Proteins And Non-protein Nitrogen Compoounds Final Examination 2019

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Proteins And Non-protein Nitrogen Compoounds Final Examination 2019 - Quiz

You have 1 hr to take this examination. No cheating, you know the drill. God bless!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1. Which proteins are specifically affected? (2 pts) 2. Why are these proteins affected? (5 pts) 3. Give a condition that shows this serum protein electrophoretic pattern. (2 pts)

  • 2. 

    1. Which proteins are specifically affected? (2 pts) 2. Why are these proteins affected? (5 pts) 3. Give a condition that shows this serum protein electrophoretic pattern. (2 pts)

  • 3. 

    1. Which proteins are specifically affected? (2 pts) 2. Why are these proteins affected? (5 pts) 3. Give a condition that shows this serum protein electrophoretic pattern. (2 pts)

  • 4. 

    The acute phase reactant proteins include all of the following, except:

    • A.

      Transferrin

    • B.

      Alpha 1 atitrypsin

    • C.

      Haptoglobin

    • D.

      Fibrinogen

    Correct Answer
    A. Transferrin
    Explanation
    Acute phase reactant proteins are proteins that are produced by the liver in response to inflammation or infection. They help to modulate the immune response and promote tissue repair. Transferrin, however, is not considered an acute phase reactant protein. Transferrin is a protein that is involved in iron transport and is not directly involved in the acute phase response.

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  • 5. 

    A peptide bond is

    • A.

      Amino group and carboxyl group bonded to the alpha carbon

    • B.

      ​​​​​A double carbon bond

    • C.

      ​​​​​A tertiary ring of amino group and carboxyl group boned to the alpha carbon

    • D.

      ​​​​​​Two amino groups bonded to the alpha carbon

    Correct Answer
    C. ​​​​​A tertiary ring of amino group and carboxyl group boned to the alpha carbon
  • 6. 

    1. The process of separating albumin from globulins using sodium sulfate is known as:

    • A.

      Floatation

    • B.

      Salting out

    • C.

      Ultracentrifugation

    • D.

      Protein precipitation

    Correct Answer
    B. Salting out
    Explanation
    Salting out is the process of separating proteins by adding a high concentration of a salt, such as sodium sulfate, to a protein solution. This causes the proteins to precipitate out of solution due to the decrease in solubility. In this case, albumin is separated from globulins by adding sodium sulfate, which causes the globulins to precipitate while the albumin remains in solution. Therefore, the correct answer is salting out.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is NOT true of the biuret reaction?

    • A.

      Follows Beer’s Law for a measurable range of protein

    • B.

      Depends on the presence of at least two peptide linkages

    • C.

      ​​​​​​Is relatively free from interference by lipids and hemoglobin

    • D.

      ​​​​​Is insensitive to the low protein levels of urine

    Correct Answer
    C. ​​​​​​Is relatively free from interference by lipids and hemoglobin
    Explanation
    The biuret reaction is a biochemical test used to detect the presence of proteins in a sample. It involves the reaction between copper ions and peptide bonds in proteins, resulting in a color change. The given statement suggests that the biuret reaction is relatively free from interference by lipids and hemoglobin. This means that lipids and hemoglobin do not significantly affect the accuracy of the test results. However, this statement is not true. Lipids and hemoglobin can interfere with the biuret reaction and lead to inaccurate protein measurements.

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  • 8. 

    Why is bromcresol purple the preferred indicator for albumin dye binding technique?

    • A.

      It lends itself to manual and automated procedures best

    • B.

      ​​​​​​It never bind with alpha and beta globulins

    • C.

      It can be employed with heparinized plasma

    • D.

      ​​​​​​There is less interference from the pigment

    Correct Answer
    D. ​​​​​​There is less interference from the pigment
    Explanation
    Bromcresol purple is the preferred indicator for the albumin dye binding technique because it has less interference from the pigment. This means that it provides a more accurate and reliable measurement of albumin levels in a sample. Other indicators may be affected by the presence of pigments, which can lead to inaccurate results. Therefore, bromcresol purple is the preferred choice as it minimizes the potential for interference and ensures the most precise measurement of albumin levels.

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  • 9. 

    All of the following are glycoproteins, except

    • A.

      Ceruloplasmin

    • B.

      Follicle stimulating hormone

    • C.

      Fibrinogen

    • D.

      Cryoglobulin

    Correct Answer
    A. Ceruloplasmin
    Explanation
    Ceruloplasmin is not a glycoprotein because it is a copper-binding protein found in the blood. Glycoproteins are proteins that have carbohydrate chains attached to them, and they play important roles in various biological processes. However, ceruloplasmin does not have these carbohydrate chains attached to it, making it the exception among the given options.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following statements is true of albumin?

    • A.

      ​​​​​​Compared to globulin, it makes up the lesser portion of total protein

    • B.

      ​​​​​​Its size prevents its passage through a damaged glomerular barrier

    • C.

      It is produced in the liver

    • D.

      Clinical problems are usually related to high serum values

    Correct Answer
    C. It is produced in the liver
    Explanation
    Albumin is a protein that is primarily produced in the liver. It is the most abundant protein in the blood plasma and plays a crucial role in maintaining oncotic pressure and transporting various substances such as hormones, drugs, and fatty acids. It is also responsible for regulating fluid balance in the body. Therefore, the statement "It is produced in the liver" is true.

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  • 11. 

    1. An elevated creatinine value is most likely to be accompanied by which of these values?

    • A.

      ​​​Normal uric acid

    • B.

      ​​​​​​Elevated uric acid, 10x creatinine value

    • C.

      Normal blood urea nitrogen

    • D.

      Elevated blood urea nitrogen, 10x creatinine value

    Correct Answer
    A. ​​​Normal uric acid
    Explanation
    An elevated creatinine value indicates impaired kidney function, as creatinine is a waste product that is normally filtered out by the kidneys. When kidney function is compromised, the clearance of uric acid is also affected, leading to elevated uric acid levels. Therefore, it is most likely that an elevated creatinine value would be accompanied by elevated uric acid levels, rather than normal uric acid levels. Normal blood urea nitrogen levels would also be expected, as elevated blood urea nitrogen levels typically indicate kidney dysfunction.

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  • 12. 

    The conversion of blood urea nitrogen to urea is:

    • A.

      2.10

    • B.

      2.14

    • C.

      3.14

    • D.

      6.25

    Correct Answer
    B. 2.14
    Explanation
    The conversion of blood urea nitrogen to urea is 2.14.

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  • 13. 

    Urinary creatine is elevated in which of the following?

    • A.

      Cirhhosis of the liver

    • B.

      Kidney failure

    • C.

      Muscle destruction

    • D.

      Intestinal blockage

    Correct Answer
    C. Muscle destruction
    Explanation
    Urinary creatine is elevated in cases of muscle destruction. Creatine is a molecule that is naturally found in muscle cells and is involved in energy production during muscle contractions. When muscle tissue is damaged or destroyed, such as in cases of injury or certain diseases, creatine is released into the bloodstream and eventually excreted in the urine. Therefore, elevated urinary creatine levels can indicate muscle destruction.

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  • 14. 

    The specificity of the Jaffe reaction can be enhanced by:

    • A.

      Adsorption with Lloyd's reagent

    • B.

      Boiling

    • C.

      Prior treatment with uricase

    • D.

      Prior treatment with urease

    Correct Answer
    A. Adsorption with Lloyd's reagent
    Explanation
    Adsorption with Lloyd's reagent can enhance the specificity of the Jaffe reaction. Lloyd's reagent is a substance that can selectively bind to certain compounds, in this case, it can specifically bind to interfering substances that may be present in the sample. By adsorbing these interfering substances, they are removed from the sample, allowing for a more accurate and specific measurement of the analyte of interest. This improves the reliability and accuracy of the Jaffe reaction for detecting the target compound.

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  • 15. 

    Proteins are precipitated by which of the following reagents in the Turbidimetric method?

    • A.

      Phosphomolybdotungstic acid

    • B.

      Tricholoroacetic acid

    • C.

      Hydrochroloric acid

    • D.

      Sodium hydroxide

    Correct Answer
    B. Tricholoroacetic acid
    Explanation
    Trichloroacetic acid is used to precipitate proteins in the Turbidimetric method. This reagent causes proteins to denature and aggregate, leading to their precipitation.

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  • 16. 

    Ceruloplasmin is an alpha 1 globulin that binds:

    • A.

      Manganese

    • B.

      Iron

    • C.

      Cobalt

    • D.

      Copper

    Correct Answer
    D. Copper
    Explanation
    Ceruloplasmin is an alpha 1 globulin that binds copper. This means that ceruloplasmin has the ability to bind and transport copper ions in the body. Copper is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes, including the formation of red blood cells, energy production, and the function of the immune system. Ceruloplasmin helps to regulate copper levels in the body, ensuring that it is properly utilized and transported to where it is needed.

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  • 17. 

    The following pattern of serum protein electrophoresis is obtained:                 albumin: decreased                 A1 and A2 globulins: increased                 Gamma globulins: normal This pattern is characteristic of which of the following conditions?

    • A.

      Acute inflammation

    • B.

      Cirrhosis

    • C.

      Nephrotic syndrome

    • D.

      Gammopathy

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute inflammation
    Explanation
    The given pattern of serum protein electrophoresis with decreased albumin and increased A1 and A2 globulins is characteristic of acute inflammation. Inflammation causes a decrease in albumin production and an increase in acute phase reactant proteins, such as A1 and A2 globulins. The gamma globulins, which include immunoglobulins, remain normal in acute inflammation. Therefore, the correct answer is acute inflammation.

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  • 18. 

    The protein electrophoretic pattern of plasma, as compared with serum, reveals a

    • A.

      Fibrinogen peak between the beta and gamma globulins

    • B.

      ​​​​​​Broad increase in the gamma globulins

    • C.

      ​​​​​​Fibrinogen peak with the A2 globulins

    • D.

      ​​​​​​Decreased albumin peak

    Correct Answer
    A. Fibrinogen peak between the beta and gamma globulins
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the protein electrophoretic pattern of plasma, as compared with serum, reveals a fibrinogen peak between the beta and gamma globulins. This means that when analyzing the protein composition of plasma using electrophoresis, a distinct peak for fibrinogen can be observed between the beta and gamma globulins. This peak indicates the presence of fibrinogen, a protein involved in blood clotting, and helps to differentiate plasma from serum, which does not contain fibrinogen.

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  • 19. 

    An immunofixation protein electrophoresis is performed on serum from a patient with the most common type of multiple myeloma. The resulting pattern revealed:

    • A.

      Monoclonal bands of the IgG type

    • B.

      Oligoclonal bands

    • C.

      Beta-gamma bridging

    • D.

      Monoclonal bands of the IgM type

    Correct Answer
    A. Monoclonal bands of the IgG type
    Explanation
    The immunofixation protein electrophoresis revealed monoclonal bands of the IgG type. This finding is consistent with the most common type of multiple myeloma, which is characterized by the proliferation of plasma cells that produce excessive amounts of monoclonal IgG antibodies. The presence of monoclonal bands indicates clonal expansion of a single population of plasma cells, while the IgG type suggests the specific class of immunoglobulin being produced. This information is valuable for diagnosing and monitoring multiple myeloma.

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  • 20. 

    When a protein is dissolved in a buffer solution, the pH of which is more alkaline than the pI, and an electric current is passed through the solution, the protein will act as

    • A.

      An anion and migrate to the anode

    • B.

      A cation and migrate to the cathode

    • C.

      ​​​​​An anion and migrate to the cathode

    • D.

      ​​​​​​An uncharged particle and will not move

    Correct Answer
    A. An anion and migrate to the anode
    Explanation
    When a protein is dissolved in a buffer solution with a pH more alkaline than its isoelectric point (pI), it will have a net negative charge. When an electric current is passed through the solution, the protein will act as an anion and migrate towards the anode, which is the positively charged electrode. This is because opposite charges attract each other, causing the negatively charged protein to move towards the positively charged electrode.

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  • 21. 

    Distinct oligoclonal bands in the gamma zone on CSF protein electrophoresis are diagnostic of

    • A.

      Neoplasms

    • B.

      Multiple myeloma

    • C.

      ​​​​​​Waldentrom’s macroglobulinemia

    • D.

      Myoglobulinemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Neoplasms
    Explanation
    Distinct oligoclonal bands in the gamma zone on CSF protein electrophoresis are diagnostic of neoplasms. Oligoclonal bands are abnormal bands of immunoglobulins that indicate the presence of a clonal population of B cells or plasma cells. In the context of CSF protein electrophoresis, the presence of oligoclonal bands in the gamma zone suggests an abnormal immune response in the central nervous system, which is commonly seen in neoplastic conditions such as lymphoma or leukemia involving the CNS. Therefore, the presence of distinct oligoclonal bands in the gamma zone is indicative of neoplasms.

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  • 22. 

    In a patient with nephrotic syndrome, the total protein levels in urine would be:

    • A.

      Normal

    • B.

      Lower than normal 

    • C.

      Higher than normal

    • D.

      Lower albumin levels and higher levels of IgG

    Correct Answer
    C. Higher than normal
    Explanation
    In nephrotic syndrome, there is increased permeability of the glomerular filtration barrier, leading to excessive loss of protein in the urine. This results in higher than normal levels of protein in the urine.

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  • 23. 

    Ammonia concentration are usually measured to evaluate

    • A.

      Acid-base status

    • B.

      Glomerular filtration

    • C.

      Hepatic encephalopathy

    • D.

      Renal failure

    Correct Answer
    C. Hepatic encephalopathy
    Explanation
    Ammonia concentration is usually measured to evaluate hepatic encephalopathy. Hepatic encephalopathy is a condition that occurs when the liver is unable to remove toxins, including ammonia, from the blood. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion, disorientation, and even coma. Therefore, measuring ammonia concentration is important in diagnosing and monitoring hepatic encephalopathy.

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  • 24. 

    A urea N result of 9 mg/dL is obtained by a technologist. What is the urea concentration?

    • A.

      3.2 mg/dL

    • B.

      4.2 mg/dL

    • C.

      18.0 mg/dL

    • D.

      19.3 mg/dL

    Correct Answer
    D. 19.3 mg/dL
  • 25. 

    Uric acid is the final product of:

    • A.

      Allantoin metabolism            

    • B.

      Purine metabolism

    • C.

      Amino acid metabolism

    • D.

      Urea cycle

    Correct Answer
    B. Purine metabolism
    Explanation
    Uric acid is the final product of purine metabolism. Purines are nitrogenous compounds that are broken down into uric acid through a series of enzymatic reactions. This process occurs in the liver and results in the production of uric acid, which is then excreted by the kidneys. Purine metabolism is important for the regulation of uric acid levels in the body, and abnormalities in this pathway can lead to conditions such as gout.

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  • 26. 

    In the Jaffe reaction, a red-orange chromogen is formed when creatinine reacts with:

    • A.

      Aluminum magnesium silicate

    • B.

      Creatininase

    • C.

      Phosphocreatinine

    • D.

      Picric acid

    Correct Answer
    D. Picric acid
    Explanation
    In the Jaffe reaction, a red-orange chromogen is formed when creatinine reacts with picric acid. This reaction is commonly used to measure the concentration of creatinine in biological samples, such as urine. Picric acid reacts with creatinine to form a red-orange complex, which can be easily measured spectrophotometrically. This reaction is based on the ability of picric acid to react with the amino group of creatinine, resulting in the formation of the chromogen. The intensity of the color produced is directly proportional to the concentration of creatinine in the sample.

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  • 27. 

    A complete deficiency of hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase results in which disease?

    • A.

      Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

    • B.

      Maple Syrup Urine Disease

    • C.

      Megaloblastic anemia

    • D.

      Severe Combined Immunodeficiency

    Correct Answer
    A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
    Explanation
    Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is caused by a complete deficiency of hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT), an enzyme involved in the salvage pathway of purine metabolism. This deficiency leads to the accumulation of uric acid and the development of severe neurological symptoms, including self-mutilation, intellectual disability, and spasticity. Therefore, the correct answer is Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.

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  • 28. 

    When measuring ammonia blood levels, which of the following might cause a false increase in this analyte?

    • A.

      Px had two cigarettes 15 minutes prior to blood drawn

    • B.

      Px was fasting for hours prior to blood collection

    • C.

      Blood sample was maintained on ice

    • D.

      Px had steak dinner the night before the blood draw

    Correct Answer
    A. Px had two cigarettes 15 minutes prior to blood drawn
    Explanation
    Smoking cigarettes can cause an increase in ammonia levels in the blood. This is because tobacco smoke contains chemicals that can lead to the breakdown of proteins in the body, resulting in the release of ammonia. Therefore, if the patient had two cigarettes 15 minutes prior to the blood draw, it could lead to a false increase in ammonia levels.

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  • 29. 

    The Kjeldahl technique is the reference method for the determination of serum total protein. This method is based on the:

    • A.

      Quantitation of peptide bonds

    • B.

      Determination of the refractive index of proteins

    • C.

      Ultraviolet light absorption by aromatic rings at 280 nm

    • D.

      Quantitation of the nitrogen content of protein

    Correct Answer
    D. Quantitation of the nitrogen content of protein
    Explanation
    The Kjeldahl technique is used to determine the nitrogen content of proteins. This method involves digesting the protein sample with sulfuric acid, which converts the nitrogen in the protein into ammonium sulfate. The ammonium sulfate is then converted into ammonia by adding sodium hydroxide. The amount of ammonia produced is then measured using titration. Since proteins contain a known amount of nitrogen, the nitrogen content can be used to calculate the protein concentration in the sample. Therefore, the Kjeldahl technique is based on the quantitation of the nitrogen content of protein.

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  • 30. 

    A commonly used method for the quantitation of serum total proteins is the biuret procedure. The intensity of the color produced in the biuret reaction is dependent on:

    • A.

      The molecular weight of the protein

    • B.

      The acidity of the medium

    • C.

      Carbonate-free NaOH

    • D.

      The number of peptide bonds

    Correct Answer
    D. The number of peptide bonds
    Explanation
    The intensity of the color produced in the biuret reaction is dependent on the number of peptide bonds. This is because the biuret reagent reacts with peptide bonds in proteins to form a purple-colored complex. The more peptide bonds present in a protein, the more intense the color will be, indicating a higher concentration of proteins in the serum sample. Therefore, the number of peptide bonds is a crucial factor in the quantitation of serum total proteins using the biuret procedure.

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  • 31. 

    The intensity of the color produced in the biuret reaction is dependent on the number of complexes formed between cupric ions and the peptide bonds of a protein. In order for this reaction to take place, it is necessary that the number of peptide bonds be at least:

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The biuret reaction involves the formation of complexes between cupric ions and peptide bonds in a protein. The intensity of the color produced in this reaction is dependent on the number of these complexes formed. In order for the reaction to take place, there must be at least 2 peptide bonds present.

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  • 32. 

    Proteins may become denatured when subjected to mechanical agitation, heat, or extreme chemical treatment. Denaturation of proteins refers to:

    • A.

      Alteration in 2o structure

    • B.

      Alteration in 3o structure

    • C.

      Alteration in 1o structure

    • D.

      Breaking of a peptide bond

    Correct Answer
    B. Alteration in 3o structure
    Explanation
    Denaturation of proteins refers to the alteration in the tertiary (3o) structure of the protein. This can occur due to various factors such as mechanical agitation, heat, or extreme chemical treatment. The 3o structure of a protein is the overall three-dimensional arrangement of its secondary structures, and denaturation disrupts this arrangement. It does not involve the alteration of the primary (1o) structure, which refers to the sequence of amino acids in the protein, or the breaking of a peptide bond.

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  • 33. 

    A glycoprotein that binds with hemoglobin to facilitate the removal of hemoglobin by the reticuloendothelial system is:

    • A.

      Haptoglobin

    • B.

      Ceruloplasmin

    • C.

      Alpha 1 antitrypsin

    • D.

      C-reactive protein

    Correct Answer
    A. Haptoglobin
    Explanation
    Haptoglobin is a glycoprotein that binds with hemoglobin in order to facilitate its removal by the reticuloendothelial system. This process is important for the clearance of free hemoglobin from the bloodstream, preventing its accumulation and potential damage to tissues. Haptoglobin acts as a scavenger, binding to hemoglobin released from damaged red blood cells and forming a complex that can be recognized and cleared by cells of the reticuloendothelial system.

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  • 34. 

    In serum protein electrophoresis, when a buffer solution at pH 8.6 is used, the proteins will:

    • A.

      Have a net negative charge

    • B.

      Have a net positivecharge

    • C.

      Be neutrally charged

    • D.

      Migrate toward the cathode

    Correct Answer
    A. Have a net negative charge
    Explanation
    When a buffer solution at pH 8.6 is used in serum protein electrophoresis, the proteins will have a net negative charge. This is because at pH 8.6, the solution is more alkaline and has a higher concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-). The hydroxide ions will interact with the proteins, causing them to lose hydrogen ions (H+) and become negatively charged. As a result, the proteins will migrate towards the cathode, which is the positively charged electrode, in the electrophoresis process.

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  • 35. 

    A congenital disorder that is characterized by a split in the albumin band when serum is subjected to electrophoresis is known as _____, usually caused by _____:

    • A.

      Analbuminemia; tetracycline  

    • B.

      Analbuminemia; penicillin         

    • C.

      Bisalbuminemia; penicillin         

    • D.

      Bisalbuminemia; tetracycline

    Correct Answer
    C. Bisalbuminemia; penicillin         
  • 36. 

    In cases of hepatoma, protein that is not normally found in adult serum but is synthesized by liver cells is:

    • A.

      α1-acid glycoprotein

    • B.

      α1-fetoprotein

    • C.

      α2-macroglobulin

    • D.

      Hemopexin

    Correct Answer
    B. α1-fetoprotein
    Explanation
    In cases of hepatoma, α1-fetoprotein is synthesized by liver cells. This protein is not normally found in adult serum, but its presence can be detected in the blood of individuals with hepatoma.

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  • 37. 

    The acute phase reactant protein that is able to inhibit enzymatic proteolysis and has a high concentration of among the the plasma proteolytic inhibitors is:

    • A.

      C-reactive protein

    • B.

      α2-antichymotrypsin

    • C.

      α2-macroglobulin

    • D.

      α1-antitrypsin

    Correct Answer
    D. α1-antitrypsin
    Explanation
    Alpha-1 antitrypsin is an acute phase reactant protein that is able to inhibit enzymatic proteolysis. It is one of the plasma proteolytic inhibitors and is known to have a high concentration among them. C-reactive protein is also an acute phase reactant protein, but it does not have a high concentration among the plasma proteolytic inhibitors. Alpha-2 antichymotrypsin and alpha-2 macroglobulin are also acute phase reactant proteins, but they are not specifically known for inhibiting enzymatic proteolysis. Therefore, the correct answer is alpha-1 antitrypsin.

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  • 38. 

    Portal cirrhosis is a chronic disease of the liver. Observed on an electrophoretic serum protein pattern, a predominant

    • A.

      A monoclonal band in the gamma region

    • B.

      A polyclonal band in the gamma region

    • C.

      A bridging between the beta and gamma region

    • D.

      An increase in the α2-Globulin band

    Correct Answer
    A. A monoclonal band in the gamma region
    Explanation
    A monoclonal band in the gamma region on an electrophoretic serum protein pattern suggests the presence of a specific type of protein called a monoclonal immunoglobulin. This finding is commonly seen in conditions such as multiple myeloma, a type of blood cancer that affects plasma cells. In multiple myeloma, abnormal plasma cells produce large amounts of monoclonal immunoglobulins, which can be detected as a distinct band on electrophoresis. Therefore, the presence of a monoclonal band in the gamma region is indicative of a potential diagnosis of multiple myeloma or another condition associated with abnormal production of monoclonal immunoglobulins.

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  • 39. 

    Dye-binding methods are used for the quantitation of albumin in serum without the preliminary extraction of the globulins. An anionic dye that binds selectively with albumin is:

    • A.

      Amido black 

    • B.

      Ninhydrin

    • C.

      Ponceu S

    • D.

      Bromcresol green

    Correct Answer
    D. Bromcresol green
    Explanation
    Bromcresol green is an anionic dye that selectively binds with albumin. This dye-binding method allows for the quantitation of albumin in serum without the need for preliminary extraction of globulins. By using bromcresol green, the albumin can be specifically measured without interference from other proteins.

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  • 40. 

    The liver is the primary source of the plasma proteins. All of the following plasma proteins are manufactured by the liver, except:

    • A.

      Albumin

    • B.

      Haptoglobin

    • C.

      Fibrinogen

    • D.

      IgG

    Correct Answer
    D. IgG
    Explanation
    IgG is not manufactured by the liver. IgG is an immunoglobulin that is produced by plasma cells in the immune system. It is one of the five main types of antibodies and is involved in immune responses against pathogens. The liver is responsible for producing other plasma proteins such as albumin, haptoglobin, and fibrinogen.

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  • 41. 

    Multiple myeloma, a plasma cell dyscrasia that usually affects persons over the age of 40 years, may be characterized by all of the following except:

    • A.

      A monoclonal band in the gamma region

    • B.

      Hyperalbuminemia

    • C.

      Hyperproteinemia

    • D.

      Hyperglobulinemia

    Correct Answer
    B. Hyperalbuminemia
    Explanation
    Multiple myeloma is a condition characterized by the proliferation of abnormal plasma cells in the bone marrow. These abnormal plasma cells produce excessive amounts of immunoglobulins, leading to hyperproteinemia and hyperglobulinemia. However, hyperalbuminemia, which refers to elevated levels of albumin in the blood, is not typically associated with multiple myeloma. Instead, hypoalbuminemia, or low levels of albumin, may be seen due to the displacement of albumin by the increased levels of immunoglobulins. Therefore, the correct answer is hyperalbuminemia.

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  • 42. 

    Protein compounds contain approximately 16% nitrogen.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Protein compounds contain approximately 16% nitrogen because nitrogen is an essential component of amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins. Amino acids contain both carbon and nitrogen atoms, and when they combine in a specific sequence, they form proteins. The nitrogen content in proteins is essential for various biological processes, including growth, repair, and the synthesis of enzymes and hormones. Therefore, it is true that protein compounds contain approximately 16% nitrogen.

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  • 43. 

    The following are transport proteins, except

    • A.

      Transferrin

    • B.

      C-reactive protein

    • C.

      Ceruloplasmin

    • D.

      Albumin

    Correct Answer
    B. C-reactive protein
    Explanation
    C-reactive protein is not a transport protein. Transferrin, ceruloplasmin, and albumin are all examples of transport proteins. Transferrin is responsible for transporting iron in the blood, ceruloplasmin transports copper, and albumin carries various substances such as hormones, fatty acids, and drugs. C-reactive protein, on the other hand, is an acute-phase protein that is produced in response to inflammation in the body. It is not involved in the transport of substances.

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  • 44. 

    The following are specific stains for proteins, except for one.

    • A.

      Scharlach R

    • B.

      Ponceau S

    • C.

      Amido black

    • D.

      Coomassie brilliant blue

    Correct Answer
    A. Scharlach R
    Explanation
    Scharlach R is not a specific stain for proteins, unlike the other three options. Ponceau S, Amido black, and Coomassie brilliant blue are commonly used stains to visualize and detect proteins in various laboratory techniques such as Western blotting and protein gel electrophoresis. However, Scharlach R is not commonly used for protein staining and is more commonly used as a dye for textiles.

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  • 45. 

    The following are classified under beta globulins: I   – Ceruloplasmin                          IV - Complement II  – Fibrinogen                                V  - Hemopexin III – C reactive protein                    VI – Haptoglobin

    • A.

      II, I, IV

    • B.

      II, III, IV

    • C.

      II, IV, V

    • D.

      II, V, VI

    Correct Answer
    B. II, III, IV
    Explanation
    The correct answer is II, III, IV. This is because fibrinogen, C reactive protein, and complement are all classified under beta globulins. Hemopexin and haptoglobin are classified under alpha globulins, and ceruloplasmin is classified under gamma globulins.

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  • 46. 

    Which protein is also used as a marker for Alzheimer’s disease?

    • A.

      ​​​​​​Alpha 1 anti-trypsin

    • B.

      ​​​​​​Gc – globulin

    • C.

      ​​​​​​Alpha 1 microglobulin

    • D.

      ​​​​​​Alpha 1 anti-chymotrypsin

    Correct Answer
    D. ​​​​​​Alpha 1 anti-chymotrypsin
    Explanation
    Alpha 1 anti-chymotrypsin is used as a marker for Alzheimer's disease. This protein is found in the brain and its levels have been found to be elevated in individuals with Alzheimer's disease. It is believed that this protein plays a role in the development and progression of the disease. Therefore, measuring the levels of alpha 1 anti-chymotrypsin can help in the diagnosis and monitoring of Alzheimer's disease.

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  • 47. 

    The following are classified under alpha 1 globulins: I  - lipoproteins                               IV - Fetoprotein II – Macroglobulin                           V – Anti-trypsin III – Fibrinogen                                VI – Transferrin

    • A.

      I, II, III

    • B.

      I, III, IV

    • C.

      I, IV, V

    • D.

      I, V, VI

    Correct Answer
    C. I, IV, V
    Explanation
    Alpha 1 globulins are a group of proteins that are classified based on their migration pattern during electrophoresis. Lipoproteins, Fetoprotein, and Anti-trypsin are all classified as alpha 1 globulins. Therefore, the correct answer is I, IV, V.

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  • 48. 

    (I) C – reactive protein increases one thousand times during inflammation. (II) Copper levels in the human is increased under the condition of Menke’s kinky hair syndrome.

    • A.

      ​​​​​​First statement is true, second statement is false

    • B.

      ​​​​​​First statement is false, second statement is true

    • C.

      Both statements are true

    • D.

      Both statements are false

    Correct Answer
    A. ​​​​​​First statement is true, second statement is false
    Explanation
    The first statement is true because C-reactive protein does indeed increase significantly during inflammation. However, the second statement is false because Menke's kinky hair syndrome is actually characterized by low levels of copper in the body, not increased levels.

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  • 49. 

    (I) It is nephrotoxic (II) It is regarded as the gold standard in acute myocardial infarction

    • A.

      (I) Troponin T; (II) myoglobin

    • B.

      ​​​​​​(I) Ammonia; (II) Troponin I

    • C.

      ​​​​​​(I) Uric acid; (II) BNP

    • D.

      (I) Myoglobin; (II) Troponin I

    Correct Answer
    A. (I) Troponin T; (II) myoglobin
    Explanation
    Troponin T is a protein that is released into the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart muscle, specifically in the case of acute myocardial infarction (heart attack). It is considered the gold standard for diagnosing a heart attack. Myoglobin, on the other hand, is a protein that is released when there is damage to muscle tissue, including the heart. However, myoglobin is not as specific or sensitive as troponin T in diagnosing a heart attack. Therefore, troponin T is the preferred marker for acute myocardial infarction, while myoglobin is not as reliable.

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  • 50. 

    The following but one causes positive nitrogen balance in the body

    • A.

      Pregnancy 

    • B.

      Burns

    • C.

      Restoration

    • D.

      Growth

    Correct Answer
    B. Burns
    Explanation
    Burns cause a positive nitrogen balance in the body. During burns, there is increased protein breakdown and release of amino acids. These amino acids are used for tissue repair and wound healing, leading to an increase in protein synthesis. This results in a positive nitrogen balance, where the amount of nitrogen intake exceeds the amount of nitrogen excreted. This is important for promoting healing and recovery in burn patients.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 14, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Winonameireyes

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