Medicine And Dentistry Exam Quiz!

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| By Obadah Qandil
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Obadah Qandil
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Questions: 48 | Attempts: 450

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Medicine And Dentistry Exam Quiz! - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    When you measured the efficiency of Negative feedback of one of the control system, you got that the gain -27/3, that means :

    • A.

      The control system’s error is 10% of the total change.

    • B.

      The control system’s error is 90% of the total change.

    • C.

      The control system corrected 10% of the total change.

    • D.

      Two Answers Are Correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. The control system’s error is 10% of the total change.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The control system’s error is 10% of the total change." This is because the gain of -27/3 indicates that the output of the control system is 10% of the total change in the input. In other words, for every unit change in the input, the output of the control system will change by 10%.

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  • 2. 

    The normal body temperature for the average man is 36 C. A woman is standing in the freezing cold at a temperature of -33 C, her temperature was measured and was found to be 33 C, calculate the gain?

    • A.

      +22

    • B.

      -3

    • C.

      −22

    • D.

      +3

    Correct Answer
    C. −22
    Explanation
    The woman's body temperature is 33 C, which is 3 degrees lower than the normal body temperature of 36 C. The difference between the normal body temperature and the measured body temperature is -3. Since the woman is standing in freezing cold at -33 C, the gain in temperature would be -3 degrees. Therefore, the correct answer is -3.

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  • 3. 

    Maternity is one huge instinct that is:

    • A.

      Not stimulated until after giving birth.

    • B.

      Found in all living beings.

    • C.

      Not found in many animals.

    • D.

      Two answers are correct.

    Correct Answer
    D. Two answers are correct.
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer is that maternity, which refers to the instinctual care and protection of offspring, is found in all living beings and not stimulated until after giving birth. This means that both statements "Found in all living beings" and "Not stimulated until after giving birth" are correct. The statement "Not found in many animals" is incorrect as maternity is indeed found in many animals. Therefore, the correct answer is that two answers are correct.

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  • 4. 

    If a person weighs 90 Kg it is estimated that he has: 

    • A.

      18L of fluid inside his cells.

    • B.

      36L of fluid outside his cells.

    • C.

      36L of fluid inside his cells.

    • D.

      54L of fluid outside his cells.

    Correct Answer
    C. 36L of fluid inside his cells.
    Explanation
    The estimated amount of fluid inside a person's cells is 36L, based on the given information that the person weighs 90 Kg. This suggests that the person has a normal distribution of fluid within their body, with approximately two-thirds of the fluid being inside the cells.

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  • 5. 

    Tetanic contraction is related to:

    • A.

      Calcium concentration being doubled.

    • B.

      Potassium concentration being decreased to less than one third.

    • C.

      Calcium concentration being decreased by half.

    • D.

      Potassium concentration being doubled or tripled.

    Correct Answer
    C. Calcium concentration being decreased by half.
    Explanation
    Tetanic contraction is a sustained and continuous muscle contraction. This type of contraction is caused by a rapid and repetitive stimulation of the muscle fibers. Calcium is essential for muscle contraction, as it binds to the proteins in the muscle fibers, allowing them to slide past each other and generate force. When the calcium concentration is decreased by half, it can disrupt the normal process of muscle contraction and lead to tetanic contraction.

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  • 6. 

     The suffix (-Algia) means:

    • A.

      Enlargement.

    • B.

      Pain.

    • C.

      Inflammation.

    • D.

      Slow.

    Correct Answer
    B. Pain.
    Explanation
    The suffix (-Algia) is commonly used in medical terminology to indicate pain. For example, words like neuralgia (nerve pain), arthralgia (joint pain), and myalgia (muscle pain) all contain this suffix. Therefore, the correct answer is pain.

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  • 7. 

    The prefix "brady-" means which of the following?

    • A.

      Towards.

    • B.

      Downward.

    • C.

      Slow.

    • D.

      Fast.

    Correct Answer
    C. Slow.
    Explanation
    The prefix "brady-" is derived from the Greek word "bradys" which means slow. It is commonly used in medical terminology to indicate a slow or decreased function or process. For example, bradycardia refers to a slow heart rate. Therefore, the correct answer is slow.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following terms indicates the movement of a muscle away from the body?

    • A.

      Extension

    • B.

      Induction

    • C.

      Adduction.

    • D.

      Abduction

    Correct Answer
    D. Abduction
    Explanation
    Abduction is the correct answer because it refers to the movement of a muscle away from the body. Extension refers to the straightening of a joint, induction refers to the process of initiating something, and adduction refers to the movement of a muscle towards the body.

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  • 9. 

    The Greek root for stomach is:

    • A.

      Dudeo-

    • B.

      Ventr-

    • C.

      Gastr-

    • D.

      Illia-

    Correct Answer
    C. Gastr-
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Gastr-. The Greek root "gastr-" refers to the stomach. This root is commonly used in medical terms related to the stomach, such as gastritis (inflammation of the stomach) or gastroenterology (the study of the stomach and intestines).

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  • 10. 

    The origin of medical terminology came from: 

    • A.

      The Greeks and Arabs.

    • B.

      The Greeks and Romans.

    • C.

      The Persians.

    • D.

      The British.

    Correct Answer
    B. The Greeks and Romans.
    Explanation
    The answer is "The Greeks and Romans" because both ancient civilizations made significant contributions to medical terminology. The Greeks, particularly Hippocrates, developed a systematic approach to medicine and coined many terms that are still used today. The Romans built upon the Greek knowledge and expanded medical practices. They also translated Greek medical texts into Latin, which further spread the use of medical terminology. Therefore, the origins of medical terminology can be attributed to the combined efforts of the Greeks and Romans.

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  • 11. 

    One of the following is NOT one of the prefixes pertaining to number:

    • A.

      Semi-

    • B.

      Uni-

    • C.

      De-

    • D.

      Di-

    Correct Answer
    C. De-
    Explanation
    The prefix "De-" does not pertain to numbers. This prefix is commonly used to indicate the opposite or reversal of something, such as "deactivate" or "devalue." In contrast, the other three prefixes listed (semi-, uni-, and di-) are all used to indicate a specific number or quantity. For example, "semi-" means half, "uni-" means one, and "di-" means two.

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  • 12. 

    Which of following prefixes means the color "Red":

    • A.

      Rhod-

    • B.

      Melano-

    • C.

      Erythr-

    • D.

      Two answers are correct.

    Correct Answer
    D. Two answers are correct.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Two answers are correct." This means that both "Rhod-" and "Erythr-" are prefixes that mean the color "Red."

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  • 13. 

    The plural form the word  "Sarcoma" is:

    • A.

      Sarcomata

    • B.

      Sarcomisis

    • C.

      Sarcomes

    • D.

      None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sarcomata
    Explanation
    The correct plural form of the word "Sarcoma" is "Sarcomata". This is because "Sarcoma" is a noun of Greek origin that follows the Greek pluralization rule. In Greek, the "-ma" ending is changed to "-mata" to form the plural. Therefore, "Sarcomata" is the correct plural form of "Sarcoma".

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  • 14. 

    The suffix "-ectasis" means:

    • A.

      Expansion

    • B.

      Contraction.

    • C.

      Narrowing.

    • D.

      Enlargement.

    Correct Answer
    A. Expansion
    Explanation
    The suffix "-ectasis" is used to denote the expansion or dilation of a structure or organ. It is commonly used in medical terminology to describe conditions where a part of the body becomes abnormally enlarged or dilated. Therefore, the correct answer is "Expansion."

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  • 15. 

    The word "Hypogammaglobulinemia" means:

    • A.

      A decrease in gamma globulin molecules in the blood.

    • B.

      A decrease in gamma globulin molecules in the urine.

    • C.

      A increase in gamma globulin molecules in the lymph.  

    • D.

      A increase in gamma globulin molecules in the blood .

    Correct Answer
    A. A decrease in gamma globulin molecules in the blood.
    Explanation
    The term "Hypogammaglobulinemia" refers to a condition characterized by a decrease in gamma globulin molecules in the blood. Gamma globulins are a type of antibody protein that plays a crucial role in the immune system. When there is a decrease in these molecules, it can lead to a weakened immune response and increased susceptibility to infections. Therefore, the correct answer is a decrease in gamma globulin molecules in the blood.

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  • 16. 

    The term used to describe the paralysis of the laryngeal muscles and voice box:

    • A.

      Pharyngoplasty

    • B.

      Trachoplasty.

    • C.

      Laryngoplegia.

    • D.

      Pharyngoplsia.

    Correct Answer
    C. Laryngoplegia.
    Explanation
    Laryngoplegia is the correct answer because it accurately describes the paralysis of the laryngeal muscles and voice box. The term "laryngo" refers to the larynx, and "plegia" means paralysis. Therefore, laryngoplegia specifically refers to the paralysis of the laryngeal muscles and voice box. Pharyngoplasty and trachoplasty are not relevant to the question, and pharyngoplsia is not a recognized medical term.

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  • 17. 

    The prefix "Phlebo-" refers to:

    • A.

      Nerve.

    • B.

      Muscle.

    • C.

      Artery.

    • D.

      Vein .

    Correct Answer
    D. Vein .
    Explanation
    The prefix "Phlebo-" refers to veins. This is because "phlebo-" is derived from the Greek word "phlebos," which means vein. It is commonly used in medical terminology to indicate something related to veins, such as phlebitis (inflammation of a vein) or phlebectomy (surgical removal of a vein).

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  • 18. 

    When we wish to refer to lymph glands we use the prefix:

    • A.

      Lymph/o

    • B.

      Lymphaden/o

    • C.

      Lymphangi/o

    • D.

      None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    B. Lymphaden/o
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Lymphaden/o". The prefix "Lymphaden/o" specifically refers to lymph glands. "Lymph/o" refers to lymph, and "Lymphangi/o" refers to lymph vessels. Therefore, "Lymphaden/o" is the appropriate prefix to use when referring to lymph glands.

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  • 19. 

    The term that describes an injury to the spinal cord is

    • A.

      Myelogenic

    • B.

      Myelopathy

    • C.

      Myeloid

    • D.

      Myeloma

    Correct Answer
    B. Myelopathy
    Explanation
    Myelopathy is the correct term to describe an injury to the spinal cord. The term "myelopathy" refers to any disorder or condition that affects the spinal cord, causing symptoms such as weakness, numbness, and pain. It is a broad term that encompasses various spinal cord injuries, including compression, trauma, and degenerative diseases. Myelogenic, myeloid, and myeloma do not specifically refer to spinal cord injuries, making them incorrect choices.

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  • 20. 

    All of the following regarding the new curriculum of Pre-med year is false except:

    • A.

      There is 16 credit hours of scientific research.

    • B.

      There won't be practical clinical sessions following each module.

    • C.

      Late exposure to clinical and communication skills.

    • D.

      The focus of it is on population care.

    Correct Answer
    D. The focus of it is on population care.
    Explanation
    The given answer states that the focus of the new curriculum of Pre-med year is not on population care. This means that the curriculum does not prioritize the care and well-being of a specific group or population. The other statements in the question mention that there is scientific research included, there won't be practical clinical sessions, and there is late exposure to clinical and communication skills. However, it is important to note that the question is asking for the false statement, so the correct answer is the one that does not align with the other statements.

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  • 21. 

    MED173 is a course given in:

    • A.

      First year.

    • B.

      Second year.

    • C.

      Fourth year.

    • D.

      It's not a course given for medical students.

    Correct Answer
    A. First year.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is First year. This suggests that MED173 is a course specifically designed for students in their first year of study.

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  • 22. 

    Regarding Medicine and surgery curriculum, the respiratory system is a module given in:

    • A.

      Second year, second semester.

    • B.

      Second year, first semester.

    • C.

      Third year, first semester.

    • D.

      Third year, second semester

    Correct Answer
    C. Third year, first semester.
    Explanation
    The respiratory system is a module given in the third year, first semester of the Medicine and surgery curriculum. This suggests that students will study and learn about the respiratory system during this specific period of their academic year.

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  • 23. 

    All of the following are clinical medicine sciences except:

    • A.

      Public health.

    • B.

      Surgery.

    • C.

      Radiology.

    • D.

      Pediatrics.

    Correct Answer
    A. Public health.
    Explanation
    Public health is not considered a clinical medicine science because it focuses on preventing disease and promoting health in populations rather than diagnosing and treating individual patients. Clinical medicine sciences, on the other hand, involve the direct care and treatment of patients. Surgery, radiology, and pediatrics are all clinical medicine specialties that involve the diagnosis, treatment, and management of diseases and conditions in individual patients.

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  • 24. 

    The total number of hours required for a bachelor’s degree in Dental Surgery are:

    • A.

      257 in five years.

    • B.

      213 in six years.

    • C.

      213 in five years.

    • D.

      257 in six years.

    Correct Answer
    C. 213 in five years.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 213 in five years. This means that to obtain a bachelor's degree in Dental Surgery, it takes a total of 213 hours of study over a period of five years. This suggests that the program is structured in such a way that students can complete the required coursework within this timeframe.

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  • 25. 

    All the following are compulsory university requirement in dentistry curriculum except:

    • A.

      Health promotion.

    • B.

      General skills.

    • C.

      Social responsibility.

    • D.

      Entrepreneurship and innovation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Health promotion.
    Explanation
    The given question asks about the exception to compulsory university requirements in a dentistry curriculum. The options provided are health promotion, general skills, social responsibility, and entrepreneurship and innovation. Out of these options, health promotion is the correct answer because it is not a compulsory requirement in a dentistry curriculum. While general skills, social responsibility, and entrepreneurship and innovation are important aspects of a dentistry curriculum, health promotion may not be specifically included as a compulsory requirement.

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  • 26. 

    A student is allowed to register MED265 in his third academic year:

    • A.

      False

    • B.

      True

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that a student is allowed to register for MED265 in their third academic year. However, the correct answer is false. This means that the student is not permitted to register for MED265 in their third academic year.

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  • 27. 

    Oral pathology 1 is a course given in dentistry for second-year students:

    • A.

      False.

    • B.

      True.

    Correct Answer
    A. False.
    Explanation
    The statement is false because Oral pathology 1 is not a course given in dentistry for second-year students.

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  • 28. 

    The suffix " -rrhagia" is similar to which term, and means:

    • A.

      "-rrhage", Bursting forth of (fluid, blood,...)

    • B.

      "-phagia", Bursting forth of (fluid, blood,...)

    • C.

      "-aligia", coagulation of (fluid, blood,...)

    • D.

      "-oma", coagulation of (fluid, blood,...)

    Correct Answer
    A. "-rrhage", Bursting forth of (fluid, blood,...)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "-rrhage", which means "bursting forth of (fluid, blood,...)". This suffix is used to indicate a condition or process of excessive or abnormal bleeding. It is commonly seen in medical terms such as hemorrhage (excessive bleeding) or menorrhagia (excessive menstrual bleeding).

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  • 29. 

    The term "Arteriostenosis" means:

    • A.

      Narrowing of arteries.

    • B.

      Contraction of arteries.

    • C.

      Expansion of arteries.

    • D.

      Leakage of arteries.

    Correct Answer
    A. Narrowing of arteries.
    Explanation
    Arteriostenosis refers to the narrowing of arteries. This condition occurs when the arteries become constricted or blocked, leading to reduced blood flow. It can be caused by various factors such as atherosclerosis, where plaque buildup occurs in the arterial walls, or by inflammation and scarring. Arteriostenosis can result in serious health complications, including high blood pressure, heart disease, and stroke.

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  • 30. 

    The difference between  the suffixes "-tomy" and "-stomy" is:

    • A.

      "-tomy" formation of an opening | "-stomy" incision in the tissue.

    • B.

      "-stomy" formation of an opening | "-tomy" incision in the tissue.

    • C.

      They mean the same but differ in the diameter of the opening.

    • D.

      They are the same.

    Correct Answer
    B. "-stomy" formation of an opening | "-tomy" incision in the tissue.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "-stomy" formation of an opening | "-tomy" incision in the tissue. The suffix "-tomy" refers to the act of making an incision or a cut in the tissue, while the suffix "-stomy" refers to the act of creating an opening. Therefore, "-tomy" involves cutting through the tissue, while "-stomy" involves creating an opening without necessarily cutting through the tissue.

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  • 31. 

    The term "Osteomalacia" means the:

    • A.

      Softening of bone.

    • B.

      Hardening of bone.

    • C.

      Fracture of bone.

    • D.

      None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. Softening of bone.
    Explanation
    Osteomalacia refers to a condition where the bones become soft and weak. This can occur due to a deficiency in vitamin D or calcium, causing inadequate mineralization of the bone. As a result, the bones lose their strength and become prone to fractures. Therefore, the correct answer is "Softening of bone."

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  • 32. 

    The term "Enteropathy" means"

    • A.

      Death of the intestinal tissue.

    • B.

      Destruction of the intestinal tissue.

    • C.

      Disease of the intestinal tissue.

    • D.

      Development of the intestinal tissue.

    Correct Answer
    C. Disease of the intestinal tissue.
    Explanation
    Enteropathy refers to a disease of the intestinal tissue. It is a broad term that encompasses various conditions that affect the intestines, causing inflammation, damage, and dysfunction. This can include conditions such as celiac disease, Crohn's disease, and ulcerative colitis, among others. Enteropathy does not refer to the death, destruction, or development of intestinal tissue, but rather the presence of a disease or disorder within the intestines.

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  • 33. 

    A good listener will only listen to what is said:

    • A.

      TRUE

    • B.

      FALSE

    Correct Answer
    B. FALSE
    Explanation
    A good listener does not only listen to what is said, but also pays attention to non-verbal cues, such as body language and tone of voice. They also try to understand the underlying message and emotions behind the words. Therefore, the statement that a good listener will only listen to what is said is false.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is a  key Principles of Effective Listening:

    • A.

      Prepare Yourself to Listen.

    • B.

      Put the Speaker at Ease.

    • C.

      Wait and Watch for Non-Verbal Communication.

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The key principles of effective listening include preparing yourself to listen, putting the speaker at ease, and waiting and watching for non-verbal communication. These principles are important because they help create a conducive environment for effective communication. By preparing yourself to listen, you are mentally and emotionally ready to receive the speaker's message. Putting the speaker at ease helps them feel comfortable and more willing to open up and share their thoughts. Lastly, paying attention to non-verbal cues such as body language and facial expressions can provide additional insights into the speaker's message. Therefore, all of the above options are key principles of effective listening.

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  • 35. 

    A long pause doesn’t mean that the speaker has stopped talking.

    • A.

      True.

    • B.

      False.

    Correct Answer
    A. True.
    Explanation
    A long pause during a speaker's conversation does not necessarily indicate that they have completely stopped talking. It could indicate that they are gathering their thoughts, emphasizing a point, or creating suspense. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 36. 

    The Most basic form of listening, that does not involve the understanding of the meaning of the words or phrases is called:

    • A.

      Discriminative Listening.

    • B.

      Unmindful Listening.

    • C.

      Comprehensive Listening.

    • D.

      Shallow Listening.

    Correct Answer
    A. Discriminative Listening.
    Explanation
    Discriminative listening refers to the most basic form of listening where the focus is on distinguishing and recognizing different sounds and tones without necessarily understanding the meaning behind them. This type of listening is primarily concerned with perceiving and differentiating between various auditory stimuli, such as different pitches, volumes, and accents. It does not involve comprehending the meaning of words or phrases, but rather focuses on the ability to discern and identify different sounds accurately.

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  • 37. 

    The most common type of listening you use as a student:

    • A.

      Informational Listening.

    • B.

      Critical Listening.

    • C.

      Empathic Listening.

    • D.

      Therapeutic Listening.

    Correct Answer
    A. Informational Listening.
    Explanation
    As a student, the most common type of listening you use is informational listening. This type of listening involves actively paying attention to gather and understand information being presented. It is important for students to engage in informational listening in order to comprehend lectures, take notes, and retain information for exams and assignments. Critical listening involves evaluating and analyzing information, empathic listening focuses on understanding and connecting with the speaker's emotions, and therapeutic listening is used in counseling and therapy settings. However, in the context of being a student, informational listening is the most relevant and commonly used type.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is a sign of active listening:

    • A.

      Interrupting the speaker.

    • B.

      Moving paper while listening.

    • C.

      Checking your mobile phone.

    • D.

      None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "None of the above" because interrupting the speaker is a sign of not actively listening, moving paper while listening may indicate distraction, and checking your mobile phone shows a lack of focus on the speaker. Active listening involves giving full attention to the speaker, maintaining eye contact, and providing verbal and nonverbal cues to show understanding and engagement.

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  • 39. 

    Assertiveness includes:

    • A.

      Expressing thoughts.

    • B.

      Telling your opinion.

    • C.

      Lack of listening experience.

    • D.

      More than one answer is correct.

    Correct Answer
    D. More than one answer is correct.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "More than one answer is correct" because assertiveness includes both expressing thoughts and telling your opinion. It is not limited to just one aspect, but rather encompasses multiple ways of effectively communicating and standing up for oneself. The option "Lack of listening experience" does not accurately describe assertiveness, so it is not a correct answer.

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  • 40. 

    All of following are effects of being unassertive, except:

    • A.

      Having low self-esteem.

    • B.

      Becoming aggressive.

    • C.

      Having a lack of purpose.

    • D.

      Developing social anxiety.

    Correct Answer
    B. Becoming aggressive.
    Explanation
    Being unassertive can lead to various negative effects, such as having low self-esteem, developing social anxiety, and having a lack of purpose. However, becoming aggressive is not typically associated with being unassertive. In fact, individuals who are unassertive may tend to avoid confrontation and conflict, which is the opposite of aggression.

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  • 41. 

    All are non-verbal characteristics of aggressive behavior except:

    • A.

      Staring the person out.

    • B.

      Leaning forward or over.

    • C.

      Scowling when angry.

    • D.

      Sexual or racist remarks.

    Correct Answer
    D. Sexual or racist remarks.
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Sexual or racist remarks," is the only option that does not pertain to non-verbal characteristics of aggressive behavior. Staring the person out, leaning forward or over, and scowling when angry are all non-verbal cues that can indicate aggression. However, making sexual or racist remarks involves verbal communication rather than non-verbal cues.

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  • 42. 

    The type of assertion that can be used when another person is involved in a situation is:

    • A.

      Basic assertion.

    • B.

      Discrepancy assertion.

    • C.

      Empathic assertion.

    • D.

      Negative feelings assertion.

    Correct Answer
    C. Empathic assertion.
    Explanation
    Empathic assertion is the type of assertion that can be used when another person is involved in a situation. This type of assertion involves expressing one's thoughts, feelings, and needs while also considering and acknowledging the thoughts and feelings of the other person. It aims to create a balance between assertiveness and empathy, allowing for effective communication and understanding between both parties.

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  • 43. 

    Rejecting, negative inquiry, and fogging, are all responses for which type of criticism.

    • A.

      Postive criticism.

    • B.

      Destructive criticism.

    • C.

      False criticism.

    • D.

      Constructive criticism.

    Correct Answer
    B. Destructive criticism.
    Explanation
    Rejecting, negative inquiry, and fogging are all responses that are typically associated with destructive criticism. Destructive criticism refers to feedback or comments that are unhelpful, hurtful, or aimed at tearing down the person or their work rather than providing constructive suggestions for improvement. These responses mentioned in the question indicate a dismissive attitude, a negative questioning approach, and an attempt to obscure or evade the issue, all of which are characteristic of destructive criticism.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following will most lead to a person unwilling to accept criticism:

    • A.

      Being raised in a destructive criticism environment.

    • B.

      Working in a destructive criticism environment.

    • C.

      The person only gives out destructive criticism.

    • D.

      Having aggressive behavior.

    Correct Answer
    A. Being raised in a destructive criticism environment.
    Explanation
    Being raised in a destructive criticism environment can greatly contribute to a person's unwillingness to accept criticism. This is because if someone grows up constantly being subjected to negative and destructive criticism, they may develop a fear of judgment and rejection. They may also internalize the belief that criticism is always harmful and personal, making them defensive and resistant to any form of feedback. This upbringing can shape their mindset and make them view criticism as an attack rather than an opportunity for growth, leading to their unwillingness to accept it.

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  • 45. 

    All the following are part of the HURIER Model of Listening, except:

    • A.

      Hearing.

    • B.

      Remembering.

    • C.

      Responding.

    • D.

      Encouraging.

    Correct Answer
    D. Encouraging.
    Explanation
    The HURIER Model of Listening is a framework that outlines the different stages of effective listening. It stands for Hearing, Understanding, Remembering, Interpreting, Evaluating, and Responding. Encouraging is not part of this model because it does not represent a specific stage of the listening process. Encouraging is more related to the communication skills of the listener, rather than a distinct step in the listening model.

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  • 46. 

    All the following are non-verbal signs of attentive or active listening except:

    • A.

      Posture.

    • B.

      Eye contact.

    • C.

      Mirror.

    • D.

      Positive Reinforcement.

    Correct Answer
    D. Positive Reinforcement.
    Explanation
    Positive reinforcement is not a non-verbal sign of attentive or active listening. Non-verbal signs of attentive or active listening typically involve body language and facial expressions, such as maintaining good posture, making eye contact, and mirroring the speaker's body language. Positive reinforcement, on the other hand, is a verbal or non-verbal response that rewards or encourages a behavior, and it is not directly related to the act of listening attentively.

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  • 47. 

    Men are generally more interested in facts than emotional messages:

    • A.

      True.

    • B.

      False.

    Correct Answer
    A. True.
    Explanation
    Men are generally more interested in facts than emotional messages because they tend to be more analytical and logical in their thinking. They prefer information that is based on evidence and concrete data rather than subjective or emotional appeals. This is not to say that men are completely devoid of emotions, but they tend to prioritize facts and logical reasoning over emotional content.

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  • 48. 

    In writing emails you should always: 

    • A.

      Write a short introduction on the topic.

    • B.

      Introduce yourself.

    • C.

      Write down your preferred follow up action

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above.
    Explanation
    In writing emails, it is important to include a short introduction on the topic to provide context and engage the reader. Introducing oneself is also crucial as it establishes credibility and allows the recipient to know who the email is coming from. Additionally, stating the preferred follow-up action helps to clearly communicate expectations and ensure that the recipient knows what is required of them. Therefore, all of the given options are necessary when writing emails.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 15, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Obadah Qandil
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