Cell Wall Inhibitors
Cell wall inhibitors
- 1.
All of the above , kill the enzyme secrete from the bacteria , except :
- A.
Clavulanic acid
- B.
B-Lactamase inhibitors
- C.
Teicoplanin
- D.
Sulbactam
- E.
Tazobactam
Correct Answer
C. Teicoplanin -
- 2.
All of the above refer to the B-lactams except :
- A.
Monobactams
- B.
Cephalosporins
- C.
Penicillins
- D.
Cycloserine
- E.
Cabapenems
Correct Answer
D. CycloserineExplanation
The given options include Monobactams, Cephalosporins, Penicillins, and Cabapenems, which are all types of B-lactams. However, cycloserine is not a B-lactam.Rate this question:
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- 3.
All of the above isn't true regarding the D-cycloserine , except :
- A.
It occurs in the cytoplasm & involves a racemase enzyme which converts the D-alanine to L-alanine, and ligase which couples two D-alanines together.
- B.
They have found major applications in the treatment of infections
- C.
They can blocked forming the stem peptide .
- D.
Interferes with the early stage of synthesis of peptidoglycan involving the assembly of the dipeptide D-alanine-D-alanine
- E.
All answer is correct
Correct Answer
C. They can blocked forming the stem peptide .Explanation
D-cycloserine does not block the formation of the stem peptide. The correct answer is that D-cycloserine occurs in the cytoplasm and involves a racemase enzyme which converts D-alanine to L-alanine, and ligase which couples two D-alanines together. It also interferes with the early stage of synthesis of peptidoglycan involving the assembly of the dipeptide D-alanine-D-alanine. D-cycloserine has major applications in the treatment of infections.Rate this question:
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- 4.
All of the above is correct regarding activity of vancomycin, except:
- A.
Vancomycin is active against G+ve bacteria
- B.
Vancomycin is inactive against G-ve bacteria
- C.
Vancomycin isn't inactive against MRSA
- D.
Vancomycin is active against Streptococci
- E.
Vancomycin isn't active against Enterococcus faecalis
Correct Answer
E. Vancomycin isn't active against Enterococcus faecalisExplanation
Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic that is primarily active against Gram-positive bacteria. It is effective against a wide range of Gram-positive bacteria, including Streptococci and Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). However, Enterococcus faecalis is known to have intrinsic resistance to vancomycin, making it less effective against this particular Gram-positive bacterium. Therefore, the statement that "Vancomycin isn't active against Enterococcus faecalis" is correct.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The inactivity of Vancomycin towered Gram-negative bacteria because
- A.
Can penetrate through the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria
- B.
The large molecule size of Gram-negative bacteria
- C.
Can't penetrate through the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria
- D.
The large molecule size of vancomycin
- E.
2 answer is correct
Correct Answer
E. 2 answer is correctExplanation
Vancomycin is an antibiotic that is effective against Gram-positive bacteria but not Gram-negative bacteria. This is because Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane that acts as a barrier, preventing the entry of large molecules like vancomycin. Therefore, the statement "The large molecule size of vancomycin can't penetrate through the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria" is correct.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Teicoplanin :
- A.
Can treat infection of gram +ve and -ve
- B.
Its similar to vancomycin in does and all things
- C.
Its similar to vancomycin in chemical structure but vancomycin posses more fatty acid side chains
- D.
Can treat infection of gram +ve and cant of -ve
- E.
All answer correct except 1 opition
Correct Answer
D. Can treat infection of gram +ve and cant of -veExplanation
Teicoplanin can treat infections caused by gram-positive bacteria but is ineffective against gram-negative bacteria. This means that it can effectively target and eliminate bacteria such as Staphylococcus and Streptococcus, which are examples of gram-positive bacteria. However, it is not effective against gram-negative bacteria like Escherichia coli or Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Therefore, the correct answer states that teicoplanin can treat gram-positive infections but not gram-negative infections.Rate this question:
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- 7.
About the difference between Vancomycin and Teicoplanin :
- A.
 Vancomycin posses less fatty acid side chains than Teicoplani
- B.
 Vancomycin more acidic than Teicoplani
- C.
Vancomycin given IV and IM while Teicoplani given at one of site when Vancomycin is given
- D.
Vancomycin more lipophilic than Teicoplani
- E.
Vancomycin more effect than Teicoplani
- F.
Vancomycin administered per 12 hours while Teicoplani administered per 6 hours
- G.
Vancomycin are a slightly higher potency against most target organisms and a better toxicity profile rather thanTeicoplanin
- H.
3 Answer is correct
- I.
All answer is not correct
Correct Answer
A. Â Vancomycin posses less fatty acid side chains than TeicoplaniExplanation
Vancomycin possesses fewer fatty acid side chains than Teicoplanin. This means that Vancomycin has a simpler chemical structure compared to Teicoplanin. The presence of fatty acid side chains can affect the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of a drug. Therefore, the difference in the number of fatty acid side chains between Vancomycin and Teicoplanin may contribute to variations in their effectiveness, toxicity, and administration frequency.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Select true answer regarding Peptidoglycan biosynthesis in bacteria :
- A.
The process of formation of Peptidoglycan take place in cytoplasm
- B.
Peptidoglycan is a macromolecule composed of sugar (glycan)^NAM and NAG ^ ( bound with b-1,4-glycosidic bond ) cross-linked by short peptide chains.
- C.
Each (NAM) contains a short peptide substituent made up of four amino acids (the stem peptides).
- D.
In the stem peptides there are the D-isomers of some amino acids (particularly D-alanine and D-glutamic acid) and unusual amino acids such as meso-diaminopimelic acid which are not found in proteins
- E.
All answer is correct
Correct Answer
E. All answer is correctExplanation
The given answer states that all the statements provided regarding peptidoglycan biosynthesis in bacteria are correct. The statements mentioned in the question describe the process of peptidoglycan formation, its composition, and the presence of specific amino acids in the stem peptides. Since all the statements are accurate and provide correct information, the answer "All answer is correct" is the correct choice.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Select true answer regarding Peptidoglycan biosynthesis in bacteria :
- A.
The crosslinking of the stem peptides : a direct peptide bond between the fourth amino acid on one chain and the third amino acid on an adjacent chain (NOT same amino acids )
- B.
The crosslinking of the stem peptides :may involve a short peptide bridge between the same amino acids on the stem peptides.
- C.
The functions of peptidoglycan: Responsible for maintaining the shape AND Act as a mechanical strength of the bacterial cell.
- D.
If it is damaged in any way, or its synthesis is inhibited, then the shape of the cells becomes distorted and they will eventually burst (lyse) due to the high internal osmotic pressure.
- E.
ALL answer is correct
Correct Answer
E. ALL answer is correctExplanation
The correct answer is ALL answer is correct because all of the statements mentioned in the options are true regarding Peptidoglycan biosynthesis in bacteria. The crosslinking of the stem peptides can occur through a direct peptide bond between specific amino acids on adjacent chains or through a short peptide bridge between the same amino acids. Peptidoglycan is responsible for maintaining the shape and providing mechanical strength to bacterial cells. If it is damaged or its synthesis is inhibited, the cells will become distorted and eventually burst due to high internal osmotic pressure.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Antibiotics which interfere with the synthesis and assembly of peptidoglycan show excellent selective toxicity compared with other antibiotics (e.g. protein synthesis inhibitors).This is because:
- A.
Mammalian cells do not possess a cell wall
- B.
Mammalian contain no other macromolecules resembling peptidoglycan.
- C.
Mammalian cells possess a cell wall
- D.
Mammalian contain other macromolecules resembling peptidoglycan.
- E.
2 answer is correct
Correct Answer
E. 2 answer is correctExplanation
Antibiotics that interfere with the synthesis and assembly of peptidoglycan are effective in selectively targeting bacteria because mammalian cells do not possess a cell wall. This means that the antibiotics can specifically target the bacterial cell wall without affecting the mammalian cells, resulting in excellent selective toxicity. Additionally, mammalian cells do not contain any other macromolecules resembling peptidoglycan, further enhancing the selectivity of these antibiotics. Therefore, the second answer stating that mammalian cells do not possess a cell wall and do not contain other macromolecules resembling peptidoglycan is correct.Rate this question:
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- 11.
All of the above is NOT true regarding Peptidoglycan biosynthesis in bacteria , except :
- A.
L-alanine converts to D-alanine in present of ligase
- B.
Couples two D-alanines together occur in present of racemase
- C.
Transglycosylase enzyme Form glycosidic bond between the new monomer and the existing Peptidoglycan
- D.
The final stage of peptidoglycan assembly is the cross-linking of the linear glycan strands assembled by transglycosylation to the existing peptidoglycan in the cell wall occur without penicillin binding protein
- E.
The transfer new monomer (NAM and NAG) to the existing Peptidoglycan does not need carrier
Correct Answer
C. Transglycosylase enzyme Form glycosidic bond between the new monomer and the existing PeptidoglycanExplanation
The correct answer is "transglycosylase enzyme Form glycosidic bond between the new monomer and the existing Peptidoglycan". This statement is true regarding Peptidoglycan biosynthesis in bacteria. Transglycosylase enzyme is responsible for forming the glycosidic bond between the new monomer (NAM and NAG) and the existing Peptidoglycan. The other statements mentioned in the question are not true. L-alanine does not convert to D-alanine in the presence of ligase, two D-alanines do not couple together in the presence of racemase, cross-linking of glycan strands occurs with the involvement of penicillin binding protein, and the transfer of new monomers to existing Peptidoglycan does not require a carrier.Rate this question:
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- 12.
All of the above is true regarding MOA of Vancomycin & teicoplanin , Except:
- A.
Work in the stage when the transglycosylase enzyme work.
- B.
Does not penetrate the cell membrane of bacteria but must cross the cell wall to reach the outer face of the cell membrane
- C.
It has been suggested that two vancomycin molecules from a back-to-back dimer which bridges between pentapeptides on separate glycan chains, thus preventing further peptidoglycan assembly
- D.
Glycopeptides prevent Form peptidoglycan
- E.
Bind to the enzyme itself, but do not to the disaccharide peptidoglycan precursor (disaccharide-pentapeptide )
- F.
They are not active against G-ve organisms due to the presence of the outer membrane.
Correct Answer
E. Bind to the enzyme itself, but do not to the disaccharide peptidoglycan precursor (disaccharide-pentapeptide )Explanation
Vancomycin and teicoplanin bind to the transglycosylase enzyme, which is involved in the formation of the peptidoglycan cell wall. They do not bind to the disaccharide peptidoglycan precursor directly. This prevents further peptidoglycan assembly and inhibits cell wall synthesis. The other statements provided are true: they work in the stage when the transglycosylase enzyme works, they do not penetrate the cell membrane but must cross the cell wall, and they are not active against Gram-negative organisms due to the presence of the outer membrane.Rate this question:
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- 13.
One of the above is not correct regarding sources of penicillins:
- A.
Naturally occurring: produced by fermentation of moulds such as Penicillium notatum and P. chrysogenum.
- B.
The most important examples of Semisynthetic penicillins : benzylpenicillin and phenoxymethylpenicillin
- C.
Benzylpenicillin is (penicillin G) while phenoxymethylpenicillin is (penicillin V).
- D.
In Semisynthetic Penicillins 6-aminopenicillanic acid (6-APA) is needed
- E.
No answer is correct
Correct Answer
B. The most important examples of Semisynthetic penicillins : benzylpenicillin and phenoxymethylpenicillinExplanation
The correct answer is the most important examples of semisynthetic penicillins are benzylpenicillin and phenoxymethylpenicillin. This is because benzylpenicillin (penicillin G) and phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V) are both widely used and effective semisynthetic penicillins. They are derived from the naturally occurring penicillin and have been modified to enhance their properties and improve their stability. These two penicillins are commonly used in the treatment of various bacterial infections.Rate this question:
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- 14.
ALL of the above effect or (inactivation) by b-lactamases EXCPET:
- A.
Anti-staphylococcal penicillins
- B.
Broad Spectrum Penicillins
- C.
Extended penicillins
- D.
Anti-pseudomonal penicillins
- E.
Natural penicillins
- F.
No answer is correct
Correct Answer
F. No answer is correctExplanation
The correct answer is "No answer is correct". This means that all of the mentioned types of penicillins can be affected or inactivated by β-lactamases, except for none of them. In other words, β-lactamases can potentially impact the effectiveness of all the listed types of penicillins.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Penicillin G, Procaine, Penicillin V treat all of the above except:
- A.
G+ve strains of streptococci
- B.
Staphylococci
- C.
Meningococcus
- D.
All G-ve bacteria
- E.
No answer is correct
Correct Answer
D. All G-ve bacteriaExplanation
Penicillin G, Procaine, and Penicillin V are effective in treating G+ve strains of streptococci, staphylococci, and meningococcus. However, they are not effective against G-ve bacteria. Therefore, the correct answer is "All G-ve bacteria."Rate this question:
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- 16.
All of the above isnt true regarding Anti-staphylococcal penicillins , Except:
- A.
The group contain Methicillin, Carbenicillin, ticarcillin, piperacillin, and dicloxacillin
- B.
The group effect in Methicillin - resistant strains of Staphylococcus aureus
- C.
This group isn’t targets a specific group of bacteria which produces the β-lactamase enzyme/penicillinase-producing Staphylococci
- D.
The group contain Ampicillin and amoxicillin
- E.
The group isn't effect in (MRSA)
Correct Answer
E. The group isn't effect in (MRSA)Explanation
The correct answer is "The group isn't effect in (MRSA)". This means that Anti-staphylococcal penicillins do not have an effect on Methicillin-resistant strains of Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). MRSA is resistant to many antibiotics, including penicillins, due to the production of the β-lactamase enzyme/penicillinase. Therefore, the group of Anti-staphylococcal penicillins mentioned in the question is not effective against MRSA.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Anti-pseudomonal penicillins :
- A.
It isn't extended penicillins
- B.
They are susceptible to activation by b-lactamases
- C.
They are susceptible to inactivation by penicillinase-producing pseudomonal
- D.
It isn't has an activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- E.
All answer is correct
Correct Answer
C. They are susceptible to inactivation by penicillinase-producing pseudomonalExplanation
The correct answer is "They are susceptible to inactivation by penicillinase-producing pseudomonal." This means that anti-pseudomonal penicillins can be rendered ineffective by the presence of penicillinase-producing pseudomonal bacteria. Penicillinase is an enzyme that breaks down penicillin, so if the bacteria produce this enzyme, it can neutralize the effects of the penicillin. This is an important consideration when choosing the appropriate antibiotic for treating infections caused by these bacteria.Rate this question:
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- 18.
About Broad Spectrum Penicillins:
- A.
Have an antibacterial spectrum similar to Penicillin G but more effective against G+ve bacteria
- B.
Resistance to these antibiotics is a major clinical problem because of activation by penicillinase
- C.
Formulations are made by combining these compounds with β-lactamase inhibitors such as Cephalexin acid because it inactivation β-lactamase enzyme
- D.
Have an antibacterial spectrum similar to Penicillin V but more effective against G-ve bacteria
- E.
All answer is correct
- F.
All answer isn't correct
Correct Answer
F. All answer isn't correctExplanation
The given correct answer is "All answer isn't correct." This means that none of the statements provided about Broad Spectrum Penicillins are accurate. The statements mentioned in the question, such as having an antibacterial spectrum similar to Penicillin G, being more effective against G+ve bacteria, and being resistant to activation by penicillinase, are all incorrect. Additionally, the statement about combining these compounds with β-lactamase inhibitors is also incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is that none of the answers provided are correct.Rate this question:
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- 19.
All of the above is'nt correct regarding ,1st Generation ,EXCEPT:
- A.
They are drug of choice for such infections caused by Streptococcus
- B.
They are good drug active against MRSA
- C.
They are active against EKP G-ve Bacteria
- D.
This group can cross BBB so it can treat meningitis
- E.
They are susceptible to inactivation by b-lactamases
- F.
Active against P. aeruginosa
- G.
2 answer is correct
Correct Answer
E. They are susceptible to inactivation by b-lactamasesExplanation
The correct answer is "They are susceptible to inactivation by b-lactamases." The other statements mention the positive attributes and effectiveness of 1st generation antibiotics, such as being the drug of choice for infections caused by Streptococcus, being active against MRSA, EKP G-ve Bacteria, and P. aeruginosa, and their ability to cross the blood-brain barrier to treat meningitis. However, 1st generation antibiotics are indeed susceptible to inactivation by b-lactamases, which are enzymes produced by bacteria that can break down the antibiotics and render them ineffective.Rate this question:
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- 20.
All of the above is correct regarding , 2nd Generation of cephalosporins ,EXCEPT:
- A.
More activity against G-ve compared with 1st generation.
- B.
Same activity against G+ve compared with 1st generation.
- C.
More resistant to b-lactamase compared with 1st generation.
- D.
More resistant to Escherichia coli , Klebsiella and Proteus compared with 1st generation.
- E.
Same activity against P. aeruginosa. compared with 1st generation.
- F.
Less resistant to meningitis than 4th generation
- G.
Same activity against P. aeruginosa. compared with 3rd generation.
- H.
3 Answer is correct
Correct Answer
G. Same activity against P. aeruginosa. compared with 3rd generation.Explanation
The given answer is correct because it states that the 2nd generation of cephalosporins has the same activity against P. aeruginosa compared to the 3rd generation. This means that there is no improvement in activity against P. aeruginosa when moving from the 2nd to the 3rd generation of cephalosporins.Rate this question:
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- 21.
All of the above isn't correct regarding , 3rd generation cephalosporins ,EXCEPT:
- A.
Extended spectrum of activity against G+ve organisms.
- B.
They have a greater resistance to beta-lactamases than the Fourth generation cephalosporins.
- C.
Can't reach the central nervous system (CNS).
- D.
They aren't susceptible to inactivation by b-lactamases
- E.
2 answer is correct
Correct Answer
D. They aren't susceptible to inactivation by b-lactamasesExplanation
Third generation cephalosporins are susceptible to inactivation by beta-lactamases, which are enzymes produced by bacteria to break down the beta-lactam ring in antibiotics. This is one of the reasons why fourth generation cephalosporins were developed, as they have a greater resistance to beta-lactamases. Therefore, the statement "They aren't susceptible to inactivation by beta-lactamases" is incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 22.
All of the above is correct regarding Cephalosporins drugs to treat P. aeruginosa , ,EXCEPT:
- A.
Ceftazidime has more activity against P. aeruginosa compared with Cefpirome and Cefquinome
- B.
Cefadroxil and Cefazolin has same activity against P. aeruginosa compared with cafaclor and cefprozil
- C.
Cephradine and cephapirin has less activity against P. aeruginosa than Ceftazidime
- D.
Cephradine and cephapirin has less activity against P. aeruginosa than cafaclor and cefprozil
- E.
Cephradine and cephapirin has less activity against P. aeruginosa than cafaclor and cefprozil
- F.
Cephalexin and Cephalothin has less activity against P. aeruginosa than Ceftazidime
Correct Answer
E. Cephradine and cephapirin has less activity against P. aeruginosa than cafaclor and cefprozilExplanation
The given answer states that Cephradine and cephapirin have less activity against P. aeruginosa compared to cafaclor and cefprozil. This means that Cephradine and cephapirin are less effective in treating P. aeruginosa infections than cafaclor and cefprozil. The other options in the question discuss the activity of different cephalosporin drugs against P. aeruginosa, but this option specifically highlights the lower activity of Cephradine and cephapirin compared to cafaclor and cefprozil.Rate this question:
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- 23.
All of the above is correct regarding Cephalosporins drugs can cross BBB , ,EXCEPT:
- A.
Cefazolin can't cross BBB while cefepime it can
- B.
Cefuroxime can't cross BBB while ceftazidime it can
- C.
Cefozopran can cross BBB while cefaclor it can't
- D.
Cefoxitin can't cross BBB while Ceftriaxone it can
- E.
Cefuroxime can't cross BBB while ceftazidime it can
- F.
Cefuroxime can't cross BBB while ceftazidime it can
Correct Answer
B. Cefuroxime can't cross BBB while ceftazidime it canExplanation
Cephalosporins are a group of antibiotics that can be classified into different generations based on their spectrum of activity and pharmacokinetic properties. One important property of cephalosporins is their ability to cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB), which is a protective barrier that prevents the entry of many substances into the brain.
The given answer states that cefuroxime cannot cross the BBB, while ceftazidime can. This means that cefuroxime is unable to penetrate the BBB and reach the brain tissue, while ceftazidime has the ability to do so. This difference in BBB penetration can be attributed to their structural and chemical properties, which affect their ability to pass through the BBB.
It is important to note that the other statements in the question are repetitive and do not provide any additional information.Rate this question:
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- 24.
All of the above isn't correct regarding Cephalosporins drugs can treat MRSA , ,EXCEPT:
- A.
Ceftriiaxone can't treat MRSA while cefaclor it can
- B.
Cefepime can't treat MRSA while ceftiraxone it can
- C.
Cefozopran can't treat MRSA while cefiquinome it can
- D.
Cefprozil can't treat MRSA while cefoxitin it can
- E.
Cefuroxime can't treat MRSA while ceftobiprole it can
Correct Answer
E. Cefuroxime can't treat MRSA while ceftobiprole it canExplanation
طبعا هذا السؤال الدكتووووووور Øكى مهم ومو موجود بالسلايد عن
5th generationRate this question:
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- 25.
All of the above is correct regarding Cephalosporins drugs can treat VRE , ,EXCEPT:
- A.
Cephalexin can't treat it
- B.
Ceftaroline can't treat it
- C.
Ceftobiprole can't treat it
- D.
Ceftriaxone can't treat it
- E.
Cephalothin can't treat it
- F.
Cephalothin can't treat it
Correct Answer
C. Ceftobiprole can't treat itExplanation
برضو هذا السؤال من Øكي الدكتور ومهمRate this question:
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- 26.
Active against EKP :
- A.
Cephapirin , cephalxin , cephalothin , cephradine , cefazolin and cefadroxil
- B.
Cefaclor , cefprozil , cefoxitin and cefuroxime
- C.
Ceftazidime & ceftriaxone
- D.
Cefotaxime
- E.
3 answer is correct
Correct Answer
E. 3 answer is correctExplanation
الدكتور ما Øكى بشكل ØµØ±ÙŠØ Ø§Ùˆ بالسلايد انو
الجيل الثالث باثر على
EKP
بس موجود بالسلايد انو الجيل الثالث اØسن جيل لل
-VE
وال EKP
تعبر G-veRate this question:
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- 27.
All of the above is correct regarding Cephalosporins and Carbapenems , ,EXCEPT:
- A.
Carbapenems is superior to Cephalosporins in resistant to b-lactamase enzymes.
- B.
Ceftazidime has best effectiveness against Pseudo. aeruginosa compared with CarbapenemsÂ
- C.
4th generation cephalosporins has less activate against +Ve bacteria than CarbapenemsÂ
- D.
Carbapenems has more activate against +Ve bacteria than Ceftazidime
- E.
Carbapenems is superior to Cephalosporins in broader antibacterial spectrum EXCEPT 3rd generation is superior than CarbapenemsÂ
- F.
Ceftazidime has best effectiveness against Pseudo. aeruginosa compared with CarbapenemsÂ
Correct Answer
E. Carbapenems is superior to Cephalosporins in broader antibacterial spectrum EXCEPT 3rd generation is superior than CarbapenemsÂExplanation
Carbapenems are generally considered to have a broader antibacterial spectrum compared to cephalosporins. However, the statement mentions that the 3rd generation of cephalosporins is actually superior to carbapenems in terms of antibacterial spectrum. This means that there are certain cephalosporins that have a wider range of activity against bacteria compared to carbapenems. Therefore, the statement is incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 28.
All of the above isn't correct regarding Carbapenems drugs , ,EXCEPT:
- A.
Carbapenems haven't broader antibacterial spectrum compared to other b-lactam classes such as penicillins and cephalosporins.
- B.
Imipenem doesn't work without cilastatin because cilastatin is consider good antibiotic
- C.
Ertapenem has more activity than Meropenem , so Ertapenem administered once daily while Meropenem twice
- D.
Meropenem doesn't work without cilastatin because cilastatin enhances stability of Meropenem
- E.
Thienamycin is one of it and it isn't consider Natural
Correct Answer
C. Ertapenem has more activity than Meropenem , so Ertapenem administered once daily while Meropenem twiceExplanation
Ertapenem has more activity than Meropenem, which is why it is administered once daily while Meropenem is administered twice daily. This means that Ertapenem is more potent and effective in treating bacterial infections compared to Meropenem, so it can be given in a lower frequency.Rate this question:
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- 29.
All of the above is correct regarding cilastatin , ,EXCEPT:
- A.
Cilastatin is renal peptidase inhibitor
- B.
Enhances stability of impenem
- C.
Enhances stability of Meropenem
- D.
Cilastatin is consider inhibitor to Dehydropeptidase Enzyme
- E.
All answe is correct
Correct Answer
C. Enhances stability of MeropenemExplanation
Cilastatin is a renal peptidase inhibitor and is considered an inhibitor to the Dehydropeptidase Enzyme. It enhances the stability of imipenem, but it does not enhance the stability of meropenem. Therefore, the statement "Enhances stability of Meropenem" is incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 30.
All of the above is correct regarding Monobactams (AZTREANAM) , ,EXCEPT:
- A.
Aztreanam is administered by intravenous injection
- B.
Aztreanam can be used for patients with allergies to penicillins and cephalosporins
- C.
Aztreanam has no activity against G+ve or aerobic bacteria
- D.
Aztreanam is active against G-ve aerobic bacteria e.g. Ps. aeruginosa
- E.
Aztreanam limited to use in hospitals.
- F.
Aztreanam limited to use in hospitals.
Correct Answer
C. Aztreanam has no activity against G+ve or aerobic bacteriaExplanation
Aztreanam is a monobactam antibiotic that is administered by intravenous injection and can be used for patients with allergies to penicillins and cephalosporins. It is active against G-ve aerobic bacteria, such as Ps. aeruginosa. However, it does not have any activity against G+ve or aerobic bacteria. Therefore, the statement "Aztreanam has no activity against G+ve or aerobic bacteria" is incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 31.
About MOA of penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, monobactams :
- A.
Work in final stage of peptidoglycan synthetic (cross-linking of the linear glycan strands)
- B.
Work in transglycosylation through transpeptidase enzymes
- C.
B-Lactam antibiotics act by inhibiting the carboxy/transpeptidase or penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) involved in the late stages of peptidoglycan biosynthesis.
- D.
The β-lactam antibiotics inhibit transpeptidases by acting as alternative substrates
- E.
All answer is correct
Correct Answer
E. All answer is correctExplanation
The given answer states that all of the statements provided are correct. The statements mentioned in the question explain the mechanism of action (MOA) of penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams. These antibiotics work in the final stage of peptidoglycan synthesis by inhibiting the cross-linking of the linear glycan strands. They also inhibit transglycosylation through transpeptidase enzymes, and they act as alternative substrates to inhibit transpeptidases. Additionally, β-lactam antibiotics inhibit carboxy/transpeptidase or penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) involved in the late stages of peptidoglycan biosynthesis. Therefore, all of the statements mentioned are correct.Rate this question:
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- 32.
About the Resistance to b-lactam antibiotics
- A.
Resistance to many b-lactam agents is common and is most often caused by b-lactamases or by mutation in the PBPs resulting in reduced affinity
- B.
Mycoplasma Bacteria has Resistance to b-lactam antibiotics because it hasn't cell wall to attack by b-lactam antibiotics
- C.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa has Resistance to b-lactam antibiotics because it hasn't porins to allowed to drug to enter to it
- D.
Acquired Resistance can develop when patient negligent complete does for the drug
- E.
All answer is correct
Correct Answer
E. All answer is correctExplanation
هذا السؤال الدكتور Øكاه Ø¨Ø§Ù„Ø´Ø±Ø ÙˆØ±ÙƒØ² كثيييييييييييييييير عليهRate this question:
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- 33.
All of the above is correct regarding About Beta-Lactamases, ,EXCEPT:
- A.
It isn't antibiotics ( It hasn't any method to kill the bacteria )
- B.
May be chromosomal or plasmid - borne, inducible or constitutive.
- C.
B-lactamase inhibitors including clavulanic acid, sulbactam and tazobactam have been developed
- D.
Sulbactam has a similar spectrum of activity aganist b-lactamases compared with clavulanic acid, but is more potent
- E.
Clavulanic acid has more protection against enzymes that are primarily active against penicillins compared with its activity against cephalosporins
Correct Answer
D. Sulbactam has a similar spectrum of activity aganist b-lactamases compared with clavulanic acid, but is more potentExplanation
Sulbactam and clavulanic acid are both beta-lactamase inhibitors that have been developed. They work by inhibiting the action of beta-lactamases, which are enzymes that can break down beta-lactam antibiotics and make them ineffective against bacteria. Both sulbactam and clavulanic acid have a similar spectrum of activity against beta-lactamases, meaning they can inhibit a wide range of these enzymes. However, sulbactam is more potent than clavulanic acid, meaning it is more effective at inhibiting the enzymes and restoring the activity of beta-lactam antibiotics.Rate this question:
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- 34.
All of the above is correct regarding Clavulanic acid ,EXCEPT:
- A.
Isolated from streptomyces species
- B.
It cant used alone
- C.
Clavulanic acid + Amoxicillin given orally
- D.
Ticarcillin+ Clavulanic acid given parenterally
- E.
We cant make combination of Meropenem with Clavulanic acid because Meropenem isn't need it
- F.
No answer is correct
Correct Answer
F. No answer is correctExplanation
The correct answer is "No answer is correct." This means that all of the statements provided in the question are correct and there is no exception. Clavulanic acid is indeed isolated from streptomyces species, it cannot be used alone and is commonly combined with amoxicillin orally or with ticarcillin parenterally. Additionally, the statement about not being able to make a combination of meropenem with clavulanic acid because meropenem does not need it is also correct.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Has been combined with both ampicillin and cefoperazone , but in both products the two ingredients were separate entities :
- A.
Penicillin
- B.
Clavulanic acid
- C.
Sulphone
- D.
Sulbactam
- E.
Tazobactam
Correct Answer
D. SulbactamExplanation
The given question states that sulbactam has been combined with both ampicillin and cefoperazone, but in both products, the two ingredients were separate entities. Therefore, the answer to the question is sulbactam.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Sulbactam & ampicillin, this problem was partly overcome by covalently linking the two molecules to create sultamicillin which is well absorbed following
- A.
Ophthalmic administration
- B.
Nasal administration
- C.
Oral administration
- D.
Parental administration
Correct Answer
C. Oral administrationExplanation
Sultamicillin, created by covalently linking sulbactam and ampicillin, is well absorbed following oral administration. This means that when sultamicillin is taken orally, it is efficiently absorbed into the bloodstream, allowing it to be effective in treating infections. However, the explanation does not provide any information about the absorption of sultamicillin following ophthalmic, nasal, or parental administration.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Piperacillin + tazobactam given:
- A.
Ophthalmic
- B.
Nasal
- C.
Orally
- D.
Parenterally
Correct Answer
D. ParenterallyExplanation
The correct answer is "parenterally" because piperacillin + tazobactam is a combination antibiotic that is typically administered through injection or infusion directly into the bloodstream. This route of administration allows for the medication to quickly reach the systemic circulation and exert its therapeutic effects throughout the body. Ophthalmic, nasal, and oral routes would not be appropriate for the administration of piperacillin + tazobactam.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Production of 6-APA through:
- A.
Fermentation from Penicillium mould
- B.
Fermentation from Penicillium yeast
- C.
Fermentation from Penicillium mould and yeast
Correct Answer
A. Fermentation from Penicillium mouldExplanation
The correct answer is fermentation from Penicillium mould because Penicillium mould is known to produce the enzyme penicillin acylase, which is necessary for the production of 6-APA (6-aminopenicillanic acid). This enzyme is used to convert penicillin G into 6-APA, which is a key intermediate in the synthesis of various penicillin antibiotics. Penicillium yeast may not possess the necessary enzyme for this conversion, and the combination of both mould and yeast may not be required for the production of 6-APA.Rate this question:
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- 39.
All cephalosporins possesing acetoxymethyl derivatives of :
- A.
7-ACA are orally active
- B.
6-ACA are orally active
- C.
7-ACA are orally inactive
- D.
6-ACA are orally inactive
- E.
No answer is correct
Correct Answer
C. 7-ACA are orally inactiveExplanation
Cephalosporins are a type of antibiotic that are classified based on their structure. The acetoxymethyl derivatives of 7-ACA (7-aminocephalosporanic acid) refers to a specific modification of the cephalosporin molecule. According to the given answer, cephalosporins with this modification are orally inactive, meaning they cannot be taken by mouth and must be administered through other routes such as injection. This is an important consideration when prescribing these antibiotics, as the route of administration can affect patient compliance and convenience.Rate this question:
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Nov 10, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jul 10, 2018Quiz Created by
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