Exam Cosmetology- State Boards

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Exam Cosmetology- State Boards - Quiz

Practice Test Cosmetology


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Write text here

  • 2. 

    Laws are also called: 

    • A.

      Regulations

    • B.

      Guidelines

    • C.

      Statutes

    • D.

      Rules

    Correct Answer
    C. Statutes
    Explanation
    Statutes are a term used to refer to laws that have been formally enacted by a legislative body. They are specific and binding rules that govern a particular jurisdiction. While regulations, guidelines, and rules are also used to describe various types of laws or legal principles, statutes specifically refer to laws that have been passed by a legislative authority. Therefore, statutes are an appropriate term to describe laws.

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  • 3. 

    A parasitic submicroscopic particle that infects and resides in the cells of a biological organism is a: 

    • A.

      Virus

    • B.

      Bacteria

    • C.

      Parasite

    • D.

      Contaminant

    Correct Answer
    A. Virus
    Explanation
    A virus is a parasitic submicroscopic particle that infects and resides in the cells of a biological organism. Unlike bacteria, which are single-celled organisms, viruses are not considered living organisms as they cannot reproduce or carry out metabolic functions on their own. They rely on host cells to replicate and cause infections. Parasites, on the other hand, are larger organisms that live on or inside other organisms, but they are not necessarily submicroscopic like viruses. Contaminants refer to impurities or unwanted substances that can be found in various environments, but they do not specifically infect or reside in cells like viruses do.

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  • 4. 

    The part of the muscle at the movable attachment to the skeleton is the: 

    • A.

      Ligament

    • B.

      Tendon

    • C.

      Origin

    • D.

      Insertion

    Correct Answer
    D. Insertion
    Explanation
    The part of the muscle at the movable attachment to the skeleton is called the insertion. This is where the muscle attaches to the bone that it moves when it contracts. The origin, on the other hand, is the part of the muscle that attaches to the stationary bone. Ligaments are connective tissues that connect bones to other bones, while tendons connect muscles to bones. Therefore, the correct answer in this case is insertion.

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  • 5. 

    Pressure in massage is usually directed from the: 

    • A.

      Insertion to beginning

    • B.

      Insertion to the origin

    • C.

      Origin to the insertion

    • D.

      Front to sides

    Correct Answer
    B. Insertion to the origin
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Insertion to the origin." In massage, pressure is typically applied in the direction from the insertion point of a muscle to its origin. This helps to stimulate blood flow, release tension, and promote relaxation in the muscle. By applying pressure in this direction, the massage therapist can effectively target and manipulate the muscle fibers to achieve the desired therapeutic effects.

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  • 6. 

    The muscle of the scalp that raises the eyebrows, draws the scalp forward, and causes wrinkles across the forehead is the:

    • A.

      Occipitalis

    • B.

      Masseter

    • C.

      Temporalis

    • D.

      Frontalis

    Correct Answer
    D. Frontalis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is frontalis. The frontalis muscle is located in the forehead region and is responsible for raising the eyebrows, drawing the scalp forward, and causing wrinkles across the forehead. It is an important muscle for facial expressions and is commonly used when expressing surprise or concern. The occipitalis muscle is located at the back of the head, the masseter muscle is in the jaw region, and the temporalis muscle is located on the side of the head.

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  • 7. 

    Which blood component gives blood its color? 

    • A.

      Hemoglobin

    • B.

      White blood cells

    • C.

      Platelets

    • D.

      Plasma

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemoglobin
    Explanation
    Hemoglobin is the correct answer because it is the protein molecule in red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to the body's tissues. It contains iron, which gives blood its red color.

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  • 8. 

    Lesions of the skin characterized by piles of material on the skin surface are: 

    • A.

      Secondary skin lesions

    • B.

      Primary skin lesions

    • C.

      Contagious skin lesions

    • D.

      Excessive lesions

    Correct Answer
    A. Secondary skin lesions
    Explanation
    Secondary skin lesions are characterized by the presence of piles of material on the skin surface. These lesions develop as a result of changes that occur in primary skin lesions or as a consequence of external factors such as infection, trauma, or chronic inflammation. Examples of secondary skin lesions include ulcers, scales, crusts, and scars. These lesions are different from primary skin lesions, which are the initial changes that occur in the skin due to a specific disease or condition. Contagious skin lesions and excessive lesions are not specific categories of skin lesions and do not accurately describe the characteristics mentioned in the question.

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  • 9. 

    Benign, keratin-filled cysts that appear just under the epidermis and have no visible opening are: 

    • A.

      Nodules

    • B.

      Cysts

    • C.

      Milia

    • D.

      Keloids

    Correct Answer
    C. Milia
    Explanation
    Milia are benign, keratin-filled cysts that appear just under the epidermis and have no visible opening. They are small, white or yellowish bumps commonly found on the face, particularly around the eyes, nose, and cheeks. Milia occur when dead skin cells become trapped beneath the surface of the skin, forming tiny cysts. They are typically painless and do not require treatment, but can be removed by a dermatologist if desired. Nodules, cysts, and keloids are different types of skin lesions or growths with distinct characteristics.

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  • 10. 

    A noncontagious skin disease characterized by red patches covered with silver-white scales found on the scalp is: 

    • A.

      Herpes

    • B.

      Psoriasis

    • C.

      Papules

    • D.

      Macula

    Correct Answer
    B. Psoriasis
    Explanation
    Psoriasis is a noncontagious skin disease that is characterized by red patches covered with silver-white scales. These patches are commonly found on the scalp, but can also appear on other parts of the body. Unlike herpes, which is a viral infection that causes painful blisters, psoriasis is not caused by a virus and is not contagious. Papules and macula are not specific to psoriasis and do not accurately describe the symptoms of the disease. Therefore, the correct answer is psoriasis.

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  • 11. 

    The portion of living skin that supports the nail plate is the:

    • A.

      Nail bed

    • B.

      Nail root

    • C.

      Nail groove

    • D.

      Nail matrix

    Correct Answer
    A. Nail bed
    Explanation
    The nail bed is the correct answer because it is the portion of living skin that lies beneath the nail plate. It provides support and nourishment to the nail plate, helping it grow and stay healthy. The nail bed is responsible for the pinkish color of the nail plate due to the blood vessels underneath. It is also where the nail plate attaches and grows from, making it an essential part of the overall structure of the nail.

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  • 12. 

    The nail bed contains many nerves and is attached to the nail plate with a thin layer of tissue called the: 

    • A.

      Bed epithelium

    • B.

      Bed eponychium

    • C.

      Bed lunula

    • D.

      Nail mantle

    Correct Answer
    A. Bed epithelium
    Explanation
    The nail bed is a sensitive area that contains many nerves. It is attached to the nail plate by a thin layer of tissue called the bed epithelium. This tissue helps to support and nourish the nail plate, and it is important for the overall health and growth of the nail. The other options listed do not accurately describe the layer of tissue that attaches the nail bed to the nail plate.

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  • 13. 

    The average rate of the nail growth in the normal adult is about:

    • A.

      1/4 inch per month

    • B.

      1/10 inch per month

    • C.

      1/8 inch per month

    • D.

      1/2 inch per month

    Correct Answer
    B. 1/10 inch per month
    Explanation
    The average rate of nail growth in a normal adult is approximately 1/10 inch per month. This means that, on average, a person's nails will grow about 1/10 of an inch in length every month.

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  • 14. 

    The lifting of the nail plate from the bed without shedding is a sign of: 

    • A.

      Nail psoriasis

    • B.

      Onychomadesis

    • C.

      Eggshell nails

    • D.

      Onycholysis

    Correct Answer
    D. Onycholysis
    Explanation
    Onycholysis is the correct answer because it refers to the lifting of the nail plate from the bed without shedding. This condition can be caused by various factors such as trauma, fungal infections, or psoriasis. It is characterized by the separation of the nail from the nail bed, resulting in a gap between the two. Onycholysis can cause pain, discomfort, and changes in the appearance of the nails. Treatment typically involves addressing the underlying cause and keeping the affected area clean and dry.

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  • 15. 

    A weak, physical, cross-link side bond between adjacent polypeptide chains that is broken by changes in pH is a: 

    • A.

      Salt bond

    • B.

      Hydrogen bond

    • C.

      Carbon bond

    • D.

      Sulfur bond

    Correct Answer
    A. Salt bond
    Explanation
    A weak, physical, cross-link side bond between adjacent polypeptide chains that is broken by changes in pH is a salt bond. Salt bonds, also known as ionic bonds, are formed between positively and negatively charged amino acid side chains. These bonds can be disrupted by changes in pH, which can alter the charges on the amino acid side chains, causing the bond to break. This disruption in the salt bond can lead to changes in protein structure and function.

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  • 16. 

    A severe type of dandruff characterized by an accumulation of greasy or waxy scalp scales mixed with sebum is: 

    • A.

      Pityriasis capitis

    • B.

      Tinea favosa

    • C.

      Pityriasis steatoides

    • D.

      Pityriasis papules

    Correct Answer
    C. Pityriasis steatoides
    Explanation
    Pityriasis steatoides is a severe type of dandruff characterized by the accumulation of greasy or waxy scalp scales mixed with sebum. This condition is also known as seborrheic dermatitis and is caused by an overgrowth of yeast on the scalp. The excess yeast leads to inflammation and an excessive production of oil, resulting in the formation of greasy scales. Treatment usually involves the use of medicated shampoos and topical creams to control the yeast overgrowth and reduce inflammation.

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  • 17. 

    An infestation of the hair and scalp with head lice is:

    • A.

      Vesicles parasites

    • B.

      Alopecia areata

    • C.

      Pediculosis capitis

    • D.

      Pediculosis furuncle

    Correct Answer
    A. Vesicles parasites
    Explanation
    The correct answer is pediculosis capitis. Pediculosis capitis refers to an infestation of the hair and scalp with head lice. Head lice are parasitic insects that live on the scalp and feed on human blood. They can cause itching and irritation of the scalp, leading to scratching and potential skin infections. The term "vesicles parasites" is not a recognized medical term and does not accurately describe head lice infestation. "Alopecia areata" refers to a condition characterized by hair loss, but it is not specifically related to head lice. "Pediculosis furuncle" is not a recognized term and does not relate to head lice infestation.

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  • 18. 

    The current for facial and scalp treatments is measured in: 

    • A.

      Miliamperes

    • B.

      Watts

    • C.

      Kiolwatts

    • D.

      Voltages

    Correct Answer
    A. Miliamperes
    Explanation
    The current for facial and scalp treatments is measured in miliamperes. Miliamperes is a unit of electric current that represents one thousandth of an ampere. It is commonly used in medical and beauty treatments to ensure safe and controlled application of electrical currents to the skin and scalp. This measurement helps professionals determine the appropriate intensity of current for the treatment, ensuring optimal results without causing harm or discomfort to the client.

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  • 19. 

    A measurement of how much electricity is being used in one second is an: 

    • A.

      Volt

    • B.

      Kilowatt

    • C.

      Watt

    • D.

      Ohm

    Correct Answer
    C. Watt
    Explanation
    A watt is a unit of power, which measures the rate at which electricity is being used or transferred. It represents the amount of energy consumed or produced per second. Therefore, a measurement of how much electricity is being used in one second is expressed in watts. A volt is a unit of electrical potential difference, a kilowatt is a unit of power equal to 1000 watts, and an ohm is a unit of electrical resistance.

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  • 20. 

    Cataphoresis forces acidic substances into deeper tissues using galvanic current from the: 

    • A.

      Negative toward the positive pole

    • B.

      Inactive toward the electric pole

    • C.

      Positive toward the negative pole

    • D.

      Negative toward the ohm pole

    Correct Answer
    C. Positive toward the negative pole
    Explanation
    Cataphoresis is a process that uses galvanic current to force acidic substances into deeper tissues. In this process, the positive pole attracts the acidic substances and pushes them towards the negative pole. Therefore, the correct answer is "Positive toward the negative pole."

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  • 21. 

    Rays with short wavelengths that are the least penetrating, produce chemical effects, and kill germs are:

    • A.

      Blue light

    • B.

      Red light rays

    • C.

      Ultraviolet rays

    • D.

      Infrared rays

    Correct Answer
    C. Ultraviolet rays
    Explanation
    Ultraviolet rays have short wavelengths and are known to produce chemical effects and kill germs. They have higher energy compared to visible light rays such as blue and red light, which have longer wavelengths. Infrared rays, on the other hand, have longer wavelengths than visible light and are known for their heat-producing properties rather than their germ-killing abilities. Therefore, ultraviolet rays are the correct answer in this case.

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  • 22. 

    Curved lines repeating in opposite directions creates an:

    • A.

      Dimesion

    • B.

      Wave

    • C.

      Diagonal

    • D.

      Element

    Correct Answer
    B. Wave
    Explanation
    Curved lines repeating in opposite directions create a wave. Waves are characterized by their repetitive pattern of oscillation or disturbance. The description of curved lines repeating in opposite directions aligns with the behavior of waves, as they often exhibit a back-and-forth motion. Waves can be found in various contexts, such as water waves, sound waves, or electromagnetic waves.

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  • 23. 

    Contrasting lines are horizontal and vertical lines that create a hard edge and form a: 

    • A.

      90-degree angle

    • B.

      45-degree angle

    • C.

      180-degree angle

    • D.

      Curved angle

    Correct Answer
    A. 90-degree angle
    Explanation
    Contrasting lines refer to the use of horizontal and vertical lines that create a distinct and sharp edge. These lines intersect at a 90-degree angle, forming a right angle. This angle is characterized by two lines that are perpendicular to each other, creating a square corner.

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  • 24. 

    The part of the overall design that the client will respond to first is the: 

    • A.

      Sihouette

    • B.

      Space

    • C.

      Texture

    • D.

      Combination

    Correct Answer
    A. Sihouette
    Explanation
    The client will respond to the silhouette first because it is the outline or shape of the design that can be easily recognized and understood. The silhouette is what catches the eye and creates the first impression, making it crucial in capturing the client's attention.

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  • 25. 

    The element used to define texture and line and tie design elements together is: 

    • A.

      Color

    • B.

      Form

    • C.

      Space

    • D.

      Curves

    Correct Answer
    A. Color
    Explanation
    Color is the element used to define texture and line and tie design elements together. Color can create a sense of texture by using different hues, shades, and tones. It can also be used to create lines and shapes within a design, either by using contrasting colors or by using color gradients. Additionally, color can be used to unify different design elements by using a consistent color scheme throughout the design.

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  • 26. 

    A client's facial shape is determined by the position and prominence of the: 

    • A.

      Head Shape

    • B.

      Chin line

    • C.

      Facial bones

    • D.

      Profile

    Correct Answer
    C. Facial bones
    Explanation
    The client's facial shape is determined by the position and prominence of the facial bones. The facial bones, including the cheekbones, jawbone, and forehead, contribute to the overall shape and structure of the face. The arrangement and prominence of these bones can create different facial shapes such as round, oval, square, or heart-shaped.

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  • 27. 

    Ingredients in shampoos are listed according to the percentages of each ingredient or in: 

    • A.

      Descending order

    • B.

      Alphabetical order

    • C.

      Volume order

    • D.

      Ascending order

    Correct Answer
    A. Descending order
    Explanation
    Ingredients in shampoos are listed in descending order, which means that the ingredient with the highest percentage is listed first, followed by the ingredient with the second-highest percentage, and so on. This is done to provide transparency to consumers and allow them to make informed decisions about the product they are purchasing. By listing ingredients in descending order, consumers can easily identify the main ingredients and determine if the shampoo meets their specific needs or preferences.

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  • 28. 

    When you are building weight in a haircut, the hair should be held:

    • A.

      Above 90 degrees

    • B.

      At no elevation

    • C.

      Below 90 degrees

    • D.

      Straight

    Correct Answer
    C. Below 90 degrees
    Explanation
    When you are building weight in a haircut, holding the hair below 90 degrees means that you are cutting the hair in a downward direction. This technique allows the hair to fall and stack on top of each other, creating a heavier and more solid appearance. Holding the hair below 90 degrees helps to create a strong foundation and adds bulk to the haircut.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following best describes fine, thin hair? 

    • A.

      Very short cuts do not work

    • B.

      Razors may frizz hair

    • C.

      Texturizng necessary

    • D.

      Needs weight, limp

    Correct Answer
    D. Needs weight, limp
    Explanation
    Fine, thin hair refers to hair that lacks volume and thickness. It tends to be flat and lacks body. This type of hair often needs weight to give it more substance and prevent it from looking limp.

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  • 30. 

    The best overall blade edge for a hair stylist is: 

    • A.

      Beveled

    • B.

      Convex

    • C.

      Opposing grip

    • D.

      Forged

    Correct Answer
    B. Convex
    Explanation
    A convex blade edge is the best overall option for a hair stylist. This type of edge is curved and allows for smooth and precise cutting. It reduces the chances of hair getting caught or snagged, resulting in clean and effortless cuts. The convex edge also provides better control and maneuverability, making it ideal for intricate and detailed hairstyling techniques.

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  • 31. 

    Electric or battery-operated tools that cut the hair by using two moving blades held in place by a metal plate with teeth are: 

    • A.

      Notching shears

    • B.

      Clippers

    • C.

      Cutting shears

    • D.

      Trimmers

    Correct Answer
    B. Clippers
    Explanation
    Clippers are electric or battery-operated tools that cut hair using two moving blades held in place by a metal plate with teeth. They are commonly used in hair salons and barber shops for cutting hair to a desired length. Clippers are designed to make quick and precise cuts, making them an essential tool for hairstylists. They are different from cutting shears, which are handheld scissors used for more detailed and precise cutting, and trimmers, which are used for trimming and shaping facial hair. Notching shears, on the other hand, are used for creating texture and removing bulk from the hair.

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  • 32. 

    Another term used to describe backbrushing is:

    • A.

      Ruffing

    • B.

      Teasing

    • C.

      Matting

    • D.

      Backcombing

    Correct Answer
    A. Ruffing
    Explanation
    Backbrushing is a technique used to create volume and texture in the hair by brushing it in the opposite direction of its natural growth. Another term used to describe this technique is "ruffing".

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  • 33. 

    The edges on flat irons that create smooth, straight styles on very curly hair are: 

    • A.

      Beveled

    • B.

      Outer

    • C.

      Round

    • D.

      Straight

    Correct Answer
    D. Straight
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "straight." Straight edges on flat irons are designed to create smooth and straight styles on very curly hair. Unlike beveled, outer, or round edges, straight edges provide the most effective and precise straightening results.

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  • 34. 

    The Three-strand braid produced by overlapping the strands of hair on top of each other is the:

    • A.

      Inverted

    • B.

      Visible

    • C.

      Box braid

    • D.

      Fishtail

    Correct Answer
    A. Inverted
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "inverted." An inverted three-strand braid is created by overlapping the strands of hair on top of each other, resulting in a braid that appears to be woven inwardly. This technique is commonly used to create a neat and intricate hairstyle.

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  • 35. 

    Hair that is arranged so that the cuticles of all hair strands slope in the same direction is: 

    • A.

      Turned hair

    • B.

      Fallen hair

    • C.

      Processed hair

    • D.

      Resistant hair

    Correct Answer
    A. Turned hair
    Explanation
    Hair that is arranged so that the cuticles of all hair strands slope in the same direction is referred to as "turned hair". This means that all the hair strands are aligned in a uniform manner, with their cuticles facing the same direction. This arrangement of hair cuticles contributes to smoother and shinier hair, as it allows for better light reflection and prevents tangling or friction between hair strands.

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  • 36. 

    Relaxers are often marketed and sold as no mix-no lye relaxers are:

    • A.

      Sodium hydroxide relaxers

    • B.

      Potassium hydroxide relaxers

    • C.

      Ammonium thio relaxer

    • D.

      Guanidine hydroxide relaxers

    Correct Answer
    B. Potassium hydroxide relaxers
    Explanation
    Potassium hydroxide relaxers are often marketed and sold as no mix-no lye relaxers. This means that they do not require mixing with any additional ingredients, such as an activator or a lye-based substance like sodium hydroxide or guanidine hydroxide. Potassium hydroxide relaxers are known for being milder and gentler on the hair and scalp compared to other types of relaxers. They are commonly used on fine or color-treated hair.

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  • 37. 

    Hydroxide relaxers that do not require the appliction of a protective base are: 

    • A.

      No-base relaxers

    • B.

      Base cream relaxers

    • C.

      Cream relaxers

    • D.

      Metal hydroxide relaxers

    Correct Answer
    A. No-base relaxers
    Explanation
    No-base relaxers do not require the application of a protective base because they have a lower pH level compared to other relaxers. This means that they are less likely to cause damage to the scalp and hair when applied. The absence of a protective base also makes the application process simpler and quicker.

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  • 38. 

    The application for chemical relaxers should be started in the most resistant area, usually the:

    • A.

      Back of head

    • B.

      Front hairline

    • C.

      Scalp area

    • D.

      Side area

    Correct Answer
    A. Back of head
    Explanation
    Chemical relaxers are used to straighten curly or wavy hair. The application process involves applying the relaxer to the hair, which breaks down the protein bonds and allows the hair to be reshaped. Starting the application in the most resistant area, which is usually the back of the head, ensures that this area, which is typically the curliest or most tightly coiled, receives the maximum amount of processing time. By starting at the back of the head, the relaxer has more time to work on the resistant hair, resulting in a more even and consistent straightening effect throughout the hair.

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  • 39. 

    Neutral base colors are often used to cover:

    • A.

      Red tones

    • B.

      Gray hair

    • C.

      Gold tones

    • D.

      Ash tones

    Correct Answer
    B. Gray hair
    Explanation
    Neutral base colors are often used to cover gray hair because neutral shades have a balance of warm and cool tones, making them suitable for blending with the natural gray hair color. These colors provide good coverage and help to create a natural-looking result by minimizing the appearance of gray strands. Additionally, neutral base colors can also help to neutralize any unwanted brassiness or yellow tones that may be present in the gray hair.

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  • 40. 

    The natural arch of the eyebrow or the curved line of the eye socket follows what bone?

    • A.

      Frontal

    • B.

      Temporal

    • C.

      Orbis

    • D.

      Orbital

    Correct Answer
    D. Orbital
    Explanation
    The natural arch of the eyebrow or the curved line of the eye socket follows the orbital bone. The orbital bone is responsible for forming the eye socket and provides structural support to the eyeball. It helps to protect the eye and maintain its shape. The eyebrow follows the contour of the orbital bone, creating a natural arch that enhances facial expressions and aesthetics.

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  • 41. 

    Cosmetology professionals are allowed to use products that remove dead skin from the: 

    • A.

      Stratum corneum

    • B.

      Stratum lucidum

    • C.

      Stratum keratoma

    • D.

      Stratum granulosum

    Correct Answer
    A. Stratum corneum
    Explanation
    Cosmetology professionals are allowed to use products that remove dead skin from the stratum corneum. The stratum corneum is the outermost layer of the epidermis and consists of dead skin cells that are constantly shedding and being replaced. Removing dead skin from this layer helps to improve the overall appearance and health of the skin.

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  • 42. 

    Which one do you like?

    • A.

      Option 1

    • B.

      Option 2

    • C.

      Option 3

    • D.

      Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Option 1
    Explanation
    The explanation for why Option 1 is the correct answer cannot be determined based on the given question and options. Additional information or context is needed to provide a meaningful explanation.

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  • 43. 

    An enzyme peel that does not dry the skin and can be used during a steam treatment is the:

    • A.

      Cream form

    • B.

      Emulsifying form

    • C.

      Powder form

    • D.

      Gommage

    Correct Answer
    C. Powder form
    Explanation
    The powder form of an enzyme peel is the correct answer because it does not dry the skin and can be easily used during a steam treatment. Powder form allows for easy mixing and application, and it can be customized by adding water or other liquids to achieve the desired consistency. This form of enzyme peel is gentle on the skin and helps to exfoliate and remove dead skin cells without causing dryness or irritation.

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  • 44. 

    Skin products have a higher concentration of ingredients are:

    • A.

      Serums

    • B.

      Tonics

    • C.

      Masks

    • D.

      Lotions

    Correct Answer
    A. Serums
    Explanation
    Serums have a higher concentration of ingredients compared to tonics, masks, and lotions. This is because serums are formulated to be lightweight and easily absorbable, allowing for a higher concentration of active ingredients to penetrate the skin. Tonics, masks, and lotions, on the other hand, may contain a lower concentration of ingredients as they are designed for different purposes such as toning, moisturizing, or providing a temporary boost to the skin. Therefore, serums are more potent and effective in delivering targeted skincare benefits.

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  • 45. 

    To soften skin tissues and follicle accumulations making them easier to extract, it is recommended to first use a: 

    • A.

      Facial cleaner

    • B.

      Exfoliation steamer

    • C.

      Brushing machine

    • D.

      Facial steamer

    Correct Answer
    D. Facial steamer
    Explanation
    Using a facial steamer is recommended to soften skin tissues and follicle accumulations, making them easier to extract. The steam from the facial steamer helps to open up the pores and loosen any dirt, oil, or debris that may be clogging them. This makes it easier to remove impurities and extract blackheads or whiteheads. Additionally, the steam helps to hydrate the skin and improve blood circulation, leaving the skin looking refreshed and rejuvenated.

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  • 46. 

    Nikola Tesla is credited with discovering:

    • A.

      High-frequency current

    • B.

      Microcurrent

    • C.

      Electrotherapy

    • D.

      Alternating current

    Correct Answer
    A. High-frequency current
    Explanation
    Nikola Tesla is credited with discovering high-frequency current. This refers to an electrical current that oscillates at a very rapid rate, typically above 10,000 cycles per second. Tesla conducted extensive research on high-frequency currents and their applications, and he made significant contributions to their understanding and practical use. His work in this area laid the foundation for numerous advancements in electrical engineering and technology, including the development of radio transmission and wireless power transfer systems.

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  • 47. 

    The facial shape that is usually broader in proportion to its length is the: 

    • A.

      Round face

    • B.

      Oblong face

    • C.

      Diamond shape

    • D.

      Square shape

    Correct Answer
    A. Round face
    Explanation
    A round face is usually broader in proportion to its length. This means that the width of the face is more prominent compared to its height. The round face shape is characterized by soft curves and a lack of angular features. People with round faces often have fuller cheeks and a rounded jawline.

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  • 48. 

    A jaw that is wider than the forehead characterizes the: 

    • A.

      Square-shaped face

    • B.

      Pear-shaped face

    • C.

      Diamond-shaped face

    • D.

      Oval-shaped face

    Correct Answer
    B. Pear-shaped face
    Explanation
    A jaw that is wider than the forehead characterizes a pear-shaped face. This means that the jawline is more prominent and wider compared to the width of the forehead. This facial shape is often characterized by a narrower forehead and a rounder, wider jawline.

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  • 49. 

    To avoid the transfer of foundation onto a client's clothing, set the foundation using:

    • A.

      Translucent powder

    • B.

      Foundation creams

    • C.

      Blush powder

    • D.

      Light shades

    Correct Answer
    A. Translucent powder
    Explanation
    To avoid the transfer of foundation onto a client's clothing, it is recommended to set the foundation using translucent powder. Translucent powder is a colorless powder that helps to set the foundation in place and mattify the skin without adding any additional color. This powder helps to absorb excess oil and prevent the foundation from smudging or transferring onto clothing. By using translucent powder, the foundation will stay in place for longer and minimize the risk of staining or transferring onto the client's clothing.

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  • 50. 

    Containers that create the perfect environment for pathogens to grow and reproduce are: 

    • A.

      Unsealed

    • B.

      Airtight

    • C.

      Paper

    • D.

      Ventilated

    Correct Answer
    B. Airtight
    Explanation
    Airtight containers prevent the entry of air, which is essential for the growth and reproduction of pathogens. Pathogens require oxygen to survive and thrive, so by creating an airtight environment, the containers restrict the availability of oxygen, thereby inhibiting the growth of pathogens. This helps in maintaining the freshness and safety of the contents stored in the container, preventing contamination and spoilage.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 11, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 13, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    JosieMarie30xx
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