Questions Around Eukaryota Cells

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| By Hattan Arif
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Hattan Arif
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 219
Questions: 25 | Attempts: 219

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Questions Around Eukaryota Cells - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    An example of positive feedback mechanism ?

    • A.

      Child birth

    • B.

      Sweating

    • C.

      Vasoconstriction

    Correct Answer
    A. Child birth
    Explanation
    Childbirth is an example of a positive feedback mechanism because it involves a cycle where the initial stimulus, contractions, leads to an increase in the hormone oxytocin, which in turn causes stronger contractions. This positive feedback loop continues until the baby is born.

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  • 2. 

    The most numerous type of wbc   

    • A.

      Neutrophils

    • B.

      lymphocytes

    • C.

      Monocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Neutrophils
    Explanation
    Neutrophils are the most numerous type of white blood cells (WBCs) in the body. They are a type of granulocyte and play a crucial role in the immune response against bacterial infections. Neutrophils are highly mobile and are the first cells to arrive at the site of infection. They engulf and destroy bacteria through a process called phagocytosis. Their abundance in the body makes them an important defense mechanism against bacterial pathogens. Lymphocytes and monocytes are also types of WBCs, but they are not as numerous as neutrophils.

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  • 3. 

     which of the following can cause HAGMA :  

    • A.

      Diabetic Ketoacidosis

    • B.

      Diarrhea

    • C.

      Vomiting

    • D.

      Renal tubular acidosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Diabetic Ketoacidosis
    Explanation
    Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) is a condition that can cause high anion gap metabolic acidosis (HAGMA). In DKA, the body produces excess ketones as a result of insulin deficiency, leading to an accumulation of acidic ketones in the blood. This causes a decrease in blood pH, leading to metabolic acidosis. On the other hand, diarrhea, vomiting, and renal tubular acidosis can cause non-anion gap metabolic acidosis, where the acidosis is not caused by an increase in anions. Therefore, the correct answer is Diabetic Ketoacidosis.

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  • 4. 

    22 yo known case DM presented to the ER with sever dehydration and cosmal breathing which of the following is a diagnostic criteria of DKA : 

    • A.

      ECG changes

    • B.

      HCO3< 18

    • C.

      O2< 85

    • D.

      None of the NAGMA

    Correct Answer
    B. HCO3< 18
    Explanation
    A diagnostic criteria of DKA is a bicarbonate (HCO3) level below 18. This is because in DKA, there is an accumulation of ketones in the blood, leading to increased production of acidic byproducts. This results in a decrease in bicarbonate levels, causing metabolic acidosis. Sever dehydration and cosmal breathing are common symptoms of DKA, but they are not specific diagnostic criteria for DKA. ECG changes and O2 levels are also not specific to DKA.

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  • 5. 

    70 years old male bed ridden presented to the ER with right leg swelling and tenderness, what do you have to exclude first : 

    • A.

      Heart failure

    • B.

      liver cirrhosis

    • C.

      DVT

    • D.

      Venous insufficiency

    Correct Answer
    C. DVT
    Explanation
    In a 70-year-old male who is bedridden and presents with right leg swelling and tenderness, the first condition that needs to be excluded is deep vein thrombosis (DVT). DVT is a blood clot that forms in a deep vein, commonly in the leg. The symptoms of swelling and tenderness in the leg are indicative of a possible DVT. Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications such as pulmonary embolism. Heart failure, liver cirrhosis, and venous insufficiency can also cause leg swelling, but given the clinical presentation, DVT should be the primary concern.

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  • 6. 

    All of the following are contents of femoral triangle EXCEPT : 

    • A.

      Femoral artery

    • B.

      Siatic nerve

    • C.

      Femoral vein

    • D.

      Femoral nerve

    Correct Answer
    B. Siatic nerve
    Explanation
    The femoral triangle is an anatomical region located in the upper thigh. It is bordered by the inguinal ligament, the sartorius muscle, and the adductor longus muscle. The contents of the femoral triangle include the femoral artery, femoral vein, and femoral nerve. The sciatic nerve, however, is not found within the femoral triangle. The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body and it originates in the lower back and extends down the back of the thigh. Therefore, the correct answer is the sciatic nerve.

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  • 7. 

    The nerve supply of Biceps brachii muscle is: 

    • A.

      Radial nerve

    • B.

      Ulnar nerve

    • C.

      Median nerve

    • D.

      Musculocutanous nerve

    Correct Answer
    D. Musculocutanous nerve
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Musculocutanous nerve. The biceps brachii muscle is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve, which arises from the brachial plexus. This nerve provides motor innervation to the biceps brachii muscle, allowing it to contract and flex the elbow joint. It also provides sensory innervation to the lateral side of the forearm, supplying sensation to the skin.

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  • 8. 

    The brachial artery ends at level of:

    • A.

      Middle of the humerus

    • B.

      Neck of the radius

    • C.

      Shoulder joint

    • D.

      Wrist joint

    Correct Answer
    B. Neck of the radius
    Explanation
    The brachial artery ends at the neck of the radius. This is the point where the brachial artery splits into the radial and ulnar arteries. The neck of the radius is located near the elbow joint, just below the head of the radius bone. From this point, the radial artery continues down the forearm, while the ulnar artery travels towards the wrist.

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  • 9. 

    Cellular adaptations include all the following except : 

    • A.

      Atrophy

    • B.

      Hypertrophy

    • C.

      Degeneration

    • D.

      Hyperplasia

    Correct Answer
    C. Degeneration
    Explanation
    Cellular adaptations refer to the changes that occur in cells in response to various stimuli or conditions. Atrophy is the decrease in cell size or number, while hypertrophy is the increase in cell size. Hyperplasia is the increase in the number of cells. However, degeneration is not considered a cellular adaptation. Degeneration refers to the deterioration or impairment of cells, often due to injury or disease. It is not a normal response or adaptation of cells to their environment.

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  • 10. 

    #Which of the following is the first manifestation of almost all forms of cells injuries :

    • A.

      Intracellular Accumulations

    • B.

      Cellular swelling

    • C.

      Pathologic Calcifications

    • D.

      Fatty change

    Correct Answer
    B. Cellular swelling
    Explanation
    Cellular swelling is the first manifestation of almost all forms of cell injuries. It occurs due to the influx of water into the cells, leading to their enlargement. This can be caused by various factors such as hypoxia, toxins, infections, and inflammation. Cellular swelling disrupts the normal functioning of the cells and can lead to further damage if not resolved. It is an early sign of cell injury and can progress to more severe forms of damage if the underlying cause is not addressed.

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  • 11. 

    Which one of the following is true regarding Eukaryotic cells : 

    • A.

      Do not contain nucleus

    • B.

      -Have their DNA located in a region called nucleoid

    • C.

      They do not have ribosomes

    • D.

      Contain a true nucleus bounded by a membranous nuclear envelope

    Correct Answer
    D. Contain a true nucleus bounded by a membranous nuclear envelope
    Explanation
    Eukaryotic cells contain a true nucleus bounded by a membranous nuclear envelope. This means that the DNA in eukaryotic cells is enclosed within a double membrane called the nuclear envelope, which separates it from the rest of the cell. This allows for more efficient and regulated gene expression, as well as protection of the DNA. This characteristic is one of the defining features of eukaryotic cells, distinguishing them from prokaryotic cells which do not have a true nucleus.

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  • 12. 

    Preparation of tissue for light microscopy ( Tissue processing ), which of the following is FALSE :

    • A.

      Sliding

    • B.

      Dehydration

    • C.

      Evaporation

    • D.

      Staining

    Correct Answer
    C. Evaporation
    Explanation
    Evaporation is not a step in the tissue processing for light microscopy. The process involves several steps such as fixation, dehydration, clearing, embedding, sectioning, and staining. Evaporation is not specifically mentioned as a step in this process. The other options, sliding, dehydration, and staining, are all valid steps in tissue processing for light microscopy.

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  • 13. 

    LD it is ..

    • A.

      Lethal dose

    • B.

      Toxic dose

    • C.

      Therapeutic index

    Correct Answer
    A. Lethal dose
    Explanation
    The correct answer is lethal dose. LD stands for lethal dose, which refers to the amount of a substance that is required to cause death in a specific population or organism. It is used to determine the toxicity or harmfulness of a substance. The LD value is often expressed as LD50, which represents the dose that is lethal to 50% of the test population. This information is crucial in determining the safety and potential risks associated with various substances.

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  • 14. 

    Pharmacokietce is:

    • A.

      Study of (absorption,metabolism,excretion)

    • B.

      Study of action or effect of drug on organisms

    • C.

      Chemical group or molecule on surface or on cell interior affinity for special chemical group

    Correct Answer
    A. Study of (absorption,metabolism,excretion)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "study of (absorption, metabolism, excretion)". Pharmacokinetics is the branch of pharmacology that deals with the study of how a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted by the body. It involves understanding the processes of drug absorption into the bloodstream, its distribution to various tissues and organs, its metabolism or breakdown in the body, and its elimination through urine or feces. This knowledge is crucial in determining the dosage and frequency of drug administration to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.

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  • 15. 

     Notochord gives growth to Annulus fibrosis part of interverebral disc ( )

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because the notochord gives rise to the nucleus pulposus, not the annulus fibrosis, of the intervertebral disc. The annulus fibrosis is formed from fibrocartilage derived from the mesenchyme.

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  • 16. 

     Blastocyst will be rapidly changed into Morula before implantation  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because the blastocyst does not change into the morula before implantation. In fact, the blastocyst is the stage that comes after the morula. The morula is an early stage of embryonic development where the fertilized egg undergoes several rounds of cell division and forms a solid ball of cells. After the morula stage, the embryo develops into a blastocyst, which is a hollow ball of cells with an inner cell mass and an outer layer of cells called the trophoblast. It is the blastocyst that implants into the uterine lining during implantation.

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  • 17. 

    We have 3 types of hypersensitivity

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement "We have 3 types of hypersensitivity" is incorrect. In reality, there are four types of hypersensitivity reactions: Type I (immediate hypersensitivity), Type II (cytotoxic hypersensitivity), Type III (immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity), and Type IV (delayed-type hypersensitivity). Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is a cause of non-pitting edema :A) heart failure B) liver cirrhosis C) nephrotic syndrome D) lymphatic obstruction Answer is D

    • A.

      Heart failure

    • B.

      Liver cirrhosis

    • C.

      Nephrotic syndrome

    • D.

      Lymphatic obstruction

    Correct Answer
    D. Lymphatic obstruction
    Explanation
    Non-pitting edema refers to swelling that does not leave an indentation when pressure is applied to the affected area. Lymphatic obstruction occurs when there is a blockage or damage to the lymphatic system, which is responsible for draining excess fluid from tissues. This obstruction can lead to the accumulation of fluid and the development of non-pitting edema. Heart failure, liver cirrhosis, and nephrotic syndrome can cause pitting edema, where pressure leaves an indentation, but they are not typically associated with non-pitting edema. Therefore, the correct answer is D) lymphatic obstruction.

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  • 19. 

     Haemoglobin hasHemoglobina)  primary structureb)  secondary structurec)  tertiary structured) quaternery structure 

    • A.

      Primary structure

    • B.

      Secondary structure

    • C.

      Tertiary structure

    • D.

      Quaternery structure

    Correct Answer
    D. Quaternery structure
    Explanation
    Haemoglobin is a protein molecule made up of four subunits, each consisting of a polypeptide chain. These subunits come together to form a complex structure, known as the quaternary structure. The quaternary structure of haemoglobin is essential for its function as it allows it to bind and transport oxygen in the blood.

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  • 20. 

    Tertiary structure is maintained by 

    • A.

      Peptide bond

    • B.

      hydrogen bond

    • C.

      Di-sulphide bond

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The tertiary structure of a protein is maintained by various types of bonds, including peptide bonds, hydrogen bonds, and di-sulphide bonds. Peptide bonds form between amino acids, creating the primary structure of the protein. Hydrogen bonds form between different parts of the protein, stabilizing its three-dimensional structure. Di-sulphide bonds are covalent bonds formed between two cysteine residues, contributing to the protein's stability. Therefore, all of these bonds are necessary to maintain the tertiary structure of a protein.

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  • 21. 

    The repeating units of proteins are

    • A.

      Glucose units

    • B.

      Amino acids

    • C.

      Fatty acids

    • D.

      Peptides

    Correct Answer
    B. Amino acids
    Explanation
    Proteins are composed of long chains of amino acids. Amino acids are organic compounds that contain an amino group and a carboxyl group. They are the building blocks of proteins and are linked together through peptide bonds. The repeating units in proteins are amino acids, which are essential for the structure and function of proteins.

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  • 22. 

    What is the artery that commonly used in measuring the blood pressure:- 

    • A.

      Femoral artery

    • B.

      Axillary artery

    • C.

      Pulmonary artery

    • D.

      Brachial artery

    Correct Answer
    D. Brachial artery
    Explanation
    The brachial artery is commonly used in measuring blood pressure because it is easily accessible and close to the surface of the skin. It is located in the upper arm and is often used with a blood pressure cuff and stethoscope to determine systolic and diastolic pressure.

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  • 23. 

    1-It's a protein that speed up chemical reaction in the cell of a human body  

    • A.

      Glucose

    • B.

      Glycerol

    • C.

      Enzymes

    Correct Answer
    C. Enzymes
    Explanation
    Enzymes are proteins that act as catalysts, speeding up chemical reactions in the cells of a human body. They do this by lowering the activation energy required for a reaction to occur. Enzymes are highly specific, meaning that each enzyme is designed to catalyze a specific reaction. They bind to a substrate (such as glucose or glycerol) and facilitate the conversion of the substrate into a product. Enzymes are essential for various biological processes, including digestion, metabolism, and DNA replication.

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  • 24. 

     chemical classification of polysaccharides including: 

    • A.

      Homopolysaccharides

    • B.

      Heteropolysaccharides

    • C.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because the chemical classification of polysaccharides includes both homopolysaccharides and heteropolysaccharides. Homopolysaccharides are polysaccharides composed of a single type of monosaccharide unit, while heteropolysaccharides are polysaccharides composed of more than one type of monosaccharide unit. Therefore, "All of the above" encompasses both types of polysaccharides.

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  • 25. 

    Aldoses have an ........... At one end 

    • A.

      Keton group

    • B.

      Aldehyde group

    • C.

      Carboxyl group

    Correct Answer
    B. Aldehyde group
    Explanation
    Aldoses are a type of carbohydrate that have an aldehyde group at one end. This aldehyde group is a functional group consisting of a carbon atom double-bonded to an oxygen atom and single-bonded to a hydrogen atom. It is responsible for the characteristic properties and reactivity of aldoses.

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