)

    • D.

      Sodium bicarbonate

    Correct Answer
    C. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
    Explanation
    High doses of Solu-Medrol are used within 24 hours of spinal injury to reduce cord swelling and limit neurological deficit. The other drugs aren’t indicated in this circumstance.

    Rate this question:

  • 2. 

    A 22-year-old client with quadriplegia is apprehensive and flushed. with a blood pressure of 210/100 and a heart rate of 50 bpm. Which of the following nursing interventions should be done first?

    • A.

      Place the client flat in bed

    • B.

      Assess patency of the indwelling urinary catheter

    • C.

      Give one SL nitroglycerin tablet

    • D.

      Raise the head of the bed immediately to 90 degrees

    Correct Answer
    D. Raise the head of the bed immediately to 90 degrees
    Explanation
    Anxiety. flushing above the level of the lesion. piloerection. hypertension. and bradycardia are symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. typically caused by such noxious stimuli such as a full bladder. fecal impaction. or decubitus ulcer.Option A: Putting the client flat will cause the blood pressure to increase even more.Option B: The indwelling urinary catheter should be assessed immediately after the HOB is raised.Option C: Nitroglycerin is given to reduce chest pain and reduce preload; it isn’t used for hypertension or dysreflexia.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    A client with a cervical spine injury has Gardner-Wells tongs inserted for which of the following reasons?

    • A.

      To hasten wound healing

    • B.

      To immobilize the cervical spine

    • C.

      To prevent autonomic dysreflexia

    • D.

      To hold bony fragments of the skull together

    Correct Answer
    B. To immobilize the cervical spine
    Explanation
    Gardner-Wells. Vinke. and Crutchfield tongs immobilize the spine until surgical stabilization is accomplished.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    Which of the following interventions describes an appropriate bladder program for a client in rehabilitation for spinal cord injury?

    • A.

      Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to straight drainage

    • B.

      Schedule intermittent catheterization every 2 to 4 hours

    • C.

      Perform a straight catheterization every 8 hours while awake

    • D.

      Perform Crede’s maneuver to the lower abdomen before the client voids.

    Correct Answer
    B. Schedule intermittent catheterization every 2 to 4 hours
    Explanation
    Intermittent catheterization should begin every 2 to 4 hours early in the treatment. When residual volume is less than 400 ml. the schedule may advance to every 4 to 6 hours.Options A and C: Indwelling catheters may predispose the client to infection and are removed as soon as possible.Option D: Crede’s maneuver is not used on people with spinal cord injury.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    A client is admitted to the ER for head trauma is diagnosed with an epidural hematoma. The underlying cause of epidural hematoma is usually related to which of the following conditions?

    • A.

      Laceration of the middle meningeal artery

    • B.

      Rupture of the carotid artery

    • C.

      Thromboembolism from a carotid artery

    • D.

      Venous bleeding from the arachnoid space

    Correct Answer
    A. Laceration of the middle meningeal artery
    Explanation
    Epidural hematoma or extradural hematoma is usually caused by laceration of the middle meningeal artery.Options B and C: An embolic stroke is a thromboembolism from a carotid artery that ruptures.Option D: Venous bleeding from the arachnoid space is usually observed with a subdural hematoma.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    A 23-year-old client has been hit on the head with a baseball bat. The nurse notes clear fluid draining from his ears and nose. Which of the following nursing interventions should be done first?

    • A.

      Position the client flat in bed

    • B.

      Check the fluid for dextrose with a dipstick

    • C.

      Suction the nose to maintain airway patency

    • D.

      Insert nasal and ear packing with sterile gauze

    Correct Answer
    B. Check the fluid for dextrose with a dipstick
    Explanation
    Clear fluid from the nose or ear can be determined to be cerebral spinal fluid or mucous by the presence of dextrose.Option A: Placing the client flat in bed may increase ICP and promote pulmonary aspiration.Option C: The nose wouldn’t be suctioned because of the risk for suctioning brain tissue through the sinuses.Option D: Nothing is inserted into the ears or nose of a client with a skull fracture because of the risk of infection.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    When discharging a client from the ER after a head trauma. the nurse teaches the guardian to observe for a lucid interval. Which of the following statements best described a lucid interval?

    • A.

      An interval when the client’s speech is garbled

    • B.

      An interval when the client is alert but can’t recall recent events

    • C.

      An interval when the client is oriented but then becomes somnolent

    • D.

      An interval when the client has a “warning” symptom. such as an odor or visual disturbance.

    Correct Answer
    C. An interval when the client is oriented but then becomes somnolent
    Explanation
    A lucid interval is described as a brief period of unconsciousness followed by alertness; after several hours. the client again loses consciousness.Option A: Garbled speech is known as dysarthria.Option B: An interval in which the client is alert but can’t recall recent events is known as amnesia.Option D: Warning symptoms or auras typically occur before seizures.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    Which of the following clients on the rehab unit is most likely to develop autonomic dysreflexia?

    • A.

      A client with a brain injury

    • B.

      A client with a herniated nucleus pulposus

    • C.

      A client with a high cervical spine injury

    • D.

      A client with a stroke

    Correct Answer
    C. A client with a high cervical spine injury
    Explanation
    Autonomic dysreflexia refers to uninhibited sympathetic outflow in clients with spinal cord injuries about the level of T10. The other clients aren’t prone to dysreflexia.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    Which of the following conditions indicates that spinal shock is resolving in a client with C7 quadriplegia?

    • A.

      Absence of pain sensation in chest

    • B.

      Spasticity

    • C.

      Spontaneous respirations

    • D.

      Urinary continence

    Correct Answer
    B. Spasticity
    Explanation
    Spasticity. the return of reflexes. is a sign of resolving shock. Spinal or neurogenic shock is characterized by hypotension. bradycardia. dry skin. flaccid paralysis. or the absence of reflexes below the level of injury.Option A: The absence of pain sensation in the chest doesn’t apply to spinal shock.Option C: Spinal shock descends from the injury. and respiratory difficulties occur at C4 and above.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    A nurse assesses a client who has episodes of autonomic dysreflexia. Which of the following conditions can cause autonomic dysreflexia?

    • A.

      Headache

    • B.

      Lumbar spinal cord injury

    • C.

      Neurogenic shock

    • D.

      Noxious stimuli

    Correct Answer
    D. Noxious stimuli
    Explanation
    Noxious stimuli. such as a full bladder. fecal impaction. or a decubitus ulcer. may cause autonomic dysreflexia.Option A: A headache is a symptom of autonomic dysreflexia. not a cause.Option B: Autonomic dysreflexia is most commonly seen with injuries at T10 or above.Option C: Neurogenic shock isn’t a cause of dysreflexia.

    Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Aug 18, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 27, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Santepro
Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.