Human Anatomy Trivia Test: How Much You Know? Quiz

64 Questions | Total Attempts: 12

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Human Anatomy Trivia Test: How Much You Know? Quiz

The human body is made up of a lot of parts that are interconnected. Did you know that every inch of your skin has about 32 million bacteria on it? Below is a human anatomy trivia test that is designed to see how much you know about the study in preparation for your quiz. Give it a shot and keep an eye out for others like it.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The hindbrain is also known as the..
    • A. 

      Mesencephalon

    • B. 

      Prosencephalon

    • C. 

      Rhombencephalon

  • 2. 
    Which of the following is the thick band of fibers located between the cerebral hemispheres of the brain?
    • A. 

      Corpus callosum

    • B. 

      Medulla oblongata

    • C. 

      Meninges

  • 3. 
    The structures of the humerus that accept projections of the ulna in flexion and extension are
    • A. 

      Intertubercular groove, radial groove

    • B. 

      Coronoid fossa, olecranon fossa

    • C. 

      Medial epicondyle, lateral epicondyle

    • D. 

      Radial fossa, trochlear notch

  • 4. 
    If you want to separate the abdominal from the thoracic cavity, which plane would you use?
    • A. 

      Transverse

    • B. 

      Sagittal

    • C. 

      Coronal

    • D. 

      Frontal

  • 5. 
    The growth in length of a bone is at the
    • A. 

      Articular cartilage

    • B. 

      Center of the shaft

    • C. 

      Diaphyseal line

    • D. 

      Epiphyseal plate

  • 6. 
    The component bones of the pectoral girdle include
    • A. 

      Ilium and pubis

    • B. 

      Clavicle and scapula

    • C. 

      Scapula and humerus

    • D. 

      Radius and ulna

  • 7. 
    Among the prominent bone markings of the scapula are the
    • A. 

      Supraspinous fossa, patellar fossa, iliac fossa

    • B. 

      Superior border, medial angle, inferior border

    • C. 

      Coracoid process, acromion process, scapular spine

    • D. 

      Olecranon process, coronoid process, styloid process

  • 8. 
    The two proximal carpals that articulate with the radius in making the wrist joints are the
    • A. 

      Scaphoid and lunate

    • B. 

      Triangular and scaphoid

    • C. 

      Triangular and pisiform

    • D. 

      Lunate and pisiform

  • 9. 
    Among the prominent bone markings of the tibia are the
    • A. 

      Interochanteric line, interochanteric crest, patellar surface

    • B. 

      Anterior crest, tibial tuberosity, medial malleolus

    • C. 

      Lateral malleolus, anterior crest, interosseous crest

    • D. 

      Medial malleolus, lateral malleolus, tibial crest

  • 10. 
    The mastoid process is a bony extension of the
    • A. 

      Occipital bone

    • B. 

      Parietal bone

    • C. 

      Sphenoid bone

    • D. 

      Temporal bone

  • 11. 
    The sella turcica, supporting the pituitary gland, is part of the
    • A. 

      Frontal bone

    • B. 

      Sphenoid bone

    • C. 

      Nasal bone

    • D. 

      Ethmoid bone

  • 12. 
    A structural feature of a typical cervical vertebra is
    • A. 

      A transverse foramen

    • B. 

      A dens

    • C. 

      A long spinous process

    • D. 

      A fovea

  • 13. 
    The head of the femur articulates with the
    • A. 

      Glenoid cavity

    • B. 

      Acetabulum

    • C. 

      Obturator foramen

    • D. 

      Patella

  • 14. 
    The medial malleolus is a process on the
    • A. 

      Tibia

    • B. 

      Calcaneus

    • C. 

      Fibula

    • D. 

      Talus

  • 15. 
    Which suture extends from the anterior to the posterior fontanel?
    • A. 

      Lambdoidal

    • B. 

      Coronal

    • C. 

      Squamosal

    • D. 

      Sagittal

  • 16. 
    The facial bone that is not paired is the
    • A. 

      Lacrimal

    • B. 

      Vomer

    • C. 

      Palatine

    • D. 

      Maxilla

  • 17. 
    Which is not part of the appendicular skeleton?
    • A. 

      Vertebral column

    • B. 

      Patella

    • C. 

      Clavicle

    • D. 

      Os coxae

  • 18. 
    Which pair of directional terms would describe movement along a frontal plane?
    • A. 

      Medial, lateral

    • B. 

      Anterior, posterior

    • C. 

      Proximal, rostral

    • D. 

      Cephalic, dorsal

  • 19. 
    Which portion of the sternum attaches to the greatest number of ribs?
    • A. 

      Manubrium

    • B. 

      Body

    • C. 

      Xiphoid process

    • D. 

      Os coxae

  • 20. 
    The three functional classes of articulations are:
    • A. 

      Synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diathrosis

    • B. 

      Gomphosis, synchondrosis, synostosis

    • C. 

      Syndesmosis, symphysis, amphiarthrosis

    • D. 

      Monaxial, biaxial, triaxial

  • 21. 
    The type of synovial joint in which angular movement is limited to a single axis is a:
    • A. 

      Hinge joint

    • B. 

      Ball and socket joint

    • C. 

      Saddle joint

    • D. 

      Ellipsoidal joint

  • 22. 
    Which of the following is not characteristic of all synovial joints?
    • A. 

      A meniscus

    • B. 

      Articular cartilage

    • C. 

      A joint capsule

    • D. 

      Synovial fluid

  • 23. 
    Which joint is a combination of a gliding joint and a hinge joint?
    • A. 

      Sternoclavicular joint

    • B. 

      Elbow joint

    • C. 

      Temporomandibular joint

    • D. 

      Tibiofemoral joint (knee)

  • 24. 
    Extending the hand to accept something placed in it requires:
    • A. 

      Pronation and rotation

    • B. 

      Flexion and abduction

    • C. 

      Extension and supination

    • D. 

      Flexion and inversion

  • 25. 
    True statements about the boundary of the nasal cavity include:
    • A. 

      A. cribriform plate forms part of the roof

    • B. 

      B. maxilla forms the floor of the cavity

    • C. 

      C. vomer forms the lateral wall of the cavity

    • D. 

      D. palatine forms part of the roof

    • E. 

      E. only a and b

  • 26. 
    The sphenoid bone transmits the following structures:
    • A. 

      A. middle meningeal artery

    • B. 

      B. mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve

    • C. 

      C. optic nerve

    • D. 

      D. internal carotid artery

    • E. 

      E. only c. d. are correct

  • 27. 
    The following bones forms the inner part of the middle cranial fossa:
    • A. 

      The ethmoid

    • B. 

      The greater wing of the sphenoid

    • C. 

      The petreous part of the temporal bone

    • D. 

      The mastoid process

    • E. 

      The occipital bone

  • 28. 
    The following are foramina within the sphenoid bone except:
    • A. 

      Foramen ovale

    • B. 

      Foramen spinosum

    • C. 

      Foramen rotundum

    • D. 

      Nternal acoustic meatus

    • E. 

      Pterygoid canal

  • 29. 
    The following structures are made up of the dura mater:
    • A. 

      Tela choroidea

    • B. 

      The cisterna magna

    • C. 

      The diaphragma sellae

    • D. 

      Falx cerebelli

    • E. 

      Falx cerebri

  • 30. 
    The optic canal is formed by:
    • A. 

      The greater wing of the sphenoid

    • B. 

      The lesser wing of the sphenoid

    • C. 

      The frontal bone

    • D. 

      The temporal bone

    • E. 

      The lacrimal bone

  • 31. 
    The following are true:
    • A. 

      the sphenoid sinus drains into the superior meatus

    • B. 

      the frontal sinus drains into the superior meatus

    • C. 

      the maxillary sinus drains into the middle meatus

    • D. 

      the nasolacrimal duct drains into the inferior meatus

    • E. 

      the posterior ethmoidal sinus drains into the superior meatus

  • 32. 
    The jugular foramen:
    • A. 

      Lies between the occipital and temporal bones

    • B. 

      Is lateral to the carotid foramen

    • C. 

      Contains the superior ganglia of the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerve

    • D. 

      Is medial to the orifice of emergence of the hypoglossal nerve

    • E. 

      Transmits the inferior petrosal sinus. ace

  • 33. 
    The following normally drain into the middle meatus of the nose:
    • A. 

      Frontal sinus

    • B. 

      Maxillary sinus

    • C. 

      Posterior ethmoidal air cells

    • D. 

      Middle ethmoidal air cells

    • E. 

      Nasolacrimal duct

  • 34. 
    The ethmoid bone is part of the
    • A. 

      Medial wall of the orbit

    • B. 

      Medial wall of the maxillary sinus

    • C. 

      Anterior cranial fossa

    • D. 

      Septum of the nose

    • E. 

      Lacrimal fossa

  • 35. 
    The infratemporal fossa:
    • A. 

      Lies below the middle cranial fossa

    • B. 

      Is partly bounded by the styloid process and carotid sheath

    • C. 

      Contains the otic ganglion

    • D. 

      Is enclosed by a dense fibrous capsule

    • E. 

      Contains the greater part of the parotid gland

  • 36. 
    The sella turcica that supports the pituitary gland is located in which bone?
    • A. 

      The ethmoid bone

    • B. 

      The frontal bone

    • C. 

      The sphenoid bone

    • D. 

      The occipital bone

  • 37. 
    The process of hemopoiesis occurs in
    • A. 

      Osteons

    • B. 

      The periosteum

    • C. 

      Yellow bone marrow

    • D. 

      Red bone marrow

  • 38. 
    During bone formation, the primary center of ossification forms in the
    • A. 

      Proximal epiphysis

    • B. 

      Distal epiphysis

    • C. 

      Epiphyseal plate

    • D. 

      Diaphysis

    • E. 

      Metaphysis

  • 39. 
    The function of the epiphyseal plate is to
    • A. 

      A) allow more flexibility in a long bone

    • B. 

      B) allow the bone increase in diameter

    • C. 

      C) allow the bone increase in length

    • D. 

      D) provide nourishment to isolated osteocytes

    • E. 

      E) both B and C are correct

  • 40. 
    Osteons are typical of the stucture of
    • A. 

      Compact bone

    • B. 

      Epiphyseal plates

    • C. 

      Spongy bone

    • D. 

      The endosteum

  • 41. 
    Friction reduction and shock absorption are functions of
    • A. 

      The articular cartilage

    • B. 

      The periosteum

    • C. 

      The epiphyseal plate

    • D. 

      The bone marrow

  • 42. 
    All of the following bones would be produced via endochondral ossification except the
    • A. 

      Tibia

    • B. 

      Femur

    • C. 

      Parietal

    • D. 

      Humerus

  • 43. 
    All of the following are part of the axial skeleton except the
    • A. 

      Occipital bone

    • B. 

      Hyoid bone

    • C. 

      Vertebrae

    • D. 

      Coxal bones

  • 44. 
    Which of the following sutures generally does not persist into adulthood
    • A. 

      Metopic

    • B. 

      Sagittal

    • C. 

      Coronal

    • D. 

      Lambdoid

  • 45. 
    The bones forming the greater portions of the sides and roof of the cranial cavity are the
    • A. 

      Frontals

    • B. 

      Temporals

    • C. 

      Sphenoids

    • D. 

      Occipitals

    • E. 

      Parietals

  • 46. 
    There are normally two of each of the following bones except the
    • A. 

      Vomer

    • B. 

      Maxilla

    • C. 

      Nasal

    • D. 

      Temporal

  • 47. 
    The carotid artery passes through the carotid canal in the
    • A. 

      Greater wings of the sphenoid bone

    • B. 

      Body of the sphenoid bone

    • C. 

      Mastoid process of the temporal bone

    • D. 

      Petrous portion of the temporal bone

  • 48. 
    The superior orbital fissure is located
    • A. 

      In the supraorbital margin

    • B. 

      Between the anterior aspects of the grea- ter and lesser wings of the sphenoid bone

    • C. 

      Between the petrous portion of the tem- poral bone and the occipital bone

    • D. 

      In the orbit between the sphenoid and ethmoid bones

    • E. 

      Between the lacrimal and nasal bones

  • 49. 
    The temporal bone articulates with all of the following except the
    • A. 

      Parietal bone

    • B. 

      Zygomatic bone

    • C. 

      Mandible

    • D. 

      Frontal bone

    • E. 

      Sphenoid bone

  • 50. 
    Directly anterior to the sphenoid bone and posterior to the nasal bones is the
    • A. 

      Zygomatic bone

    • B. 

      Vomer

    • C. 

      Hyoid bone

    • D. 

      Ethmoid bone

  • 51. 
    Paranasal sinuses are found in all of the following bones except
    • A. 

      Frontal bone

    • B. 

      Sphenoid bone

    • C. 

      Zygomatic bone

    • D. 

      Ethmoid bone

  • 52. 
    All of the following form part of the orbit except the
    • A. 

      Zygomatic bone

    • B. 

      Palatine bone

    • C. 

      Sphenoid bone

    • D. 

      Vomer

    • E. 

      Maxilla

  • 53. 
    All of the following foramina are in the sphenoid bone except the
    • A. 

      Foramen rotundum

    • B. 

      Superior orbital fissure

    • C. 

      Foramen ovale

    • D. 

      Optic canal

    • E. 

      Foramen lacerum

  • 54. 
    Which of the following is part of the elbow joint?
    • A. 

      Trochlear notch of the ulna

    • B. 

      Ulnar noch of the radius

    • C. 

      Head of the humerus

    • D. 

      Styloid process of the radius

  • 55. 
    All of the following are in the distal row of the carpal bones except
    • A. 

      Trapezium

    • B. 

      Trapezoid

    • C. 

      Triquetrum

    • D. 

      Hamate

  • 56. 
    The part of the tibia that articulates with the head of the fibula is
    • A. 

      Tibial tuberosity

    • B. 

      Medial malleolus

    • C. 

      Medial condyle

    • D. 

      Lateral condyle

  • 57. 
    The prominence that can be felt on the medial surface of the ankle is part of the
    • A. 

      Tibia

    • B. 

      Fibula

    • C. 

      Talus

    • D. 

      Calcaneus

  • 58. 
    When the forearm is flexed, which of the following is true?
    • A. 

      A) the olecranon moves into the olecranon fossa

    • B. 

      B) the coronoid process moves into the coronoid fossa

    • C. 

      C) the radial head moves into the radial fossa

    • D. 

      D) the radial head moves into glenoid fossa

    • E. 

      E) both B and C are correct

  • 59. 
    The radius articulates with the
    • A. 

      Lateral metacarpals

    • B. 

      Trapezoid

    • C. 

      Capitate

    • D. 

      Lunate

  • 60. 
    All of the following are true for the true pelvis except
    • A. 

      It surrounds the pelvic cavity

    • B. 

      Its inferior opening is the pelvic outlet

    • C. 

      It is bounded anteriorly by the abdominal wall

    • D. 

      It is bounded posteriorly by the sacrum and coccyx

    • E. 

      It is the part of the bony pelvis below the pelvic brim

  • 61. 
    Which of the following best describes inversion?
    • A. 

      Raising up on balls of feet to stand on toes

    • B. 

      Rocking back on heels

    • C. 

      Turning soles of feet away from each other

    • D. 

      Turning soles of feet to face each other

  • 62. 
    A movement that increases the angle between articulating bones is
    • A. 

      Abduction

    • B. 

      Adduction

    • C. 

      Flexion

    • D. 

      Extension

    • E. 

      Rotation

  • 63. 
    The type of movement normally seen at pivot joints is
    • A. 

      Abduction and adduction

    • B. 

      Rotation

    • C. 

      Flexion and extension

    • D. 

      Protraction and retraction

    • E. 

      Inversion and eversion

  • 64. 
    When your palms are lying flat on the table, your forearms are
    • A. 

      Inverted

    • B. 

      Everted

    • C. 

      Pronated

    • D. 

      Supinated

    • E. 

      Dorsiflexed