Nervous System | Neurological Disorders NCLEX Quiz 44

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1. Which assessment data would indicate to the nurse that the client would be at risk for a hemorrhagic stroke?

Explanation

Uncontrolled hypertension is a risk factor for hemorrhagic stroke. which is a ruptured blood vessel in the cranium.Option A: High blood glucose levels could predispose a patient to ischemic stroke. but not hemorrhagic.Option B: Bruit in the carotid artery would predispose a client to an embolic or ischemic stroke.Option D: Cancer is not a precursor to stroke.

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Nervous System | Neurological Disorders NCLEX Quiz 44 - Quiz

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2. During the first 24 hours after thrombolytic therapy for ischemic stroke. the primary goal is to control the client's:

Explanation

Controlling the blood pressure is critical because an intracerebral hemorrhage is the major adverse effect of thrombolytic therapy. Blood pressure should be maintained according to physician and is specific to the client’s ischemic tissue needs and risks of bleeding from treatment. Other vital signs are monitored. but the priority is blood pressure.

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3. Which client would the nurse identify as being most at risk for experiencing a CVA?

Explanation

African Americans have twice the rate of CVA’s as Caucasians; males are more likely to have strokes than females except in advanced years.Option B: Oriental’s have a lower risk. possibly due to their high omega-3 fatty acids.Option D: Pregnancy is a minimal risk factor for CVA.

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4. A 78-year-old client is admitted to the emergency department with numbness and weakness of the left arm and slurred speech. Which nursing intervention is a priority?

Explanation

A CT scan will determine if the client is having a stroke or has a brain tumor or another neurological disorder. This would also determine if it is a hemorrhagic or ischemic accident and guide the treatment because only an ischemic stroke can use rt-PA. This would make (1) not the priority since if a stroke was determined to be hemorrhagic. rt-PA is contraindicated.Option A: rt-PA is contraindicated.Options B and D: Discuss the precipitating factors for teaching would not be a priority and slurred speech would as indicate interference for teaching. Referring the client for speech therapy would be an intervention after the CVA emergency treatment is administered according to protocol.

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5. What is the expected outcome of thrombolytic drug therapy?

Explanation

Thrombolytic therapy is used to dissolve emboli and reestablish cerebral perfusion.

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6. Regular oral hygiene is an essential intervention for the client who has had a stroke. Which of the following nursing measures is inappropriate when providing oral hygiene?

Explanation

A helpless client should be positioned on the side. not on the back. This lateral position helps secretions escape from the throat and mouth. minimizing the risk of aspiration.Option B: It may be necessary to suction. so having suction equipment at the bedside is necessary.Option C: Padded tongue blades are safe to use.Option D: A toothbrush is appropriate to use.

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7. A client arrives in the emergency department with an ischemic stroke and receives tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) administration. Which is the priority nursing assessment?

Explanation

The time of onset of a stroke to t-PA administration is critical. Administration within 3 hours has better outcomes.Option A: Current medications are relevant. but the onset of current stroke takes priority.Option B: A complete history is not possible in emergency care.Option D: Upcoming surgical procedures will need to be delay if t-PA is administered.

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8. What is a priority nursing assessment in the first 24 hours after admission of the client with a thrombotic stroke?

Explanation

It is crucial to monitor the pupil size and pupillary response to indicate changes around the cranial nerves.Option A: Cholesterol level is an assessment to be addressed for long-term healthy lifestyle rehabilitation.Option C: Bowel sounds need to be assessed because an ileus or constipation can develop. but is not a priority in the first 24 hours.Option D: An echocardiogram is not needed for the client with a thrombotic stroke.

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9. The client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation has experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Which medication would the nurse anticipate being ordered for the client on discharge?

Explanation

Thrombi form secondary to atrial fibrillation. Therefore. an anticoagulant would be anticipated to prevent thrombi formation; and oral (warfarin [Coumadin]) at discharge versus intravenous.Option B: Beta blockers slow the heart rate and lower the blood pressure.Option C: Anti-hyperuricemic medication is given to clients with gout.Option D: Thrombolytic medication might have been given at initial presentation but would not be a drug prescribed at discharge.

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10. The nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are caring for a client with right-sided paralysis. Which action by the UAP requires the nurse to intervene?

Explanation

This action is inappropriate and would require intervention by the nurse because pulling on a flaccid shoulder joint could cause shoulder dislocation; as always use a lift sheet for the client and nurse safety.Options A. B. and D: All the other actions are appropriate.

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Which assessment data would indicate to the nurse that the client...
During the first 24 hours after thrombolytic therapy for ischemic...
Which client would the nurse identify as being most at risk for...
A 78-year-old client is admitted to the emergency department with...
What is the expected outcome of thrombolytic drug therapy?
Regular oral hygiene is an essential intervention for the client who...
A client arrives in the emergency department with an ischemic stroke...
What is a priority nursing assessment in the first 24 hours after...
The client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation has experienced a...
The nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are caring for a...
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